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Paloalto Networks Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Exam Practice Test

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Total 227 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

Question 2

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Options:

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

Question 3

A doctor receives an email about her upcoming holiday in France. When she clicks the URL website link in the email, the connection is blocked by her office firewall because it's a known malware website. Which type of attack includes a link to a malware website in an email?

Options:

A.

whaling

B.

phishing

C.

pharming

D.

spam

Question 4

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

Question 5

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

Options:

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

Question 6

Which statement describes advanced malware?

Options:

A.

It operates openly and can be detected by traditional antivirus.

B.

It lacks the ability to exfiltrate data or persist within a system.

C.

It is designed to avoid detection and adapt.

D.

It can operate without consuming resources.

Question 7

Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

Options:

A.

DLP

B.

CASB

C.

DNS Security

D.

URL filtering

Question 8

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

Question 9

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

Options:

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

Question 10

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

Options:

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

Question 11

Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

Options:

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Stateless packet inspection

C.

Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

D.

Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)

Question 12

Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

Question # 12

Options:

A.

Star Topology

B.

Spine Leaf Topology

C.

Mesh Topology

D.

Bus Topology

Question 13

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

Question 14

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

Question 15

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

VPN Concentrator

B.

Content Identification

C.

Segmentation Platform

D.

Web Application Zone

Question 16

Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They can be accessed by traffic from the internet.

B.

They are located in the internal network.

C.

They can expose servers in the internal network to attacks.

D.

They are isolated from the internal network.

Question 17

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

Options:

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

Question 18

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

Question 19

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

Options:

A.

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

Question 20

Which key component is used to configure a static route?

Options:

A.

router ID

B.

enable setting

C.

routing protocol

D.

next hop IP address

Question 21

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

Question 22

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

Options:

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

Question 23

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Question 24

Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Data exfiltration

D.

Persistence

Question 25

Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

Security as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Authentication as a Service

Question 26

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

Options:

A.

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

Question 27

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

Question 28

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

Question 29

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

Options:

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

Question 30

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

Options:

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

Question 31

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

Options:

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

Question 32

What protocol requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network?

Options:

A.

EIGRP

B.

Static

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

Question 33

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

Question 34

Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.

B.

It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.

C.

It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.

D.

It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.

Question 35

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

Question 36

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

Question 37

What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not

B.

Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor

C.

Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

D.

Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS

Question 38

Which three layers of the OSI model correspond to the Application Layer (L4) of the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Session, Transport, Network

B.

Application, Presentation, and Session

C.

Physical, Data Link, Network

D.

Data Link, Session, Transport

Question 39

Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?

Options:

A.

Container security

B.

SaaS security

C.

Code security

D.

Network security

Question 40

A native hypervisor runs:

Options:

A.

with extreme demands on network throughput

B.

only on certain platforms

C.

within an operating system’s environment

D.

directly on the host computer’s hardware

Question 41

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

Question 42

Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Birthplace

B.

Login 10

C.

Profession

D.

Name

Question 43

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Dedicated Networks

C.

Dedicated Hosts

D.

Multiplexing

Question 44

Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

Options:

A.

DNS Security

B.

URL Filtering

C.

WildFire

D.

Threat Prevention

Question 45

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Options:

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

Question 46

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

Question 47

Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?

Options:

A.

use of non-standard ports

B.

port hopping

C.

hiding within SSL encryption

D.

tunneling within commonly used services

Question 48

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

Question 49

Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Question # 49

Options:

Question 50

Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?

Options:

A.

Cloud

B.

Physical

C.

Virtual

D.

Containerized

Question 51

Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?

Options:

A.

Elastic scalability

B.

5G

C.

External dynamic lists

D.

Log export

Question 52

Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

Options:

A.

CSPM

B.

ASM

C.

EDR

D.

CVVP

Question 53

Which technique uses file sharing or an instant messenger client such as Meebo running over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?

Options:

A.

Use of non-standard ports

B.

Hiding within SSL encryption

C.

Port hopping

D.

Tunneling within commonly used services

Question 54

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

Question 55

Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

Options:

A.

Knowledge-based

B.

Signature-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Database-based

Question 56

In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

Options:

A.

Computer

B.

Switch

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Cloud

Question 57

How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

B.

Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

C.

Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

D.

Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

Question 58

What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?

Options:

A.

Frequent database updates

B.

Support of a DLP device

C.

API integration with a sandbox

D.

Enabling quality of service

Question 59

Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?

Options:

A.

Proxy

B.

Stateful

C.

Stateless

D.

Application

Question 60

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

Options:

A.

URL category

B.

Custom signatures

C.

Decryption policy

D.

Application group

Question 61

Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Serverless

C.

Docker

D.

Host-based

Question 62

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

Options:

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

Question 63

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

Options:

A.

Shortest Path

B.

Hop Count

C.

Split Horizon

D.

Path Vector

Question 64

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

Question 65

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

Options:

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

Question 66

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

Question 67

Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Allowance

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

Question 68

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

B.

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

C.

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

D.

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

E.

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

Page: 1 / 23
Total 227 questions