PMI PMI-ACP PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Exam Practice Test

When significant architectural flaws are discovered, agile teamsinspect and adapt. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives and Adaptation), the product owner and team shouldcollaboratively reassess priorities and rewrite backlog itemsto reflect the rework needed. This is aligned with agile’sincremental delivery and continuous adaptation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)stresses that rework should be handled through backlog refinement and collaborative planning—not panic or reactive decisions.

Option Cis correct: reassessing the backlog with stakeholders aligns with agile practices.

Option Aabdicates product responsibility.

Option Bis too rigid for agile, unless the risk matrix is already very mature and agile-focused.

Option Dcancels value delivery and is unnecessarily drastic.

A developer is unable to work on their tasks within an iteration, because senior management is constantly pulling them into production incident analyses.

This is a blocker because the developer is unable to work on tasks within the iteration due to external interruptions (senior management pulling them into production incident analyses), preventing the team from progressing.

The offshore testing team is pulled away at the last minute from a high-profile initiative and testing cannot be resumed until a new testing team is assigned.

This is also a blocker because the offshore testing team has been pulled away at the last minute, causing a halt in testing until a new team is assigned. This delay impedes progress and prevents the team from moving forward with their work.

The correct answer is D – Assume the team member's tasks to meet iteration goals and notify the Product Owner. Agile teams are self-organizing and accountable. High-performing teams take ownership of shared goals and redistribute work as needed to maintain commitment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams collaborate to deliver sprint goals, adapting to changes such as unavailability of team members. They adjust workload and communicate impacts transparently.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“When team composition changes, the team must redistribute work to ensure delivery. Ownership, trust, and flexibility are core traits of high-performing agile teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A signals dysfunction and abdicates team responsibility.

B implies external management of team staffing.

C violates the principle of self-organization.

The correct answer is C — All stakeholders are responsible for identifying risks during standups, retrospectives, and other team meetings.

Agile promotes collective ownership. Risk identification and mitigation are shared responsibilities involving the entire team, including the product owner, developers, and other stakeholders. Agile meetings (e.g., stand-ups, retrospectives) are excellent forums for surfacing risks early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“In agile projects, everyone is responsible for identifying and managing risk. Teams inspect frequently, enabling early detection and resolution of issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Risk management is embedded in agile events. Teams don’t defer risk analysis to a specialist—they collaborate continuously to identify, discuss, and respond to risks.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A ignores active risk management needs.

B assumes individual rather than shared responsibility.

D misrepresents the PO’s role—risks may appear in the backlog, but management is team-based.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is B – The entire team is responsible for quality, but each team member's role may vary as stated in the definition of done (DoD).

In Agile, quality is a shared responsibility. While specialists like QA may have defined roles, all team members are expected to contribute to maintaining and improving product quality. The Definition of Done (DoD) captures shared criteria for acceptance and completion.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are cross-functional and collectively accountable for quality. Specific roles may perform different tasks, but everyone contributes to ensuring the product meets the agreed-upon standards.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Quality and Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths clarifies:

“Quality is everyone’s responsibility. Teams should define what 'done' means and ensure that all members understand and uphold those standards during development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options fall short:

A implies all members must be involved in every component, which may not be efficient or realistic.

C incorrectly assigns surprises or gaps solely to QA.

D misrepresents the Product Manager's role and overemphasizes top-down functionality.

Answer: B

The presence of asingle point of knowledgeis a significant risk in agile teams. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Team Structure and Cross-functionality)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), agile teams shouldavoid role silosand promoteknowledge sharing. Adding another database administrator helps with bothworkload distributionandknowledge retentionthrough pairing or mentoring.

Option Cis correct: it ensuresredundancy and knowledge spread, reducing project risk.

Option Adoes not address knowledge transfer or team development.

Option Bremoves the knowledge resource, worsening the risk.

Option Dlimits knowledge-sharing and still creates a bottleneck.

The Scrum Master should facilitate a conversation between the team and the senior manager to understand the purpose and expectations behind the request for real-time updates to the burndown chart. By aligning on the reporting requirements and discussing potential impacts on team productivity, the Scrum Master can ensure that the metrics are meaningful and do not interfere with the team's ability to deliver value. It's important to find a balance between transparency and efficiency, ensuring that the team’s workflow isn’t disrupted by unnecessary administrative tasks.

Step 1: Identify Total Story Points in the Backlog

From the backlog table:

Total story points = 6 + 4 + 8 + 4 + 21 + 7 + 5 + 9 + 3 + 5 = 72

Step 2: Determine the Team's Velocity

The risk register mentions a burn reduction of 1 story point per sprint from sprint 4 to sprint 6 due to a holiday schedule. However, assuming a normal velocity of 5 story points per sprint, we can estimate sprint completion.

Normal sprint velocity: 5 story points per sprint

Reduced velocity for sprints 4-6: 4 story points per sprint

Step 3: Calculate Total Sprints Needed

First 3 sprints: 5 points per sprint → 5 × 3 = 15 story points completed

Sprints 4-6: 4 points per sprint → 4 × 3 = 12 story points completed

Remaining story points after sprint 6: 72 - (15 + 12) = 45 story points

Remaining sprints needed at normal velocity (5 story points per sprint): 45 ÷ 5 = 9 sprints

Total Sprints Required

Sprints 1-6: Already planned.

Additional 9 sprints needed.

Total sprints to complete the backlog: 6 + 9 = 15 sprints.

The correct answer is A – Inform the stakeholder that all updates are provided in the sprint review sessions and encourage them to attend.

The Sprint Review is designed to provide transparency to stakeholders, demonstrate completed work, and gather feedback. Stakeholders should be encouraged to attend these events to stay updated and engaged.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Sprint reviews are intended to engage stakeholders in reviewing completed work and discussing priorities. This event ensures transparency and encourages stakeholder collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile teams encourage stakeholder participation in regularly scheduled review meetings to maintain alignment and foster transparency.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Other options:

B adds non-Agile overhead and undermines Agile transparency mechanisms.

C and D are dismissive and uncollaborative, potentially damaging relationships.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A – Hold a meeting with the team and the Product Owner to develop the team charter, working agreement, guiding principles, and product vision. This collaborative approach fosters shared understanding, ownership, and alignment early in the project.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team chartering process includes developing working agreements, clarifying the product vision, defining team norms, and establishing the team's mission. Early alignment builds trust and commitment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“A strong start includes co-creating team values, the product vision, and working agreements. Doing this together builds a strong foundation for delivery.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 2 – Agile Principles and Chapter 4 – Team Formation)

Incorrect options:

B separates the Product Owner from the team early on.

C reverses the roles—vision should be owned by the Product Owner.

D is helpful, but not a prerequisite for team alignment and success.

Answer: A

The correct answer isC – Initiate an estimation sessionbecause agile planning isiterative and collaborative. When delivery timing is in question, especially during a release planning session, the team must firstestimatethe size of the work (epics and user stories). Once estimates are made (often using story points or relative sizing techniques), velocity can be used to forecast delivery timelines.

From thePMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimation is typically performed at the beginning of a release or iteration planning session to determine how much work can be completed. Teams use estimation to size items and then apply their known or projected velocity to forecast completion.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Bookalso states:

“Before making any delivery commitments, teams should first engage in collaborative estimation to understand the scope and effort of the work. These estimates then inform velocity-based forecasting.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A– Scrum Masters do not estimate work; estimation is a team activity.

B– You cannot determine deliverables based on velocity until the work has been estimated.

D– Historical data can support forecasting but must be preceded by proper estimation of current backlog items.

Answer: C

Large user stories, also known as "epic" user stories, can be challenging to manage and lead to difficulties in tracking progress and delivering value incrementally. The Scrum Master should work with the team to break down large user stories into smaller, more manageable pieces. These smaller stories can be completed within a single sprint, allowing the team to deliver value more frequently and with greater clarity. This practice aligns with Agile principles by ensuring that work is broken into digestible chunks that can be iteratively built, tested, and delivered.

The correct answer is C – Work with the team to create a solution for disseminating team knowledge throughout the company.

Agile values shared learning and continuous improvement. A lack of accessible organizational knowledge is a systemic issue. The agile practitioner should help the team implement lightweight, repeatable knowledge-sharing practices—such as wikis, communities of practice, or internal retrospectives.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Organizational learning is an essential part of agile culture. Sharing information across teams enables continuous improvement and avoids repeated mistakes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.1 – Organizational Learning)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Coaching agile teams includes promoting knowledge sharing mechanisms across the organization. Practices like open reviews, documentation wikis, or retrospective reports can help teams learn from each other.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A suggests reporting but may become overhead without solving the core issue.

B avoids organizational improvement by isolating the team.

D brings in external help when the issue can be resolved internally.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A – Prioritize the stakeholder feedback, considering the impact on strategic objectives and current workload, and discuss these priorities with the team in the next sprint planning meeting to collaboratively decide on the next steps.

Agile promotes adaptive planning and continuous stakeholder engagement. While feedback is highly valuable, especially from a sprint review, changes to the product backlog must be carefully prioritized and collaboratively discussed with the team. The product owner’s responsibility is to maintain and refine the backlog, ensuring alignment with stakeholder needs while also preserving team focus and avoiding unnecessary disruption during an ongoing sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product backlog refinement is an ongoing process in which the product owner and the team collaborate on the details of backlog items. This includes analyzing, estimating, and prioritizing items to reflect the latest feedback and business needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Refinement)

“Agile teams embrace change, especially when it delivers value. However, they also maintain sustainable pace and focus by avoiding mid-sprint scope changes unless absolutely necessary. Backlog items are reviewed and reprioritized before the next sprint begins.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“While agile encourages responding to change, disrupting sprint commitments can erode team trust and productivity. Sprint planning is the correct forum to reprioritize work based on new stakeholder insights.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

B introduces mid-sprint disruption and disregards agile best practices for maintaining sprint integrity and team focus.

C eliminates team collaboration and risks breakdowns in communication, violating agile’s emphasis on transparency and teamwork.

D disregards valuable feedback and delays addressing important stakeholder needs, which could compromise customer satisfaction and strategic alignment.

Answer: A

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The Scrum Master should help ensure that stakeholders understand Agile principles and terms correctly to facilitate smooth decision-making. Organizing training sessions is an effective way to address misunderstandings and create awareness around Agile values. By ensuring all stakeholders are on the same page, the team can move forward with a shared understanding, which is critical for successfully implementing Agile methodologies. This approach promotes long-term buy-in and alignment, rather than simply pushing for a decision without proper education or consensus.

The correct answer is C — The team should have conducted more demonstrations with the product owner during the iteration.

Continuous feedback is essential in Agile. Regular product demos or interim check-ins during the sprint (not just at the end) allow the product owner to validate progress and course-correct early. This ensures that expectations are aligned and surprises are avoided at the sprint review.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholder feedback should be gathered continuously throughout the sprint. Regular engagement and interim demos reduce the risk of misalignment at iteration end.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.7 – Reviews and Demos)

Mike Griffiths:

“Waiting until the sprint review to validate features with the product owner increases risk. Frequent collaboration and demonstrations ensure the work remains on target.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is helpful but doesn't guarantee alignment.

B is testing-focused and misses early collaboration.

D places all responsibility on the product owner, ignoring shared ownership.

Answer: C

Analyzing theburndown chart, we see:

Points Planned(gray squares): decreasing steadily from 50 to 0 over 10 days (ideal burn).

Points Completed(gray triangles):plateau between days 3–6, lagging significantly behind planned completion.

This indicates that theteam is behind schedule, and unless they accelerate, they mayfail to complete all committed work.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Burndown Charts)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Monitoring Progress), such divergence between the ideal and actual burn lines indicates that the iteration isat risk.

Option Ais correct: the iteration isin jeopardydue to lack of progress mid-sprint.

Option Bis incorrect—scope removal would show a downward shift in planned points.

Option Cis false—the team isbehind, not ahead.

Option Dis misleading—velocity appears inconsistent (e.g., plateau from day 3–6).

The correct answer is B – Have team members work in pairs to learn from each other and develop new skills. Pairing encourages collaboration, knowledge sharing, and skill development, which helps reduce dependency on specific individuals and enhances engagement through variety.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Pair programming and other collaborative work methods help reduce repetition, promote learning, and improve motivation. These techniques allow for shared ownership and skill diversity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Continuous Learning and Team Development)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Cross-training and pairing reduce boredom, eliminate knowledge silos, and increase team flexibility. They are effective responses to reduced motivation from repetitive work.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A may temporarily help morale but doesn’t address the root cause.

C is more suitable for analyzing inefficiencies, not directly resolving monotony.

D adds cost and doesn’t solve the underlying engagement problem.

Answer: B

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When the team is facing difficulties in estimating the scope of work due to unclear or ambiguous requirements, the product owner should collaborate closely with the client to ensure that the requirements are clear and well-defined. By refining the product backlog with more detailed and clarified requirements, the product owner can help the team generate more accurate estimates and better understand the scope of work. This is a fundamental step in ensuring the team can properly plan and execute the project on time.

In Scrum, velocity is a metric that measures the amount of work a team can complete in a given sprint, usually measured in story points or work units. However, velocity is not a metric for team efficiency or quality. It primarily reflects the team's capacity to complete work within a sprint and can help forecast future work delivery once the team becomes stable. A team may have a stable velocity, but that does not necessarily mean they are producing higher-quality or more efficient deliverables.

In agile,information radiators—such as visual boards placed in common areas—are used to make project dataaccessible, transparent, and real-time. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communication), visibility improves coordination across interdependent teams.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)recommends that agile teams usevisible, shared artifactssuch as task boards, burn charts, or Kanban walls to improvecross-team communicationand reduce friction.

Option Bis correct: a physical or virtual board offers transparency and encourages informal communication.

Option Ais useful but not as effective for rapid visibility.

Option Cis one-way and doesn’t support real-time updates.

Option Dis reactive and could cause delays or misalignment.

The correct answer is A – Kaizen. Kaizen is a Japanese term meaning "continuous improvement." In Agile, Kaizen refers to the practice of regularly reflecting on processes and results, then making incremental improvements. By tracking impediments and resolving them transparently, the team engages in Kaizen behavior.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams embrace a mindset of continuous improvement (Kaizen), regularly inspecting their work and processes and adapting them for better outcomes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.6 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile is rooted in lean thinking, including Kaizen. Teams reflect on what went well and what needs to change, often using tools like Kanban boards to visualize and track improvements.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B refers to goal-setting, not process improvement.

C are metrics, not an outcome of experimentation.

D (Muda) refers to waste, which Kaizen seeks to reduce.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B — Two-way communication.

Agile thrives on collaboration and transparency. In sprint planning, the product owner presents the business needs (via user stories), and the team responds with estimates and commitments. This mutual communication fosters alignment, shared understanding, and trust, which is characteristic of two-way communication.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects rely on high levels of communication and collaboration, especially between the product owner and development team.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths:

“Two-way communication allows feedback and clarification. Sprint planning is a prime example where the PO and team interact to shape and commit to sprint goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A refers to managing emotions, not communication style.

C is unrelated to agile practice.

D (reciprocal communication) is a less common term and not directly aligned with the scenario.

Answer: B

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If a story isnot completed, it isnot counted toward the current sprint velocity. When carrying the story forward to the next sprint, teams shouldre-evaluate the story size, especially if part of the work is already done. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Velocity and Estimation)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), agile teams are encouraged tore-estimatesuch items based on remaining work.

Option Dis correct: incomplete stories should be re-estimated based on new size or effort.

Option Aviolates velocity principles—onlyfully completedstories count.

Option Bundermines the fixed-length timebox principle of sprints.

Option Cis not directly relevant unless the story’s complexity necessitates research, which is not stated here.

In this situation, the most practical solution is to reduce the scope of the release to meet the deadline. Since one team member will be absent, causing a reduction in velocity, the team may not be able to complete all planned work in the time remaining. By reducing the scope, the team can focus on delivering the most critical features for the industry fair and ensure that the release is still valuable and on time. This aligns with Agile principles of prioritizing the most valuable work and delivering iteratively based on available capacity.

The correct answer is D — Engaged key stakeholders periodically to collect requirements.

Agile is based on frequent stakeholder collaboration. Continuous engagement ensures evolving needs are captured and prevents misalignment. Waiting for planning meetings or demos is too late to catch missing input.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams ensure stakeholder engagement is ongoing throughout the project. This helps validate requirements and prevent surprises during reviews.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Stakeholders should be consulted early and often. Relying on static requirements leads to gaps. Agile teams maintain constant feedback loops.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is too early and one-time.

B may help but is reactive.

C is a predictive approach inconsistent with agile.

Answer: D

The correct answer is D – Write tests that will be used to know when a story has been correctly developed. This practice aligns with Test-Driven Development (TDD) and Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD), which are common in agile environments. Agile promotes defining “done” through clear acceptance criteria and tests before coding begins.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use test-first practices, such as TDD or ATDD, where acceptance tests are written before development begins. This ensures that functionality is built to meet agreed expectations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Agile Testing and Quality Strategies)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Defining acceptance criteria or tests before development is a core agile practice. It ensures the team understands what success looks like and builds quality in from the start.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Option A may be useful but is unrelated to the new requirements.

Option B is not standard—customers help define acceptance criteria but rarely write tests.

Option C skips an important quality control step and doesn’t align with test-first practices.

Answer: D

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In Agile, the Definition of Done (DoD) typically requires that the feature be both developed and fully integrated into the release package before it is considered complete. Even though the feature was successfully tested and demonstrated by QA, if it is not included in the release package, it is not technically completed according to the DoD. Therefore, its story points should not be added to the burndown chart until it is actually part of the release. This ensures that the team’s progress is accurately tracked based on completed, released work.

The correct answer is D because organizational transformation to agile requires more than process changes—it requires a shift in mindset. Training teams on agile values and principles builds a shared foundation and helps foster commitment to agile ways of working.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile transformation requires attention to both practices and mindset. Leaders must help teams embrace agile values, empower decision-making, and promote an agile culture through education and active support.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Organizational Change and Transformation)

From PMBOK® Guide – 7th Edition:

“Successful transformation begins with people understanding the why and how of agile. Change cannot happen effectively without adequate training and communication.”

(PMBOK Guide 7th Ed., Principle 1 – Be a Diligent, Respectful, and Caring Steward)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile success is rooted in the team’s understanding of core principles. Agile leaders must invest in developing a strong foundational mindset, as well as practices. Education is a critical enabler of sustainable agile adoption.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Option A is a partial strategy but doesn’t ensure cultural transformation.

Option B is necessary but not sufficient—buy-in alone won’t change behavior.

Option C is tactical and useful but doesn’t address team-wide mindset change.

Answer: D

The correct answer is A – Add code cleanup activities to the product backlog and request prioritization by the product owner. In Agile, technical debt should be made visible and managed like any other backlog item. The product owner is responsible for backlog prioritization and must balance feature delivery with quality-related tasks.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Technical debt should be made transparent and included in the product backlog. Teams should advocate for addressing it, and the product owner prioritizes its resolution based on the impact to future work.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Technical Debt)

Mike Griffiths’ guidance reinforces this:

“Technical debt erodes long-term productivity and must be tracked and addressed. Agile teams collaborate with product owners to prioritize and schedule code cleanup or refactoring activities.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B and C bypass the product owner’s prioritization role.

D delays action unnecessarily and misrepresents Agile’s emphasis on transparency and early resolution.

Answer: A

Agile teamsembrace changeandcollaborate with customersto deliver value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1: Agile Mindset)supports responding to change—even late in the development cycle—if it results in business value. The team shouldaccept the new goal, replan with the product owner, andadjust scope or priority if needed, rather than resist or escalate.

Option Ais correct: it reflects the agile value ofresponding to change and delivering early value.

Option Bis too rigid and contrary to agile principles.

Option Cimplies a punitive model that does not align with collaborative agile contracts.

Option Dintroduces unnecessary cost and overhead without first trying to replan collaboratively.

In Agile and user-centered design, creating user personas is a valuable way to represent the different types of users who will interact with the application. By identifying these personas, the project manager can ensure that the development team better understands the varying needs, behaviors, and goals of different user groups. This approach helps create a more effective and tailored user experience for the application. It also provides clear guidance to the team on how to prioritize features and functionality for diverse user groups.

Agile emphasizestransparency and team self-organization. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Self-Organizing Teams)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), a common practice is tomake work and issues visible to everyoneand allow the team to collaboratively manage their workflow. Using ashared workspace or boardhelps prevent redundant efforts and improves efficiency.

Option Dis correct: shared visibility and self-allocation promote team ownership.

Option Amisuses the backlog—issues aren't typically prioritized by customers.

Option Bis directive and may reduce collaboration.

Option Cfocuses on analysis, not immediate resolution or coordination.

Predictable flow in agile is achieved byreducing variabilityin story size and complexity. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7: Flow-based Agile and Kanban), working withsmall, similarly sized user storiesincreases throughput predictability and improves cycle time.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)supports breaking large stories into smaller, testable chunks as a way tostabilize delivery and forecasting.

Option Ais correct:small user storiesreduce variability and support predictable flow.

Option Bsupports testability but doesn’t directly improve flow.

Option CandDare too broad or conceptual to specifically improve predictability.

The correct answer is C – Encourage the product owner and team to analyze the impact of the changes and prioritize the backlog.

Agile embraces change, even late in the development cycle, but it must be managed through value-driven prioritization. Instead of blindly accepting all changes or overrunning the budget, the product owner collaborates with the team and stakeholders to evaluate the impact, adjust priorities, and ensure high-value items are delivered within constraints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams welcome change but balance it with value delivery by continuously prioritizing the product backlog. When scope increases, the team and product owner must evaluate trade-offs and adjust delivery accordingly.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Based Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Backlog grooming is a key mechanism to handle change. Product owners collaborate with stakeholders and the team to evaluate new requests, weigh impacts, and reprioritize as necessary.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are incorrect:

A may be true in some organizations but is not an Agile principle.

B contradicts Agile’s emphasis on sustainable pace.

D may help clarify budgets but doesn’t resolve the issue collaboratively.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is D – Reestimate all stories including values for A, B, and C. Agile promotes empirical process control, meaning teams adapt based on what they learn. When significant deviations are found in actual effort vs. story point estimates, the team should revisit and refine their estimation process, including reestimating stories to better align with reality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimates are revisited based on experience. Teams inspect and adapt during retrospectives, using data to improve future estimation accuracy.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When estimates prove inaccurate, teams should reestimate affected stories. Estimating is a collaborative process, and learning from past deviations is a key part of adaptive planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may distort estimation by comparison and not correct the root issue.

B manipulates velocity data and violates agile principles of transparency.

C attempts to “force fit” effort rather than inspect and adapt.

Answer: D

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To assessprocess efficiency, agile teams usevalue stream mappingto identifywaste, delays, and non-value-adding steps. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Process Analysis and Value Stream Mapping), value stream analysis helps determine how efficiently a process converts inputs into valuable outputs, making it ideal for supporting customer inquiries on operational performance.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement) reinforces the value of usingvalue stream mappingfor both software development processes and operational workflows to increase transparency and drive improvements.

Option Bis correct: reviewing thevalue streamprovides a structured way to evaluate efficiency.

Option AandDare important for team improvement and performance but don’t focus onprocess activity efficiency.

Option Crelates tovalue prioritization, not operational efficiency.

The correct answer is A – Lead time, throughput, and due date performance. These are key flow-based metrics used in Kanban systems to monitor performance, efficiency, and predictability of delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Kanban systems rely heavily on flow metrics to measure performance and identify bottlenecks. Key Kanban metrics include lead time, throughput, and cycle time. These metrics provide insights into how quickly work is flowing through the system.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Kanban System Metrics)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Kanban teams track cumulative flow, lead time, and throughput to ensure steady and predictable delivery. Due date performance is used to evaluate commitments and reliability.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B refers to tools and principles, not performance metrics.

C includes practices not specific to Kanban metrics.

D includes some Scrum metrics, such as burndown, but not Kanban-centric ones.

Answer: A

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Thesprint review/demois the meeting where the teamshows completed work to stakeholdersandgathers feedback. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Sprint Review)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), stakeholders such as department heads or executives should attend sprint demos to stay informed and provide input.

Option Cis correct: sprint demos foster transparency and stakeholder involvement.

Option Ais typically for the Scrum team and product owner.

Option Bis for team internal coordination only.

Option Dis reserved for team process improvement—not stakeholder participation.

The correct answer is D – Fishbone diagram. Also known as an Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram, this analysis tool helps teams identify root causes of delays or inefficiencies. In this scenario, the team needs to understand the causes of delayed release cycles to make process improvements.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Root cause analysis tools such as fishbone diagrams can help teams identify underlying causes of inefficiencies or failures, supporting continuous improvement.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Mike Griffiths also writes:

“A fishbone diagram helps the team brainstorm and categorize the potential causes of a problem, enabling a structured investigation into delays or bottlenecks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A is for identifying and managing risks, not diagnosing root causes.

B analyzes progress metrics but doesn’t provide root cause insights.

C is for understanding customer satisfaction, not operational delays.

Answer: D

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To improve collaboration, it's essential that the team members understand the importance of the project vision statement and feel empowered to contribute. Setting clear expectations ensures that all participants know the purpose of the meeting and their role in contributing. By encouraging everyone to share their ideas and perspectives, the team can reach a consensus or at least acknowledge differing views in a constructive way. This fosters a collaborative environment where team members feel their input is valued.

The role of a servant leader focuses on serving the team by removing obstacles, providing support, and ensuring that the team has what it needs to be successful. The agile coach is advising the project manager to adopt this mindset, which is central to Agile leadership. In this role, the project manager focuses on enabling the team’s success rather than taking a directive or authoritative approach.

The correct answer is D – Present the idea at the next ceremony attended by stakeholders to obtain their input. Agile emphasizes transparency and collaboration with stakeholders. Since the organization values security highly, decisions that impact quality or policy must be discussed openly with stakeholders who have the authority to weigh cost-benefit trade-offs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams embrace customer collaboration and transparency. When decisions have business or organizational implications—such as security or compliance—stakeholders must be involved in evaluating trade-offs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When teams face decisions that could impact non-functional requirements like security, these should be escalated transparently to stakeholders for evaluation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and C could result in bias or lack of organizational alignment.

B is too late and internal-only for a business-critical concern.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – Refocus the sprint review meetings to demonstrate working software and seek feedback on the product.

Sprint reviews are designed to showcase the completed product increment to stakeholders and receive feedback. The primary goal is to validate that the work delivered provides value to the customer—not to present technical details. Demonstrating working software is one of the core tenets of Agile.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Sprint reviews are working sessions designed to elicit feedback and foster collaboration. Teams demonstrate completed work and adjust the backlog based on stakeholder input.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Value Delivery)

Mike Griffiths confirms:

“The output of every iteration should be potentially shippable product. The sprint review is for stakeholders to see that output and provide feedback to inform future development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options explained:

B may be helpful, but it doesn’t solve the immediate issue of misaligned sprint reviews.

C misunderstands the purpose of the sprint review—it’s not about architecture.

D changes the audience instead of correcting the approach.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B — They most likely discussed the best approach for this project with the team and will adapt and tailor the approach periodically by reviewing and verifying the scope with the customer.

In Agile, tailoring and adaptiveness are key. Agile projects are not "one-size-fits-all" — teams assess the context and collaboratively select and continuously tailor the best-fit practices. Agile also emphasizes engaging stakeholders frequently and iteratively refining scope.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams tailor their processes and continually adapt to changing needs. The decision to use agile practices should be based on the nature of the work and team collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Tailoring Agile)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile promotes adaptive planning and continuous stakeholder engagement to ensure alignment and responsiveness to change.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

—

The correct answer is B – Create a team norms document to set participation guidelines. Establishing team norms improves psychological safety, trust, and collaborative behavior. It provides a structured way to handle differences of opinion and ensure equal contribution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Team norms or working agreements are guidelines created by the team to set expectations for behavior, participation, and communication. These norms are agreed upon early and revisited as needed to support healthy collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“High-performing agile teams create shared agreements that clarify roles, expectations, and behavior. When team conflict or disconnects arise, practitioners should guide the team to revisit or develop such norms.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A lacks structure and may not address the root issue.

C delays resolution and misuses the stand-up’s purpose.

D waits too long to act; issues should be addressed immediately, not deferred.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is B — Communicate this to the product owner, and offer to help facilitate discussions with the team.

Agile promotes collaboration, transparency, and continuous improvement. The agile practitioner (e.g., Scrum Master) should first address challenges at the team level. Facilitating better communication and helping the product owner articulate requirements clearly is part of fostering a high-performing team environment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile practitioners serve the team by removing impediments and improving communication. When conflicts or misunderstandings occur, the practitioner should engage with team members to resolve issues collaboratively before escalating externally.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 — Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Scrum Masters or Agile Coaches are servant-leaders. Their role includes helping product owners improve interactions and serve the development team more effectively.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 — Team Performance)

Other options:

A and D involve escalation without first attempting resolution.

C avoids direct action and leaves responsibility to someone else.

Answer: B

—

In Scrum, the goal is to have open discussions during estimation, where all team members, including junior developers, can express their thoughts and assumptions. The Scrum Master should encourage the junior developers to keep their estimations because these can highlight different perspectives, constraints, or assumptions that others may not have considered. This helps create a more comprehensive understanding of the work and fosters a collaborative environment. It also builds confidence in junior team members, allowing them to contribute more effectively and learn from their peers in the process.

The correct answer is D — Ensure that planning and prioritizing includes consideration of security requirements.

Non-functional requirements (such as security, performance, or compliance) must be included in backlog prioritization and planning sessions. Agile teams must incorporate these concerns into their definition of done and acceptance criteria to ensure continuous compliance and product integrity.

PMI Agile Practice Guide emphasizes:

“Non-functional requirements (NFRs) must be prioritized and planned for alongside functional user stories. They are not optional, and failure to include them early often leads to system failure or technical debt.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Planning Considerations)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile teams should treat NFRs as constraints that are baked into every sprint. Rather than isolating them, they should be considered in backlog refinement and story definition.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A may help, but meeting agendas alone are not sufficient for managing NFRs.

B may assist with knowledge, but it doesn’t guarantee prioritization.

C implies treating the NFR as a risk rather than a core requirement.

Answer: D

Planning Pokeris a well-known estimation technique where team members use numbered cards (usually Fibonacci series) to estimatestory point valuesbased on relative size. It’s aconsensus-based estimation method, as described in thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Estimation Techniques)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Estimating Techniques).

Option Dis correct:Planning Pokeris explicitly designed for estimating stories in terms of points.

Option A (Parametric)is more common in traditional (predictive) planning.

Option B (One-to-one comparison)refers to relative sizing without collaboration.

Option C (Affinity)is another agile technique but typically used forgrouping stories into size buckets, not direct story point consensus estimation.

In this situation, the scrum master has already escalated the issue to upper management without resolution, so it's important to collect empirical data to further demonstrate the impact of the external dependency. This data can be used to show the consequences of the dependency on the project’s progress, helping upper management understand the severity of the issue. By influencing management and making them accountable for ensuring the external team delivers, the scrum master helps ensure the problem is addressed at a higher level, which is critical for long-term resolution.

The correct answer is C – Explain that the Kanban board enables the team to complete the work and increases transparency on work that is not done.

Agile values transparency, visibility, and collaboration. Kanban boards are a form of information radiator—tools that openly display the team’s workflow, work-in-progress (WIP), and progress toward goals. Their visibility helps stakeholders and the team remain aligned and encourages accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use information radiators such as Kanban boards to provide transparency and make status, bottlenecks, and priorities visible to all. This fosters trust, communication, and quick decision-making.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Visibility into progress and issues enhances communication and alignment across stakeholders. Information radiators like task boards or Kanban boards are vital tools for agile success.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Tools and Techniques)

Other options are inappropriate:

A and D compromise transparency and contradict agile values.

B misstates the purpose of the Kanban board—it’s not about assigning work post-completion.

Answer: C

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When the organization transitions from longer to shorter iterations, it’s crucial to provide the team with the right support and ensure they have the resources to adapt. Requesting support from the enterprise coach and HR can help the team manage this change effectively, providing them with necessary training or assistance. Additionally, assessing the impact of the change and brainstorming solutions with the team helps address concerns about testing and ceremonies, while allowing the team to provide input on how they can adapt to the new iteration length without compromising quality or efficiency.

The correct answer is D — Identify this as a risk, decide on the response, and prioritize spike to determine the solution on the product backlog.

A spike is a time-boxed research activity used in Agile to explore potential solutions to uncertainty. The architectural concern is a technical risk, and it's best addressed by formally identifying it, analyzing potential responses, and scheduling a spike as a backlog item to investigate solutions.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are stories used for time-boxed research and exploration when the team needs more information to understand technical or functional uncertainty.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Types of Backlog Items)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile risk management integrates spikes and prioritization. When risk is detected, the team should identify it transparently and explore mitigation or investigation through a spike.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A skips backlog prioritization and team alignment.

B deflects the issue without analysis.

C ignores risk and blindly follows the existing priority.

Answer: D

—

The correct answer is D – Break non-functional requirements into those that can be delivered in the given sprint. Agile teams apply the principle of incremental and iterative delivery not only to functional requirements but also to non-functional ones. Large or complex work—including non-functional requirements—should be decomposed into smaller, manageable items.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Work items, including non-functional requirements, should be split to fit within a sprint’s capacity. Teams use story-splitting techniques and prioritize parts that provide the most value or enable further development.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Story Sizing)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“If a user story or requirement is too large for a sprint, it should be broken down. Even performance and security requirements can often be delivered incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A ignores important non-functional quality attributes.

B is not in line with agile's sustainable pace and team stability.

C deflects ownership without attempting a solution.

Answer: D

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If the team members are already communicating regularly with each other and the customer, the daily coordination meetings may not be necessary. The project manager should adapt to the team's needs by reducing the frequency of these meetings, allowing the team to focus more on delivering work. This approach supports Agile principles of minimizing waste and encouraging efficient communication, ensuring that meetings are only held when they add clear value. The team can use alternative methods (e.g., a digital board or asynchronous communication) to stay aligned.

The correct answer is C – Priority list of desired features and functions.

Agile emphasizes customer collaboration and delivering the highest-value features early. The product owner works closely with the customer to prioritize the backlog so that the most valuable items are delivered first. A prioritized list ensures clarity and alignment with stakeholder expectations.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Work is prioritized to deliver the greatest value as early as possible. The product owner and stakeholders continuously collaborate to ensure that the backlog reflects current priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Prioritization and Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Agile teams deliver customer value incrementally by implementing high-priority items first. Prioritization is based on value, risk, and feedback.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are incorrect:

A is a traditional project artifact and not used in Agile backlog planning.

B emphasizes cost over value and may create waste.

D is predictive rather than adaptive; Agile favors short-term planning based on priority.

Answer: C

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The Walking Skeleton approach involves developing a minimal, end-to-end working system with just enough functionality to demonstrate how the product works in its simplest form. This is often used in Agile to ensure the core structure of the product is in place, and it allows stakeholders to see how basic features are implemented and how the product will evolve. By highlighting this approach, the project manager can help the sponsor understand the essential features and the incremental development process, making it clear what will be developed and when, without overwhelming them with detailed planning at this stage.

The correct answer is D – Estimating the relative size of stories by using story points.

Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique used in Agile to assign relative size (often using story points) to product backlog items. Each team member selects a card to indicate their estimate, and the group discusses discrepancies to reach agreement.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique that helps teams estimate the size of user stories using story points. It supports collaboration and shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation Techniques)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Planning poker helps teams perform relative sizing using a modified Fibonacci sequence. The goal is not precision, but shared understanding and relative complexity comparison.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options are incorrect:

A describes analogy-based estimation, not planning poker.

B refers to “bucket system” estimation, a separate technique.

C refers to dot voting, which is a prioritization—not estimation—tool.

Answer: D

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Agile principles emphasizejust-in-time (JIT) planning and design, meaning work should not begin until it's pulled into the current sprint or iteration. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4 Iteration Planning)andMike Griffiths (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), teams shouldfocus on committed iteration workand avoid speculative work that is not yet planned or prioritized.

Designing item B early introducesunvalidated assumptionsand risksreworkif priorities or requirements change. Agile encourages deferring decisions until the last responsible moment to preserve flexibility.

Option Ais correct: the team shouldwait until item B is formally plannedbefore investing effort.

Option Bviolates agile principles by introducing premature work.

Option CandDsuggest formal escalation that is unnecessary and not in the spirit of agile’s decentralized decision-making.

The scrum master should first remind the team of the purpose and goals of each scrum event (such as the daily standup, sprint planning, sprint review, and retrospective) to ensure that they remain focused on their intended outcomes. The scrum master can then implement a policy that ensures discussions that deviate from the scope of the event are stopped. This approach keeps the team on track, prevents time-wasting conversations, and helps maintain the efficiency of the events.

This method empowers the team to stay focused on what is essential for each event and encourages self-management while still providing room for relevant discussions. In doing so, the team can achieve the desired outcomes of each scrum event without unnecessary delays.

In Agile, building increments and ensuring early feedback are key to delivering value quickly and meeting tight deadlines. By focusing on delivering a minimum viable product (MVP), the team can provide the customer with a version of the product that delivers essential functionality early, which allows for feedback and adjustments before the final version is released. This approach helps the team stay within the limited budget and timeline while ensuring that they are delivering the most important features first. Additionally, early customer feedback ensures that the team is on track to meet the project goals and allows for the rapid adaptation of the product.

The correct answer is A – Cross-train some members in the automation framework to broaden their capacity with that skill. Agile teams are cross-functional and self-organizing. Cross-training helps build resilience, reduce skill bottlenecks, and ensure continuous delivery without unnecessary delays or dependence.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Cross-training improves team performance and flexibility. Agile encourages developing T-shaped skills—broad knowledge across functions and deep knowledge in one.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Cross-Functionality)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“High-performing agile teams actively cross-train to address skill gaps and reduce dependencies. This enhances velocity and self-sufficiency.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B undermines team self-management and is not the PO’s responsibility.

C delays the needed skill improvement.

D sacrifices quality and value.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D – Encourage the team member to use experimentation/spikes for continuous improvement and help the team understand why it is important. Agile encourages learning and experimentation through techniques like spikes (time-boxed research or exploration activities).

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages teams to experiment and learn continuously. Time-boxed spikes can be used to investigate alternative designs, reduce uncertainty, and support informed decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes and Uncertainty Reduction)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Spikes are short, time-limited investigations into a design or technical approach. They are a vital part of agile development for reducing risk, exploring alternatives, and enabling innovation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A and C discourage innovation and agility.

B defers action rather than enabling real-time learning.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – Include it in the product backlog and use a new indicator to annotate that it is technical debt. Agile teams track technical debt transparently by adding it to the product backlog. Marking it with a clear label helps the team and product owner consider it during prioritization and planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Technical debt should be made visible and added to the product backlog. Teams may use tags or indicators to distinguish it and make informed prioritization decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Technical Debt)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Technical debt must be tracked in the backlog to avoid long-term consequences. Tagging it ensures stakeholders are aware and can prioritize its resolution appropriately.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B assumes all technical debt is low priority, which may not be true.

C is incorrect; agile explicitly recommends tracking tech debt.

D introduces inconsistency and reduces visibility.

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The correct answer is A — A formalized agile approach offers controlled flexibility in dealing with unknown variables in a manner that adds business value.

Agile is designed to operate effectively under conditions of high uncertainty. It allows for controlled experimentation, feedback loops, and adaptive changes, all while maintaining a focus on delivering business value. This makes it ideal for environments reliant on data analytics and frequent changes.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide the flexibility to respond to changing conditions and unknowns while ensuring that value delivery remains aligned with stakeholder needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 – Agile Principles)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile’s incremental delivery model enables teams to validate assumptions and adapt based on feedback and data—making it a natural fit for data-driven organizations.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

B is factually incorrect and overly simplistic.

C misrepresents agile as a formal change-control process.

D is an opinion, not a principle.

The correct answer is A — Communicate the importance of the business need to the team and refine the product backlog.

One of Agile’s core strengths is responding to change. The product owner owns the product backlog and should adjust it when external factors shift priorities. Transparent communication about the business need ensures that the development team understands the context and can support the new direction.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“The product owner is responsible for maintaining and adjusting the product backlog to reflect new information and changes in business needs. Agile welcomes changing requirements, even late in development, to provide competitive advantage.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 — Agile Manifesto Principles)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“When market or customer needs change, the product owner refines the backlog and communicates the business context to the team so priorities are adjusted accordingly.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

B and C shift product owner responsibilities elsewhere.

D involves the team but omits the critical first step — communicating business rationale and refining the backlog accordingly.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is D – Work with the team to ensure that acceptance criteria is being properly defined and understood.

Incomplete work that fails to meet stakeholder expectations often results from unclear or misunderstood acceptance criteria. Clarifying the definition of “done” and ensuring alignment between the Product Owner and development team can drastically reduce rework and defects.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Clear and testable acceptance criteria help ensure shared understanding. Quality issues frequently stem from misaligned expectations or vague requirements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done and Acceptance Criteria)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Teams must understand what success looks like for each story. Poorly defined or misunderstood acceptance criteria are a major cause of defects and missed expectations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Other options explained:

A (spike) is used for research or uncertainty—not fixing misunderstood requirements.

B (burndown chart) helps track progress, not resolve defects.

C may help indirectly but doesn't address the core problem of unclear requirements.

Answer: D

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According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2.2), one of the key responsibilities of the agile practitioner is toactively engage stakeholdersthroughout the development cycle—not just during review meetings. Agile frameworks promote continuous collaboration and frequent feedback. Merely attending sprint reviews is passive participation and may lead to missed alignment on expectations.

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)that stakeholder satisfaction requires more than periodic visibility—it requiresongoing interactionand inclusion in decision-making and backlog refinement sessions. This deepens shared understanding and reduces the risk of late-stage surprises.

Hence, answerBis correct because proactivestakeholder engagement with the product ownerfosters mutual understanding, timely feedback, and course correction—ensuring the product aligns with expectations.

The daily standup is focused on ensuring the team stays synchronized on their commitments for the sprint, and it is meant to be a short meeting where team members quickly discuss what they did the previous day, what they plan to do today, and any blockers they are facing. It is not a forum for external stakeholders to ask detailed questions about the sprint backlog or delivery timelines, as this can disrupt the team's focus and hinder the meeting's efficiency.

By explaining that the standup is about synchronizing commitments, the project manager helps the business partners understand the purpose of the meeting and suggests an appropriate time and place for discussing more detailed or strategic topics.

Stated understanding of the release goal

The release goal provides clarity on the purpose and objectives of the release. It helps stakeholders understand the value the team aims to deliver.

List of the user stories that will be part of the next releases

A well-defined list of user stories ensures that stakeholders know which features and functionalities are planned for upcoming releases.

The "Life Timeline" exercise is a technique used to buildpsychological safety and vulnerability-based trust. According toMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), exercises that encourage sharing personal stories and emotional journeys fosterdeep interpersonal connection, which is foundational tohigh-performance teams.

ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Building Trust)emphasizes the role of emotional intelligence and trust-building in agile teams, stating that teams become high-performing when they feelsafe to express themselveswithout fear of judgment.

Option Bis correct: the exercise builds vulnerability and trust—key drivers of high performance.

Option Afocuses on trust but doesn't emphasizevulnerability, which is central here.

Option Cis too generic.

Option Dmisframes the purpose—it’s about building connection, not assessing competencies.

The correct answer is D – Turn the requests into user stories and prioritize them. In agile, all feature requests must be expressed in the form of user stories and added to the product backlog. Once added, they are prioritized collaboratively with the product owner and stakeholders, usually based on value, risk, and effort.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product backlog refinement includes breaking down large items into user stories, reprioritizing items, and ensuring they are properly understood by the team. This activity is critical in ensuring the right items are worked on at the right time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Refinement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile teams transform customer needs into user stories during backlog grooming. These are then prioritized by the product owner to ensure maximum value is delivered early.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Option A ignores customer needs. Option B (ordering by complexity) does not consider value. Option C skips the important step of converting feature requests into properly structured backlog items.

Answer: D

=========

Thestorming phase(from Tuckman’s model: Forming–Storming–Norming–Performing) is marked byconflict and role negotiation. Theagile coach or Scrum Masterplays a critical role in guiding teams through this phase withstructured facilitation and conflict-resolution techniques.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Team Development Stages)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), the agile coach must providesupport, guidance, and toolsto help the team evolve toward self-organization and maturity.

Option Bis correct: effective facilitation helps the team progress toward high performance.

Option Apromotes dysfunction.

Option Crisks escalating unresolved conflict.

Option Dis overly individual-focused and not team-centric.

The correct answer is B – Ensure there is a balanced mix of people who are experts and members with broad experience based on the work to be performed and determine training needs.

Scrum encourages cross-functional, self-organizing teams with complementary skills. Building a balanced team that reflects both depth and breadth of experience ensures optimal delivery while enabling team learning.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are cross-functional. The team may need T-shaped skills—members with deep expertise in one area and a willingness to broaden knowledge in other areas. Creating balanced teams with knowledge diversity leads to better collaboration and learning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Team selection should prioritize diversity of skill sets and the ability to collaborate, not just performance history. The goal is a team that can deliver value collectively, not as individuals.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are not suitable:

A may reduce team diversity and discourage healthy conflict resolution.

C may not be feasible in distributed environments and is not a strict requirement.

D focuses on individual velocity contributions, which contradicts Agile’s team-based delivery focus.

Answer: B

Transparency is key in agile. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communications)emphasizes the use ofinformation radiators—visual displays such as task boards, burndown charts, or Kanban boards thatimmediately communicate project status. These tools make progress visible to all stakeholders without needing detailed documentation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)reinforces thatcollocated displays or shared online boardsreduce misunderstandings and keep stakeholders aligned.

Option Dis correct: a public project board offersreal-time visibilityand promotes transparency.

Option Acontradicts agile by emphasizing documentation over working software.

Option Blimits visibility to a subset of stakeholders and is passive.

Option Cdisrupts the team’s daily focus—stand-ups are not intended for stakeholder participation.

The correct answer is D – The Product Owner is responsible for both the budget and the release plans.

In Scrum and Agile frameworks, the Product Owner acts as the voice of the customer and is responsible for maximizing the value of the product. This includes managing the product backlog, prioritization, and release planning. Additionally, in Agile environments, budget management—especially in terms of what value is delivered with what investment—is a key aspect of the Product Owner’s role.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner manages the backlog and prioritizes work based on value delivery. The Product Owner is also typically responsible for budgeting and release planning, often in collaboration with stakeholders.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Roles and Responsibilities)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Release planning and value-based budget decisions fall under the Product Owner’s responsibilities, as they are closest to business stakeholders and value prioritization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are incorrect:

A is partially correct but misplaces budget responsibility.

B is traditional and does not reflect Agile delegation to the team and Product Owner.

C promotes team ownership but budget and release planning specifically lie with the Product Owner.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is B – Meet face to face at regular intervals to enhance shared understanding.

While Agile favors colocation, it acknowledges that distributed teams are common. The Agile approach encourages face-to-face communication as the most effective means of information sharing. When colocation isn’t possible, periodic in-person meetings help establish team trust and understanding.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Even with distributed teams, periodic face-to-face interactions are recommended to foster team cohesion and alignment. This is especially important during team formation and key planning activities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Communication and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths also advises:

“Remote teams benefit significantly from occasional in-person meetings. This improves relationships, shared understanding, and effectiveness in virtual collaboration.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options fall short:

A is about external support and not core to working agreements.

C undermines team transparency and agile principles of shared communication.

D could encourage fragmentation instead of collaboration.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is A — Make sure the product owner is fully embedded into the project team so that they are readily available to make quick decisions.

One of the major benefits of agile is that decision-making is streamlined by having empowered roles, such as the product owner, closely embedded with the team. This reduces delays and improves the responsiveness and accuracy of decisions, especially for prioritization and clarification.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Empowering the product owner and embedding them with the team ensures faster decision-making, increased feedback loops, and reduces delays.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile teams thrive when key decision-makers, especially the product owner, are available to provide clarification and approval on the spot.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B is too broad and may slow decision-making further.

C adds overhead and delays.

D misplaces decision authority; the Scrum Master is not responsible for product decisions.

Answer: A

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The most effective way to address and correct defects while maintaining predictability and capacity is by working with the team to establish clear coding and quality standards, as well as comprehensive testing policies. By setting these explicit rules, the team will have a shared understanding of the quality expectations and testing requirements, which will help prevent defects from escaping into production. This approach focuses on building quality into the process, rather than reacting to defects after they occur, and supports the long-term goal of improving software quality and predictability without overburdening the team.

Velocity is a measure of how much work a team completes in a given sprint, typically measured in story points or other units of effort. While velocity can be useful for tracking progress and forecasting future work, it has some limitations when it comes to accurate capacity planning.

Velocity can vary from sprint to sprint due to multiple factors, such as the complexity of the tasks, interruptions, or even external influences. This variability can make it difficult to predict how much work a team can handle in future sprints, leading to inaccurate capacity planning.

Agile teams operate on the principle ofinspect and adapt. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives)andPMBOK® Guide 6th Edition (Section 3.7), retrospectives are designed forexperimentation and safe failure. Teams should be encouraged to try new process improvements and assess their impact. If the result is not positive, it’s an opportunity for collective learning—not for blame.

Mike Griffiths states in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)that leaders shouldfoster a culture of experimentation, where teams are praised for trying new approaches, even if they fail. This maintains psychological safety and continuous learning.

Thus,Option Ais correct: Commending the attempt and facilitating a team discussion to explore alternatives is consistent with agile values and promotes team maturity.

The correct answer is D – Confirm managers and stakeholders are invited to product review meetings. Agile promotes early and continuous feedback from stakeholders through regular reviews (e.g., sprint reviews or demos). Their active engagement ensures alignment with evolving business needs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Demonstrating working product increments at iteration reviews allows stakeholders to inspect progress, provide feedback, and align expectations. Agile teams rely on these sessions to validate whether the product meets business requirements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and 5.2 – Reviews)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Frequent stakeholder reviews reduce risk by capturing early feedback. Stakeholder participation in iteration reviews ensures alignment and continuous validation of business goals.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A includes only the team; stakeholders are critical to product validation.

B is insufficient—product owner alignment alone doesn’t ensure business alignment.

C refers to documentation, not collaboration.

Answer: D

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TheMoSCoW method(Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have) is aprioritization techniquecommonly used in agile to determine which stories deliver the most value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Prioritization Techniques)lists MoSCoW as one of the methods used by product owners and teams toprioritize backlog items.

Option Ais correct: MoSCoW is a proven agile prioritization method.

Option Bis used forestimation, not prioritization.

Option Cis not a standard agile prioritization method.

The act ofsharing iteration charts and progress metricsreflects a core agile value:transparency. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1: Communication and Transparency)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), transparency enables stakeholders to participate constructively in decision-making and promotestrust and visibility.

Option Ais correct: sharing charts buildsopenness and visibilityon the project's progress.

Option Bmay occur, but it’s not theprimary practicedescribed.

Option Cfocuses ondelivery method, not transparency.

Option Dis part of agile, but the emphasis here is onproject health visibility.

The correct answer is D — Up-to-date project radiators.

Information radiators provide at-a-glance visibility into project status, progress, blockers, and other key metrics. Sharing or including these visual tools in extended stakeholder communication ensures transparency and up-to-date awareness, which aligns with agile values.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Information radiators provide immediate and transparent access to project health and status. They reduce the need for formal reporting and keep stakeholders aligned in real time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.6 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths:

“Using radiators to keep stakeholders informed improves trust, accelerates decision-making, and supports ongoing engagement.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and B are not relevant for stakeholder reporting.

C is too narrow and lacks the holistic view offered by radiators.

Answer: D

The correct answer is B – The duration of feedback cycles has increased.

In Agile, quick feedback is crucial to success. An increase in feedback cycle time indicates breakdowns in communication, delayed decision-making, or weak collaboration—all of which are signs that a distributed team may not be functioning effectively.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Distributed teams require more intentional efforts to maintain communication and reduce feedback loops. Lag in feedback reduces responsiveness and impedes value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Agile Team Communication)

Mike Griffiths highlights:

“One of the key risks in distributed teams is the degradation of feedback speed. Long feedback cycles result in slower adaptation and lost opportunities.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A (more emails) is neutral—could be communication, not dysfunction.

C (increased velocity) is a positive sign.

D (rescheduling meetings) is an adjustment, not necessarily dysfunction.

Answer: B

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This situation introduces technical uncertainty. In agile, such scenarios are best addressed byspikesorincremental implementationandearly feedback. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Experimentation)suggests that uncertain work should be prototyped, tested early, and shown during sprint reviews for feedback and learning.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)recommends testing high-risk integrations early and iteratively, rather than over-planning.

Option Dis correct: developing, testing, and demonstrating early minimizes risk and aligns with agile principles.

Option Aleans toward waterfall-style planning and over-documentation.

Option Bincorrectly assumes non-functional requirements are less valuable—they’re critical in many systems.

Option Cmay delay necessary architectural work and increase risk.

The correct answer is A – The Agile team should engage stakeholders regarding the proposed designs and ensure that sufficient engagement occurs throughout the project in an adaptive way.

Agile thrives on continuous stakeholder engagement. Ignoring feedback or rigidly sticking to past decisions defeats Agile's principle of responding to change over following a plan. Even if designs have been created, collaboration must continue.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engaging stakeholders early and often helps ensure alignment and mitigates late surprises. Adaptive planning allows for feedback and refinement throughout the lifecycle.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Stakeholder collaboration and frequent inspection are cornerstones of Agile. Late feedback is better than no feedback. Teams must adapt.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Other options:

B discourages collaboration.

C emphasizes documentation over interaction.

D is drastic and unnecessary.

Answer: A

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To identify the features that offer the maximum value, the product owner should focus on understanding the needs and priorities of the product's end users. By identifying the users and their key activities, the product owner can ensure that the features included in the roadmap directly address the most important user needs and deliver the highest value. This user-centric approach ensures that the product delivers tangible benefits to its intended audience and aligns with their requirements.

The correct answer is C – Refer to the remaining prioritized backlog items. Agile planning is iterative and based on the product backlog’s prioritization. During iteration planning, once the team has identified most story points to be delivered, it should refer back to the product backlog and select the next highest-priority user stories to fill in the remaining capacity, considering the team’s historical velocity.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Iteration planning begins with the team reviewing the prioritized backlog items. Based on their velocity, they determine how many stories can be completed. Teams select stories from the top of the backlog and stop when they reach their capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Iteration Planning)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“Agile teams rely on a prioritized backlog maintained by the product owner. Iteration planning involves pulling the highest-priority stories into the sprint until the team reaches its forecasted velocity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options are incorrect:

A is counter to adaptive planning and proactive engagement.

B focuses on technical feasibility, not business priority.

D ignores prioritization and may add low-value work.

Answer: C

The correct answer is C – Risk-value quadrant. This technique is a prioritization matrix that helps teams identify and rank backlog items by evaluating their business value against their risk. This ensures early delivery of high-value and high-risk features, supporting fail-fast learning and reducing uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The risk-value matrix helps prioritize features by plotting them based on business value and implementation risk. High-value/high-risk items are often addressed first.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The risk-value quadrant is a powerful tool to guide agile prioritization. It ensures the most valuable and uncertain items are tackled early to deliver insights quickly.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is used for estimation, not prioritization.

B is a scheduling concept, not a prioritization method.

D refers to story quality (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable), not prioritization.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C — Ask management to ensure that the resource is available to only one project at a time.

Agile promotes dedicated, stable teams over multitasking. Task-switching reduces productivity and leads to context-switching overhead. If a key resource is overburdened and switching between multiple projects, the best solution is to secure focused commitment by escalating to management for support.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams should be dedicated and work on one project at a time. Splitting attention across multiple efforts reduces velocity and quality due to context switching.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.1 – Team Composition)

Mike Griffiths highlights:

“Effective agile teams are stable, long-lived, and dedicated. Shared resources create bottlenecks, undermine predictability, and impair team dynamics.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A may solve bandwidth issues but not focus or ownership.

B addresses symptoms, not the core issue of divided focus.

D tolerates a harmful practice that contradicts agile team stability.

Answer: C

The correct answer is B – Evaluate the impact of the change request and let the team and Product Owner decide and reprioritize based on value. Agile allows for mid-iteration changes only in exceptional cases where business value is at risk. Such changes must be evaluated collaboratively.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams may allow scope changes mid-iteration if the benefit clearly outweighs the cost. In such cases, the Product Owner and team collaboratively assess and decide whether to accommodate the change.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Iteration Planning and Scope Flexibility)

Mike Griffiths also explains:

“While mid-iteration changes are discouraged, if the change is critical to business value, the team and Product Owner may replan collaboratively. Agile encourages flexibility with customer-focused decision-making.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and D bypass collaborative evaluation.

C is too extreme for a small but valuable change.

Answer: B

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The agile lead is emphasizing the importance of creating a safe environment for disagreement, which encourages constructive conflict. In Agile, this is crucial because it allows team members to openly express differing opinions and perspectives. Such discussions often lead to better decision-making by surfacing various viewpoints and potential solutions. When teams feel safe to disagree, it fosters creativity, innovation, and problem-solving without fear of retribution. This aligns with Agile principles of collaboration, transparency, and continuous improvement.

The best approach for the agile coach would be to address the root cause of the concern immediately and help the team reflect on their current processes to identify ways to improve. This can be achieved by engaging the team in a discussion that focuses on understanding the issues related to the technical design and the definition of done (DoD).

This will allow the team to openly discuss and identify specific areas of the technical designs that do not meet the DoD. By understanding the underlying issues, the coach can help the team find solutions and ensure that future work aligns with the agreed-upon quality standards and expectations.

Once scope and acceptance criteria are known, the next step is toestimate the size and effort of backlog items, which enables planning. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Backlog Estimation)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)recommend using estimation techniques (e.g., story points, T-shirt sizing) to determine therelative effort of each backlog itembefore performing release or sprint planning.

Option Dis correct: backlog estimation enables velocity-based forecasting.

Option AandBcome after estimation is complete.

Option Cis too narrow—iteration planning comes later.

The correct answer is C – Schedule a story grooming session with the product owner before sprint planning. Story grooming (backlog refinement) ensures that stories are ready, appropriately detailed, and understood before planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Backlog refinement sessions are a key practice where the team, facilitated by the Scrum Master, ensures that backlog items are well-defined and sized appropriately for future planning. These sessions reduce ambiguity and promote shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Backlog refinement allows stories to be clarified, split, and estimated ahead of planning. Agile practitioners ensure backlog items meet the Definition of Ready (DoR) before sprint planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A delays collaboration and is too passive.

B lacks product owner involvement.

D is a sizing technique, not a requirement clarification method.

Answer: C

‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾

In Agile, ensuring that the product works without bugs or missing features can be achieved through continuous testing and validation of the product. Test-driven development (TDD) is an approach where tests are written before the code is developed. This helps ensure that each feature is fully tested as it is built, focusing on customer requirements from the start and preventing issues from accumulating. By using TDD, the product owner ensures the product is being tested incrementally, which reduces the risk of defects and aligns with customer expectations for a high-quality product upon release.

The correct answer is A – Ask the team for suggestions.

In Agile, the Scrum Master serves the team by facilitating problem-solving rather than dictating actions. When a team member falls behind, the first step is to bring the issue to the team (e.g., in a daily stand-up or task review session) and allow the team to self-organize around resolving the impediment—whether through swarming, pairing, or shifting workload.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams are empowered to self-organize and solve problems collaboratively. The Scrum Master supports this by facilitating discussion and removing impediments—not by reassigning work unilaterally.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset and Section 6.2 – Coaching Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths also explains:

“The Scrum Master fosters a problem-solving culture. When issues arise, teams should explore solutions together—this builds ownership and improves trust.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are less suitable:

B circumvents team collaboration and may lead to resentment or overburdening.

C may be needed later, but collaborative resolution should be the first step.

D escalates prematurely and is not aligned with servant-leadership principles.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Invite the team to evaluate the suggestion and measure the effectiveness of the implementation.

In Agile, continuous improvement is a shared responsibility, and retrospectives are meant to be collaborative sessions where all team members—regardless of experience—can contribute. Ideas that could enhance performance should be discussed by the team as a whole and, when deemed valuable, tested and evaluated in upcoming sprints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team owns the process and should inspect and adapt at regular intervals. During retrospectives, the team identifies potential improvements and experiments with them in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Retrospectives empower teams to improve. All suggestions, regardless of origin, should be treated with respect. Teams test ideas and inspect outcomes to improve incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why other options fall short:

A delays action and discourages innovation.

C makes the product owner responsible for a team process decision, which is outside their role.

D promotes hierarchy, which undermines team collaboration and Agile values.

Answer: B

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Step 1: Identifying Remaining MVP Story Points

From the backlog, the MVP-related stories that are not started include:

Accessibility – color blind (4 story points)

Increase security (21 story points)

Add AI chatbot (5 story points)

Total remaining MVP story points = 4 + 21 + 5 = 30

Step 2: Projected Sprint Completion

MVP Completion: The risk register mentions a burn reduction for sprints 4-6 due to holiday schedules.

If the burn rate is consistent after sprint 6, the MVP will be completed by sprint 9.

The entire backlog is projected to complete by sprint 16 assuming no further deviations.

Task boards (or visual boards) are a great way to facilitate communication within the team. By using a task board, team members can easily see what work has been completed, what is currently being worked on, and what still needs attention. This visual aid helps keep everyone on the same page, ensures that information is shared transparently, and can help identify potential bottlenecks or communication gaps. It improves collaboration and visibility, making it easier for the team to coordinate and align on tasks, leading to fewer delays in the development process.

When issuesrecur across multiple iterations, it’s a strong indication that theroot cause has not been addressed. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)recommend performingroot cause analysistechniques (e.g., 5 Whys, Fishbone diagram) to ensure that the true source of recurring problems is uncovered and resolved.

Option Bis correct: identifying root causes is essential to sustainable improvements.

Option Amay help but doesn’t address the underlying team-level process.

Option Cis usefulaftera solution is implemented but not the priority when the cause is unknown.

Option Dis helpful for tracking, but again, ineffective if the root cause is unidentified.

The correct answer is C – Encourage all feedback then work with the customer to prioritize work for future sprints. Agile welcomes continuous feedback and values customer collaboration. All feedback should be collected and considered, but the product backlog is reprioritized to align with capacity and business goals.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile promotes constant feedback to refine product direction. Feedback is incorporated into the backlog, prioritized based on value, and delivered incrementally according to capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery and Continuous Customer Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Stakeholder feedback is essential in agile. Not all feedback can be implemented immediately, but it should be welcomed, evaluated, and prioritized transparently in collaboration with the product owner and stakeholders.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A implies a heavy process not aligned with agile.

B prematurely limits feedback before collaborative prioritization.

D ignores the product owner’s prioritization role.

Answer: C

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When a security issue is revealed mid-sprint, the project manager should consult with both the product owner and the project team. The product owner is responsible for prioritizing the backlog and ensuring that the most valuable features are worked on, while the team will help assess the technical implications of addressing the security issue.

The product owner needs to understand the impact of the security issue on the product's value and determine if it needs to be prioritized over other work in the sprint.

The project team should help evaluate the effort required to address the issue and ensure that the solution is feasible within the sprint’s capacity.

By collaborating with both the product owner and the team, the project manager can make an informed decision on whether to adjust the sprint plan, reprioritize the backlog, or take necessary actions to address the vulnerability. This ensures that the security issue is resolved without jeopardizing the overall sprint goals.

In Agile, it's important to maintain focus on the current sprint's goals and scope. Since the sprint deadline is approaching, adding additional features may compromise the team's ability to deliver the planned work on time. The best approach is to explain to the client that the new features can be considered for the next sprint, ensuring that the team can finish the current work and deliver value on time. This also allows the team to properly plan for the new features in the next iteration without overloading the current sprint.

The Scrum Master should facilitate open discussions between the product owner and the development team to help them align on the initial features and the first stages of implementation. By encouraging dialogue, the Scrum Master can ensure that both parties understand each other’s perspectives and collaborate to find a solution that meets the goals of the project. This approach fosters a collaborative environment and ensures that everyone is aligned on what needs to be delivered, promoting shared ownership of the product’s success.

The correct answer is B — Chair a weekly team retrospective focusing on identifying areas for continuous improvement.

Retrospectives are a core Agile practice used to inspect and adapt the team’s process, foster self-improvement, and enhance performance. If productivity is flat, the best approach is to collaboratively reflect with the team to uncover bottlenecks, identify areas for experimentation, and implement process adjustments.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a key feedback loop that allow the team to assess their performance and decide how to improve it. The retrospective is a cornerstone for continuous improvement and high-performing teams.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Rather than externally imposed metrics, agile teams should drive performance improvements through retrospectives where they inspect their own work and collectively identify opportunities for efficiency.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is diagnostic but insufficient for process improvement without team involvement.

C introduces hierarchy and undermines team empowerment.

D introduces extrinsic motivation, which may damage team collaboration and intrinsic ownership.

Answer: B

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At this point in the planning process, the team has not yet gathered enough data to provide a precise release date. The team's velocity (the amount of work they can complete in each iteration) has not been established, and the team needs some iterations to stabilize and gather insights. However, they can offer a broad range based on the current understanding of the backlog and priorities. This allows the sponsor to have a rough expectation while also managing the uncertainty involved at this stage in the process.

In Agile, flexibility and adaptability are key, especially when dealing with uncertain or changing requirements like evolving government regulations. The agile coach should ensure that the team is building the product incrementally, allowing for adjustments as needed. This way, when the regulatory changes occur, the team can adapt quickly without disrupting the entire release process. By focusing on delivering small, workable increments, the team can respond to changes more efficiently.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2.1), the Scrum Master’s role includesremoving impediments and shielding the team from outside interference. A team member being pulled into work on a different project is a classic example of an impediment. Recording the issue in a risk register is appropriate, but more importantly,the Scrum Master must communicate and resolve the issue.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)emphasizes that agile teams require full dedication and protection from context switching, as multitasking reduces productivity and increases error rates. Merely documenting the issue is not enough—the Scrum Master must take steps toescalate and resolve the interference, potentially by negotiating with the former supervisor or re-clarifying role boundaries.

Therefore,Option Cis correct as it involvesactively addressing the threatrather than passively monitoring or adjusting around it.

Agile valuesactive stakeholder collaboration and transparency. The best way to address stakeholder concerns is toengage them directlyin the feedback loop. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)both recommend inviting stakeholders toiteration reviewsor demos to provide updates and gather feedback.

Option Cis correct: inviting the regional sales manager to the review fosters transparency and collaboration.

Option AandBdismiss valid stakeholder input, which goes against agile principles.

Option Dis overly cautious and does not proactively resolve the issue.

The correct answer is B – Break the story up and focus on the most valuable parts. Agile promotes progressive elaboration, and large or complex stories (epics) should be broken down into smaller, testable user stories. This practice enables clarity, faster feedback, and more accurate planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Large stories (epics) should be split into smaller user stories to enable understanding, estimation, and incremental delivery. Stories should be small enough to be completed within an iteration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – User Stories and Story Splitting)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When a user story is too large or unclear, the team should break it down into smaller pieces, focusing on the most valuable parts first. Story splitting is a key agile practice.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A discourages collaboration and learning.

C delays the resolution unnecessarily.

D avoids solving the actual problem and abandons valuable work.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is C – Low-risk and low-value. Agile teams prioritize features that deliver the highest value earliest while also addressing risk. Features with low business value and low risk can be deferred as they contribute the least to business objectives and present no urgency.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams maximize value by focusing on delivering high-value and high-risk features early. Low-value, low-risk items are often deferred or dropped entirely if they don’t contribute meaningfully to customer outcomes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Features should be prioritized by value and risk. Items with low value and low risk are the lowest priority. Delivering high-value features quickly enables feedback and learning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A should be prioritized early to mitigate risk and deliver value.

B are non-critical and risky—often avoided or discarded.

D delivers value, and therefore should be prioritized above low-value items.

Answer: C

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To prevent the prioritization meeting from turning into a brainstorming session, the product owner should ensure that user stories are well-defined before they are added to the backlog. By reviewing the items with the product owner’s teammates (or stakeholders) beforehand, the product owner can clarify the details of the stories and ensure they are properly defined. This allows the team to focus on prioritization during the meeting, rather than spending time clarifying vague requests. This proactive approach improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the prioritization process.

Agile emphasizessustainable paceandcontinuous improvement, not overworking or overcommitting. The appropriate response is to identify why the team overcommitted, learn from it, andadjust future sprint planning. This aligns with thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Sprint Planning and Velocity)andSection 5.6: Retrospectives, which recommend using retrospectives to address such issues.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)explains that over-committing leads to poor predictability, and inspecting root causes helps refine estimation and velocity in future sprints.

Option Cis correct: it supports learning and improves future planning.

Option Apromotes unsustainable practices.

Option Bmisunderstands velocity—it’s a measurement, not something to be increased by will.

Option Dundermines team stability and agile planning based on consistent team capacity.

The Scrum Master’s role as a servant leader is to support the team, not to resolve conflicts for them. It is important for the team to work through their disagreements themselves, as this fosters collaboration and improves their problem-solving skills. The Scrum Master should encourage open communication and guide the team toward healthy conflict resolution, ensuring that the disagreements are addressed constructively. This approach helps the team build trust, improves their cohesion, and strengthens their ability to handle challenges in the future.

The correct answer is A — Suggest the product owner start by focusing on the next 2 sprints instead of 10.

Agile embraces progressive elaboration — planning is done in detail only for the near term, while long-term plans remain high level and flexible. By encouraging short-term focus, the Scrum Master helps the product owner shift from a predictive mindset to an adaptive one.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects plan at multiple levels (release, iteration, and daily), focusing on near-term commitments while allowing flexibility for change. Planning multiple sprints in detail violates the principle of adaptability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Progressive Elaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Detailed long-term estimates reduce agility. The product owner should learn to prioritize work based on value, and accept that estimates beyond the next sprint or two are rough forecasts.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

B undermines agile principles by reverting to waterfall planning.

C misuses the retrospective, which is team-focused.

D may alienate the product owner rather than encourage a mindset shift.

Answer: A

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Agile encouragesteam collaborationandself-organization. If a team member feels underutilized, the team should be encouraged to engage that person more fully, leveraging their skills across tasks. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3: Team Performance)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Development), the agile practitioner supports healthy team dynamics and facilitatesinclusive participation.

Option Cis correct: promoting team-level inclusion helps resolve underutilization and fosters engagement.

Option Ais a last resort and undermines team stability.

Option Breframes the issue as a performance problem when it may not be.

Option Dunnecessarily escalates what should be resolved within the team.

The correct answer is D – Ask the team to estimate the amount of rework needed so that adjustments can be made to both the project and release plan.

Agile planning is adaptive and iterative. New information, including required rework, must be integrated into updated estimates and plans. Agile teams frequently replan based on the realities of work-in-progress.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

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A cumulative flow diagram (CFD) is a powerful tool to visualize the flow of work across different stages of the process and identify where bottlenecks are occurring. By using a CFD, the team can see the buildup of work in specific columns, such as the "Ready to be tested" queue, and determine where delays are happening. Identifying bottlenecks is the first step in improving flow and addressing the slower delivery. Once the bottleneck is identified, the team can make adjustments to improve speed, such as optimizing the testing process or redistributing workload.

The correct answer is B – Suggest the Product Owner prioritize the work items by feature to maximize value.

In Agile, the Product Owner is responsible for backlog prioritization. When multiple stakeholders have differing priorities, it is the Product Owner’s job to evaluate business value and ROI to determine which features deliver the most value and should be addressed first.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner works closely with stakeholders to ensure that the most valuable work is prioritized in the backlog. When multiple stakeholders have competing interests, the Product Owner helps mediate and prioritize based on value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Based Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile avoids trying to define all requirements up front. Instead, the backlog is groomed regularly, and the Product Owner ensures that the team is working on the highest value features.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are less effective:

A contradicts Agile principles by suggesting complete upfront requirement definition.

C puts responsibility on the customer instead of the empowered Product Owner.

D implies a waterfall approach by requiring clarity before starting.

Answer: B

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To ensure a smooth transition to SAFe, the agile team lead should have an open discussion with the team about what will change and the reasons behind these changes. Establishing a clear understanding of the transition process and addressing any concerns proactively helps alleviate fears and encourages buy-in. It's also important to discuss the timeline for the transition and how the team will adapt. By providing clarity and a process for addressing concerns, the team will feel more comfortable and confident in adopting the new methodology.

The correct answer is A – To participate in establishing a shared vision as a member of the team.

Stakeholder engagement ensures alignment between the team and business needs. Early and continuous involvement helps define product vision, clarify priorities, and ensure that the delivered product meets customer expectations.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engaging stakeholders early and often increases transparency, encourages shared ownership, and ensures that the product being developed aligns with business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Projects are more successful when stakeholders co-create the product vision and maintain involvement. Agile teams encourage active participation to ensure delivery of value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why other options fall short:

B (acceptance criteria) is mainly defined by the Product Owner, not all stakeholders.

C is typically owned by the development team.

D is not a core stakeholder responsibility in Agile.

Answer: A

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To promote transparency in an agile environment, the scrum master should ensure that key information about the team's work, progress, and velocity is easily accessible and visible to everyone. Radiating information in a common area, such as a team room or workspace, fosters openness and ensures that all team members and stakeholders can quickly understand the status of the project. This encourages shared understanding and promotes collaborative problem-solving.

Theproduct owneris responsible formaintaining and prioritizing the product backlogbased on stakeholder input. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Product Backlog and Prioritization)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), when a sponsor is dissatisfied, the product owner should confirm that their needs are clearly prioritized and represented in the backlog.

Option Bis correct: ensuring priorities are accurately captured aligns delivery with stakeholder expectations.

Option Ais reactive and not productive.

Option Cpresumes funding is the issue without confirming alignment.

Option Dundermines the product owner’s role.

The correct answer is D – Make use of a Kanban board so that the team will have a clear view of the work in progress (WIP) for the release.

Agile teams use information radiators like Kanban boards to visualize work, improve flow, identify bottlenecks, and maintain team focus. Visibility of work enhances self-organization and accountability while reducing ambiguity and delays.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Kanban boards provide visibility into the work in progress. They support collaboration, improve team focus, and are effective in both Scrum and Kanban approaches.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.1 – Visual Controls)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Visual tools such as task boards and Kanban boards allow the team to manage their flow and workload. This enables collaboration and transparency without micromanagement.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options fall short:

A introduces unnecessary meetings, potentially disrupting flow.

B may lead to micromanagement and undermine team ownership.

C implies a command-and-control style, which is contrary to Agile principles.

Answer: D

Velocity is a measure of the amount of work a team can handle during a sprint, typically measured in story points. While it can fluctuate slightly from sprint to sprint, the goal is to have velocity stabilize over time, as this helps in forecasting future sprints and planning. An increase in velocity from 27 to 35 could indicate an improvement in the team's capacity to deliver, which should be celebrated if it aligns with the team's capabilities. However, a stable velocity over time is what typically matters for predictability and planning.

Capturing and reviewinglessons learnedis a vital practice in both agile and traditional environments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives)andPMBOK® Guide (Lessons Learned Register), continuous learning from project execution helps teams and organizationsimprove predictability, quality, and efficiency.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)highlights the importance of documenting insights and feeding them into future projects for organizational maturity.

Option Ais correct: creating and reviewing a lessons learned repository supportsorganizational learningand better delivery.

Option Bconfuses issue tracking with structured learning.

Option Cremoves responsibility from the team—agile encouragesteam ownership of improvement.

Option Dis helpful in some contexts but is not a repeatable organizational improvement tool like a lessons learned repository.

As a servant leader, the agile coach’s role is to support and empower the team, helping them overcome obstacles that hinder their progress. In this case, the coach should focus on identifying and removing any impediments that are slowing down the work, whether they are technical, process-related, or communication-based. This approach enables the team to work more efficiently, enhances their ability to self-organize, and ensures they can deliver high-quality results. Simply adjusting the work plan or assigning more resources may not address the underlying issues, and a command-and-control approach is counterproductive in an Agile environment.

The best approach to resolving this conflict is collaborating, as it encourages open communication and active participation from all team members. In this case, the graphic designer’s non-participation is causing frustration within the team. The Scrum Master should facilitate a discussion where the designer can express their concerns, and the team can share why their attendance in meetings is important. By collaborating, the Scrum Master can help find a solution that addresses both the designer’s needs and the team's expectations, ensuring better teamwork and alignment moving forward. This approach encourages mutual respect and fosters a cooperative environment.

When the team isuncertain about a technical solution, aspike—a timeboxed research task—is used to explore possible approaches. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Spikes)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)recommend spikes as aformal way to explore unknowns and reduce riskin the backlog.

Option Bis correct: spikes provide structure for resolving uncertainty.

Option Aignores the technical risk.

Option Cdisrupts team structure and ownership.

Option Ddefers the problem without seeking resolution.

The correct answer is C – Invite the new release manager to the sprint demo and ask for help. Agile encourages stakeholder collaboration and visibility. Sprint reviews (also known as demos) are key opportunities for stakeholders, including release managers, to engage directly with the team and provide feedback. Since the issue is related to environmental instability and the new release manager is a key stakeholder, involving them in the sprint review enables mutual understanding and sets the stage for collaboration.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use the sprint review to present completed work to stakeholders and receive direct feedback. It is also an opportunity to engage stakeholders who can influence the delivery environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile encourages frequent stakeholder collaboration. Sprint reviews should include key stakeholders who are responsible for operational and release matters to ensure alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Options A and D are passive approaches and may not lead to effective communication. Option B (attending daily standups) may be helpful but is not the best opportunity for strategic involvement compared to a sprint demo.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A — Teach the team the appropriate agile principle, obtain consensus, and drive adoption.

Agile values “working software over comprehensive documentation.” However, this does not mean eliminating all documentation, but rather focusing on documentation that delivers value.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams should regularly question whether the work being done adds value, including documentation. If documentation does not serve a current need or stakeholder, it should be minimized or eliminated.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 — Agile Manifesto)

Mike Griffiths further supports this in his exam prep book:

“Agile team members are encouraged to surface inefficiencies and suggest improvements. This is an example of continuous improvement and shared responsibility.”

Option A aligns with both the Agile Manifesto and the principle of team empowerment. Options B, C, and D either avoid accountability or introduce hierarchy that agile teams seek to minimize.

Answer: A

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Technical debtrefers to the accumulated cost of suboptimal design or code, often due to shortcuts or lack of refactoring. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Quality and Technical Debt)recommends treating technical debt as animpedimentthat should be logged, tracked, and discussed openly so it can be prioritized and addressed.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)advises teams to be transparent about technical debt and elevate its visibility so that product owners and stakeholders can make informed decisions.

Option Cis correct: logging technical debt as animpedimentbrings visibility and ensures discussion.

Option Amay indicate a problem, but it’s indirect.

Option Bdistorts estimation metrics and is not advised.

Option Dcould help but does not communicate impact explicitly.

The correct answer is C — Ask probing questions to other team members to encourage dissenting viewpoints.

Agile coaches foster team collaboration and help surface diverse opinions. When one member dominates, the coach should use facilitation techniques to ensure equal voice. Encouraging quieter team members to contribute through thoughtful questions promotes balanced participation and trust.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches foster an environment of trust and collaboration. When team dynamics are unbalanced, the coach helps ensure psychological safety and equal participation.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths:

“Coaches use powerful questions to draw out quieter team members and help build a culture where everyone feels heard and valued.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect choices:

A is extreme and non-collaborative.

B ignores the coach’s facilitative responsibilities.

D is reactive and too late.

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The correct answer is A — Establish and keep an active risk register that includes mitigation strategies and a cost-benefit analysis.

Risk management is essential to identifying and mitigating threats such as natural disasters. While Agile teams do not typically use traditional risk registers extensively, at the enterprise level (especially in regulated or high-risk environments), maintaining a risk register aligned with Agile values is appropriate. It should include mitigation options and their associated cost-benefit to guide decision-making.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile risk management practices include establishing lightweight mechanisms such as risk-adjusted backlog prioritization, risk registers (in high-risk or large programs), and risk mitigation strategies.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Managing Risk in Agile Projects)

PMBOK® Guide (6th Edition) supports this:

“The risk register is a critical project artifact that includes identified risks, their analysis, mitigation or response plans, and cost-benefit considerations for managing risks.”

Incorrect options:

B lacks the inclusion of mitigation strategies and full cost analysis.

C refers to surface-level risk visibility, not comprehensive risk planning.

D assumes avoidance is the only mitigation strategy, which is not always feasible or optimal.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B — Create a spike story to determine what needs to be done to use the new interface.

A spike is a special user story designed to address technical uncertainty or risk. It allows the team to explore, research, or prototype solutions within a time-box. Spikes are particularly useful for investigating unknowns such as integration with vendor systems.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are used for research and exploration. They help teams gain knowledge about technology, functionality, or business domain that is necessary before estimating or implementing a feature.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Spikes reduce uncertainty and are valuable tools for backlog refinement. They are especially helpful when the team is unsure how to implement a requirement or integrate external components.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A may delay addressing the issue until the next monthly meeting.

C defers the issue rather than exploring it.

D assumes outsourcing is the only solution and may remove team ownership.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is B – Lack of shared knowledge of user stories.

Distributed teams face challenges in collaboration, knowledge sharing, and communication. Without regular interaction, team members may not fully understand user stories, acceptance criteria, or customer needs. This leads to misalignment and potentially lower-quality outputs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Distributed teams face barriers to communication and knowledge sharing. Agile teams must use collaboration tools and practices to ensure that all members share an understanding of the user stories and priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Agile Team Communication)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Remote Agile teams must work harder to ensure clarity in user stories and maintain shared understanding. Without this, misunderstandings increase.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A (frequent integration) is a benefit, not a risk.

C is irrelevant to Agile effectiveness.

D is less common with Agile roles clearly defined (PO, SM, Dev Team).

Answer: B

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According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement), managing stakeholder expectations starts with establishing ashared visionand involving stakeholders in key activities likeiteration reviews. This ensures transparency, feedback, and alignment on progress and priorities.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)supports the idea that acommon vision and shared goalsfoster trust and improve stakeholder relationships.

Option Ais correct: a shared vision and active involvement lead to better stakeholder alignment.

Option BandCare partially right butlimit collaborationor dismiss stakeholder input.

Option Dis inconsistent with agile’s emphasis onopen, continuous communication.

The correct answer is D – Facilitate a product development roadmap workshop. Engaging stakeholders early through a roadmap workshop helps align expectations, prioritize outcomes, and build shared understanding around value delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product roadmaps provide a high-level view of deliverables and timing. Facilitating roadmap workshops ensures that all stakeholders contribute to and align with the vision.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Product Roadmap and Planning)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Roadmap workshops allow stakeholders to discuss release priorities and business goals, ensuring engagement in the planning process and continuous alignment throughout the project.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A reflects a waterfall mindset.

B involves team-level planning, not broad stakeholder engagement.

C is informative but not collaborative or sufficient for planning.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is D – Have the Product Owner explain the product vision and review the release plan with the team. One of the Product Owner’s key responsibilities is to communicate the product vision and ensure the team understands how their work aligns with business value. This fosters alignment and motivation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner is responsible for communicating the product vision and roadmap. This ensures that the team understands the ‘why’ behind the work and how each piece contributes to overall business goals.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and Product Vision)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams need context for their work. The product owner provides this by clearly sharing the vision and maintaining a transparent roadmap.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is useful but doesn’t address the larger product context.

B may help with story structuring but doesn’t clarify vision.

C delays resolving an immediate misunderstanding.

Answer: D

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