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ASIS PCI Professional Certified Investigator (ASIS-PCI) Exam Practice Test

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Total 141 questions

Professional Certified Investigator (ASIS-PCI) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is the term for receiving the money or property of another and fraudulently withholding or applying it for one's own use?

Options:

A.

Concealment

B.

Misrepresentation

C.

Conversion

D.

Representation

Question 2

The mostsignificant potential problem inan undercover investigation is the possibility that:

Options:

A.

no criminal charges will result

B.

there will be no financial recovery.

C.

the criminal activity will continue after the Investigation is completed

D.

the investigation will be exposed or compromised

Question 3

At the conclusion of a successful fraud investigation, a reporting technique that describes lessons learned and outlines requiring future control enhancements is known as a/an:

Options:

A.

postmortem

B.

corrective action

C.

problem definition

D.

audit referral

Question 4

formation considered to be indirect is:

Options:

A.

first-hand

B.

nor actionable.

C.

never admissible

D.

hearsay

Question 5

What are the most common tour sources of Information an investigator uses?

Options:

A.

Victims, witnesses, informants, and confidential informants

B.

Victims, bystanders, suspects, and snitches

C.

Victims, witnesses, informants, and bystanders

D.

Neighbors, relatives, witnesses, and bystanders

Question 6

The sealing arrangement and chair spacing of an interview room are dictated by the:

Options:

A.

investigator preference and expected length of the Interview.

B.

interviewee preference and office size.

C.

particular investigation and Interview techniques to be used

D.

time it takes to conduct the interview and layout of the room

Question 7

An undercover investigation has yielded enough information to allow the operative to be removed. What is the correct procedure m removing the operative?

Options:

A.

The operative should be removed with a plausible explanation, preferably when named as an offender

B.

The operative should be removed prior to any Interviews taking place with suspected offenders

C.

The operative should never remain in place even If their cover story has not been compromised.

D.

The operative should be removed as soon as possible

Question 8

A Professional Certified Investigator (PCI) is conducting an internal theft investigation A subject has been identified and mote people may be involved The PCI wants to use human and electronic surveillance techniques to investigate further The PCI's next step is to

Options:

A.

purchase or tent equipment that will be used

B.

conduct an initial operation to determine if further action is required.

C.

consult legal counsel to ensure that the they do not violate laws or regulations

D.

meet with local law enforcement to review the case and request permission for the operation

Question 9

When coven physical surveillance is not possible, the investigator should

Options:

A.

attempt technical surveillance

B.

close the case file and report to the client/employer.

C.

switch to interviewing all subjects as soon as possible

D.

conduct physical surveillance, ignoring risk of disclosing the investigation

Question 10

Basic rules surrounding evidence collection are to:

Options:

A.

get all evidence thatcan have any bearing on the case, mark It. properly wrap, package, and preserve from contamination: establish a chain of custody and show continuity between the discovery of the evidence and its subsequent presentation

B.

video record all evidence, collect the minimal amount of evidence necessary to support the facts and circumstances, mark the evidence, secure the evidence until presentation to a court of law

C.

collect any evidence relevant to the case, secure the evidence unless otherwise requested by management, establish a chain of custody, mark all evidence with "the mark" of the primary investigator

D.

secure the scene of the offense, mark all evidence, establish chain of custody, set all evidence aside in one central location for later Identification.

Question 11

Which of the following is a quality found in a positive interview attitude?

Options:

A.

Congruence

B.

Caution

C.

Conformance

D.

Conjuncture

Question 12

If an investigator has a conflict of interest, should:

Options:

A.

request a formal mediation process to provide the details of the conflict

B.

avoid allowing the conflict to interfere with the investigation

C.

disclose the conflict lo the client or the employer

D.

ignore the conflict and move forward with the investigation

Question 13

Once selected and sworn in. the jury is questioned by the attorneys and/or the judge about background and possible bias. This process is known as:

Options:

A.

voir dire

B.

habeas corpus

C.

corpus delicti

D.

prima facie

Question 14

Explanations of why people steal have historically referred to the Theft Triangle, which consists of:

Options:

A.

readily available items, the desire for emotional needs, and opportunity

B.

a desire,the need for self-esteem, and minimal punishment if detected

C.

a want, a low probability of detection, and a criminal inclination

D.

a need or want, rationalization, and opportunity.

Question 15

An officer who plants the seed of an idea in another person's mind to do wrong can be accused of:

Options:

A.

coercion

B.

conspiracy.

C.

entrapment

D.

solicitation.

Question 16

Al MINIMUM which of the following digital devices should an investigation unit have at their disposal?

Options:

A.

Radio frequency (RF) blocking bag

B.

Separate digital recorder and camera

C.

Global Positioning System (GPS) trackers

D.

Personal smart phone for recordings and photographs

Question 17

When an interviewer is seeking a confession, it Is most important to:

Options:

A.

stress the importance of the matter under investigation

B.

consider the interviewee's behavioral indicators of deception

C.

help the interviewee to rationalize actions and avoid embarrassment

D.

convince the Interviewee that it is futile to avoid confessing

Question 18

A floating-point questioning strategy:

Options:

A.

takes cues from a second interviewer

B.

determines The truthfulness of each response as questions are asked

C.

continuously re-evaluates a hypotheses as information is obtained

D.

uses continuous monologue with little time for interviewee to respond

Question 19

What is the purpose of link analysis?

Options:

A.

Trace malicious software to its creator in criminal exploits

B.

Identify interconnections between people, places, and activities

C.

Track illegal money from Inception of criminal activity until it is laundered

D.

Examine suspects in an investigation to determine who committed the illegal act

Question 20

The primary benefit of maintaining eye contact between the interviewer and the interviewee during an interview is that it:

Options:

A.

promotes rapport

B.

establishes the dominance of the Interviewer.

C.

intimidates the interviewee

D.

reveals when the interviewee is being deceptive

Question 21

Pocketing small amounts from incoming payments and then applying subsequent remittances on other items to cover the missing cash is an example of:

Options:

A.

replacement.

B.

fraud.

C.

kiting.

D.

lapping

Question 22

The primary reason for an investigator to use closed questions at the beginning of an interview is to:

Options:

A.

encourage affirmative responses

B.

elicit a physical reaction

C.

put the intervieweeal ease

D.

limit the scope of responses

Question 23

What is one of The three 'i's?

Options:

A.

intellect

B.

Intuition

C.

Initiative

D.

Information

Question 24

The four principle characteristics of internal theft scams are

Options:

A.

diversion, conversion, disguise, and divergence.

B.

diversion, disguise, divergence, and dilution

C.

diversion,conversion, disguise, and convolution

D.

diversion, conversion, illicit deceit, and defalcation

Question 25

By definition, the crime of "conspiracy" requires

Options:

A.

one or more persons profiting from an illegal act.

B.

an agreement by two or more persons to commit an illegal act.

C.

two or more persons committing a federal illegal act

D.

premeditation on by one or more persons to commit an Illegal act.

Question 26

Allowing an accounts payable clerk access to the vendor master file so the clerk can add or delete names is a violation of which of the following fraud prevention practices?

Options:

A.

Offline entry controls and limits

B.

Separation of duties

C.

Signature authorities

D.

Rotation of duties

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an interrogation?

Options:

A.

Accusatory

B.

Extensive planning

C.

Dialogue

D.

Structure

Question 28

Which of the following relates to the influence of an investigator's behavior on an interviewee's behavior?

Options:

A.

Adelphi technique

B.

Systems approach

C.

Stockholm syndrome

D.

Pygmalion effect

Question 29

Latent prints usually refer to:

Options:

A.

Impressions used for Identification purposes

B.

impressions that are left only by sweat

C.

Impressions made using Ink

D.

Impressions left at a crime scene

Question 30

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when using drones as a tool for surveillance in investigations?

Options:

A.

Proper maintenance and repair

B.

Technical specification and user manual

C.

Legal consideration and requirement for the use

D.

Comprehensive training and opportunity practice

Question 31

Misappropriation of trust funds or money held in any fiduciary capacity is referred to as:

Options:

A.

concealment

B.

defalcation.

C.

conversion

D.

switching

Question 32

Confirming legal problems, potential conflicts of Interest, and undisclosed affiliations or identities are all aspects of which type of investigation?

Options:

A.

Fraud

B.

Industrial espionage

C.

Due diligence

D.

Embezzlement

Question 33

Which of the following is recommended for the security professional when testifying?

Options:

A.

Avoid pretrial contact with physical evidence since it could be considered tampering

B.

Ask to speak to the legal counselor if the security professional does not know the answer.

C.

Answer only the question that is asked

D.

Only answer questions asked in advance

Question 34

One quality requited of an investigative finding is that the finding:

Options:

A.

does not require corroboration

B.

is based on a series of assumptions

C.

should be traceable to information garnered

D.

does not need to meet the burden of proof.

Question 35

in most jurisdictions, qualifying as an expert witness primarily requires:

Options:

A.

professional certification as an expert witness in a specific field

B.

experience as a witness on a number of prior cases

C.

the witness to have authored relevant professional publications

D.

evidence of the education, experience, and professional credentials of the witness

Question 36

in the FBI's Computer Analysis Response Team programs, the two-pronged approach to forensic examinations consists of investigations and

Options:

A.

education

B.

training

C.

legal support

D.

laboratory support

Question 37

Which of the following is among the most Important and overlooked members of an undercover team?

Options:

A.

Lawyer

B.

Corporate security

C.

Human resource manager

D.

Client representative

Question 38

During preparation tor courtroom testimony, the investigator should:

Options:

A.

practice providing as much information as possible

B.

display emotions for emphasis

C.

tell the attorney if there is a weak point in the case

D.

provide opinions to support the facts

Question 39

The practice of keeping data about sources of information is most commonly referred to as:

Options:

A.

carding

B.

filing

C.

holding

D.

securing

Question 40

An interviewer/interrogator is much more likely to gain the cooperation of an individual by exhibiting a/an:

Options:

A.

angry and aggressive manner

B.

cairn manner.

C.

Easygoingand lackadaisical manner.

D.

businesslike. impersonal manner.

Question 41

Altering a stock certificate to inaccurately list the owner of the certificate with intent to defraud is best described as

Options:

A.

false representation

B.

false entry in corporate records

C.

forgery

D.

identity theft

Question 42

The primary purpose of creating a crime scene sketch is to:

Options:

A.

assist investigators in documenting the crime scene and cataloging evidence

B.

assist prosecutors, judges, and juries during prosecution

C.

record the exact locations of pieces of evidence and their physical relation to other pieces of evidence and the surroundings.

D.

provide a permanent record of the crime scene in case theoriginal photographic evidence is lost or destroyed

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Total 141 questions