NREMT EMT Emergency Medical Technicians Exam Exam Practice Test

Even in high-acuity situations, NREMT standards require EMTs to perform a scene size-up before patient contact. Scene size-up includes ensuring scene safety, determining the mechanism of injury, identifying hazards, and assessing the need for additional resources. Entering a scene without confirming safety places the EMT at risk and can result in additional victims.

Although the patient is unresponsive and apneic, EMTs must first confirm the scene is safe to enter. Only after scene safety is established should patient care begin.

Option B is incorrect because CPR cannot be initiated until the EMT has safely accessed the patient.

Option C is incorrect because airway maneuvers are performed after scene safety and patient access are confirmed.

Option D is incorrect because spinal stabilization occurs after initial access and assessment.

NREMT emphasizes: rescuer safety always comes first, even in life-threatening emergencies.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

CPAP works by delivering continuous positive pressure to keep alveoli open and improve oxygenation. However, complications include:

Hypotension: Due to reduced venous return and cardiac preload

Feeling of suffocation: Common psychological reaction to a tight-fitting mask and forced airflow

It is used to treat, not cause, pulmonary edema. It does not induce bronchospasm or myocardial infarction.

NREMT guidelines clearly state that life-threatening danger overrides spinal motion restriction. This patient shows signs of a spinal cord injury (loss of movement and sensation), but they were previously trapped under a vehicle—an inherently unstable and dangerous environment.

Option A is correct because the clothes drag is an emergency move designed to remove a patient from immediate danger as quickly as possible. In emergency situations, speed and rescuer safety take priority over spinal immobilization.

Option B is incorrect because clothes drags do not minimize spinal movement.

Option C is incorrect because preparing and using a long backboard delays removal.

Option D is incorrect because spinal protection is secondary to immediate life threats.

NREMT emphasizes: “You cannot help the patient if you become injured.”

When an incident involves multiple agencies with shared responsibility, NREMT teaches that a Unified Command structure is used. This allows police, fire, EMS, and other agencies to work together under a common set of objectives while maintaining their individual authority.

Option C is correct because the defining feature of unified command is multi-agency involvement, not rank or arrival order.

Option A is incorrect because no single agency automatically has authority.

Option B misunderstands unified command, which still functions with coordinated leadership.

Option D is incorrect because EMS does not automatically become part of command.

NREMT emphasizes unified command to improve coordination, communication, and safety during MCIs.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):

When a previously choking adult becomes unresponsive, NREMT guidelines require the EMT to immediately begin the cardiac arrest sequence.

Option A (Check for a pulse) is correct because determining pulselessness directs the next intervention.

Option B (Begin chest compressions) is correct because chest compressions are initiated if the patient is pulseless and unresponsive. Compressions may also help dislodge the foreign body.

Option C is incorrect because the airway is checked only after compressions begin and ventilations are attempted.

Option D is incorrect because ventilations are attempted after compressions, with airway checks between cycles.

Option E is inappropriate for an unresponsive adult.

NREMT emphasizes following BLS algorithms precisely for airway obstruction leading to unresponsiveness.

NREMT guidelines specify that adult ventilations with a BVM should be delivered over approximately 1 second, just enough to see visible chest rise. Forceful, rapid ventilations increase the risk of gastric inflation, aspiration, barotrauma, and hypotension.

Option B is correct because slowing the rate and reducing force improves ventilation effectiveness and patient safety.

Option A may be important, but the primary error described is ventilation speed.

Option C is inappropriate for an apneic patient.

Option D is only indicated if the patient is pulseless.

NREMT emphasizes controlled, gentle ventilations to minimize complications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This patient is showing signs of epiglottitis or a serious upper airway obstruction — drooling, difficulty swallowing, fever, and tripod positioning.

EMT actions should include:

Position of comfort to avoid airway agitation

Gentle suctioning if secretions threaten airway

Do not force the patient to lie flat, as this may worsen airway compromise. CPAP and humidified oxygen may be considered in hospital care but not as first-line interventions during prehospital airway management in epiglottitis.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This is a high-risk cardiac event due to unstable angina or possible myocardial infarction. The EMT should:

Administer oxygen if SpO₂ is <94%

Avoid nitroglycerin if systolic BP is <90 mmHg

Obtain a 12-lead ECG to identify ST-elevation MI (STEMI) and transmit it if trained and authorized

CPAP is indicated for pulmonary edema, and albuterol is for bronchospasm, neither of which applies here.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Missing dialysis leads to fluid overload, causing:

Pulmonary edema, evident by crackles on auscultation

Dyspnea and chest discomfort

Bradycardia is less likely; patients more often present with tachycardia due to volume stress. Fever would suggest infection (not stated here), and hypotension can occur later, but hypertension is more common in early fluid overload.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Altered mental status, combined with pale, cool, and clammy skin, is strongly suggestive of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). Hypoglycemia is especially dangerous in diabetics who take insulin or oral hypoglycemics. The body's adrenergic response causes the "cool and clammy" presentation.

Hyperglycemia typically presents with warm, dry skin and develops more slowly. EMTs should administer oral glucose if the patient can swallow.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) in a physically active person, such as a mountain climber, strongly suggests a pulmonary embolism (PE), particularly due to:

Dehydration

Prolonged exertion or immobility

High altitude increasing clot risk

Symptoms may include:

Shortness of breath

Chest pain

Tachypnea

Hemoptysis

Pulmonary edema generally causes pink frothy sputum and is more associated with heart failure. Neoplasm (lung cancer) is possible but much less acute in onset. Spontaneous pneumothorax causes dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain but not typically hemoptysis.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Clavicle deformity suggests potential rib or thoracic trauma. Unequal chest rise may indicate a flail segment, pneumothorax, or hemothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema, the presence of air under the skin, is a classic finding in pneumothorax or tracheobronchial injury.

Occipital depression is not chest related; epigastric distension is a GI symptom; and jugular vein distention would suggest tension pneumothorax or cardiac tamponade, which are more advanced complications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):

This scenario strongly suggests a hazardous environment involving chemical crowd-control agents such as tear gas or pepper spray. During the scene survey, NREMT prioritizes scene safety, hazard recognition, and incident size-up before any patient contact.

Option D (Determine the control agent being used) is correct because identifying the chemical agent helps determine the level of risk, appropriate personal protective equipment, and whether EMS can safely operate in the area.

Option E (Identify the number of patients) is correct because determining the number of patients is essential for assessing the scope of the incident and requesting additional resources if needed.

Option A is incorrect because removing restraints is not part of the initial scene survey and must be coordinated with law enforcement.

Option B is incorrect because patient decontamination occurs only after scene safety is ensured.

Option C is not a priority until hazards are identified and the scene is safe.

NREMT teaches that EMTs must never compromise their own safety and must fully assess hazards before providing care.

According to NREMT neonatal resuscitation principles, a newborn who is crying with a heart rate greater than 100 does not require aggressive resuscitation but does need supportive care.

Option A (Dry baby) is essential to stimulate breathing and prevent heat loss.

Option B (Keep baby warm) is critical, as neonates lose heat rapidly and hypothermia worsens hypoxia.

Option C (Administer blow-by oxygen) is appropriate for central cyanosis when respirations and heart rate are adequate.

Option D is only indicated if secretions are obstructing the airway.

Options E and F are contraindicated because the infant has an adequate heart rate and is breathing.

NREMT emphasizes warmth, oxygenation, and minimal intervention in stable newborns.

Positive pressure ventilation (PPV) forces air into the lungs under pressure rather than relying on negative intrathoracic pressure. NREMT education emphasizes that while PPV is lifesaving, it carries important risks—most notably decreased venous return to the heart.

Option C (Profound hypotension) is correct because increased intrathoracic pressure reduces preload by compressing the vena cava, which can significantly lower cardiac output and blood pressure. This effect is especially pronounced in hypovolemic or trauma patients.

Option A is incorrect because diaphragmatic movement is not a complication.

Option B is unrelated to ventilation.

Option D describes a ventilation parameter, not a complication.

NREMT stresses careful ventilation rates and volumes to avoid hypotension, gastric inflation, and barotrauma.

This pediatric presentation—fever, sore throat, and drooling—is highly concerning for acute epiglottitis, a life-threatening airway emergency emphasized in NREMT airway education. Epiglottitis causes rapid swelling of the epiglottis and surrounding tissues, which can lead to sudden and complete airway obstruction, especially in young children.

Option D is correct because the EMT should minimize agitation and transport the child in a position of comfort, typically sitting upright. NREMT guidelines stress that children with suspected epiglottitis should be kept calm, allowed to assume their preferred position, and transported rapidly without unnecessary interventions that could provoke airway spasm.

Option A is incorrect because finger sweeps are contraindicated unless a solid foreign body is clearly visible. Performing a finger sweep may worsen obstruction or trigger complete airway closure.

Option B is incorrect because positive-pressure ventilation with a BVM can increase agitation and is not indicated unless the patient is in respiratory failure. Oxygen may be offered gently, but forcing a BVM is dangerous.

Option C is incorrect because visual inspection of the airway using a tongue depressor can precipitate sudden airway obstruction and is specifically contraindicated by NREMT teaching.

The priority per NREMT is airway preservation through calm handling, rapid transport, and avoidance of invasive airway maneuvers.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):

NREMT trauma care guidelines clearly state that distal circulation, sensation, and motor function (CSM) must be assessed both before and after splinting any musculoskeletal injury.

Option C is correct because the pre-splint assessment establishes a baseline, while the post-splint assessment confirms that the splint has not compromised blood flow or nerve function.

Option A is incomplete and unsafe.

Option B misses baseline data.

Option D violates standard trauma care practices.

Proper documentation of distal neurological status is critical for patient safety and medico-legal protection.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

EMS professionals are expected to use empathetic yet clear language when communicating a death. The phrase "She has passed" is both respectful and commonly accepted as an appropriate way to convey death compassionately without being overly clinical or harsh.

“Died” may sound too blunt in an emotional moment, while “didn’t make it” and “at peace” can feel vague or dismissive. Clear, empathetic communication is critical for patient dignity and family support during death notifications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Given fall with head trauma and absent respirations, the most concerning cause is spinal injury, particularly a cervical spine fracture. A high cervical injury (C1–C4) can paralyze the diaphragm, leading to apnea despite a beating heart.

Brain herniation can also depress respirations but often presents with unequal pupils, posturing, and Cushing’s triad (not described here). Commotio cordis is sudden cardiac arrest from blunt chest trauma (not head). Open pneumothorax affects chest mechanics, not directly linked here.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In pediatric START or JumpSTART triage, a "delayed" status is appropriate if the child is breathing adequately, has palpable pulses, and follows commands. The respiratory rate of 16 is normal for a 9-year-old, and being able to walk also supports the “delayed” tag.

"Mottled skin" and "breathing only after airway opening" would more likely lead to "immediate" or even "expectant" categories depending on associated symptoms.

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a stress-related psychiatric condition that may develop after exposure to a traumatic event. NREMT education addresses PTSD particularly in the context of crisis intervention, behavioral emergencies, and responder mental health awareness.

Option C (Flashback phenomena) is correct. Flashbacks are a hallmark feature of PTSD and involve intrusive, vivid recollections of the traumatic event that may feel as though it is happening again. These episodes can be triggered by sights, sounds, or smells associated with the trauma.

Option E (Difficulty concentrating) is also correct. Patients with PTSD frequently experience cognitive symptoms such as impaired concentration, memory problems, and difficulty completing tasks. These symptoms result from persistent hyperarousal and stress responses.

Option A is incorrect because PTSD is associated with nightmares, not an inability to dream.

Option B is incorrect because violent behavior is not a defining or consistent feature of PTSD, although irritability may be present.

Option D is incorrect because increased compassion is not a recognized symptom.

NREMT emphasizes recognizing PTSD symptoms to ensure appropriate patient interaction, safety, and referral for further care.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Under HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), only designated personnel are authorized to handle inquiries regarding a patient’s Protected Health Information (PHI). The Privacy Officer is responsible for enforcing compliance with privacy regulations and addressing PHI access requests.

Shift supervisors or hospitals do not have the legal authority to release PHI unless specifically designated.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):

Hepatitis A is a viral liver infection transmitted primarily through the fecal-oral route, often due to contaminated food, water, or poor hand hygiene. NREMT education highlights hepatitis transmission routes as part of infection control and standard precautions.

Option A is correct because hepatitis A spreads when microscopic amounts of fecal matter are ingested, commonly in environments with inadequate sanitation.

Options B, C, and D are incorrect because these forms of hepatitis are transmitted primarily through blood and body fluids, such as needlestick injuries, sexual contact, or shared needles.

Understanding transmission routes allows EMTs to apply proper protective measures and reduce occupational exposure risks, a core component of NREMT infection-control training.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Negligence occurs when an EMT:

Has a duty to act

Breaches that duty (e.g., by withholding basic care like warmth)

Causes harm or risk of harm

Establishes causation

The EMT’s failure to treat the patient with respect and dignity — even if the patient improved — still constitutes negligence, especially if tied to a discriminatory or dismissive attitude.

The foundation of effective multiple-casualty incident (MCI) management is the Incident Command System (ICS). NREMT teaches that ICS provides clear leadership, communication, accountability, and coordination of resources.

Option D is correct because ICS allows for scalable management, efficient delegation, and integration of multiple agencies.

Option B is important but is a component of ICS, not the core principle.

Option C is a tactical step that occurs within the command structure.

Option A misunderstands ICS, as command is established based on arrival, not rank alone.

NREMT stresses that without ICS, MCIs become chaotic and unsafe, regardless of clinical skill.

To rapidly determine a pediatric patient’s condition, NREMT emphasizes the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT), which allows EMTs to form a quick clinical impression without hands-on assessment. The PAT consists of appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to skin.

Option F (Response to environment) evaluates appearance, including interaction, awareness, and mental status—critical in a confused child.

Option E (Accessory muscle use) assesses work of breathing, identifying respiratory compromise through visible effort such as retractions or nasal flaring.

Option A (Pallor) reflects circulation to skin, helping identify poor perfusion or shock.

Options B, C, and D are part of more detailed assessments but are not part of the rapid initial determination emphasized by NREMT.

Using the PAT allows EMTs to quickly identify life-threatening problems and prioritize care.

Hypovolemic shock results from acute blood loss, commonly seen with penetrating trauma such as gunshot wounds. NREMT identifies several key indicators that reflect reduced circulating volume and inadequate tissue perfusion.

Option A (Heart rate) is a strong indicator. Tachycardia (P 140) reflects the body’s attempt to compensate for reduced blood volume and maintain cardiac output.

Option B (Lung sounds) are significant in this case because absent sounds suggest associated chest trauma that may contribute to blood loss and impaired oxygenation, worsening shock.

Option C (Mental status) is a critical indicator. Unconsciousness reflects inadequate cerebral perfusion, a late and serious sign of shock.

Additional supportive findings include pale, cool skin and borderline hypotension. NREMT emphasizes early recognition of shock and rapid control of bleeding, oxygenation, and transport to definitive care.

NREMT standards emphasize scene safety, infection control, and proper sharps handling to reduce the risk of occupational exposure. A contaminated needle left in a mattress presents a serious needlestick hazard to EMS providers, hospital staff, and patients.

Option B is correct because the appropriate action is to carefully remove the needle and immediately dispose of it in an approved sharps container. This follows OSHA and NREMT infection-control principles, which state that sharps must be disposed of promptly in puncture-resistant containers without unnecessary handling.

Option A is incorrect because recapping needles is strictly prohibited under standard precautions. Recapping significantly increases the risk of accidental needlestick injuries and violates established safety guidelines.

Option C is incorrect because confronting a paramedic in front of a patient is unprofessional and undermines team dynamics. Any concerns regarding unsafe practices should be addressed privately and through appropriate supervisory channels.

Option D is incorrect because ignoring an exposed sharp creates an ongoing safety hazard and fails the EMT’s responsibility to maintain a safe environment.

In summary, NREMT expects EMTs to act proactively to reduce hazards, follow standard precautions, and safely dispose of sharps without recapping or delay. Removing the needle carefully and placing it in a sharps container is the safest and most appropriate response.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This is a classic presentation of hypovolemic shock due to traumatic blood loss (open femur fracture, pelvic instability). Indicators include:

Low BP (86/42) = hypotension

High pulse (P 136) = compensation

Mental status decline (responsive only to voice) = indicates decompensated shock

Obstructive and distributive shock are not applicable. Compensated shock would show normal BP and alert mental status.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

SALT (Sort, Assess, Lifesaving interventions, Treatment/Transport) is a mass casualty triage method recommended by the CDC and the National Association of EMS Physicians (NAEMSP). During the "Assess" step, responders:

Check respirations

Provide lifesaving interventions such as rescue breaths if the patient is not breathing but has a pulse

Evaluate mentation (e.g., ability to follow commands)

Airway adjuncts and full transport do not happen at this stage. Scorecards and pediatric-specific modifications are addressed later in the protocol.

NREMT distinguishes mild versus severe airway obstruction primarily by the patient’s ability to move air. In a mild obstruction, the patient can cough forcefully, speak, and exchange air. A severe obstruction occurs when airflow is critically impaired.

Option A (Ineffective cough) is the key indicator that a mild obstruction has progressed to a severe one. An ineffective or silent cough means the patient can no longer generate enough airflow to clear the obstruction, placing them at imminent risk of hypoxia and cardiac arrest.

Option B is a late sign of hypoxia but does not define severity of obstruction.

Option C is not specific to airway obstruction severity.

Option D indicates a mild obstruction, not severe.

NREMT teaches that once a cough becomes ineffective, immediate airway intervention is required.

According to NREMT guidelines and standard EMS ethics, a competent adult patient has the legal right to refuse any portion of medical care, including spinal immobilization, as long as they demonstrate decision-making capacity. In this scenario, the patient is refusing one specific intervention (the cervical collar), not transportation or overall care. Therefore, EMS providers must respect the patient’s autonomy while continuing to act in the patient’s best interest.

Option A is correct because the appropriate action is to clearly document the patient’s informed refusal of the cervical collar and continue transport. Documentation should include the patient’s mental status, orientation, explanation of risks provided, the patient’s understanding of those risks, and the patient’s explicit refusal. This protects both the patient and the EMS provider legally and ethically.

Option B is incorrect because restraining a patient to force treatment constitutes assault and battery unless the patient lacks decision-making capacity or poses an immediate danger to themselves or others. There is no indication in the question that the patient is incompetent or combative.

Option C is incorrect because the patient has not refused all care—only spinal immobilization. Abandoning care by leaving the scene would violate EMS duty to act once patient contact has been established.

Option D is incorrect because withholding transport unless the patient complies is coercive and unethical. EMS providers must not threaten or pressure patients into accepting treatment.

In summary, NREMT emphasizes patient rights, informed consent, and thorough documentation. Transporting the patient while documenting refusal of immobilization is the safest, most professional, and legally sound course of action.

Subcutaneous emphysema following blunt chest trauma strongly suggests air leaking from the lung into surrounding tissues, often associated with pneumothorax. NREMT trauma priorities stress that airway and breathing take precedence over all other interventions.

Option D is correct because the child is already in moderate respiratory distress, indicating inadequate ventilation. Assisting ventilations with a BVM ensures oxygen delivery and adequate tidal volume while preparing for rapid transport.

Option A is important but does not address the immediate life threat.

Option B may help with pain or flail segments but does not correct ventilation.

Option C is no longer routinely indicated and does not address breathing.

NREMT emphasizes correcting life-threatening airway and breathing problems before movement or transport.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The symptoms and vital signs (wheezing, hypotension, high pulse rate, respiratory distress) are strongly indicative of anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening allergic reaction. Bilateral wheezing and hypotension further confirm systemic involvement. The first-line treatment is intramuscular epinephrine, which:

Reverses bronchospasm (via beta-2 adrenergic effects)

Raises blood pressure (via alpha-1 vasoconstriction)

Improves airway tone and reduces mucosal edema

A metered-dose inhaler may help in mild bronchospasm but is insufficient during anaphylactic shock. Positive pressure ventilations are a secondary measure if respiratory failure occurs. Nitroglycerin is contraindicated due to low BP.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

According to Pediatric Basic Life Support (PBLS) guidelines by the American Heart Association (AHA), when a child becomes unresponsive due to foreign body airway obstruction (FBAO), the immediate next step is to begin chest compressions. This is done before checking the airway or giving breaths because the airway is presumed obstructed. The compressions may dislodge the object.

After 30 compressions, open the airway and check for visible objects. If none are seen, attempt rescue breaths. This protocol reflects the high risk of complete airway blockage in children with sudden collapse following a choking episode.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

For pediatric BLS with two rescuers, current AHA Guidelines (2020) recommend:

Two-thumb encircling hands technique: Most effective for infants; provides consistent depth and control.

Compression ratio of 15:2: Enhances ventilation without compromising perfusion.

Compression depth: 1/3 of chest or approximately one-half the chest's depth.

CPR begins if pulse <60 bpm with signs of poor perfusion, not at 72 bpm. Rate of 180/min is excessive; ideal rate is 100–120/min.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Dehydration signs in infants include:

Poor skin turgor (elasticity)

Sunken fontanelles (indicative of fluid loss)

Delayed capillary refill (>2 seconds)

Flushed skin is more common in fever or heat illness, not dehydration. Hypotension, not hypertension, is associated with dehydration in late stages.