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Oracle 1z0-083 Oracle Database Administration II Exam Practice Test

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Total 282 questions

Oracle Database Administration II Questions and Answers

Question 1

choose one You enable Flashback Data Archive for a table for which you want to track and save all transactions for four years. After some time, the requirement changes for keeping transactions from four to two years. You execute the following command to change the requirement: SQL> ALTER FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fdal MODIFY RETENTION 2 YEAR; What is the outcome?

Options:

A.

All historical data older than two years, if any, is purged from the flashback archive FDA1.

B.

An error is returned because the retention period cannot be reduced.

C.

All the flashback data archives are purged and the subsequently created flashback archives are maintained for two years

D.

All historical data older than two years, if any, is archived to flashback logs and the flashback archive is set to new retention time.

Question 2

Choose two. Which two are true about the automatic execution of operating system scripts when performing silent mode installation starting from Oracle Database 19c?

Options:

A.

The response file can specify the path of the sudo program.

B.

The response file must contain the root or sudo password.

C.

Silent install always runs operating scripts automatically.

D.

The response file can specify the root or sudo password.

E.

The installer will prompt for the root or sudo password.

Question 3

Which four are true about RMAN backup sets? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

A backup piece can belong to only one backup set.

B.

A data file can be split into multiple sections stored in different backup sets.

C.

A data file can be split into multiple sections stored in different backup pieces in the same backup set.

D.

Blocks from multiple data files can be contained in one backup piece,

E.

A backup set can contain only one backup piece.

F.

A backup set must be written to media.

G.

A backup set must be written to disk.

Question 4

Choose two. Which two are true about unplugging an application container from a container database and plugging it into a different container database?

Options:

A.

Plugging the application root into a different CDB plugs in all its application PDBs.

B.

The application root of an application container should be plugged into the other CDB before its application PDBs are plugged in.

C.

Application PDBs in the application container must be unplugged before the application root is unplugged.

D.

Unplugging the application root from a CDB unplugs all its application PDBs.

E.

It requires only local UNDO mode in the database where the application container will be unplugged.

F.

It requires local UNDO mode in both container databases.

Question 5

Choose two. Some archived log backups have been accidentally deleted from storage. Which two commands should be used to update the status of backups in the recovery catalog to display only the missing backups?

Options:

A.

RESYNC CATALOG

B.

CROSSCHECK BACKUP OF ARCHIVELOG ALL

C.

LIST ARCHIVELOG ALL

D.

LIST EXPIRED

E.

LIST ARCHIVELOG

F.

REPORT OBSOLETE

Question 6

Choose two. Which two are true about Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?

Options:

A.

It can only be launched from the command line interface.

B.

It can be launched from both the command line and the Universal Installer (OUI) interfaces.

C.

It can be used to create container databases and non-container databases.

D.

It can be used to change the character set of an existing database.

E.

It can be used to convert a non-container database to a container database.

Question 7

Which two are true about the execution of operating system scripts starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

orainstRoot.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer by using sudo or root credentials.

B.

root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database Installer only if it is provided with root credentials.

C.

The sudo password can be specified in a response file.

D.

root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer only by using sudo credentials.

E.

The sudo password must be specified in a response file.

F.

The root password cannot be specified in a response file.

Question 8

Choose three. Which three are true about backing up the control file?

Options:

A.

It cannot be backed up manually as a binary copy.

B.

It gets backed up automatically by RMAN as a trace file containing SQL statements for control file re¬creation when a database backup occurs.

C.

It can be backed up manually as a binary copy.

D.

It can get backed up automatically as a binary copy.

E.

It gets backed up automatically by RMAN when the BACKUP SPFILE command is used.

F.

It can be backed up manually as a trace file containing SQL statements for control file recreation.

Question 9

Choose three. Which three are true about block media recovery?

Options:

A.

To use it, Flashback Database must be enabled.

B.

A block being recovered is not accessible.

C.

It cannot repair logical corruption.

D.

It can be performed on noncorrupt blocks.

E.

The target database for which one or more blocks are to be recovered must be in the OPEN state.

F.

The data file containing the block being recovered remains online.

Question 10

Which four are true about a Recovery Manager (RMAN) duplication without a TARGET connection? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

The NOREDO clause must be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in NOARCHIVELOG mode.

B.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the TARGET instance.

C.

RMAN “pushes” the backups of the database to be duplicated over the network to the auxiliary instance.

D.

The NOREDO clause can be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in ARCHIVE LOG mode.

E.

RMAN SBT-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.

F.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is closed.

G.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is opened.

Question 11

Which three are true about using Database Resource Manager in an Oracle multitenant environment?

Options:

A.

PDB-level resource plans can limit uncommitted UNDO per consumer group.

B.

A PDB-level resource plan can limit session PGA memory.

C.

A CDB-level resource plan can limit PDB UNDO use.

D.

A CDB-level resource plan can limit session CPU utilization.

E.

A CDB-level resource plan is mandatory when using PDB-level resource plans.

F.

A CDB-level resource plan can limit PDB CPU utilization

Question 12

Which three can be done using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

cloning a remote container database in interactive mode

B.

cloning a remote pluggable database in silent mode

C.

relocating a remote pluggable database in interactive mode

D.

relocating a remote container database in silent mode

E.

cloning a remote container database in silent mode

F.

relocating a remote pluggable database in silent mode

G.

relocating a remote container database in interactive mode.

Question 13

Which are three of the steps taken by Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to clone a remote pluggable database (PDB) starting from Oracle 19c?

Options:

A.

creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the local database to CDB$ROOT in the remote system that is to be cloned

B.

creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the local database to the PDB in the remote system that is to be cloned

C.

backing up the cloned PDB

D.

opening the cloned PDB

E.

leaving the cloned PDB in mount state

Question 14

choose two Examine these RMAN commands: RMAN> CONNECT TARGET "sbu@prod AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> CONNECT AUXILIARY "sbu@dup_db AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup_db FROM ACTIVE DATABASE PASSWORD FILE SECTION SIZE 400M; Which two statements are true about the DUPLICATE comman

Options:

A.

It succeed

B.

It fails because no parallel channels are allocated for the auxiliary databa

C.

It fails because connection to the AUXILIARY instance must be as SYSD

D.

Itsucceeds only if the target database is greater than 40

E.

No catalogued backup of the TARGET is used to duplicate the databa

Question 15

You execute this command successfully: SQL> ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE; What is the outcome?

Options:

A.

It creates a binary backup of the control file.

B.

It updates the alert log with the location and contents of the control file

C.

It creates a file that contains SQL statements to re-create the control file.

D.

It creates a file that contains RMAN scripts to create a duplicate database.

E.

It creates a copy of the control file in the fast recovery area (FRA).

Question 16

Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of Information lifecycle Management (ILM)?

Options:

A.

Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace

B.

Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace

C.

Tracking insert time by row for table rows

D.

Tracking the most recent write time for a table block

E.

Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSTEM tablespace

F.

Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace Correct

Question 17

Examine this configuration: While CDB1 is open, ‘/u02/app/oracle/fast_recover_area/cdb1/CDB1/ controlfile02.ctl’is accidentally deleted. To recover from this critical failure, you execute these commands:

What will be the outcome?

Options:

A.

It will create ‘$ORACLE_HOME/dbs/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl’

B.

It will create ‘/u01/app/oralce/oradata/CDB1/controlfile/controlfile02.ctl’.

C.

It will re-create ‘/u02/app/oracle/fast_recover_area/cdb1/CDB1/controlfile02.ctl’

D.

It will create ‘/u01/app/oracle/product/12.2.0.1/db_1/dbs/snapcf_cdb1control02.ctl’.

E.

It will fail because there is no autobackup of the controlfiles.

Question 18

Choose two. Which two are true about Lockdown profiles in a container database (CDB) and its pluggable databases (PDBs)?

Options:

A.

A Lockdown profile created from a base Lockdown profile is always automatically modified if the profile on which it is based is modified.

B.

A PDB Lockdown profile can be created in an application root.

C.

A Lockdown profile created from a base Lockdown profile is never automatically modified if the profile on which it is based is modified.

D.

A PDB Lockdown profile can be created in a regular PDB.

E.

A PDB Lockdown profile can be created in CDB$ROOT .

Question 19

Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only two tape drives? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.

B.

Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.

C.

Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.

D.

SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.

E.

The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.

Question 20

choose three Identify three reasons for using a recovery catalog with Recovery Manager (RMAN).

Options:

A.

to allow database duplication without a connection to the target instance.

B.

to store backup metadata that would cause the controlfile to become too large.

C.

to store backups that would cause the controlfile to become too large.

D.

to report on the database schema at an earlier point in time.

E.

to allow database duplication without a connection to the auxiliary instance.

Question 21

Which two are true about SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is integrated with the SQL Access Advisor.

B.

It predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time.

C.

It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task

D.

It offers fine-grained analysis of all the SQL statements in the analysis task as a group.

E.

SQL statements that were originally run concurrently are run concurrently by SPA.

Question 22

Choose the best answer. Which statement correctly describes the SQL profiling performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

Options:

A.

It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to change the access methods used.

B.

It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL statement to eliminate estimation error.

C.

It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to restructure a SQL statement to avoid suboptimal execution plans.

D.

It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL statement to help use better joins orders.

E.

It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to create new indexes.

Question 23

The CATDB12c database contains an Oracle Database version 12c catalog schema owned by the RC12C user. The RCAT11 database contains an Oracle Database version 11g catalog schema owned by the RC11 user in which several databases are registered. Both the databases are open. You execute the RMAN commands: RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rcl2c/passl2c@catdbl2c RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcll/pwdcatll@ractll Which two tasks are performed as part of the import?

Options:

A.

Databases from the RC12C catalog are implicitly unregistered if the RC11 catalog has registered databases with same name.

B.

Recovery catalog is resynchronized with the control files of the registered databases.

C.

Imported databases are unregistered from the RC11 catalog.

D.

Local and global stored scripts that have the same name as existing scripts in the RC12C catalog are automatically renamed.

E.

All databases registered in the RC11 catalog are registered in the RC12C catalog.

Question 24

You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?

Options:

A.

Compare Period ADDM report

B.

AWR Compare Period report

C.

Active Session History (ASH) report

D.

Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot.

Question 25

choose three Which three are true about unified auditing in full mode?

Options:

A.

The unified audit trail is written to a read-only table.

B.

The unified audit trail is written to a read-only external file.

C.

Audit records are created for COMMIT, ROLLBACK, and SAVEPOINT statements.

D.

Audit records are created for SYS.

E.

Audit records are created for non-sys users.

Question 26

You issued this command: RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY FILES; Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

All Oracle recovery files not in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

B.

All non-Oracle files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

C.

All Oracle recovery files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up. D)All Oracle recovery files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) are backed up.

D.

These backups can be written to disk or SBT.

Question 27

Choose three. Which three are true about post-upgrade activities when upgrading an Oracle database using Database Upgrade Assistant?

Options:

A.

Any Recovery Manager (RMAN) recovery catalog must be upgraded manually.

B.

After a manual upgrade, TNSNAMES.ORA entries must be updated to reflect the new ORACLE_HOME.

C.

Time zone files must be upgraded manually using the DBMS_DST PL/SQL package.

D.

The new extended data type capability must be enabled by running the utlrp.sql script

E.

The Oracle Application Express configuration should be updated after upgrading Oracle Database.

Question 28

Which two are true about instance recovery? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is not possible if an archived log is missing.

B.

It is performed automatically after the database is opened; however, blocks requiring recovery are not available until they are recovered.

C.

Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a lower value reduces instance recovery time by causing dirty buffers to be written to disk more frequently, thereby reducing the number of I/Os needed during instance recovery.

D.

It is performed by the Recovery Writer (RVWR) background process.

E.

Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a higher value reduces instance recovery time by causing The log writer to write more frquently, thereby reducing the number of I/Os needed during instance recovery.

F.

It is performed automatically while the database remains in MOUNT state. Then the database is opened.

Question 29

Which three actions are performed by Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

It recompiles all stored PL/SQL code by using utlrp.sql.

B.

It empties the RECYCLE BIN.

C.

It performs prerequisite checks to verify if the Oracle database is ready for upgrade.

D.

It sets all user tablespaces to “read-only” before starting the upgrade.

E.

It removes the AUDSYS schema and the AUDIT_ADMIN and AUDIT_VIEWER roles

F.

It increases tablespace size, if required, to meet upgrade requirements.

Question 30

Choose two. Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager?

Options:

A.

A media manager always writes RMAN requested backups to tape.

B.

A media manager is required to create RMAN image copies.

C.

A media manager is required to create RMAN proxy copies.

D.

The media manager layer (MML) routines provided by Oracle support any vendors' media management products.

E.

By default, a request for a proxy copy may result in a backup set being created.

Question 31

Examine the query and its output executed In an RDBMS Instance: Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output?

Options:

A.

TheC# # B_ADMIN user can perform all back up and recovery operation susing RMAN only.

B.

The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.

C.

The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.

D.

The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage Management (ASM).

E.

The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.

Question 32

Choose two. Which two are true about the execution of operating system scripts starting from Oracle Database 19c?

Options:

A.

The root password cannot be specified in a response file.

B.

The sudo password must be specified in a response file.

C.

orainstRoot.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer by using sudo or root credentials.

D.

root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer only if it is provided with root credentials.

E.

root.sh can be executed automatically by the Database installer only by using sudo credentials.

Question 33

Which two are true about diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations using Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using the Data Recovery Advisor LIST FAILURE command always requires that the database for which failures are to be listed is in MOUNT state.

B.

A failure can be closed only when it has been repaired.

C.

Data Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is closed.

D.

The Data Recovery Advisor CHANGE FAILURE command can be used only to change failure priorities.

E.

Data Recovery Advisor can proactively check for failures.

Question 34

Choose the best answer. Examine this output of an export from the current release of an Oracle multitenant database: $ sqlplus system/oracle . SQL> col name for a10 SQL> select name, open_mode from v$pdbs; NAME OPEN_MODE ---------------------------------------PDB$SEED READ ONLY PDB1 READ WRITE PDB2 MOUNTED SQL> exit Next you execute: $ expdp system/oracle full=y What is the outcome?

Options:

A.

It fails because Data Pump cannot be container.

B.

It creates a full export of the root

C.

It creates a full export of the root

D.

It creates a full export of only the used while connected to the root container and PDB1. container and all PDBs. container and all open PDBs. root container.

Question 35

Examine this configuration: 1. The ORCL database data files are in Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group +DATA. 2. ORCL uses disk group +FRA for the Fast Recovery Area. 3. LISTENER is the listener for ORCL. 4. The database, listener, ASM instance, and ASM disk groups are managed by Oracle Restart. 5. All components are currently shut down. You execute this command:

What is the outcome?

Options:

A.

The ORCL database, the Oracle ASM instances, the +DATA and +FRA disk groups, and the LISTENER are started.

B.

Only the ORCL database instance is started.

C.

Only the ORCL database and the ASM instances are started.

D.

Only the ORCL database instance, the Oracle ASM instance, and the +DATA and +FRA disk groups are started.

E.

Only the ORCL database instance and the +DATA and +FRA disk groups are started.

Question 36

Choose two. A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. A full RMAN backup exists but no control file backup to trace has been taken. A media failure has occurred. In which two scenarios is incomplete recovery required?

Options:

A.

after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group

B.

after losing all copies of the control file

C.

after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use

D.

after losing all members of an INACTIVE online redo log group

E.

after losing a SYSAUX tablespace data file

Question 37

Choose three. Which three are true about interpreting Recovery Manager (RMAN) error stacks returned to standard output?

Options:

A.

If an RMAN command fails, the output will only identify the command that failed.

B.

Some messages in the error stack are not errors.

C.

If an RMAN command fails, the output will identify the channel ID where the failure occurred. D)Media Management errors appear as a line with "Additional information" and a number.

D.

Media Management errors appear as a line with "sbtio" and a number.

E.

Media Management errors appear as a line with "sbtio".

Question 38

Choose three. Which three are true about a container database (CDB)?

Options:

A.

It can be created from a non-CDB.

B.

It can contain only one PDB$SEED, which is created when the CDB is created.

C.

It can have local users with the same name in different PDBs.

D.

It can contain only one Application Container seed, which is created when the Application Container is created.

E.

It can be created by cloning an existing CDB.

F.

It can have any number of pluggable databases (PDBs) limited only by space availability.

G.

It contains predefined common roles in both the root and the seed.

Question 39

Which three are true about Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server?

Options:

A.

It requires Oracle ASMLib to manage Automatic Storage Managerment (ASMl) disks.

B.

It creates one disk group during installation.

C.

It includes both Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) software.

D.

Automatic Storage Management (ASM requires that ars groups OSASM and OSDBA be assigned assecondary groups for its installation owner.

E.

It requires the operating system ORACLE_BASDE environment variable to be predefined before installation.

F.

It requires Oracle ASM Filter Drver (ASMFD) to manage Automatic Storage Managemernt (AsM) disks.

Question 40

You are administering a multitenant container database (COB) that contains two pluggable databases (PDBs), pdb1 and pdb2. You are connected to pdb2 as a common user with DBA privileges. The statistics_level parameter is PDB modifiable. As the user sys, execute the following command on pdb2: SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL=ALL SID='*' SCOPE=SPFILE; Which statement is true about the result of this command?

Options:

A.

The statistics_level parameter is set to all when any of the PDBs is reopened.

B.

The statistics_level parameter is set to all only for PDB2 when it is reopened.

C.

The statistics_level parameter is set to all when the root database is restarted.

D.

The statement is ignored because there is no SPFILE for a PDB.

Question 41

A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table: BEGIN DBMS_REDACT.ADD_POLICY( object_schema object_name column_name policy_name function_type expression => 'SCOTT', => 'EMP', => 'SAL', => 'SCOTT_EMP', => DBMS_REDACT.FULL, => 'SYS_CONTEXT(''SYS_SESSION_ROLES'',''MGR'') END; All users have their default set of system privileges. For which three situations will data not be redacted?

Options:

A.

SYSsessions,regardlessoftherolesthataresetinthesession

B.

SYSTEMsessions,regardlessoftherolesthataresetinthesession

C.

SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session

D.

SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT

E.

SCOTTsessions,becauseheistheownerofthetable

F.

SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session

Question 42

Which two are true about creating RMAN backups for an Oracle container database? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tablespaces from different PDBs with identical names must be backed up by connecting RMAN separately to each PDB to back up the tablespaces.

B.

The BACKUP DATABASE command will create a pluggable database (PDB) backup when RMAN is connected to a PDB.

C.

SPFILE backups can be created while connected to an application root PDB.

D.

The BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVE LOG command will back up archive logs when RMAN is connected to a PDB.

E.

The BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command can be used to back up CDB$ROOT.

Question 43

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is a container database. 2.

COMMON_USER_PREFIX is set to an empty string. 3. PDB1 is a pluggable database in CDB1. 4. APP1_ROOT is an application container in CDB1. 5. APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB in APP1_ROOT. You execute these commands: S sqlplus sys/oracle@localhost:1521/cdb1 as sysdba SQL> CREATE ROLE role1 CONTAINER=CURRENT; Which is true?

Options:

A.

It will return an error because creation of a local role is not allowed in CDB$ROOT.

B.

ROLE1 will be created only in CDB$ROOT.

C.

It will return an error because common roles must start with C##.

D.

ROLE1 will be created only in CDB$ROOT and APP1_ROOT.

E.

ROLE1 will be created in CDB$ROOT, PDB1, APP1_ROOT, and APP1_PDB1.

Question 44

Choose three. Which three are true about the Oracle Optimizer?

Options:

A.

It considers the filters in WHERE clauses when generating execution plans for SQL statements.

B.

It obeys all hints.

C.

It considers object statistics when generating execution plans for SQL statements.

D.

It updates stale object statistics in the Data Dictionary.

E.

It can only use SQL Plan Directives tied to the SQL statement for which a plan is being generated.

F.

It can re-optimize execution plans after previous executions detect suboptimal plans.

Question 45

our SALES_ROOT application container has two application PDBs. The SALES_APP application has a common table, FIN.REVENUE, in the two PDBs. Examine this query and its output: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The CONTAINERS clause cannot be used in queries on the REVENUE table.

B.

The REVENUE table must be a list-partitioned table.

C.

The MAPTABLE tables defines a logical partition key on a commonly used column for the REVENUE table.

D.

The MAPTABLE table is a metadata-linked table.

E.

A container map exists for the REVENUE table, but is not enabled.

F.

The REVENUE table partitions are not pruned across the PDBs automatically.

Question 46

Choose three. Which three are true about Oracle pluggable databases (PDBs)?

Options:

A.

A PDB can be plugged into a CDB only if both are of the same Oracle Database release.

B.

An unplugged PDB can be plugged into multiple CDBs simultaneously by sharing data files.

C.

A PDB unplugged from a container database (CDB) can be plugged into a different CDB without altering any of its schemas.

D.

A non-CDB can be converted into a PDB.

E.

A PDB in a remote CDB can be accessed transparently thereby aggregating results from local and remote PDBs.

F.

A PDB created from PDB$SEED must be set to READ WRITE after loading data.

G.

A PDB created from PDB$SEED must be set to READ ONLY after loading data.

Question 47

Choose two. Which two are true about the Program Global Area (PGA) and its management in an Oracle database instance?

Options:

A.

The entire PGA is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using shared servers.

B.

PGA_AGGREGATE_LIMIT is a hard limit on the PGA size for any one session.

C.

The private SQL area (UGA) is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using dedicated servers.

D.

The private SQL area (UGA) is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using shared servers.

E.

Sorts and Hash Joins use PGA memory.

Question 48

Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)?

Options:

A.

All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.

B.

The AWR data is stored in memory and in t he database.

C.

The snapshots collected by AWR are used by the self-tuning components in the database

D.

AWR computes time model statistics based on time usage for activities, which are displayed in the v$SYS time model and V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views.

E.

AWR contains system wide tracing and logging information.

Question 49

Examine these queries and their output: After a system crash, an instance restart and an attempted opening of the PDBs result in: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Data file 24 can be recovered while PDB2 is opened.

B.

Data file 24 must be recovered while the CDB is opened.

C.

Data file 24 can be recovered while CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are opened.

D.

Data file 24 cannot be recovered while the CDB is opened.

E.

Data file 24 must be recovered while PDB2 is closed.

Question 50

Choose three. Which three are true about RMAN archival backups with the RESTORE POINT clause?

Options:

A.

They are never considered obsolete by RMAN.

B.

They can optionally be written to a fast recovery area (FRA).

C.

All archive logs are retained after an archival backup is taken, until the next archival backup is taken of the same database.

D.

Archive logs are retained if they are necessary to allow the database to be recovered to a consistent state when an archival backup is restored.

E.

The SPFILE is included in the archival backup.

F.

Use of a recovery catalog is always required to support the creation and use of archival backups. G)The ARCHIVAL attribute for a backup overrides the RMAN retention policy.

Question 51

Choose three. Which three are true about the FLASHBACK DATABASE feature?

Options:

A.

FLASHBACK DATABASE only uses FLASHBACK LOGS to get the database to the desired flashback time.

B.

It requires that the target database be in ARCHIVELOG mode.

C.

FLASHBACK LOGS are archived after a log switch.

D.

A database can be flashed back using SQL*PLUS.

E.

It always generates REDO and UNDO.

F.

Queries and DML have the same FLASHBACK LOG overhead when flashback is enabled for a database.

Question 52

Choose three. Which three are true about OPatch ?

Options:

A.

It requires installation of Oracle Universal Installer.

B.

It supports Rolling Patching.

C.

It must be invoked as the user that owns the software being patched.

D.

It is a Java-based utility for applying patchsets.

E.

It is platform independent.

F.

It can be used to apply interim patches to the Grid Infrastructure and Database Home combination.

Question 53

Choose three. Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

Tablespaces always remain in read/write mode during transportable tablespace operations.

B.

Tablespaces never remain in read/write mode during transportable tablespace operations.

C.

A transportable data pump import can leave a plugged-in tablespace in read-only mode.

D.

Simultaneous data pump jobs can be limited at the pluggable database (PDB) level.

E.

A transportable data pump import can leave a plugged-in tablespace in read/write mode.

F.

An ordinary data pump export of a table with encrypted columns will always encrypt the same columns when imported.

Question 54

Examine the RMAN command: RMAN> RUN { ALLOCATE CHANNEL c1 DEVICE TYPE sbt; ALLOCATE CHANNEL c2 DEVICE TYPE sbt; ALLOCATE CHANNEL c3 DEVICE TYPE sbt; BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL = 0 (DATAFILE 1,4,5 CHANNEL c1) (DATAFILE 2,3,9 CHANNEL c2) (DATAFILE 6,7,8 CHANNEL c3); SQL 'ALTER SYSTEM ARCHIVE LOG CURRENT'; } Which statement is true about the command?

Options:

A.

It uses multisection backup.

B.

It uses parallelization for the backup set.

C.

It uses asynchronousI/O for the backup.

D.

It creates compressed backup sets.

Question 55

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 container database (CDB). 2. PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases (PDBs) in CDB1. After successfully performing all the preupgrade tasks, you execute these commands from the Oracle Database 18c environment: $ export ORACLE_SID=cdb1 $ sqlplus / as sysdba SQL> STARTUP UPGRADE; SQL> SHOW pdbs CON_ID CON_NAME OPEN MODE RESTRICTED -------------------------------------------------¬-------------2 PDB$SEED 3 PDB1 4 PDB2 MIGRATE YES MOUNTED YES MOUNTED YES SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 OPEN UPGRADE; Pluggable database altered. SQL> exit $ $ORACLE_HOME/perl/bin/perl catctl.pl -C 'PDB2' What is the outcome?

Options:

A.

It fails because PDB$SEED is in MIGRATE state.

B.

Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 are upgraded.

C.

Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB2 are upgraded.

D.

It fails because PDB2 is not in UPGRADE state.

E.

CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 are upgraded.

F.

Only CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are upgraded.

Question 56

Choose two. Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?

Options:

A.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column may only be queried by users with the DBA role set.

B.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is only displayed if it is referenced in the column select list of a query

C.

The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows.

D.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column may only be updated by users with the DBA role set.

E.

The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated in an overnight maintenance job based on activity tracking.

Question 57

.Examine the RMAN command: RMAN> CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG; Which prerequisite must be met before accomplishing the backup?

Options:

A.

The password for the encryption must be set up.

B.

Oracle wallet for the encryption must be set up.

C.

All the tablespaces in the database must be encrypted

D.

Oracle Database Vault must be enabled.

Question 58

Choose three. Which three are true about corrupted data blocks and their recovery in an Oracle Database?

Options:

A.

If a row lock is held by a nonexistent transaction, the block containing the row is media corrupt.

B.

DB_BLOCK_CHECKING=TRUE causes a check sum to be added to each data block to help detect physical or media corruption.

C.

A media corrupt block is one where the block is not formatted correctly.

D.

The ANALYZE TABLE VALIDATE STRUCTURE CASCADE command verifies that each table row has an index entry pointing to it.

E.

If a row lock is held by a nonexistent transaction, the block containing the row is logically corrupt.

F.

DB_LOST_WRITE_PROTECT=TYPICAL causes extra logging overhead on the standby database.

Question 59

Choose three. In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems?

Options:

A.

when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

B.

when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

C.

when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value

D.

when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value

E.

when a resumable statement is suspended

F.

when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value

Question 60

Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.

B.

Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.

C.

Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.

D.

Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.

E.

Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history

Question 61

Which two are true about the Oracle database methodology? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The Oracle Database time model should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.

B.

Tuning activities should stop once the user is satisfied with performance.

C.

Tuning activities should stop once agreed service levels for performance have been met.

D.

The database instance memory should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.

E.

SQL statements should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.

F.

The alert log should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.

Question 62

Choose two You upgrade your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) that contains pluggable databases (PDBs). Examine the query and its output: SQL> SELECT * FROM v $PWFILE_users; USERNAME SYSDB SYSOP SYSAS SYSBA SYSDG SYSKM CON_ID ------------------------------------------------------------------------SYS TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE FALSE 0 Which two tasks must you perform to add users with the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM prileges to the password file?

Options:

A.

Re-create or migrate the password file to the Oracle Database 12c format

B.

Grant the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.

C.

Copy the password file from a sample file in the DBS dierectory

D.

Assign appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM.

Question 63

Choose two. Which two are true about the Optimizer Statistics Advisor?

Options:

A.

It always analyzes all schemas in the database.

B.

It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process.

C.

It can be run only manually.

D.

It runs automatically every night by default. E) It can be run only automatically.

Question 64

Choose two. Which two are true about diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations using Data Recovery Advisor?

Options:

A.

Data Recovery Advisor can proactively check for failures.

B.

Using the Data Recovery Advisor LIST FAILURE command always requires that the database for which failures are to be listed is in MOUNT state.

C.

ata Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is in the NOMOUNT state.

D.

A failure can be closed only if the database is in MOUNT state.

E.

Data Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is closed.

Question 65

Which two statements are true about the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?

Options:

A.

It can configure Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroups.

B.

It can be used to copy an existing Oracle database to a new host and apply any patches necessary in the new host.

C.

It can be used to add a new tablespace.

D.

It can be used to create a database template from an existing database.

E.

It can generate SQL database creation scripts.

Question 66

Choose two. Which two are true in Oracle 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.

B.

If the password file location changes, then the instance must be restarted.

C.

Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.

D.

All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.

E.

Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by all users

Question 67

Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is a container database. 2. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1. You execute these commands successfully: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PDB1 and PDB2 are in MOUNT state.

B.

Redo logs are opened.

C.

PDB1 and PDB2 are in READ ONLY state.

D.

CDB$ROOT is in MOUNT state.

E.

PDB$SEED is in READ ONLY state.

Question 68

Which three statements are true about the keystore storage framework for transparent data encryption?

Options:

A.

It facilitates and helps to enforce keystore backup requirements.

B.

It handles encrypted data without modifying applications.

C.

It enables a keystore to be stored only in a file on a file system.

D.

It enables separation of duties between the database administrator and the security administrator.

E.

It transparently decrypts data for the database users and applications that access this data.

F.

It helps to track encryption keys and implement requirements such as keystore password rotation and master encryption key reset or re-key operations.

Question 69

Choose two. Which two are true about a Recovery Manager (RMAN) duplication without a TARGET connection?

Options:

A.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is closed.

B.

RMAN disk-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.

C.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the TARGET instance.

D.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is never required.

E.

RMAN "pushes" the backups of the database to be duplicated over the network to the auxiliary instance.

Question 70

Which two are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?

Options:

A.

Reduced logical I/O

B.

Reduced virtual memory utilization

C.

Improved Serial Execution performance

D.

Reduced physical I/O

E.

Reduced CPU utilization

Question 71

Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Orcale 18c? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is an Oracle Database service

B.

It cannot be used to upgrade Oracle Database homes.

C.

It can be used to provision applications.

D.

It can be used to patch Grid Infrastructure homes containing Oracle Restart.

E.

It can be used to provision middleware.

Question 72

Choose two. Which two are true about PDB archive files?

Options:

A.

DBMS_PDB.CHECK_PLUG_COMPATIBILITY can be run against a PDB archive.

B.

They contain a PDB manifest file and all the data files in uncompressed form for a PDB.

C.

They contain all the data files only in uncompressed form for a PDB.

D.

They must be created using the DBMS_PDB package.

E.

They contain a PDB manifest file and all the data files in compressed form for a PDB.

F.

They contain all the data files only in compressed form for a PDB.

Question 73

Examine these queries and their output: An online RMAN backup of the CDB was taken an hour before Restore Point R1 was created. You want to recover PDB1 to Restore Point R1. How do you achieve this?

Options:

A.

Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1by using RMAN while connected to PDB1.

B.

Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1by using SQL while connected to PDB1.

C.

Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1by using SQL while connected to CDB$ROOT.

D.

Execute FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 TO RESTORE POINT R1by using RMAN while connected to CDB$ROOT.

E.

This cannot be done due to the lack of a clean restore point.

Question 74

Choose three. Which three are true about recovery operations done without using Recovery Manager (RMAN)?

Options:

A.

A lost PFILE can be re-created from alert.log using SQL*PLUS.

B.

A lost index tablespace can be re-created without performing any recovery.

C.

A lost password file can be manually re-created with the orapwd utility.

D.

A lost password file can be re-created with SQL*PLUS.

E.

A lost SPFILE can be recovered from memory using SQL*PLUS.

F.

A lost TEMPFILE must always be re-created manually.

Question 75

Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

If the password file location changes, then the new location is used automatically by the Oracle Server.

B.

Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.

C.

All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.

D.

Privilege Analysisisincluded in Oracle Enterprise Edition and no longer requires Database Vault. E) Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by an audited user.

E.

Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.

Question 76

You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with t he following specifications: Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier. The number of concurrent user connections will be high. The database will have mixed workload, with t he execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night. Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

Options:

A.

a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation

B.

a Data Warehouse database template, with t he dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled

C.

a General Purpose database template, with t he shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled

D.

a default database configuration

Question 77

choose one You want to create a test database as a replica of your production database with minimum intervention from a DBA. Which method would you use?

Options:

A.

Use DBCA to create a template from the existing database to contain the database structure with data files and then use the same template to create the database in the new location.

B.

Use Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create a template from the existing database to contain the database structure.

C.

Use DBCA to create a template from the existing database to contain the database structure and then manually copy the data by using Oracle Data Pump.

D.

Create the database by using the CREATE DATABASE . . . command and manually import data by using Data Pump.

Question 78

Choose three. Which three are true about patchsets?

Options:

A.

They are installed via OPatch or OPatchAuto.

B.

A base release is not needed to install patchsets.

C.

They can be applied in a rolling fashion for Clusterware and the databases.

D.

Installing a patchset is considered an "upgrade."

E.

They can introduce new features.

F.

They are only released quarterly.

Question 79

Choose two. Which two are true about the SQL Tuning Advisor?

Options:

A.

It can recommend semantic changes to SQL statements.

B.

It prevents performance regressions for SQL statements when changes are made.

C.

It checks each query being analyzed for missing or stale statistics.

D.

It considers all SQL statements being analyzed by the advisor task as a group.

E.

It only recommends syntactic changes to SQL statements.

Question 80

Which two are true about Oracle Flashback features? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

FLASHBACK QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVE D REDO LOG files.

B.

FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVE D REDO LOG files.

C.

FLASHBACK TABLE can undrop a column.

D.

FLASHBACK DROP can undrop an index when undropping a table.

E.

After a database is restored from flashback logs using the FLASHBACK DATABASE command, it is sometimes rolled forward using redo logs.

Question 81

Choose two. Which two are prerequisites for using FLASHBACK TABLE?

Options:

A.

A table's constraints must be disabled before issuing the flashback.

B.

The FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege or the FLASHBACK object privilege must be granted to the user performing the flashback.

C.

Row Movement must be enabled on the table being flashed back.

D.

A table's indexes must be set to unusable before issuing the flashback.

E.

The FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege or the FLASHBACK object privilege must be granted to the table owner.

Question 82

Which three are true about an application container?

Options:

A.

It can contain a single application

B.

Two application containers can share an application seed PDB.

C.

It must have an application root PDB.

D.

An application PDB can belong to multiple application containers.

E.

It must have an application seed PDB.

F.

It can contain multiple applications.

Question 83

Choose three. In a single-instance, multitenant container database (CDB), which three are only ever defined in or part of CDB$ROOT?

Options:

A.

redo logs

B.

control files

C.

all data dictionary metadata

D.

user-defined PL/SQL packages

E.

temporary tablespaces

F.

mandatory Oracle-supplied PL/SQL packages

G.

undo tablespaces

Question 84

Choose the best answer. Your CDB has two regular PDBs as well as one application container with two application PDBs and an application seed. No changes have been made to the standard PDB $SEED. How many default temporary tablespaces can be assigned in the CDB?

Options:

A.

seven

B.

five

C.

eight

D.

three

E.

six

Question 85

Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

All metrics are instance related.

B.

Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.

C.

A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved

D.

They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.

E.

Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.

F.

STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

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