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Paloalto Networks Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Exam Practice Test

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Total 227 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?

Options:

A.

SOA

B.

NS

C.

AAAA

D.

MX

Question 2

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

Question 3

In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

On-premises

D.

IaaS

Question 4

What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is unable to detect polymorphic malware.

B.

It requires samples lo be buffered

C.

It uses a static file for comparing potential threats.

D.

It only uses packet header information.

Question 5

What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?

Options:

A.

DHCP markings

B.

Decryption

C.

Port translation

D.

Traffic shaping

Question 6

Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

Question # 6

Question # 6

Options:

Question 7

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Question # 7

Options:

Question 8

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

Question 9

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Options:

A.

Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand

B.

Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

C.

Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code

D.

Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.

Question 10

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

Options:

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

Question 11

What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not

B.

Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor

C.

Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

D.

Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS

Question 12

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

Options:

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

Question 13

Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

Question # 13

Options:

A.

Star Topology

B.

Spine Leaf Topology

C.

Mesh Topology

D.

Bus Topology

Question 14

A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?

Options:

A.

whaling

B.

phishing

C.

pharming

D.

spam

Question 15

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

Question 16

Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

Options:

A.

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

B.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

C.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

D.

They typically attack only once.

Question 17

Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

Options:

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Stateless packet inspection

C.

Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

D.

Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)

Question 18

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

Options:

A.

Evil twin

B.

Jasager

C.

Parager

D.

Mirai

Question 19

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

Options:

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

Question 20

Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

Options:

A.

technique

B.

patch

C.

vulnerability

D.

exploit

Question 21

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

Options:

A.

MineMeld

B.

AutoFocus

C.

WildFire

D.

Cortex XDR

Question 22

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

Question 23

Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?

Options:

A.

All traffic contains threats, so enterprises must protect against threats across the entire network

B.

East-West traffic contains more session-oriented traffic than other traffic

C.

East-West traffic contains more threats than other traffic

D.

East-West traffic uses IPv6 which is less secure than IPv4

Question 24

Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Data exfiltration

D.

Persistence

Question 25

Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

FWaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 26

On which security principle does virtualization have positive effects?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

non-repudiation

Question 27

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Question # 27

Options:

Question 28

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

Question 29

What is an advantage of virtual firewalls over physical firewalls for internal segmentation when placed in a data center?

Options:

A.

They are dynamically scalable.

B.

They possess unlimited throughput capability.

C.

They are able to prevent evasive threats.

D.

They have failover capability.

Question 30

If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?

Options:

A.

The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.

B.

The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.

C.

The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.

D.

The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.

Question 31

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

Options:

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

Question 32

The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

physical

B.

platform

C.

data

D.

infrastructure

Question 33

What does SIEM stand for?

Options:

A.

Security Infosec and Event Management

B.

Security Information and Event Management

C.

Standard Installation and Event Media

D.

Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring

Question 34

Which statement describes advanced malware?

Options:

A.

It operates openly and can be detected by traditional antivirus.

B.

It lacks the ability to exfiltrate data or persist within a system.

C.

It is designed to avoid detection and adapt.

D.

It can operate without consuming resources.

Question 35

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

Question 36

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

Question 37

Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.

B.

It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.

C.

It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.

D.

It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.

Question 38

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

Question 39

What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Convincing an employee that they are also an employee

B.

Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive

C.

Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call

D.

Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page

Question 40

Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Question # 40

Options:

Question 41

Which statement describes DevOps?

Options:

A.

DevOps is its own separate team

B.

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the softwaredelivery process

C.

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

Question 42

Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Serverless

C.

Docker

D.

Host-based

Question 43

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Options:

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

Question 44

Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

Options:

A.

North-South traffic

B.

Intrazone traffic

C.

East-West traffic

D.

Interzone traffic

Question 45

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

Real-time protection from threats

B.

Alerts for new code introduction

C.

Integration with threat feeds

D.

Continuous monitoring of resources

Question 46

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

Options:

A.

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

Question 47

From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?

Options:

A.

Unit 52

B.

PAN-DB

C.

BrightCloud

D.

MineMeld

Question 48

At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Physical

C.

Transport

D.

Data Link

Question 49

What is the purpose of SIEM?

Options:

A.

Securing cloud-based applications

B.

Automating the security team’s incident response

C.

Real-time monitoring and analysis of security events

D.

Filtering webpages employees are allowed to access

Question 50

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Question 51

Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?

Options:

A.

Service connection

B.

Prisma Access

C.

Prisma Cloud

D.

Digital experience management

Question 52

Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?

Options:

A.

EDR

B.

IDS

C.

SIEM

D.

DLP

Question 53

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

Question 54

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

Options:

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

Question 55

Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

Options:

A.

DNS Security

B.

URL Filtering

C.

WildFire

D.

Threat Prevention

Question 56

How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?

Options:

A.

It creates an encrypted connection to the company's data center.

B.

It performs SSL decryption to give visibility into user traffic.

C.

II prevents sensitive data from leaving the network.

D.

II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.

Question 57

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

Options:

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

Question 58

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

Question # 58

Options:

Question 59

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

Question 60

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

Question 61

You have been invited to a public cloud design and architecture session to help deliver secure east west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads.

What deployment options do you have available? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PA-Series

B.

VM-Series

C.

Panorama

D.

CN-Series

Question 62

Which two statements describe the Jasager attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

□ The victim must manually choose the attacker s access point

B.

□ It actively responds to beacon reguests.

C.

□ It tries to get victims to conned at random.

D.

□ The attacker needs to be wilhin close proximity of the victim.

Question 63

What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?

Options:

A.

They enable companies to use cloud-native tools and methodologies.

B.

They are used for data storage in cloud environments.

C.

They serve as a template manager for software applications and services.

D.

They are used to orchestrate virtual machines (VMs) in cloud environments.

Question 64

What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Serverless function

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Docker container

Question 65

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

Options:

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

Question 66

What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications?

Options:

A.

Allow downloads to managed devices but block them from unmanaged devices.

B.

Allow downloads to both managed and unmanaged devices.

C.

Leave data security in the hands of the cloud service provider.

D.

Allow users to choose their own applications to access data.

Question 67

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Code security

C.

Virtualization

D.

IRP

Question 68

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

VPN Concentrator

B.

Content Identification

C.

Segmentation Platform

D.

Web Application Zone

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Total 227 questions