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GARP 2016-FRR Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Exam Practice Test

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Total 342 questions

Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Questions and Answers

Question 1

Operational risk team for a large international bank is implementing business continuity planning (BCP). Which of the following BCP activities fall within the definition of operational risk and represent Basel II Accord's operational risk categories:

I. Damage to Physical Assets

II. Business Disruption and System Failures

III. Social Distancing Requirements

IV. Potential for Extreme Losses

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

III

C.

I and IV

D.

III and IV

Question 2

Which of the following statements explain how securitization makes the retail assets highly liquid and the balance sheet easier to manage?

I. By securitizing assets any lack of capital can be accommodated by selling the securitized bonds.

II. Any need to diversify credit risk can be achieved by selling bank's own securitized bonds and buying other bonds that increase diversification.

III. Securitization could be used to promote hedging by using limited market instruments.

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

I, II, III

C.

II, III

D.

II

Question 3

AlphaBank's management is evaluating how changes in its business environment could materially impact risk categories. As a result, bank's management decides to implement the structure, which facilitates the discussion in an integrative context, spanning market, credit, and operational risk factors, and encourages transparency and communication between risk disciplines. Which one of the following four approaches should the management choose to achieve this strategic goal?

Options:

A.

Regulatory risk management approach

B.

Enterprise risk management approach

C.

Scenario-based risk management approach

D.

Taxonomy-based risk management approach

Question 4

The data available to estimate the statistical distribution of bank losses is difficult to assemble for which of the following reasons?

I. The needed data is vast in quantity.

II. The data requires bringing together significantly different measures of risk.

III. Some risks are difficult to quantify and hence the data might involve subjective elements.

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

I, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III

Question 5

A trader for EtaBank wants to take a leveraged position in Collateralized Debt Obligations. These CDOs can be used in a repurchase transaction at a 20% haircut. Starting with $100 worth of CDOs, which one of the following four positions would completely utilize the available leverage?

Options:

A.

The trader can buy $100 in CDO's, and repo the CDO's to get back $100, less interest.

B.

The trader can buy $100 in CDO's, and repo the CDO's to get back $80, less interest.

C.

The trader can buy $100 in CDO's, and repo the CDO's to get back $60, plus interest.

D.

The trader can buy $100 in CDO's, and repo the CDO's to get back $20, plus interest.

Question 6

Asset and liability management is typically concerned with all of the following activities:

I. Maintaining the desired liquidity structure of the bank.

II. Managing the factors affecting the structure and composition of a bank's balance sheet.

III. Effectively transferring the interest rate risk in the banking book to the investment bank at a fair transfer price.

IV. Focusing on the circumstances impacting the stability of income the bank generates over time.

Options:

A.

I

B.

II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

Question 7

Which of the following statements presents an advantage of using risk and control self-assessments (RCSA) in the operational risk framework?

I. RCSA provides very accurate scoring of risks and controls due to its subjective nature.

II. RCSA program provides insight into risks that exist in a firm, but that may or may not have occurred before.

III. RCSA program can produce biased but transparent operational risk reporting.

IV. RCSA program allows each department to take ownership of its own risks and controls.

Options:

A.

I and III

B.

II and IV

C.

I, II and III

D.

II, III, and IV

Question 8

A bank considers issuing new capital to increase its Tier 1 capital levels. Which of the following financial instruments would most likely to be considered?

Options:

A.

Long-term and callable debt convertible to equity

B.

Convertible preferred shares

C.

Short-term callable debt

D.

Short-term debt convertible to non-cumulative preferred shares

Question 9

Company A needs to provide a risk probability/frequency score for its RCSA program. If the event is likely to happen once in 2 years, then the frequency score will be equal to:

Options:

A.

0.2

B.

0.5

C.

1

D.

2

Question 10

To ensure good risk management which of the following should be true about the CRO role and function?

Options:

A.

The CRO should receive compensation that is directly determined by the profit of the trading desk.

B.

The CRO should report to the CEO or the Board of Directors.

C.

The CRO should not be involved with the setting of risk limits.

D.

To ensure efficient flow of information the CRO should not be independent of business units.

Question 11

BetaFin has decided to use the hybrid RCSA approach because it believes that it fits its operational framework. Which of the following could be reasons to use the hybrid RCSA method?

I. BetaFin has previously created series of RCSA workshops, and the results of these workshops can be used to design the questionnaires.

II. BetaFin believes that using the questionnaire approach should be more useful.

III. BetaFin had used the questionnaire approach successfully for certain businesses and the workshop approach for others.

IV. BetaFin had already implemented a sophisticated RCSA IT-system.

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

I and III

C.

III and IV

D.

II, III, and IV

Question 12

Which one of the following four statements regarding the basic Net Interest Income model is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

Assets and liabilities have the same interest rate sensitivities.

B.

Effective repricing date can be different than contractual repricing.

C.

The amount of intermediated funds can be a function of interest rate levels.

D.

Net interest income risk does not address the impact of changing interest rates on bank equity value.

Question 13

Which one of the following four statements correctly identifies the Basel II Accord's definition of operational risk?

Options:

A.

Operational risk is all the risk that is not captured by market and credit risks.

B.

Operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed processes, people and systems or from external events.

C.

Operational risk is a risk arising from execution of a company's business functions.

D.

Operational risk is a form of risk that summarizes the risks a company or firm undertakes when it attempts to operate within a given field or industry.

Question 14

Mega Bank has $100 million in deposits on which it pays 3% interest, and $20 million in equity on which it pays no interest. The loan portfolio of $120 million earns an average rate of 10%. If the rates remain the same, what is the net interest income of Mega Bank?

Options:

A.

$2 million per year

B.

$5 million per year

C.

$9 million per year

D.

$12 million per year

Question 15

Mega Bank has $100 million in deposits on which it pays 3% interest, and $20 million in equity on which it pays no interest. The loan portfolio of $120 million earns an average rate of 10%. If the rates remain the same and Mega Bank is able to earn the same net interest income in perpetuity at a 5% discount rate, what will the present value of this holding be?

Options:

A.

$100 million

B.

$150 million

C.

$180 million

D.

$200 million

Question 16

A risk analyst at EtaBank wants to estimate the risk exposure in a leveraged position in Collateralized Debt Obligations. These particular CDOs can be used in a repurchase transaction at a 20% haircut. If the VaR on a $100 unleveraged position is estimated to be $30, what is the VaR for the final, fully leveraged position?

Options:

A.

$20

B.

$50

C.

$100

D.

$150

Question 17

Which one of the following four statements about market risk is correct? Market risk is

Options:

A.

The exposure to an adverse change in the credit quality in portfolios or of financial instruments.

B.

The maximum likely loss in the market value of portfolios and financial instruments over a given period of time.

C.

The maximum likely loss in the market value of portfolios and financial instruments caused by the failure of the counterparty to meet its obligations.

D.

The exposure to an adverse change in the market value of portfolios and financial instruments caused by a change in market prices or rates.

Question 18

Which one of the following four mathematical option pricing models is used most widely for pricing European options?

Options:

A.

The Black model

B.

The Black-Scholes model

C.

The Garman-Kohlhagen model

D.

The Heston model

Question 19

Which one of the following four statements on the seniority of corporate bonds is incorrect?

Options:

A.

Senior bonds typically have lower credit spreads than junior bonds with the same maturity and payment characteristics.

B.

Seniority refers to the priority of a bond in bankruptcy.

C.

Junior bonds always pay higher coupons than subordinated bonds.

D.

In bankruptcy, holders of senior bonds are paid in full before any holders of subordinated bonds receive payment.

Question 20

Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan is collateralized with $55,000. The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%. In this case, what will the bank's exposure at default (EAD) be?

Options:

A.

$25,000

B.

$50,000

C.

$75,000

D.

$105,000

Question 21

Which one of the following four alternatives lists the three most widely traded currencies on the global foreign exchange market, as of April 2007, in the decreasing order of market share? EUR is the abbreviation of the European euro, JPY is for the Japanese yen, and USD is for the United States dollar, respectively.

Options:

A.

JPY, EUR, USD

B.

USD, EUR, JPY

C.

USD, JPY, EUR

D.

EUR, USD, JPY

Question 22

To estimate the interest charges on the loan, an analyst should use one of the following four formulas:

Options:

A.

Loan interest = Risk-free rate - Probability of default x Loss given default + Spread

B.

Loan interest = Risk-free rate + Probability of default x Loss given default + Spread

C.

Loan interest = Risk-free rate - Probability of default x Loss given default - Spread

D.

Loan interest = Risk-free rate + Probability of default x Loss given default - Spread

Question 23

The potential failure of a manufacturer to honor a warranty might be called ____, whereas the potential failure of a borrower to fulfill its payment requirements, which include both the repayment of the amount borrowed, the principal and the contractual interest payments, would be called ___.

Options:

A.

Credit risk; market risk

B.

Market risk; credit risk

C.

Credit risk; performance risk

D.

Performance risk; credit risk

Question 24

Which one of the following four statements does identify correctly the relationship between the value of an option and perceived exchange rate volatility?

Options:

A.

With increases in perceived future foreign exchange volatility, the value of all foreign exchange

B.

As the perceived future foreign exchange volatility decreases, the value of all options increases.

C.

As the perceived future foreign exchange volatility increases, the value of all options increases.

D.

Option values can only change due to the factors related to the demand for specific options

Question 25

Gamma Bank is active in loan underwriting and securitization business, and given its collective credit exposure, it will be typically most interested in the following types of portfolio credit risk:

I. Expected loss

II. Duration

III. Unexpected loss

IV. Factor sensitivities

Options:

A.

I

B.

II

C.

I, III

D.

I, III, IV

Question 26

The value of which one of the following four option types is typically dependent on both the final price of its underlying asset and its own price history?

Options:

A.

Stout options

B.

Power options

C.

Chooser options

D.

Basket options

Question 27

In the United States, during the second quarter of 2009, transactions in foreign exchange derivative contracts comprised approximately what proportion of all types of derivative transactions between financial institutions?

Options:

A.

2%

B.

7%

C.

25%

D.

43%

Question 28

For which one of the following four reasons do corporate customers use foreign exchange derivatives?

I. To lock in the current value of foreign-denominated receivables

II. To lock in the current value of foreign-denominated payables

III. To lock in the value of expected future foreign-denominated receivables

IV. To lock in the value of expected future foreign-denominated payables

Options:

A.

II

B.

I and IV

C.

II and III

D.

I, II, III, IV

Question 29

Which of the following risk types are historically associated with credit derivatives?

I. Documentation risk

II. Definition of credit events

III. Occurrence of credit events

IV. Enterprise risk

Options:

A.

I, IV

B.

I, II

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III, IV

Question 30

A credit analyst wants to determine if her bank is taking too much credit risk. Which one of the following four strategies will typically provide the most convenient approach to quantify the credit risk exposure for the bank?

Options:

A.

Assessing aggregate exposure at default at various time points and at various confidence levels

B.

Simplifying individual credit exposures so that they can be combined into a simplified expression of portfolio risk for the bank

C.

Using stress testing techniques to forecast underlying macroeconomic factors and bank's idiosyncratic risks

D.

Analyzing distribution of bank's credit losses and mapping credit risks at various statistical levels

Question 31

An asset manager for a large mutual fund is considering forward exchange positions traded in a clearinghouse system and needs to mitigate the risks created as a result of this operation. Which of the following risks will be created as a result of the forward exchange transaction?

Options:

A.

Exchange rate risk

B.

Exchange rate and interest rate risk

C.

Credit risk

D.

Exchange rate and credit risk

Question 32

A risk manager is considering how to best quantify option price dynamics using mathematical option pricing models. Which of the following variables would most likely serve as an input in these models?

I. Implicit parameter estimate based on observed market prices

II. Estimates of sensitivity of option prices to parameter changes

III. Theoretical option determination based on assumptions

Options:

A.

I, III

B.

II

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III

Question 33

A credit rating analyst wants to determine the expected duration of the default time for a new three-year loan, which has a 2% likelihood of defaulting in the first year, a 3% likelihood of defaulting in the second year, and a 5% likelihood of defaulting the third year. What is the expected duration for this three-year loan?

Options:

A.

1.5 years

B.

2.1 years

C.

2.3 years

D.

3.7 years

Question 34

Which one of the following four statements regarding counterparty credit risk is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

Counterparty credit risk refers to the inability to realize gains in a contract with a counterparty due to its default.

B.

The exposure at default is variable due to fluctuations in swap valuations.

C.

The exposure at default can be negatively correlated to probability of default.

D.

Dynamic collateral provisions often increase counterparty risk considerably.

Question 35

A corporate bond was trading with 2%probability of default and 60% loss given default. Due to the credit crisis the probability of default increased to 10% and the loss given default increased to 100%. Assuming that the risk premium remained the same how did the credit spread change?

Options:

A.

Increased by 1120 basis points

B.

Increased by 880 basis points

C.

Increased by 1000 basis points

D.

Decreased by 880 basis points

Question 36

What does correlation between two variables measure?

Options:

A.

Symmetry of a joint distribution of the two variables.

B.

Association between the two variables and the strength of a possible statistical relationship.

C.

The proportion of variability in one of the variables that is explained by the other.

D.

Extreme returns of both variables.

Question 37

Which of the following statements represents a methodological difference between variance-covariance and full revaluation methods?

Options:

A.

Variance-covariance approach provides computational advantages over the full revaluation approach.

B.

Variance-covariance approach computes the VAR for each position separately, while the full revaluation method computes the VAR on a portfolio basis.

C.

Variance-covariance approach prices positions more accurately than the full revaluation approach.

D.

Variance-covariance approach uses only historic data to compute the covariance matrix.

Question 38

Unico Delta stock is trading at $20 per share, its annualized dividend yield is 5% and the 12-month LIBOR is 3%. Given these statistics, the 12-month futures contact will trade at:

Options:

A.

$10.08

B.

$20.04

C.

$30.04

D.

$40.08

Question 39

What do option deltas measure?

Options:

A.

The rate of change of the option value with respect to changes in volatility of the underlying instrument.

B.

The sensitivity of the option value to changes risk free interest rate.

C.

The rate of change of the option value with respect to changes in the price of the underlying instrument.

D.

The sensitivity of the option value to the passage of time.

Question 40

Rising TED spread is typically a sign of increase in what type of risk among large banks?

I. Credit risk

II. Market risk

III. Liquidity risk

IV. Operational risk

Options:

A.

I only

B.

II only

C.

I and IV

D.

I, II, and III

Question 41

A large multinational bank is concerned that their duration measures may not be accurate since the yield curve shifts are not parallel. Which of the following statements would be typically observed regarding variability of interest rates?

Options:

A.

Short-term rates are more variable than long-term rates.

B.

Short-term rates are less variable than long-term rates.

C.

Short-term rates are equally variable as long-term rates.

D.

Short-term rates and long-term rates always move in opposite directions.

Question 42

Which of the following risk measures are based on the underlying assumption that interest rates across all maturities change by exactly the same amount?

I. Present value of a basis point.

II. Yield volatility.

III. Macaulay's duration.

IV. Modified duration.

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

I, II, and III

C.

I, III, and IV

D.

I, II, III, and IV

Question 43

Which of the following statements regarding collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) is correct?

I. CDOs typically have loans or bonds as underlying collateral.

II. CDOs generally less risky than CMOs.

III. There is a correlation among defaults in the CDO collateral which should be considered in valuation of these complex instruments.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

I and III

C.

II and III

D.

I, II, and III

Question 44

Since most consumers of natural gas do not have the ability to store it, they contract with gas suppliers to receive a flow of natural gas equal to a specific number of MMBT's per day (MMBT is millions of British Termal Units, the unit in which gas futures are quoted on the U.S. markets). To protect against price increases with a bank, the natural gas consumer, concerned with the average price over the course of the month, will use the following contracts:

Options:

A.

American options

B.

Asian options

C.

Compound options

D.

Flexible volume options

Question 45

Which one of the following four relationships should be used to price equity forwards or futures?

Options:

A.

Equity forward or futures price = market equity price + (1 + risk-free rate – expected dividend rate)t

B.

Equity forward or futures price = market equity price x (1 - risk-free rate – expected dividend rate)t

C.

Equity forward or futures price = market equity price x (1 + risk-free rate – expected dividend rate)t

D.

Equity forward or futures price = market equity price + (1 + risk-free rate + expected dividend rate)t

Question 46

In early March, an energy trader takes a long position in natural gas futures for delivery in June, and hedges this exposure by taking a position in futures for July delivery. These trades were executed on the expectation that over time, the relative prices of the June and July contracts will come into alignment, the movement in these two contracts will largely mirror each other, and as a result of this, the net exposure is minimized and the position is protected against absolute price movements. However, if the two relative prices do not come into alignment with each other due to the scarcity of any of the two traded contracts in the futures market, the trader is likely to become exposed to the

Options:

A.

Location basis

B.

Quality basis

C.

Product basis

D.

Calendar spreads basis

Question 47

What are some of the drawbacks of correlation estimates? Which of the following statements identifies major problems with correlation calculations?

I. Correlation estimates are not able to capture increases in factor co-movements in extreme market scenarios.

II. Correlation estimates tend to be unstable.

III. Historical correlations may not forecast future correlations correctly.

IV. Correlation estimates assume normally distributed returns.

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

I and IV

C.

I, II and III

D.

II, III, and IV

Question 48

Which one of the following four statements represents a possible disadvantage of using total return swap to manage equity portfolio risks?

Options:

A.

Similar to the formal portfolio rebalancing strategy, the total return receiver needs to modify the size of the trading position.

B.

The total return receiver needs to incur the transaction costs of establishing an equity position.

C.

Similar to an equity forward position, the total return receiver does not get paid the dividend.

D.

The total return receiver does not have any voting rights.

Question 49

When the cost of gold is $1,100 per bullion and the 3-month forward contract trades at $900, a commodity trader seeks out arbitrage opportunities in this relationship. To capitalize on any arbitrage opportunities, the trader could implement which one of the following four strategies?

Options:

A.

Short-sell physical gold and take a long position in the futures contract

B.

Take a long position in physical gold and short-sell the futures contract

C.

Short-sell both physical gold and futures contract

D.

Take long positions in both physical gold and futures contract

Question 50

Which one of the following four interest rate related yield curves is used to revalue loan and deposit positions in banks?

Options:

A.

Derivative

B.

Bond

C.

Cash

D.

Basis

Question 51

John owns a bond portfolio worth $2 million with duration of 10. What positions must he take to hedge this portfolio against a small parallel shifts in the term structure.

Options:

A.

Long position worth $2 million with duration of 10.

B.

Long position worth $20 million with duration of 1.

C.

Short position worth $2 million with duration of 10.

D.

Short position worth $20 million with duration of 1.

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Total 342 questions