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PMI PMI-002 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Exam Practice Test

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Total 748 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Question 1

A Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs process

B.

Determine Budget process

C.

Control Costs process

D.

None

Question 2

Another term for top down estimating is:.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

Question 3

At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Initial stage

B.

Closing stage

C.

Execution stage

D.

None of the above

Question 4

Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days. What is the standard deviation for the estimates?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

1-5

D.

0-5

Question 5

All are output of verify scope.

Options:

A.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

B.

Arrow diagramming method (ADM)

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Network templates

Question 6

The Staffing Management Plan ___________, will be formal or informal.

Options:

A.

Depending on the size and complexity of the project

B.

Depending on the management

C.

Depending on the project manager

D.

Depending on the size only

Question 7

Control Costs is concerned with:

Options:

A.

Managing changes when they occur

B.

Resource rates

C.

Chart of accounts

D.

Organizational policies

Question 8

Which devises and maintains a worktable scheme to accomplish the business need that the project was undertaken to address.

Options:

A.

Development process

B.

Scoping process

C.

Planning process

D.

Information development process

Question 9

What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?

Options:

A.

To show task dependencies.

B.

To show resource constraints.

C.

To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables.

D.

To highlight the critical path.

Question 10

What is the purpose of the WBS?

Options:

A.

To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.

B.

To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.

C.

To show the organizational structure of a program.

D.

all of the above

Question 11

Which is not a technique for Sequence Activities ?

Options:

A.

Rolling Wave Planning

B.

Mandatory Dependencies

C.

Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM

D.

Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

Question 12

Which of the following documents the characteristics of a product or service that the project was undertaken to build.

Options:

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project description

D.

Scope statement

Question 13

What is not among the tools and techniques of an Organizational Planning?

Options:

A.

Staffing management plan

B.

Templates

C.

Human resource practices

D.

Organizational theory

Question 14

A program is defined in the PMBOK as:

Options:

A.

A program consists of a related group of projects and Program management is the process of managing multiple on going projects

B.

A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion of a desired outcome

C.

A project plan developed by key management personnel to obtain a desired outcome

D.

The means to subdivide the project into manageable segments

Question 15

A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

Process

C.

Schedule

D.

Flowchart

Question 16

According a PERT weighted average computation, what is the probability of completing the project within plus-or-minus 3 standard deviations of the mean?

Options:

A.

68%

B.

99.74%

C.

95%

D.

75%

Question 17

What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.

Options:

A.

Resource planning

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 18

The major project scope management process includes:

Options:

A.

Change order control

B.

Initiation

C.

Program evaluation

D.

Scope statement

Question 19

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

Question 20

Activity Resource Requirements is an input to ____________ :

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question 21

Which of the following is not true for a Resource Leveling:

Options:

A.

Project's Critical path may be altered

B.

Reverse resource allocation scheduling

C.

Resource based scheduling method

D.

None

Question 22

A Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) uses which of the following dependencies

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start

B.

Start-to-start

C.

Finish-to-finish

D.

Start-to-finish

Question 23

What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

Options:

A.

Project task

B.

Work package

C.

sow

D.

none

Question 24

Which of the following is true regarding IRR?

Options:

A.

IRR is a constrained optimization method.

B.

IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

C.

IRR is the discount rate when NPV is greater than zero.

D.

IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.

Question 25

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is:

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

Question 26

If BCWP= 450: ACWP= 410, and BCWS= 325, what is the schedule variance and the schedule performance index?

Options:

A.

+25: °875

B.

+75:1.38

C.

_50: °-875

D.

"50:1.07

Question 27

Which of the following illustrate a chart with upper or lower limits on which value of some statistical measure for a series of samples are plotted using sample measure measurement, where the mean and standard deviation are determine from the sample selected?

Options:

A.

Statistical sampling

B.

Gantt chart

C.

Pareto diagram

D.

Control chart

Question 28

How many communication channels will be required in a project having five individual participants?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

Question 29

Which characteristic distinguishes the network diagram from the Gant chart?

Options:

A.

Critical dependencies

B.

Few resources

C.

Critical dates

D.

key milestones

Question 30

As a project manager, you are responsible for maintaining and ensuring integrity for all of the following except:

Options:

A.

Personal integrity of others

B.

Project management process

C.

Personal integrity

D.

Product integrity

Question 31

Which statement is not true regarding the issue logs?

Options:

A.

Issue logs are written logs that document person responsible for resolving for specific issue by a target date.

B.

Issue logs are tool of Manage Stakeholder Expectations process.

C.

Issue logs are tool of manage project team process.

D.

Issue logs describe the ground rules and conflict management procedures to manage the project.

Question 32

The stakeholder's influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.

Options:

A.

beginning

B.

closing

C.

controlling

D.

none

Question 33

The process to change a contract clause is _______ the project change control system.

Options:

A.

Not related to

B.

An input to

C.

The same as

D.

Integrated within

Question 34

What techniques are used to control the project schedule?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance measurement

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Statistical sampling

Question 35

You are project manager and working on gathering requirements and estimating for the project. Which process group are you in?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Question 36

Which of the following is useful in Identify Risks because it permits a systemic evaluation of the work?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure.

B.

Design specification

C.

Project flow chart

D.

Project chart

Question 37

What type of organizational structure usually experiences the MOST team nervousness at project close-out?

Options:

A.

Weak matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

Question 38

Which of the following are not indirect costs?

Options:

A.

Payroll tax cost.

B.

Subcontract costs.

C.

Insurance costs.

D.

Accounting support costs.

Question 39

The project baseline is:

Options:

A.

original plans plus the approved changes

B.

important in the project initiation phase

C.

initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization

D.

None

Question 40

Your upcoming project includes project team members from a foreign country. To make certain that cultural differences do not interfere with team performance, thereby affecting the success of the project, which is your first course of action ?

Options:

A.

Provide diversity training to all the team members.

B.

Collocate the project team.

C.

Inform the team members of the organization's rules and standards.

D.

Perform team building exercises.

Question 41

The level of authority a project manager has is __________.

Options:

A.

based on the organizational structure

B.

based on the amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses

C.

based on the key stakeholder's influence on the project

D.

based on the project managers communication skills

Question 42

Planning components are tools or techniques of the Define Activities process. Which of the following are planning components?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

Question 43

Communication between the project manager and the project team members should take place:

Options:

A.

Via daily status report.

B.

Through approved documented forms.

C.

By written and oral communication.

D.

Through the formal chain of comman

Question 44

Which of the following best describes the risks that still remain after avoidance, transfer, or mitigation responses have been implemented?

Options:

A.

Contingency risks

B.

Tertiary risks

C.

Residual risks

D.

Secondary risks

Question 45

Which process involves formal product acceptance and end of a project?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

Question 46

You are project manager of a project and the funding for your project has been reduced. What is the BEST action to take in response to this?

Options:

A.

Perform detailed financial analysis and renegotiate for adequate funding.

B.

Inform in customer that the project will be delayed an adjust resources accordingly.

C.

Only do as much work as the new budget permits and document actions taken.

D.

Inform the customer of impacts and negotiate a change in scope.

Question 47

Percent complete is calculated by _________.

Options:

A.

ACWP/BAC

B.

BCWP-ACWP

C.

BCWP/BAC

D.

EAC/BAC

Question 48

How much time does a typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informally?

Options:

A.

40-60%

B.

50-70%

C.

60-80%

D.

75-90%

Question 49

Risks are accepted when __________.

Options:

A.

You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.

B.

To eliminate the threat entirely.

C.

You transfer the risk to another party.

D.

Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.

Question 50

The most effective method in developing a project team within a matrix organization is to follow the ________.

Options:

A.

Communications plan

B.

Control Scope plan

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Training development plan

Question 51

Technical staffs tend to be particularly responsive to __________.

Options:

A.

Referent power

B.

Formal power

C.

Functional power

D.

Expert power

Question 52

As part of the quality audit, the scope statement is checked against the work results to ensure the conformance to the customer requirements. The results should be documented and used for which of the following:

Options:

A.

Estimating future projects

B.

Changing the project scope

C.

Defining future project tasks

D.

Validating the quality process

Question 53

Which of the following is part of the expectancy theory of motivation?

Options:

A.

Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members

B.

Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a sense

of competence

C.

People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards

D.

None of the above

Question 54

The major project scope management processes include:

Options:

A.

Change order control

B.

Initiation

C.

Program evaluation

D.

Scope validation

Question 55

A service or product's reliability and maintenance characteristics are MOST affected by which of the following:

Options:

A.

Function

B.

Design

C.

Cost

D.

Fabrication

Question 56

Which of the following is not an input into organizational planning?

Options:

A.

Recruitment practices

B.

Project interfaces

C.

Staffing requirements

D.

Constraints

Question 57

Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except ___________.

Options:

A.

Team building

B.

Analysis of alternatives

C.

Convergent thinking

D.

Uninhibited verbalization

Question 58

You are the project manager of a project. The project plan has been developed. A project end date has been established. The customer later requesters additional work to be included in the project, but will not renegotiate the end date. Cost is not a factor. What should the project team do immediately?

Options:

A.

Invoke the change control process

B.

Initiate contingency plans

C.

Modify the original project scope to include the additional work

D.

Commit to original project scope and open a new project to handle additional work

Question 59

Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project durations more accurately?

Options:

A.

CPM

B.

PERT

C.

Schedule Simulation

D.

Path Convergence Method

Question 60

Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications Management?

Options:

A.

Identify stakeholders

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Conflict Management

Question 61

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the ___________.

Options:

A.

Owner

B.

Sponsor

C.

Customer

D.

client

Question 62

Which of the following is NOT considered as strategy for negative risk ?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Transfer

C.

Accept

D.

ExPlot

Question 63

Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance measurement

C.

Parametric modelling

D.

Statistical sampling

Question 64

Life cycle costing ________________.

Options:

A.

Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives

B.

Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service

C.

Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the resulting product

D.

Both B and c

Question 65

Project initiation is all of the following except:

Options:

A.

A process of formally recognizing that a new project exists

B.

A process of formally recognizing that an existing project should continue into its next phase

C.

It links the project to the ongoing work of the performing organization

D.

Its inputs are product description, strategic plan, constraints, and assumptions

Question 66

During the execution phase, a resource is added to the project team. What effect will this have on the project?

Options:

A.

The effect cannot be determined

B.

The project duration will be shortened

C.

A scope change will be required

D.

The quality of the project will be increased

Question 67

In which of the following contract types the seller's profit is limited?

Options:

A.

Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract

B.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

C.

Firm Fixed price contract

D.

Fixed-price-incentive fee contract

Question 68

You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him with a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if the budget should be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the usual information sources, which of the following should you also consider?

Options:

A.

Cost estimates from similar projects

B.

The WBS

C.

Long-range weather forecasts

D.

Existing change requests

Question 69

Which process involves Monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

Question 70

What-if scenario analysis is done as a part of __________ process.

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Develop Schedule

C.

Control Schedule

D.

Define Activities

Question 71

Reserve analysis is a tool or technique in all of the following processes EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Determine budget

B.

Activity resource estimation

C.

Monitor and control risks

D.

Activity duration estimation

Question 72

Which of the following is true about procurement documents?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers.

B.

Invitations for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents.

C.

Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers.

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 73

You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help them determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model, which one of the following is the most important factor?

Options:

A.

Business needs

B.

Type of constraints

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

Question 74

You are a project manager and now you are in the middle of comparing proposals received from sellers. Comparing proposals received from sellers are done in _________.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 75

During project integration activities, a project sponsor's role can best be described as doing which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues

B.

Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders

C.

Showing management the project progress and status reports

D.

None

Question 76

A contingency plan is ______________.

Options:

A.

A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event occurs

B.

A workaround

C.

A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part

D.

Both A and c

Question 77

Which of the following is an example of indirect costs?

Options:

A.

Salaries of corporate executives

B.

Salaries of full-time project staff

C.

Overhead costs

D.

Both A and C

Question 78

Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project durations more accurately?

Options:

A.

CPM

B.

PERT

C.

Schedule simulation

D.

Path convergence method

Question 79

Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency reserves is false?

Options:

A.

A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.

B.

Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.

C.

Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.

D.

Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.

Question 80

________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.

Options:

A.

Project performance

B.

Stakeholder requirements

C.

Schedule progress

D.

Cost and schedule

Question 81

Which of the following are inputs to the Source Selection process?

Options:

A.

Evaluation criteria

B.

Organizational policies

C.

Procurement documents

D.

Both A and B

Question 82

The sender is responsible for ____________.

Options:

A.

Confirming the message is understood

B.

Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message

C.

Scheduling communication exchange

D.

Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner

Question 83

AON refers to __________.

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

B.

Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]

C.

Fragment Network

D.

All of the above

Question 84

How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informally?

Options:

A.

40-60%

B.

50-70%

C.

60-80%

D.

75-90%

Question 85

Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed during which process?

Options:

A.

Distribute Information

B.

Administrative Closeout

C.

Organizational Planning

D.

Report Performance

Question 86

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called _________.

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance

B.

Quality Control

C.

plan Quality

D.

Quality Review

Question 87

All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other

B.

Avoiding conflict

C.

Seeking facts

D.

Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging

Question 88

Which of the following is part of the expectancy theory of motivation?

Options:

A.

Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members.

B.

Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a sense of competence.

C.

People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards.

D.

Both B and C are true.

Question 89

Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?

Options:

A.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

B.

Cost plus-incentive-fee contract

C.

Fixed-price-incentive contract

D.

Firm-fixed-price contract

Question 90

The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of _______________.

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Transmitting

C.

Encrypting

D.

Promoting

Question 91

Which of the following are NOT outputs of the Activity Duration Estimation process?

Options:

A.

Activity duration estimates

B.

Schedule baseline

C.

None of the choices are correct

D.

Updates to activity attribute

Question 92

Which of the following are the outputs of Collect Requirements Process?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements management plan

C.

The requirements tractability matrix

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 93

Create Procurement document is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 94

The buyer and seller are bound by the ________.

Options:

A.

Contract

B.

Responsibilities

C.

WBS

D.

Identification

Question 95

Which process group is for detailed resource assignments and responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Human resources management plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Aplan

D.

Project management plan

Question 96

Stakeholder influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.

Options:

A.

Beginning

B.

Closing

C.

Controlling

D.

Executing

Question 97

Conformance to specifications document is one description of _________.

Options:

A.

Quality

B.

Scope

C.

Integration

D.

Procurement

Question 98

What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5 to 10?

Options:

A.

35

B.

5

C.

15

D.

75

Question 99

Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

Question 100

_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.

Options:

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

F'xed P|ice

C.

Time and material

D.

"'s^ 's nc* 'elated to price

Question 101

Administrative Closure should occur ___________.

Options:

A.

At the end of each phase of the project

B.

At the end of the whole project

C.

At the end of 50% of the project

D.

At the end of 100% of the project

Question 102

You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope, what you do with the old original scope?

Options:

A.

Save the old versions

B.

No need to save old version

C.

Scrap the old version

D.

Old version is not required

Question 103

You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities, activity resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process have you left out?

Options:

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Create WBS

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Operations

Question 104

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to predict estimate. What type of estimation method are you using?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 105

Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Updating risk register

B.

Determining risk roles and responsibilities

C.

Identifying risk categories

D.

Developing a risk management plan

Question 106

You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Assumption

C.

Constraint

D.

Budget

Question 107

Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Contract documentation

C.

Deliverables

D.

WBS

Question 108

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

Question 109

Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?

Options:

A.

Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total.

B.

Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.

C.

Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.

D.

Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.

Question 110

During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.

Options:

A.

Alternative identification

B.

"'s^ assessment

C.

Alternative selection

D.

Product analysis

Question 111

Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

Options:

A.

Executive Communication

B.

Risk Management

C.

Quality Management

D.

Scope Statement

Question 112

Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a project?

Options:

A.

RACI mAl,x

B.

sow

C.

Staffing management plan D)0 CPI

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