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Zscaler ZTCA Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Exam Practice Test

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Total 75 questions

Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

What purpose do Data Loss controls serve? (Select all that apply)

Options:

A.

Detecting data theft through malware.

B.

Preventing non-malicious and/or accidental data leakage.

C.

Error checking and validation to ensure data integrity.

D.

Intercepting data poisoning attempts from authorized users.

Question 2

With the first stage, Verify, being about identity and context, the “who,” the “what,” and the “where,” the second stage of Zero Trust is about:

Options:

A.

Two-factor authentication.

B.

Controlling content and access.

C.

Seeing where the traffic is going, either an IaaS/PaaS destination or a SaaS destination.

D.

Analyzing various threat actors in the wild.

Question 3

Which crucial step occurs during the “Enforce Policy” stage?

Options:

A.

Connecting an initiator to internal and external applications from the Zero Trust Exchange.

B.

A handshake between the initiator and destination application.

C.

The setup of an enterprise SSO or AD server for credential validation.

D.

Verification of identity and context of the connection.

Question 4

Connections approved by the Zero Trust Exchange must then enable permanent network-level access for at least 30 days.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 5

Why have traditional networks relied on implicit trust to connect initiators to workloads?

Options:

A.

Security breaches were historically less frequent.

B.

TCP/IP, the foundation of most networks, inherently favors connectivity over trust.

C.

It was easier to create direct P2P links between all devices, providing connectivity for rapid-downloading applications like BitTorrent and file sharing.

D.

Layer 3 ACLs are sufficient for blocking untrusted initiators.

Question 6

Verification of user and device identity is to be enabled for:

Options:

A.

Any person who wants to connect to an enterprise-controlled application, including employees, third parties, and partners.

B.

Remote employees only.

C.

Untrusted third parties only.

D.

Employees connecting from unmanaged endpoint devices only.

Question 7

Data center applications are moving to:

Options:

A.

The branch.

B.

Castle and moat type architectures.

C.

The DMZ.

D.

The cloud.

Question 8

Risk within the Zero Trust Exchange is a dynamic value calculated to:

Options:

A.

Be hashed, truncated, and stored in an obfuscated manner.

B.

Give visibility of risky activity and allow enterprises to set acceptable thresholds of risk.

C.

Provide access to the network.

D.

Reduce processing load by enabling low-risk traffic to bypass less critical inspections.

Question 9

Assessing risk is:

Options:

A.

A non-recurring process to determine how to treat requests from a specific initiator for the next 30 days.

B.

Universal control across the entire enterprise. Once assessed, risk applies to all traffic from that enterprise.

C.

An ongoing process to verify publicly known bad actor IP addresses.

D.

An assessment of all things related to the current connection, previous context, and considered on an ongoing basis for future requests, thus allowing for unique and dynamic changes in the consideration of risk.

Question 10

By definition, Zero Trust connections are:

Options:

A.

Independent of any network for control or trust.

B.

Highly dependent on the network type, including whether that network is IPv4 or IPv6.

C.

Based purely on a network appliance, constrained by how much CPU may be available.

D.

Hairpinned through service chaining by an SD-WAN appliance.

Question 11

In a Zero Trust architecture, should applications that you manage have any exposed inbound listeners?

Options:

A.

Inbound listener ports should only be accessible to those initiators who are allowed access. All other access, and visibility, must be denied.

B.

Yes, allow anyone to connect to the listening service, just like having your website on the internet for anyone to connect with.

C.

Yes, allow all inbound to any service; the firewall will protect the application.

D.

Only allow access to those who share the same network.

Question 12

What are two categories of destination applications in Zero Trust?

Options:

A.

(a) Known: the application has been categorized, classified, and updated dynamically; (b) Unknown: the application does not meet an existing category and must be profiled, learned, and controlled conditionally.

B.

(a) Google, (b) non-Google.

C.

(a) SaaS, (b) PaaS.

D.

(a) all things on the internet, (b) all things internal.

Question 13

What is the security risk inherent in creating a split tunnel VPN, where some traffic is routed over the VPN tunnel and the rest over a direct internet connection?

Options:

A.

The VPN traffic is exempted from any security policies configured on the direct internet uplink router or appliance.

B.

You no longer have the visibility required to make decisions on those traffic flows that are going directly out to the internet.

C.

A split ACL list, which means only half the rules will be enforced.

D.

An issue between the built-in client VPN agent on most modern operating systems and a third-party VPN gateway upstream.

Question 14

The first step of verifying identity is the “who.” And “who” is not just who is the user, but also, in addition:

Options:

A.

The destination, who can also be a user.

B.

The device, and understanding what levels of access that device has.

C.

The type of bare-metal server that the packets traverse on their way to the destination.

D.

The IaaS destination that the user is connecting to.

Question 15

What facilitates constant and uniform application of policy enforcement?

Options:

A.

Open and clear communication channels across Network and Security teams.

B.

The policy remains the same, conditionally, and is applied equally regardless of the location of the enforcement point.

C.

Leveraging policy enforcement capabilities available through traditional security appliances.

D.

Application access happens on-premises, typically either from within the data center or the corporate campus, where large security stacks are deployed.

Question 16

What needs to be known to help inform policy decision enforcement?

Options:

A.

The time of day.

B.

The location and time zone of the initiator.

C.

Full context of the user, application, device posture, and related conditions.

D.

The verified identity of the initiator.

Question 17

There are three sections that make up a successful Zero Trust architecture: (1) Verify Identity and Context, (2) Control Content and Access, and (3) ______.

Options:

A.

Integration with an SSO provider.

B.

SAML- and SCIM-based authentication for assessing posture.

C.

Enforce Policy.

D.

Data Loss Prevention.

Question 18

Identity is a binary decision, not to be revisited. Once a decision is made about who, what, and where, that is final for at least 48 hours.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 19

How is policy enforcement in Zero Trust done?

Options:

A.

As a binary decision of allow or block.

B.

Without trust, for example Zero Trust.

C.

Conditionally, in that an allow or a block will have additional controls assigned, for example Allow and isolate, or Block and Deceive.

D.

At the network level, by source IP.

Question 20

A Zero Trust solution must account for an enterprise’s risk tolerance via:

Options:

A.

Industry analyst firms such as Gartner and Forrester should provide the best guidance.

B.

A Zero Trust certification process, whereby every employee at the company is Zero Trust certified.

C.

A dynamic risk score, which feeds into a decision engine that determines whether access should be granted.

D.

The enterprise security architecture team should create a standard formula to calculate a fixed risk score for each unique initiator based on previous security incidents.

Question 21

What options are available to an enterprise whose cybersecurity solution does not provide inline content inspection?

Options:

A.

Leverage the lowest-latency path, which typically involves service chaining to send traffic to a specialized branch where a stack of firewalls is hosted on a rack.

B.

Only view the metadata of a connection, such as who is calling and where they are calling.

C.

Optimize their throughput.

D.

Leverage tremendous cost savings, since TLS/SSL connections have a per-packet premium cost associated with processing them.

Question 22

Zero Trust access can work over any type of network.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Total 75 questions