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Nokia 4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Exam Practice Test

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Total 352 questions
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Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

Question 1

A network with address 208.40.224.0/24 is divided into /28 subnets. What is the network address of the third subnet?

Options:

A.

208.40.224.16/28

B.

208.40.224.32/28

C.

208.40.224.48/28

D.

208.40.224.64/28

Question 2

Which of the following tasks can be performed in the boot options file (BOF)?

Options:

A.

Specifying authorization information to control access to the router.

B.

Defining an IP address for the management port.

C.

Provisioning the IOM cards.

D.

Setting the date and time for the system.

Question 3

Which of the following is used for the auto completion of CLI commands in a Nokia 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Type the first few letters of the command, then press Ctrl C.

B.

Type the first few letters of the command, then press Esc.

C.

Type the first few letters of the command, then press Tab.

D.

Type the first few letters of the command, then type ?.

Question 4

Network 201.148.104.0/21 is subnetted using a /23 mask. How many subnets and host addresses per subnet will be obtained with this mask?

Options:

A.

2 subnets, 1022 hosts

B.

4 subnets, 510 hosts

C.

2 subnets, 2048 hosts

D.

4 subnets, 512 hosts

Question 5

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

Question # 5

Options:

A.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic between addresses 1.2.3.0/24 and 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

B.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is forwarded.

C.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 2.3.4.0/24 to destination address 1.2.3.0/24 is dropped.

D.

TCP (protocol 6) traffic from source address 1.2.3.0/24 to destination address 2.3.4.0/24 is dropped.

Question 6

Which organization co-ordinates global public IP addresses?

Options:

A.

IANA

B.

IETF

C.

RIR

D.

IEEE

Question 7

What is the purpose of a multicast address?

Options:

A.

To provide an address that refers to all devices in a network.

B.

To provide an address that refers to a specific group of devices in a network.

C.

To provide an address that refers to a group of devices with the same IP address in different Layer 2 networks.

D.

To provide an address that refers to a single device in a network.

Question 8

Which of the following statements best describe the purpose of UDP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Provides a connectionless delivery service.

B.

Provides a connection oriented delivery service

C.

Provides an unreliable transmission service,

D.

Provides a reliable transmission service.

Question 9

Which of the following statements about route summarization is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It reduces the number of routes advertised by the router.

B.

It allows a single route table entry to represent multiple subnetworks

C.

It can reduce the size of the routing table in neighboring routers.

D.

It advertises more specific routes for routing advertisement stability.

Question 10

Given network address 200.12.30.0 with network mask 255.255.255.0, which subnet mask can be used to create 12 subnetworks? Each subnetwork must support 10 host addresses.

Options:

A.

/25

B.

/26

C.

/28

D.

/30

Question 11

What operation is performed by an egress Label Edge Router (eLER) when it receives an MPLS labeled packet?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet to the next LSR without altering the MPLS label.

B.

It swaps the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LSR.

C.

It pushes a new MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LSR.

D.

It pops the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next IP router.

Question 12

Which configuration edit mode does NOT give you access to the global candidate configuration?

Options:

A.

Private

B.

Global

C.

Read-only

D.

Exclusive

Question 13

Which Ethernet frame field allows the transmitter and receiver to synchronize communications?

Options:

A.

Preamble

B.

Start Frame Delimiter

C.

Length/Type

D.

Frame Check Sequence

Question 14

Which of the following is part of the IP forwarding process?

Options:

A.

The router does a longest prefix match lookup.

B.

The router checks the source address in the MAC FDB.

C.

The router assigns a cost to each of its interfaces.

D.

The router advertises routes to its neighbors.

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT a valid log source in a Nokia 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Main

B.

Security

C.

Syslog

D.

Debug

Question 16

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

Question # 16

Options:

A.

TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 666 and 999 are forwarded.

B.

TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 666 and 999 are dropped.

C.

TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 or source port number between 666 and 999 are forwarded.

D.

TCP (protocol 6) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 666 and 999 are forwarded.

Question 17

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact

flash?

Options:

A.

Console

B.

CLI

C.

Memory

D.

File

Question 18

A switch with the MAC FDB shown in the exhibit receives an Ethernet frame with source MAC address 00:00:8c:01:00:0a and destination MAC address ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff. On which ports is the frame forwarded?

Question # 18

Options:

A.

Only on port 1/1/1.

B.

On all ports except 1/1/1.

C.

On all four ports.

D.

On none of the ports.

Question 19

Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF

B.

BGP

C.

X.500

D.

IS-IS

E.

Ethernet

Question 20

A typical Nokia 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with:

Options:

A.

A Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module.

B.

The Central Processing Unit (CPU).

C.

The Control Plane.

D.

The Switch Fabric.

Question 21

Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

Options:

A.

Provides an unreliable, connectionless data transmission service.

B.

Provides a mechanism for flow control.

C.

Verifies the integrity of all received datagrams.

D.

Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

Question 22

What characteristic of IP addressing creates a hierarchical network?

Options:

A.

All hosts on all networks must have unique host numbers.

B.

IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides.

C.

Clients are assigned 32-bit addresses and servers 64-bit addresses.

D.

Router, switch and host addresses are drawn from unique address classes.

Question 23

Which field in the IP routing table contains the name or address of the neighbour that advertised the prefix to the router?

Options:

A.

Preference.

B.

Metric.

C.

Dest prefix.

D.

Next hop.

Question 24

What happens next after an incoming packet is de-encapsulated from the Layer 2 frame in an Nokia 7750 router?

Options:

A.

The IP datagram is encapsulated in the appropriate Layer 2 frame by the MDA.

B.

The IP datagram passes through the switch fabric to reach the egress IOM.

C.

The IP datagram is passed to the IOM.

D.

A lookup is performed in the FIB to determine the egress interface.

Question 25

Which type of IP address contains the network number and all 1's for the host address?

Options:

A.

Unicast address.

B.

Broadcast address.

C.

Multicast address.

D.

Anycast address.

Question 26

Which network was created to replace ARPANET?

Options:

A.

INWG

B.

ALOHANET

C.

IETF

D.

NSFNET

Question 27

At what stage in the packet forwarding process, is the IP packet header examined?

Options:

A.

When the router first receives a frame from a LAN.

B.

After the forwarding table is checked.

C.

After the IP datagram is extracted from the L2 frame.

D.

Immediately before the IP packet is encapsulated for transmission.

Question 28

What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

Question 29

Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

Options:

A.

Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.

B.

Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and are assigned by IANA.

C.

Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA.

D.

Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.

Question 30

What problems was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve? (Choose two.):

Options:

A.

Providing path redundancy.

B.

Preventing loops.

C.

Handling collisions.

D.

Allowing flooding of multicast traffic.

Question 31

The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that:

Options:

A.

Contains all the components required to configure and run protocols on the Nokia 7750 SR/7450 ESS.

B.

Loads the router configuration.

C.

Transfers the router configuration from the router to the network management system.

D.

Loads the router software image.

Question 32

You are working from a particular Command Line Interface (CLI) context, and want to see the commands available from your current context. What command can you issue to view this information?

Options:

A.

view tree

B.

tree

C.

info detail

D.

info

Question 33

Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

Options:

A.

Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network.

B.

The size of the Layer 2 frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

C.

Provides error checking of the frame contents after transmission.

D.

All the above.

Question 34

Which of the following best describes an Ethernet bridge?

Options:

A.

A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its other ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.

C.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

Question 35

What is the effective maximum rate of data transmission on a 10 Mbps full-duplex Ethernet link?

Options:

A.

5 Mbps.

B.

10 Mbps.

C.

15 Mbps.

D.

20 Mbps.

Question 36

What happens immediately after an Ethernet switch receives an Ethernet frame?

Options:

A.

It records the destination MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

B.

It records the source MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

C.

It floods the frame out of all its interfaces except the interface on which the frame arrived.

D.

It transmits the frame out of the appropriate interface.

Question 37

In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. later it receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8. What does R7 do with the LSA received from R8?

Question # 37

Options:

A.

R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8.

B.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8.

D.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

Question 38

Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate how many segments it can receive?

Options:

A.

Checksum

B.

SYN

C.

Destination port

D.

Window size

E.

MTU

Question 39

What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?

Options:

A.

Link bandwidth.

B.

Round trip time.

C.

Hop count.

D.

Route preference.

Question 40

If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?

Options:

A.

Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

Virtual Private LAN Service

C.

Virtual Private Routed Networks

D.

Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service

Question 41

Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of UDP (Select two)?

Options:

A.

Provide a connectionless delivery service.

B.

Provide a connection oriented delivery service.

C.

Provide an unreliable transmission service.

D.

Provide a reliable transmission service.

Question 42

A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS network?

Options:

A.

CE always connects to a PE router.

B.

CE always connects to a P router.

C.

CE always connects to another CE device.

D.

The CE does not connect to the service provider network.

Question 43

Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?

Options:

A.

TCP port 179.

B.

UDP port 179.

C.

TCP port 22.

D.

UDP port 22.

Question 44

Host A is transmitting data to host B on a TCP connection. What is the purpose of the ACK sent by host B?

Options:

A.

The ACK tells the host A that host B wishes to establish a session.

B.

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the segment that was just received by host B.

C.

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the next segment that host B expects to see.

D.

The ACK is flow control from host B and tells host A to reduce its transmission rate.

Question 45

Which of the following statements best characterize Distance Vector Routing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Question 46

Question # 46

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what is the next-hop used on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1?

Options:

A.

next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

next-hop 192.168.2.1

C.

next-hop 10.2 3.1

D.

next-hop 192.168.2.0

Question 47

Why does UDP have less overhead than TCP?

Options:

A.

UDP has less overhead because it is only used for transmission of small amounts of data.

B.

UDP has less overhead then TCP because there is no checksum field in UDP.

C.

UDP overhead is the same as TCP because it uses the same fields in the header.

D.

UDP has less overhead because there is no requirement for acknowledgment or retransmission.

Question 48

Which of the following is a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

Options:

A.

Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network

B.

Size of frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

C.

Provides error checking of the frame contents on ingress.

D.

All of the above.

Question 49

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button).

Question # 49

R2 wants to connect a host on 192.168.2.0/24 behind CR1. What is the correct next-hop to use, assuming R1 is configured correctly?

Options:

A.

10.2.3.2

B.

10.1.1.1

C.

10.2.3.1

D.

10.1.1.2

Question 50

Which of the following is NOT a field in a TCP header?

Options:

A.

Source port.

B.

MTU.

C.

Sequence number.

D.

Acknowledgement number.

E.

Window size.

Question 51

Which statement best describes a VPRN service?

Options:

A.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark fibers.

B.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network administered by the service provider.

C.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network administered by the service provider.

D.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by the service provider.

Question 52

Which field in the Routing Information Base (RIB) determines the direction frames will egress the node?

Options:

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Dest prefix

D.

Next-hop

E.

Cost

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