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PMI CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Exam Practice Test

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Total 1326 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

Question 2

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 3

For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Expected monetary value analysis

D.

Decision tree analysis

Question 4

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

Options:

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Question 5

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Question 6

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (TandM).

Question 7

What can a requirements traceability matrix enable regardless of the project methodology being used?

Options:

A.

Creation of a solid business case

B.

Investigation of the viability of a new product

C.

Identification of missing and superfluous requirements

D.

Evaluation of solution and system performance

Question 8

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

Question 9

A project manager is working on project cost management. The following information is current.

* Planned value = 30

* Actual cost = 35

* Earned value = 28

Considering this data, which project indicator is correct?

Options:

A.

Schedule Variance (SV) = 2

B.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.80

C.

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 1.93

D.

Cost Variance (CV) = 7

Question 10

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Question 11

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager. What should the project manager do to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

B.

Apply emotional intelligence (EI) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team ' s issues.

C.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

D.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

Question 12

A project manager is updating their CV or resume and realizes that they need to improve skills related to expertise in the industry and organizational knowledge. Which dimension of PMI’s Talent Triangle best relates to this need to improve?

Options:

A.

Strategic and business management skills

B.

Leadership skills

C.

Technical project management

D.

Organizational management

Question 13

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Question 14

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The life cycle involves three project management process groups.

B.

Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.

C.

Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.

D.

The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.

Question 15

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question 16

What is a tool to improve team performance?

Options:

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

Question 17

A Project manager is using agile in a project. As development life cycle is adaptive, how does the project manager handle key stakeholder involvement?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are regularly involved

B.

Key stakeholders are continuously involved

C.

Key stakeholders are involved at specific milestones

D.

Key stakeholders are always involved

Question 18

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

Question 19

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

Question 20

Which subsidiary management plan.... during the project ilfe cycle?

Which Subsidiary management plan would a project manager create to manage Information dissemination during the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

B.

Quality Management Plan

C.

Communications Management Plan

D.

Scope Management Plan

Question 21

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Question 22

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

Question 23

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

Question 24

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 25

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (TandM)

Question 26

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

Options:

A.

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.

Over budget, behind schedule

C.

Under budget, behind schedule

D.

Over budget, ahead of schedule

Question 27

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

Question 28

Which three of the following interpersonal skills does a project manager rely on when developing the project management plan? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Conflict management

E.

Interviews

Question 29

An adaptive team is performing the kickoff meeting and planning the project management approach. After defining project events, one team member argues that the artifacts are missing. The project manager coaches the team to complete the planning.

Which two of the following items should be included in the planning? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Daily scrum

B.

Sprint backlog

C.

Sprint review

D.

Increments

E.

Sprint retrospective

Question 30

A business analyst sent multiple meeting requests via instant message to a subject matter expert (SME) working in another country but did not receive a response. What should the business analyst do to reduce the likelihood of this occurring in the future with other stakeholders distributed across multiple locations?

Options:

A.

Ask each stakeholder for their preferred communication method.

B.

Confirm the time zone and work days in each location.

C.

Check with the IT department to see if there is a technical issue.

D.

Assume the meeting request is accepted unless declined.

Question 31

In which project risk management process is the data analysis technique not used?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Implement Risk Response

C.

Monitor Risks

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 32

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Question 33

An employee was hired to work on ongoing, repetitive activities in the accounting department. The employee ' s duties are managing and controlling day-to-day activities. Which type of managing is the employee performing?

Options:

A.

Strategic

B.

Finance

C.

Project

D.

Operations

Question 34

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

Question 35

Which of the following is a goal of the project charter?

Options:

A.

Detail requirements for the project tasks.

B.

Empower the project manager to manage the project.

C.

List all tasks the team should perform in the project.

D.

Develop a business case to support the project.

Question 36

Which procurement management process includes obtaining seller response, seller selection, and contract awarding?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement

B.

Manage Procurement

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Perform Procurement

Question 37

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

Options:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Question 38

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

Question 39

Directing another person to get from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors and the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well is related to?

Options:

A.

Influence and challenge

B.

Innovation and administration

C.

Leadership and management

D.

Engagement and guidance

Question 40

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Team

B.

Manage Team

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Resource Management

Question 41

What tools or techniques can be used in all cost management processes ' ?

Options:

A.

Decision making and expert judgment

B.

Expert judgment and data analysis

C.

Data analysis and meetings

D.

Meetings and cost aggregation

Question 42

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

Options:

A.

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

B.

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

C.

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

D.

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

Question 43

The project manager and project team are developing approximations of the cost of resources needed to complete the project work. On which process are they working?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Question 44

During the requirements verification process, stakeholders are finding many errors in the requirements definition. What could the business analyst have done to avoid these errors?

Options:

A.

Asked the stakeholders to write the requirements themselves

B.

Included the project manager in the elicitation sessions

C.

Confirmed the elicitation results after sessions

D.

Updated the requirements traceability matrix

Question 45

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

Question 46

How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Look at the quality metrics.

B.

Validate the scope.

C.

Review the quality checklist.

D.

Conduct a quality audit.

Question 47

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Question 48

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram.... the duration of this task?

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram and needs to report back about the project status The total duration of the task is ten days, and both Activity A and B need be completed. Activity A has a duration of six days, and activity B has a duration of four days Activity B has a finish-to-start relationship with activity A Under current circumstances, activity A will take about seven days to complete.

What is the outcome of the duration of this task ' ?

Options:

A.

The task will be completed on time.

B.

The task will not be completed on time.

C.

Activity A is not a critical path task

D.

The precedence diagram cannot be used to provide answers for duration calculations

Question 49

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

Question 50

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?

Options:

A.

Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer ' s satisfaction.

B.

Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.

C.

Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.

D.

Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

Question 51

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Management

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Control Stakeholder Engagement

Question 52

Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project ' s:

Options:

A.

Level of control.

B.

Communication channels.

C.

Scope.

D.

Strategic alignment.

Question 53

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

Question 54

What Knowledge Area must be led by the project manager and cannot be delegated to other specialists?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Schedule Management

Question 55

What is purpose of using the building information model (BIM) in software tools in the construction field?

Options:

A.

Reduce significant amount of time and money

B.

Help manage risks in large projects

C.

Keep up with emerging trends

D.

Provide sellers with multiple sources for documents

Question 56

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question 57

In an interactive communication model, how is the sender ensured that the message was understood by the receiver?

Options:

A.

The receiver decodes the message

B.

The receiver responds to the message with feedback.

C.

The receiver transmits the message

D.

The receiver acknowledges their receipt of the message

Question 58

Agile release planning provides a high-level summary timeline of the release schedule based on.

Options:

A.

Activities and story points

B.

Iteration and prioritization plans

C.

Product roadmap and the product vision

D.

Tasks and user stories

Question 59

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question 60

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

Options:

A.

Requirements keep changing.

B.

An artifact must be produced.

C.

A tool or technique is required.

D.

Each project is unique.

Question 61

Due to today ' s competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

Options:

A.

Planning and risk management skills

B.

Communication and time management skills

C.

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.

Strategic and business management skills

Question 62

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

Options:

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

Question 63

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Question 64

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

Question 65

A project manager has reached an agreement on the requirements and now needs to define the workflow for the end user. A critical step must be completed and validated by the end user before proceeding.

Which modeling tool best describes this process?

Options:

A.

Traceability

B.

User interface design

C.

Use case

D.

Wireframe

Question 66

A project manager is performing the procurement management process with three vendors The project team is reviewing the requests for proposal (RFPs).

What type of procurement document is the RFP?

Options:

A.

Bid document

B.

Statement of work (SOW)

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Independent cost estimate

Question 67

In one of the project meetings during a project execution, a new stakeholder attends and highlights a new risk. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Add this risk to the lessons learned register on project completion.

B.

Add the stakeholder to the stakeholder register and add the risk to the risk register.

C.

Make sure proper testing gets completed to minimize the risk highlighted.

D.

Ignore the risk from this stakeholder as this stakeholder never showed up at the start of the project.

Question 68

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

Question 69

When establishing a contingency reserve, including time, money and resources, how is the risk being handled?

Options:

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

Question 70

The stakeholder register is an output of:

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Question 71

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

Question 72

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

Question 73

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Question 74

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 75

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project ' s time and cost objectives.

Question 76

A project team is meeting to seek solutions on a new problem that occurred recently. The meeting is comprised of two parts: the first is a generation of ideas and the second is an analysis.

Which technique is the team using?

Options:

A.

Checklists

B.

Interview

C.

Focus group

D.

Brainstorming

Question 77

Which of these is true project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects

B.

Project Integration Management and Expert Judgement are mutually exclusive

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero

Question 78

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

Options:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

Question 79

Which roles does the project manager resemble best?

Options:

A.

Orchestra conductor

B.

Facilities supervisor

C.

Functional manager

D.

School principal

Question 80

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Question 81

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

Options:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

Question 82

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Question 83

In the business analysis aspect of a construction project, what is the purpose of the requirements validation process?

Options:

A.

Ensures a thorough unit test case coverage

B.

Ensures an accurate reflection of the stakeholders ' intentions

C.

Ensures that the business problem is solved

D.

Ensures the successful delivery of business value

Question 84

What process in Project Risk Management prioritizes project risks?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Implement Risk Responses

Question 85

A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion. Which communication method is described?

Options:

A.

Push communication

B.

Pull communication

C.

Interactive communication

D.

Stakeholder communication

Question 86

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

Options:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

Question 87

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Question 88

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

Options:

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

Question 89

What prototyping technique shows a sequence or navigations through a series of images or illustrations?

Options:

A.

Storyboarding

B.

Wireframes

C.

Data simulation

D.

Report prototyping

Question 90

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

Question 91

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Question 92

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Question 93

A project manager should consider the impact of project..............manager following

A project manager should consider the impact of project decisions on supporting and maintaining the product along with project results Which process is the project manager following?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Resources Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Question 94

During project planning, team members seemed clear on deliverables. However, as the project progressed deeper into the execution phase, team members expressed the need for smaller components to better understand what must be delivered.

What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Inform the stakeholders that the stakeholder register needs to be recreated, as the team does not understand the requirements.

B.

Share the project management plan with the team members again to bring them up to speed on the requirements.

C.

Schedule additional meetings with the customer to explain the requirements for each deliverable at length.

D.

Revisit the work breakdown structure (WBS) again during execution, as the WBS can be defined at different points in the project.

Question 95

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

Options:

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

Question 96

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

Question 97

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 98

During project execution, a key resource leaves the team for another job. What should the project manager do in this situation?

Options:

A.

Submit a change request for additional budget to secure a project resource.

B.

Consult with the functional manager for a replacement resource.

C.

Distribute work to other team members to reduce impact to the project schedule.

D.

Consult the risk register for an appropriate risk response.

Question 99

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 100

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Question 101

A project veers off track due to scope creep. The project management team requests an immediate response from the major stakeholders.

What should the project manager do next to avoid project failure?

Options:

A.

Adopt a change management approach and delay the project to decide on the direction.

B.

Develop a focus group to face the issue and decide on the appropriate direction.

C.

Request a meeting with top management to state concerns about their ability to handle the situation.

D.

Delay the project by adopting a fast-fail approach, mitigating the risk of having a bigger impact on the company.

Question 102

A project manager proactively meets with other project managers who manage other projects in the same program. To minimize the impact that other projects within the program may have on their project of what should the project manager be aware?

Options:

A.

Demands on the same resources

B.

Requirements that impact the scope

C.

Uncertainty of emerging issues

D.

Project charter

Question 103

During a kickoff meeting, the project sponsor presents a very ambitious project. Unfortunately, the stakeholders are not very excited as the work associated with the new project seems inefficient.

What could be missing from the business case?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Approval from the stakeholders

C.

Feasibility study of the solution

D.

Root cause analysis of the problem

Question 104

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

Question 105

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

Question 106

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

Question 107

A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Monitor Slakeholder Engagement

Question 108

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Question 109

What is the goal of the control quality process in project management?

Options:

A.

To monitor the activities of the project and ensure Iho work is being executed as it was planned

B.

To obtain a quality cerlific ation for the product of the project service or result

C.

To assess performance and ensure the project product, service, or result meets the customer ' s expectations

D.

To test the product service, or result to determine if the errors observed are within the defined quality margins

Question 110

A project manager is assigned to a new project with a defined scope. The project requires advanced planning at the start of the project. Which approach should the project manager select for the project?

Options:

A.

Predictive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Kanban

D.

Adaptive

Question 111

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Question 112

The project manager is leading a construction project that has been ongoing for eight years. The project manager needs to calculate the correct static payback period and consults the cash flow statement of the construction project investment.

What equation should the project manager use?

Cash Flow Statement of the Project Investment Unit: US$ Billion

Period: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

Cash inflow: 0, 0, 0, 0, 1200, 1200, 1200, 1200

Cash outflow: 0, 700, 800, 500, 700, 700, 700, 700, 700

Net cash flow (NCF): 0, -700, -800, 300, 500, 500, 500, 500, 500

Accumulative total of net cash flow: 0, -700, -1500, -1200, -700, -200, 300, 800, 1300

Options:

A.

Static payback period = 3 + |-1200| / 500 = 5.4

B.

Static payback period = 6 + |300| / 500 = 6.6

C.

Static payback period = 5 + |-200| / 500 = 5.4

D.

Static payback period = 4 + |-700| / 500 = 5.4

Question 113

A team member, who is close to an influential stakeholder, has joined the project team. The stakeholder is routing requests for multiple reports through the new team member, and the team member reaches out to the project manager regarding this. What should the project manager do first?

Options:

A.

Forward the status reports to the stakeholder.

B.

Manage stakeholder engagement.

C.

Consult the communications management plan.

D.

Update the communications management plan.

Question 114

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

Options:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

Question 115

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

Question 116

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Question 117

The organization ' s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

Question 118

What is the common factor among portfolios, programs, and projects, regardless of the hierarchy within an organization?

Options:

A.

Resources and stakeholders

B.

Operations and performance

C.

Subsidiary projects

D.

Project manager

Question 119

Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

Options:

A.

Need to lower production costs to remain competitive

B.

Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

C.

Need to submit the monthly production report

D.

Need to define next month ' s production goals

Question 120

A project manager is leading a technology project that is about to enter the execution phase. The project requires the procurement of certain key components from an external vendor. The project manager has been notified that because of a government regulation, some parts can no longer be used in the country and the vendor will be unable to deliver them.

What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Identify the impact and follow the procurement plan.

B.

Identify the impact and follow the project management plan.

C.

Identify the impact and follow the risk management plan.

D.

Identify the impact and follow the change control plan.

Question 121

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Question 122

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

Options:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

Question 123

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

Question 124

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.

Project Scope Management

Question 125

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

Question 126

How can working in iterations increase the quality of the product being built?

Options:

A.

Teams have to do less planning and focus more on quality.

B.

The project manager has more time to document goals in advance.

C.

Less testing is required since it is done at the end of the project.

D.

Requirements are frequently clarified by users of the product.

Question 127

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

Question 128

Question # 128

As the project takes place and some issues arose, the project manager (Joe) finds out that some team members were not 100% committed to the project, and some of them were underperforming.

What should the project manager have done to avoid this situation?

Options:

A.

Coupled inexperienced team members with individuals having extensive knowledge in the required field

B.

Had open and transparent planning that engages internal and external stakeholders

C.

Held regular meetings more often with team members to check on their progress and obstacles

D.

Diversified more of the project team to capture a broad range of experiences

Question 129

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Question 130

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client ' s overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization ' s business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

Question 131

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

Question 132

A practitioner organized a requirements workshop with the client ' s frontline application users. The users explained that one of the challenges of the current application is that they must click on each input before entering data, which happens thousands of times a day.

Which technique did the practitioner use to identify this pain point?

Options:

A.

System thinking

B.

User acceptance testing

C.

Decision-making

D.

Active listening

Question 133

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

Question 134

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

Question 135

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

Question # 135

Options:

Question 136

What are the two most common contract types used in a project?

Options:

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract

B.

Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract

C.

Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (TandM) contract

D.

Time and material (TandM) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract

Question 137

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question 138

A project manager is managing a small project that has a time constraint. What should the project manager do to ensure the delivery is on time?

Options:

A.

Expand the scope of the project.

B.

Schedule the tasks in sequence.

C.

Increase quality review cycles.

D.

Schedule the tasks in parallel.

Question 139

Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?

Options:

A.

Hierarchical

B.

External

C.

Formal

D.

Official

Question 140

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Question 141

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Question 142

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

Options:

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Question 143

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Question # 143

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

0

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Question 144

An input to the Control Quality process is:

Options:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

Question 145

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure an effective requirements elicitation.

What should the business analyst do?

Options:

A.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

B.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

C.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

D.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

Question 146

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

Question 147

A project manager uses their networking skills to build agreement with a difficult stakeholder. What level of influence did the project manager apply?

Options:

A.

Project level

B.

Organizational level

C.

Industry level

D.

Influential level

Question 148

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

Question 149

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 150

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project ' s success?

Options:

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

Question 151

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

Question 152

Select three processes that are associated with Project Schedule Management.

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Plan Resource Management

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

E.

Acquire Resources

Question 153

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

Question 154

In which of the risk management processes is the processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.

Palm Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Question 155

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Question 156

A project team is starting to work on a project based on a Kanban approach. In order to frame the capacity of the team ' s workflow at any moment, the project manager will need to restrict the maximum amount of activities to be performed.

Which element will the project manager handle?

Options:

A.

Capacity limit

B.

Pull system

C.

Work in progress

D.

Virtual board

Question 157

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Question 158

What three strategies are used to respond to threats?

Options:

A.

Escalate, accept, and mitigate

B.

Accept share, and avoid

C.

Escalate, transfer, and exploit

D.

Mitigate, accept, and prioritize

Question 159

Which organizational process asset can make an impact on the outcome of a project?

Options:

A.

Political climate

B.

Leadership style

C.

Financial data repository

D.

Organizational structure types

Question 160

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders ' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 161

An adaptive team is working on a mobile banking application. The team conducted their sprint demo, which included 12 stories that were completed. This was the last sprint before the product was to be launched in the beta phase. One of the attendees from marketing noticed that a requested enhancement to share on social media was still in the product backlog.

Why was the product still determined to be ready for delivery?

Options:

A.

The development team ran out of time and did not pull the social media story from the backlog.

B.

The development team completed all of the stories identified by the product owner as having the highest customer value.

C.

The sprint demo went smoothly and the team did not find any open issues.

D.

The social media story is a marketing priority and less important than other priorities.

Question 162

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

Question 163

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Question 164

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Question 165

When developing a schedule which tools and techniques should a project manager use?

Options:

A.

Schedule Networfc Analysis and Critical Path Method

B.

Activity list and expert Judgement

C.

Milestone Iist and Risk Register

D.

Basis ot estimates and Rolling Wave Planning

Question 166

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

Options:

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

Question 167

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

Options:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Question 168

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

Question 169

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

Question 170

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent of staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to a volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question 171

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

Options:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Question 172

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

Question 173

A project manager is responsible for delivering new software for their company. Based on previous experiences, the project manager decides to use the dynamic systems development method (DSDM). The project manager will use this method to prioritize the scope to meet project constraints.

Which elements are included in the DSDM framework?

Options:

A.

Time, integration, cost, and deliverables

B.

Schedule, risk, integration, and features

C.

Cost, time, quality, and functionality

D.

Cost, requirements, schedule, and outputs

Question 174

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

Question 175

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

Question 176

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Question 177

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Question 178

Match each Project Cost Management process with its appropriate keyword

Question # 178

Options:

Question 179

What does earned value (EV) measure?

Options:

A.

Budgeted work that has been completed

B.

Total costs incurred while accomplishing work

C.

Budget associated with planned work

D.

Cost efficiency of budgeted resources

Question 180

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Question 181

Which is a major component of an agreement?

Options:

A.

Change request handling

B.

Risk register templates

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Procurement management plan

Question 182

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 183

A project manager needs to request outside support......manager need to create

A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement ot work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?

Options:

A.

Time and material (TandM)

B.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.

Fixed price

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Question 184

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 185

What does leadership involve?

Options:

A.

Working with others through discussion or debate to guide them from one point to another

B.

Directing another person from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors

C.

Working with a person using expert judgment to develop the technical deliverables

D.

Directing another person to develop the necessary expertise to establish technical deliverables

Question 186

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question 187

Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

B.

Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Control Quality and Control Costs

D.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management

Question 188

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

Question 189

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

Question 190

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

Question 191

Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?

Options:

A.

Verify Deliverables

B.

Validate Deliverables

C.

Review Deliverables

D.

Analyze Deliverables

Question 192

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

Options:

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Actual cost

Question 193

A project is at the closing stage. The project manager asks the team to perform closing functions at the next meeting. Which two procedures will the project team perform? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Project audit

B.

Deliverable acceptance

C.

Risk register tracking

D.

Stakeholder mapping

E.

Issue log update

Question 194

Stakeholder identification and engagement should begin during what phase of the project?

Options:

A.

After the project management plan is completed

B.

After the stakeholder engagement plan is completed

C.

As soon as the project charter has been approved

D.

After the communications management plan is completed

Question 195

Which of the following is the key construction to controlling the costs and achieving the schedule in projects with high variability?

Options:

A.

Learn methods

B.

collaborative teams

C.

Generalizing specialists

D.

Knowledge sharing

Question 196

In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project. What should the line manager do next?

Options:

A.

Hold a face-to-face meeting with the project manager and warn them.

B.

Point the director to a link where they can take a look at the reports.

C.

Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings.

D.

Ask the project manager to update the monthly status report distribution list.

Question 197

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

Question 198

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

Question 199

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

Question 200

Product requirements specify a functionality that depends upon expertise that is unavailable internally. What process should be implemented to generate a make-or-buy decision?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements B Plan Procurement Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

Question 201

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

Question 202

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Question # 202

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

Question 203

What behavior refers to leadership style?

Options:

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

Question 204

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Question 205

The project sponsor wants to know when an in-flight adaptive project will be done. Which of the following metrics will help the team to predict how much longer the project will take?

Options:

A.

Risk burnup and control chart

B.

Customer satisfaction index and workload

C.

Average burndown and velocity

D.

Average velocity and cycle time

Question 206

Two resources are performing a peer review of an artifact. What should be the outcome of the peer review?

Options:

A.

All business rules and data requirements for each process are documented.

B.

All relevant business rules for each process are documented.

C.

The resulting documentation adheres to established organizational standards.

D.

The data requirements for each process are documented.

Question 207

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 208

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question 209

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 210

A project manager oversees a project in an adaptive environment. After each iteration, which type of meeting should the project manager conduct?

Options:

A.

Iteration planning

B.

Retrospective

C.

Backlog refinement review

D.

Daily standup

Question 211

Which three processes are generally included in risk management? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Monitor Risk Costs

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

E.

Estimate Risk Activity Resources

Question 212

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

Options:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

Question 213

During a project team meeting, one of the team members suggested a product functionality that would immensely benefit the customer. The project manager documents the request for later analysis.

What is this an example of?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the traceability matrix

B.

Managing the scope

C.

Maintaining the product backlog

D.

Managing the cost benefit

Question 214

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

Question 215

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question 216

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

Question 217

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

Question 218

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Question 219

Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?

Options:

A.

Market Share brand recognition

B.

Factory location

C.

Local government regulation

D.

Industry research

Question 220

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

Options:

A.

Cultural influences

B.

Physical environmental elements

C.

Commercial databases

D.

Infrastructure

Question 221

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Question 222

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question 223

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

Question 224

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Question # 224

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Question 225

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Question 226

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 227

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

Question 228

Which of the following is part of the project sponsor ' s responsibility?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the business value

B.

Advocating the business value

C.

Tracking the business value

D.

Auditing the business value

Question 229

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

Options:

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

Question 230

A project manager is in the process of onboarding resources to start work on a project. Which of the following components of a project management plan will the project manager update after completing this activity?

Options:

A.

Resource management plan and lessons learned register

B.

Resource management plan and cost baseline

C.

Resource management plan and procurement management plan

D.

Resource management plan and preassignment

Question 231

The Agile principle " welcome changing requirement, even late in development " relates to which agile manifesto?

Options:

A.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

B.

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C.

Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

D.

Responding to change over following a plan

Question 232

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Question 233

Perform Quantitative Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a lsit of known risks and preparing responses to them

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project ' s time and cost objectives

Question 234

How can a project manager ensure effective project stakeholder engagement?

Options:

A.

Build a stakeholder responsibility matrix

B.

Hold weekly project staff meetings

C.

Improve interpersonal and team leadership skills

D.

Create detailed project reports for stakeholders

Question 235

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

Options:

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

Question 236

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 237

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Question 238

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Question 239

All testing on a project has been performed successfully and all acceptance criteria have been met. What is the next step?

Options:

A.

Set up a meeting with the sponsor.

B.

Set up a go/no-go meeting.

C.

Wait for the next sprint.

D.

Deliver the product.

Question 240

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Question 241

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Options:

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Question 242

Which of the following correctly explains the term " progressive elaboration ' ?

Options:

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Question 243

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question 244

Which tasks should a project manager perform in order to manage the project schedule effectively?

Options:

A.

Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Quality of Activities. Develop Schedule

B.

Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule. Control Schedule

C.

Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate Cost of Activities. Develop Schedule

D.

Define Activities. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations. Define Quality of Activities. Estimate Cost of Activities, Develop Schedule

Question 245

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

Question 246

Which Process Group ' s purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Question 247

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders ' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Question 248

Which statement is related to the project manager ' s sphere of influence at the organizational level?

Options:

A.

A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts between their projects.

B.

A project manager facilitates communication between the suppliers and contractors on the project.

C.

A project manager considers the current industry trends and evaluates how they can impact or be applied to the project.

D.

A project manager may inform other professionals about the value of project management.

Question 249

What tool or technique is used in the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Decomposition

C.

Product analysis

D.

Prototypes

Question 250

Which key benefit can a project manager obtain by identifying stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder.

B.

Assess the risk exposure for each stakeholder.

C.

Map stakeholder power and influence grid.

D.

Identify the appropriate channels of communication with all stakeholders.

Question 251

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question 252

In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

The organization

B.

The project

C.

The industry

D.

The product

Question 253

A team is working on a project using an adaptive approach. During project execution, the project gets delayed by one month due to an unforeseen risk. What should the team do next to deliver this project?

Options:

A.

Stop working on the project completely, even if the team can continue working on the tasks with the identified risk.

B.

Accept the project delay and add the risk to the lessons learned document for the next project.

C.

Change the delivery date and deliver the initially agreed-upon scope after mitigation of the identified risk.

D.

Reprioritize the work based on the increased visibility of the current risks.

Question 254

Which stakeholder approves a project ' s result?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

Question 255

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

Options:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

Question 256

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

Question 257

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Bottom-up estimating

Question 258

Which process is engaged when a proiect learn inember makes a change to project budget with the project manager ' s approval?

Options:

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 259

Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.

B.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.

C.

Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.

D.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process.

Question 260

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

Options:

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

Question 261

After winning a large government contract, a company needs to hire a portfolio manager What vital qualification should candidates possess?

Options:

A.

Ability to manage strategic goals across multiple projects

B.

Skills to manage a large project

C.

Competency to manage multiple projects that align departments

D.

Capability of managing project schedules

Question 262

The definition of operations is a/an:

Options:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

Question 263

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

Question 264

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

Options:

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

Question 265

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Question 266

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Question 267

A project team for a marketing company is acquiring leaflets and materials from competitors. The team is working on a project to release new products, and they are trying to get ideas on how to most efficiently market these new products.

Which activity is the project team conducting?

Options:

A.

Project execution

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Project initiation

Question 268

In project management, a temporary project can be:

Options:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

Question 269

Which statement describes the various purposes of project scheduling?

Options:

A.

Define the policies, rules, and techniques to run a schedule; serve as a tool to manage stakeholder expectations; and serve as a base for backlog management

B.

Define how and when deliverables will be completed, serve as communication tool, and serve as a base for performance reporting

C.

Define the life cycle, traditional or agile approach, and tools to control schedule; serve as a reference for scope management; and serve as a base for risk management

D.

Define activities, sequences, duration, and dependencies, serve as a reference for resource allocation, serve as a base for earned value analysis.

Question 270

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Question 271

Responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Text-oriented formal

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Organization chart

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Question 272

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

Question 273

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Question 274

Development of the benefits management plan occurs in which stage of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Starting the project

B.

Organizing the project

C.

Completing pre-project work

D.

Executing the product

Question 275

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project ' s components. What should be included in the WBS?

Options:

A.

Activity dependencies

B.

Work package risks

C.

Description of work

D.

Resource estimates

Question 276

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Question 277

What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

B.

Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication

C.

Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication

D.

Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication

Question 278

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

Question 279

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

Options:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

Question 280

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Question 281

A project manager needs to develop a product roadmap. Which artifact category is a product roadmap?

Options:

A.

Report artifact

B.

Strategic artifact

C.

Baseline artifact

D.

Plan artifact

Question 282

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Question 283

When can we say that a project is completed?

Options:

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

Question 284

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

Options:

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

Question 285

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

Question 286

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

Options:

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Question 287

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

Question 288

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

Question 289

The project manager is working in the Resource Management process. Which items may the project manager need to include in the team charter?

Options:

A.

Cultural norms, roles and responsibilities, and organizational chart

B.

Assumption logs, resource calendars and training schedule

C.

Communication guidelines, conflict resolution process, and team agreements

D.

Company policies, recognition plan, and roles and responsibilities

Question 290

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

Question 291

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

Options:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

Question 292

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 293

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

Options:

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

Question 294

What specific quality considerations should be examined while completing Quality Management plan?

Options:

A.

Risk registerB Stakeholder engagement

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Standards and regulatory compliance

Question 295

A project manager is reviewing a few techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to uncover whether the solution responds properly to unintended cases.

Which evaluation technique should be used here?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Integration testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Day-in-the-life testing

Question 296

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

Question 297

What is the Project Schedule Management practice used to deliver incremental value to the customer ' ?

Options:

A.

Resource optimization

B.

Iterative scheduling with a backlog

C.

On-demand scheduling

D.

Critical path method

Question 298

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members knows their roles and responsibilities.

What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

Options:

A.

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

B.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

D.

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

Question 299

A project manager is preparing a monthly status report for the project, which includes project performance compared to the baseline schedule. How can the project manager calculate the schedule variance (SV) for tasks on the critical path?

Options:

A.

Earned Schedule + Actual Time

B.

Actual Time - Earned Schedule

C.

Planned Value - Earned Value

D.

Earned Value - Planned Value

Question 300

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

Options:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

Question 301

A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?

Options:

A.

The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.

B.

Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.

C.

The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.

D.

Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.

Question 302

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks

B.

Avoid all kind of risks

C.

Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks

D.

Identify positive and negative risks

Question 303

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Question 304

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

Options:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

Question 305

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

Question 306

The project team of a predictive project is following the requirements traceability matrix to ensure the deliverables align with customer expectations. If the project had been an adaptive project, the project team would use a different artifact to ensure the deliverables align with customer expectations. What should the project team use in an adaptive project?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Product backlog

C.

Milestone list

D.

Product management plan

Question 307

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

Question 308

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Question 309

What process is included in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Control Scope

C.

Control Schedule

D.

Develop Team

Question 310

During the execution phase of a multibillion-dollar project, the project manager encountered performance issues with some of the team members. In a performance review meeting, the project manager noticed that the team members do not follow SMART objectives.

What are SMART objectives?

Options:

A.

Specific, measurable, accurate, relevant, and time-bound.

B.

Specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound.

C.

Specific, measurable, accurate, realistic, and time-bound.

D.

Specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound.

Question 311

A business case is being assembled. Which two elements are necessary to complete this process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Business goals and objectives

E.

Risk register

Question 312

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Question 313

A project ' s business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

Options:

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won ' t have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

Question 314

In order to detect quality Issues earlier in the project life cycle, the project manager is using an agile/adaptive environment. What is the main difference between waterfall and agile/adaptive development approaches tor Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

The frequency of the quality and review steps

B.

The number of deliverables

C.

The duration of each of the quality and review steps

D.

The tools used in the quality and review steps

Question 315

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure effective requirements elicitation. What should the business analyst do?

Options:

A.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

B.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

C.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

D.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

Question 316

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

Options:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

Question 317

What quantitative risk analysis technique is used to select the optimum course of action from a number of alternatives?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Simulation

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Influence diagram

Question 318

A project manager held a meeting and listed all team members ' ideas for improving the product on a white board. What data gathering technique did the project manager apply?

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Interviews

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Delphi technique

Question 319

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

Options:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Question 320

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

Question 321

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Question 322

What characteristic of servant leadership supports resource management in an agile environment?

Options:

A.

Lecturing

B.

Construing

C.

Measuring

D.

Coaching

Question 323

Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Multi-divisional

C.

Functional

D.

Project-oriented

Question 324

Construction of a building has stopped due to a supplier ' s failure to deliver concrete. The project schedule is behind by three months.

What should the project manager do to overcome this problem and put the project back on track?

Options:

A.

Follow the risk response plan and allocate resources, if needed, to overcome the issue.

B.

Consult the legal department and subject matter experts (SMEs) regarding what to do to avoid failure.

C.

Extend the time of product delivery and use management reserve to cover any losses.

D.

Accept any penalties that might occur and continue working as initially planned.

Question 325

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 326

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

Options:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

Question 327

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

Options:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

Question 328

What process group establishes project scope: refines objectives, and defines the actions necessary to attain project objectives ' ?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 329

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

Question 330

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

Question 331

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

Options:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

Question 332

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Question 333

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Question 334

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

Question # 334

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

Question 335

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

Options:

A.

Produce team performance assessments.

B.

Hold weekly meetings to engage every member

C.

Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member

D.

Provide recognition awards to team members

Question 336

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 337

The diagram below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Question 338

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question 339

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

Options:

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

Question 340

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Question 341

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurement Management

C.

Analyze Procurements

D.

Control Procurements

Question 342

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

Question 343

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

Question 344

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Question 345

Which tool uses an algorithm based on historical data to calculate cost?

Options:

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Relative estimating

Question 346

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Question 347

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Question 348

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

Options:

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

Question 349

During what project management process does the project team begin identifying risks?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 350

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

Options:

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

Question 351

Which method should be used to elicit a cross-functional requirement?

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Prototyping

C.

Facilitated workshops

D.

Interviews

Question 352

Project managers plan a key role performing integration on the project what are the three different levels of integration?

Options:

A.

Process, cognitive

B.

Complexity, understand and change

C.

Interact, insight and leadership

D.

Communication, knowledge and value

Question 353

A project manager in a bank is developing market risk-related processes and is midway through the project. More than half of the product backlog items are developed and delivered to the customer. Due to regulatory and compliance changes in the industry, new backlog items were added to the product backlog with a significant impact on the project schedule. Who should the project manager send this change request to?

Options:

A.

The project steering committee (PSC)

B.

The project management office (PMO)

C.

The change control board (CCB)

D.

The change management committee (CMC)

Question 354

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

Question 355

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

Question 356

Where are key project deliverables documented?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

User acceptance criteria

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 357

The activity tailoring is necessary because:

Options:

A.

the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide, this is required for all projects

B.

each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide

C.

the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects

D.

each project is unique, and the project team must plain how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide

Question 358

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

Question 359

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Question 360

Which enterprise environmental factors should be considered when creating a new procurement contract?

Options:

A.

Supply chains

B.

Trial engagements

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Local laws and regulalk

Question 361

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 362

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 363

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

Question 364

How does planning for prevention costs assist in meeting stakeholder needs and expectations, while still providing required performance and reliability?

Options:

A.

It details product or service failures experienced by the customer

B.

It clarifies the costs associated with assessing the quality of the product or service

C.

It accounts for costs used to avoid poor quality in the product or service

D.

It communicates product or service failures discovered by the project team

Question 365

What is the process of determining the stakeholders impacted by a business problem or opportunity?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Stakeholder identification

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Stakeholder characteristics

Question 366

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

Options:

A.

Discussing with management

B.

Escalating to the sponsors

C.

Engaging regularly with stakeholders

D.

Engaging only with decision makers

Question 367

What is the primary benefit of the Manage Quality process?

Options:

A.

Increases the probability of meeting quality objectives

B.

Enhances the performance of the product berg created

C.

Defines quality roles and responsibilities

D.

Ensures that the project is completed as originally planned

Question 368

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

Question 369

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Administer Procurements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 370

It’s time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Automated testing tools

Question 371

A project is delivering an integrated solution to an external client on a fixed-price contract. The project has a significant technical component and has a dedicated technical project manager working with a business program manager and the client ' s project manager. The technical lead is requesting two new developers.

Which plan should the project manager use to identify who is responsible for finding the budget for additional developers?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Business management plan

C.

Stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question 372

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Question 373

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

Options:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

Question 374

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

Options:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

Question 375

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

Options:

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Question 376

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

Question 377

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

Question 378

A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified. How many communication channels are available?

Options:

A.

8

B.

18

C.

36

D.

40

Question 379

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

Options:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

Question 380

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

Options:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

Question 381

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Question 382

The following is a network diagram for a project.

Question # 382

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Question 383

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

Question 384

What happens to a stakeholder ' s project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

Question 385

The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?

Options:

A.

Take control of all decisions and product planning.

B.

Build a team that can respond to changes within a collaborative, decision-making environment.

C.

Promote a team with a narrow specialization within a hierarchical environment.

D.

Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.

Question 386

A project is at risk of delivering the solution late because of poor quality that prevents the user acceptance testing (UAT) from being finalized. The product owner does not want to sign off until all the Severity 1 (S1) defects are fixed. What should the project manager do to manage this risk?

Options:

A.

Create a risk in the risk register for each S1 defect and assign actions.

B.

Consult the risk register and implement the risk response actions.

C.

Ask the developers to work longer hours and resolve the defects.

D.

Review the organizational chart to find out who else can sign off UAT.

Question 387

What is one of the main purposes of the project charter?

Options:

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definilion of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

Question 388

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project ' s scope is managed?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Project management processes

D.

Project scope management plan

Question 389

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

Options:

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

Question 390

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller ' s performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Question 391

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

Question 392

A project team member is estimating the cost of activity and is checking documentation from previous similar projects. Which estimation method is the project manager using to complete this task?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up estimating

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Parametric estimating

Question 393

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Question 394

A product owner asked for a change in one of the requirements during the elicitation phase. What should the business analyst do?

Options:

A.

Provide the information to the product manager for approval.

B.

Provide the information to the project manager to seek approval or rejection.

C.

Reject the change as the project scope has already been defined.

D.

Accept the modification and update the requirements traceability matrix.

Question 395

What should be the frequency for meetings when transitioning from Scrum to Kanban?

Options:

A.

Weekly

B.

Daily

C.

When required

D.

Monthly

Question 396

A product owner wants to ensure that the project ' s requirements, including product requirements, are met and validated. To do this project manager wants.

Match each process to its definition.

Question # 396

Options:

Question 397

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Options:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Total 1326 questions