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Zscaler ZDTA Zscaler Digital Transformation Administrator Exam Practice Test

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Total 125 questions

Zscaler Digital Transformation Administrator Questions and Answers

Question 1

Zscaler Data Protection supports custom dictionaries.

What actions can administrators take with these dictionaries to protect data in motion?

Options:

A.

Define specific keywords, phrases, or patterns relevant to their organization's sensitive data policy.

B.

Define specific governance and regulations relevant to their organization's sensitive data policy.

C.

Define specific SaaS tenant relevant to their organization's sensitive data policy

D.

Define specific file types relevant to their organization's sensitive data policy.

Question 2

A user has opened a support case to complain about poor user experience when trying to manage their AWS resources. How could a helpdesk administrator get a useful root cause analysis to help isolate the issue in the least amount of time?

Options:

A.

Check the Zscaler Trust page for any indications of cloud outages or incidents that would be causing a slowdown.

B.

Check the user's ZDX score for a period of low score for AWS and use Analyze Score to get the ZDX Y-Engine analysis.

C.

Do a Deep Trace on the user's traffic and check for excessive DNS resolution times and other slowdowns.

D.

Initiate a packet capture from Zscaler Client Connector and escalate the case to have the trace analyzed for root cause.

Question 3

What conditions can be referenced for Trusted Network Detection?

Options:

A.

Hostname Resolution, Network Adapter IP, Default Gateway

B.

DNS Servers, DNS Search Domain, Network Adapter IP

C.

Hostname Resolution, DNS Servers, Geo Location

D.

DNS Search Domain, DNS Server, Hostname Resolution

Question 4

Malware Protection inside HTTPS connections is performed using which parts of the Zero Trust Exchange?

Options:

A.

Deception creating decoy files for malware to discover.

B.

Application Segmentation of users to specific private applications.

C.

TLS Inspection decrypting traffic to compare signatures for known risks.

D.

Data Loss Protection comparing saved filenames for known risks.

Question 5

Which is an example of Inline Data Protection?

Options:

A.

Preventing the copying of a sensitive document to a USB drive.

B.

Preventing the sharing of a sensitive document in OneDrive.

C.

Analyzing a customer’s M365 tenant for security best practices.

D.

Blocking the attachment of a sensitive document in webmail.

Question 6

Which of the following components is installed on an endpoint to connect users to the Zero Trust Exchange regardless of their location - home, work, while traveling, etc.?

Options:

A.

Client connector

B.

Private Service Edge

C.

IPSec/GRE Tunnel

D.

App Connector

Question 7

What does the user risk score enable a user to do?

Options:

A.

Compare the user risk score with other companies to evaluate users vs other companies.

B.

Determine whether or not a user is authorized to view unencrypted data.

C.

Configure stronger user-specific policies to monitor & control user-level risk exposure.

D.

Determine if a user has been compromised

Question 8

An organization has more than one ZIA instance, each on different clouds. The organization is using the same login domain for both and upon login users are given this menu in ZCC asking which cloud they would like to join. What steps could an Administrator take to avoid having this menu appear?

Options:

A.

Customize an MSI version of the ZCC file specifying the USERDOMAIN variable.

B.

Customize an MSI version of the ZCC file specifying the CLOUDNAME variable.

C.

Federate the login domain between two different IDP instances.

D.

Create only one SAML integration with the desired ZIA instance.

Question 9

According to the Zero Trust Exchange Functional Services Diagram, which services does Antivirus belong to?

Options:

A.

Platform Services

B.

Access Control Services

C.

Security Services

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention Services

Question 10

What is the default timer in ZDX Advanced for web probes to be sent?

Options:

A.

1 minute

B.

10 minutes

C.

30 minutes

D.

5 minutes

Question 11

An administrator needs to SSL inspect all traffic but one specific URL category. The administrator decides to create two policies, one to inspect all traffic and another one to bypass the specific category. What is the logical sequence in which they have to appear in the list?

Options:

A.

Both policies are incompatible, so it is not possible to have them together.

B.

First the policy for the exception Category, then further down the list the policy for the generic "inspect all."

C.

First the policy for the generic "inspect all", then further down the list the policy for the exception Category.

D.

All policies both generic and specific will be evaluated so no specific order is required.

Question 12

Which of the following is a unified management console for internet and SaaS applications, private applications, digital experience monitoring and endpoint agents?

Options:

A.

identity Admin Portal

B.

Mobile Admin Portal

C.

Experience Center

D.

One API

Question 13

What are the two types of Alert Rules that can be defined?

Options:

A.

ThreatLabZ pre-defined and customer defined

B.

Snort defined and 3rd party defined

C.

ThreatLabZ pre-defined and 3rd party defined

D.

Customer defined and 3rd party defined

Question 14

For a deployment using both ZIA and ZPA set of services, what is the best authentication solution?

Options:

A.

Use forms Authentication in ZPA and SAML in ZIA

B.

Use forms Authentication in ZIA and SAML in ZPA

C.

Configure Authentication using SAML on both ZIA and ZPA

D.

Use forms Authentication for both ZIA and ZPA

Question 15

What are the two types of Probe supported in ZDX?

Options:

A.

Web Probes and Cloud Path Probes

B.

Application Probes and Network Probes

C.

Page Speed Probes and Connection Speed Probes

D.

SSaas Probes and Router Probes

Question 16

The Security Alerts section of the Alerts dashboard has a graph showing what information?

Options:

A.

Top 5 Malware Programs Detected

B.

Top 5 Viruses by Region

C.

Top 5 Threats by Systems Impacted

D.

Top 5 Unified Threat Yara Options

Question 17

The security exceptions allow list for Advanced Threat Protection apply to which of the following Policies?

Options:

A.

Sandbox

B.

URL Filtering

C.

File Type Control

D.

IPS Control

Question 18

What is the ZIA feature that ensures certain SaaS applications cannot be accessed from an unmanaged device?

Options:

A.

Tenant Restriction

B.

Identity Proxy

C.

Out-of-band Application Access

D.

SaaS Application Access

Question 19

Which type of malware is specifically used to deliver other malware?

Options:

A.

RAT

B.

Maldocs

C.

Downloaders

D.

Exploitation tool

Question 20

Which of the following connects Zscaler users to the nearest Microsoft 365 servers for a better experience?

Options:

A.

Single DNS resolver with forwarders providing centralized results

B.

Private MPLS in each branch office providing connection

C.

Multiple distributed DNS resolvers providing local results

D.

Optimized TCP Scaling for maximum throughput of files

Question 21

What is the scale used to represent a users Zscaler Digital Experience (ZDX) score?

Options:

A.

1-100

B.

1-10

C.

1 - 1000

D.

0 - 50

Question 22

What is the recommended minimum number of App connectors needed to ensure resiliency?

Options:

A.

2

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

Question 23

When users are authenticated using SAML, what are the two most efficient ways of provisioning the users?

Options:

A.

Hosted User Database and Directory Server Synchronization

B.

SAML and Hosted User Database

C.

SCIM and Directory Server Synchronization

D.

SCIM and SAML Autoprovisioning

Question 24

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks are a type of injection, in which malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites. XSS includes which of the following?

Options:

A.

Spyware Callback

B.

Anonymizers

C.

Cookie Stealing

D.

IRC Tunneling

Question 25

What does Advanced Threat Protection defend users from?

Options:

A.

Vulnerable JavaScripts

B.

Large iFrames

C.

Malicious active content

D.

Command injection attacks

Question 26

Which of the following is unrelated to the properties of 'Trusted Networks'?

Options:

A.

DNS Server

B.

Default Gateway

C.

Org ID

D.

Network Range

Question 27

What is one of the four steps of a cyber attack?

Options:

A.

Find Cash Safe

B.

Find Email Addresses

C.

Find Least Secure Office Building

D.

Find Attack Surface

Question 28

In support of data privacy about TLS/SSL inspection, when you subscribe to ZIA, you enter into what kind of agreement?

Options:

A.

Zscaler Compliance Policy

B.

Zscaler Privacy Policy

C.

Acceptable Use Policy

D.

Zscaler Data Processing Agreement

Question 29

Which are valid criteria for use in Access Policy Rules for ZPA?

Options:

A.

Group Membership, ZIA Risk Score, Domain Joined, Certificate Trust

B.

Username, Trusted Network Status, Password, Location

C.

SCIM Group, Time of Day, Client Type, Country Code

D.

Department, SNI, Branch Connector Group, Machine Group

Question 30

What is Zscaler's rotation policy for intermediate certificate authority certificates?

Options:

A.

Certificates are rotated every 90 days and have a 180-day expiration.

B.

Lifetime certificates have no expiration date.

C.

Certificates are rotated every seven days and have a 14-day expiration.

D.

Certificates are issued dynamically and expire in 24 hours.

Question 31

Which type of attack plants malware on commonly accessed services?

Options:

A.

Remote access trojans

B.

Phishing

C.

Exploit kits

D.

Watering hole attack

Question 32

Which of the following are correct request methods when configuring a URL filtering rule with a Caution action?

Options:

A.

Connect, Get, Head

B.

Options, Delete, Put

C.

Get, Delete, Trace

D.

Connect, Post, Put

Question 33

What does TLS Inspection for Zscaler Internet Access secure public internet browsing with?

Options:

A.

Storing connection streams for future customer review.

B.

Removing certificates and reconnecting client connection using HTTP.

C.

Intermediate certificates are created for each client connection.

D.

Logging which clients receive the original webserver certificate.

Question 34

How would an administrator retrieve the access token to use the Zscaler One API?

Options:

A.

The administrator needs to send a POST request along with the required parameters to Zldentity"s token endpoint.

B.

The administrator needs to send a GET request along with the required parameters to Zldentity's token endpoint.

C.

The administrator needs to logon to the ZIA portal to generate the access token with Super Admin role.

D.

The administrator needs to logon to the ZIA portal to generate the access token with API Admin role.

Question 35

How is the relationship between App Connector Groups and Server Groups created?

Options:

A.

The relationship between Agp_ Connector Groups and Server Groups is established dynamically in the Zero Trust Exchange as users try to access Applications

B.

When a new Server Group is created it points to the Agp_ Connector Groups that provide visibility to this Server Group

C.

Both Agg Connector Groups and Server Groups are linked together via the Data Center element

D.

When you create a new Agg Connector Group you must select the list of Server Groups to which it provides visibility

Question 36

Which of the following is a key feature of Zscaler Data Protection?

Options:

A.

Data loss prevention

B.

Stopping reconnaissance attacks

C.

DDoS protection

D.

Log analysis

Question 37

Which of the following statements most accurately describes Zero Trust Connections?

Options:

A.

They require that SSH inspection be enabled.

B.

They are dependent on a fixed / static network environment.

C.

They are independent of any network for control or trust.

D.

They require IPV6.

Page: 1 / 13
Total 125 questions