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iSQI CTFL_Syll_4.0 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Exam Practice Test

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Total 200 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is true?

Options:

A.

Only developers and testers should be involved in retrospectives, as involving people in other roles is very likely to prevent developers and testers from having open and constructive discussions that really help identify process improvements

B.

Retrospectives can be very effective in identifying process improvements and can also be very efficient and cost-effective especially since, unlike reviews, they do not require any follow-up activities

C.

On Agile projects, well-conducted retrospectives at the end of each iteration can help the team reduce and sometimes even eliminate the need for daily stand-up meetings

D.

During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle

Question 2

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

Question 3

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

Question 4

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

B.

Defines test cases at a low level, close to the implementation, using unit test frameworks.

C.

Is primarily focused on non-functional testing techniques to ensure system reliability and performance.

D.

Requires testing to be performed after development is completed to validate software functionality.

Question 5

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

Options:

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

Question 6

Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?

Options:

A.

Test plans

B.

Source code

C.

Compiled code

D.

Formal models

Question 7

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing duringexploratory testing?

Options:

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

Question 8

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Testing the software under test (SUT) based on the design is black-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour is experience based testing.

B.

Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.

C.

Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas testing the specification based behaviour without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.

D.

Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without pre-written test cases is experience based testing.

Question 9

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumeric characters, and its first character must be a letter. As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.

What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

3

Question 10

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

Options:

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

Question 11

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive.

Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is true?

Options:

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

Question 12

An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.

Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)

Options:

A.

1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x

B.

aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x

C.

1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

D.

1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby

Question 13

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

Question 14

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Question # 14

Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5

B.

TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1

D.

TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3

Question 15

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:

Question # 15

What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 16

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stories should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

Question 18

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product:

1.Risk register

2.Risk information

3.Test cases

4.Test conditions

Category of work products:

Options:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C.

Test design work products

D.

Test monitoring and control work products

E.

1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

F.

1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

G.

1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

Question 19

A test manager has started a cycle of testing for an e-commerce application. The reason for testing is the change in the protocol for connecting to the payment gateway because of new regulations. Which of the following correctly names this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement testing

B.

System integration testing

C.

Beta testing

D.

Maintenance testing

Question 20

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Configuration Management Tool

B.

Incident Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Test Execution tool

Question 21

An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?

Options:

A.

Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.

B.

Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better.

C.

Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner

D.

Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.

Question 22

Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is true?

Options:

A.

Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality characteristic

B.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends tocover

C.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be

D.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be

Question 23

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

Options:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

Question 24

A test status report should:

Options:

A.

specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.

be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.

always be based on the same template within an organization, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented

D.

specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organization that were chosen at the outset of the test project

Question 25

Which ONE of the following options contains the statements (I - V) that MOST ACCURATELY characterize acceptance test levels?

I. Acceptance test levels focus on validating and demonstrating readiness for deployment.

II. Acceptance test levels must be performed by an independent test team.

III. Acceptance test levels often require specific support, such as test harnesses.

IV. Acceptance test levels ideally should be performed by the intended users.

V. Acceptance test levels use component specifications as the test basis for the system.

Options:

A.

Statements I, III, and V

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I and IV

D.

Statements II and V

Question 26

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

Options:

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

Question 27

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test project?

Options:

A.

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

Question 28

Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

Question # 28

Which ONE of the following optionsorganizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?

Options:

A.

{TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}

B.

{TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}

C.

{TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}

D.

{TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

Question 29

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask theuser to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[II]. Expected result

[III]. Actual result

[IV]. Test level

[V]. Root cause

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to correctly specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[I]and [IV]

B.

[II]and [III]

C.

[II]. [Ill] and [V]

D.

[I]. [IV] and [V]

Question 30

Which of the following IS the BEST example of whole team approach

Options:

A.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

D.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

Question 31

A typical test objective is to:

Options:

A.

determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases

B.

verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements

C.

plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

Question 32

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

Options:

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

Question 33

Which of the following types of bug are more likely to be found by static testing then by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

A sub-system that does not perform the intended functionality

B.

Variables that were declared in the code without initialization

C.

Functions that take much longer time to complete than expected

D.

Crashes of the application

Question 34

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

Question 35

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

Question 36

Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?

Options:

A.

Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed

B.

Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments

C.

Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews.

D.

Defect reports should be created for every review found

Question 37

Consider the followinguser storyand itsacceptance criteria:

User Story:

As a member of the"Agnotoly"association, I want to be able topay the association’s dues through an automatic payment methodso that I can forget about payment deadlines.

Acceptance Criteria:

    The member can only pay with‘Agnesis Master’ credit card.

    The member must register theircell phone number.

    The member must register thecredit cardin the payment system.

    The member must select apayment method (monthly or annual).

    The member mustaccept the terms and conditionsfor the selected method.

    If terms and conditions are accepted, the system sends anOTP(one-time password) to the member’s phone for verification.

    The payment method isregistered only after OTP verification.

    Once the payment method is registered, the system will charge on the first business day of the following month.

Test Cycle Results:

    Members successfully paid dues using the credit card.

    Payments were processedmonthly and for over a year.

Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered?

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

B.

Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

C.

All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.

D.

Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

Question 38

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

Question 39

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during:

Options:

A.

test execution

B.

test design

C.

test analysis

D.

test planning

Question 40

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 41

Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

Options:

A.

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B.

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

C.

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

D.

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

Question 42

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

Question 43

What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?

Options:

A.

The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success.

B.

The need for constant system quality assurance and improvements.

C.

A misconception that software verification is unnecessary

D.

The idea that fixing defects is NOT important to meeting user needs.

Question 44

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Question # 44

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

Question 45

Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Membl,..., Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1. 2, 3, 5, 8,13, 21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:

Membl = 3 Memb2 = 3 Memb3 = 3

Memb4 = 21 Memb5 = 3 Memb6 = 1

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values: most optimistic estimate = 1, most likely estimate = 3, and most pessimistic estimate = 21

B.

Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4) and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)

D.

Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before to proceed to another estimation round

Question 46

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLYNOTpart of atest progress report?

Options:

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

Question 47

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is false?

Options:

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed

Question 48

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

Question 49

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualizing the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project

Question 50

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modularization

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyze

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

Question 51

Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases:

“As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online”

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a]The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password

[b]To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions

[c]To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered

[d]To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e]After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written first?

Options:

A.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue

B.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue

C.

The user accesses the website with username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card EV

D.

The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Question 52

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

Options:

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

Question 53

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

Question 54

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

Question 55

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

Question 56

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test. While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met. This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed.

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error

C.

The slowdown is an error the memory leak is a defect

D.

The slowdown is a defect the memory leak is a failure

Question 57

Scenario 2 “Big Drop”:

The management of the company “The Big Drop” has instructed the Product Team to configure the discounts in the sales terminals so that frequent customers receive an additional discount on top of a bulk discount, based on the following table:

Question # 57

Question:

You must design test cases to represent allPOSSIBLEandREALbusiness scenarios. Test cases should be generated using the input data provided in the table above.

How many POSSIBLE decision rules can be extracted from the table above?

Options:

A.

5 decision rules

B.

32 decision rules

C.

8 decision rules

D.

6 decision rules

Question 58

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

Options:

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

Question 59

Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the“World Organization for Happy Tomatoes”has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

Question # 59

Using theequivalence partitioningtechnique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,10,21,40}

B.

{8,10,25,40}

C.

{7,10,25,29}

D.

{7,10,25,40}

Question 60

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Question # 60

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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