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NABP FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Exam Practice Test

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Total 426 questions
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Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

Question 1

The conversion of β-carotene to vitamin A is carried out in:

Options:

A.

Pancreas

B.

Spleen

C.

Liver

D.

Adrenal cortex

E.

Nefrons

Question 2

Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:

Options:

A.

Iron

B.

Zinc

C.

Cobalt

D.

Magnesium

E.

Calcium

Question 3

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

Options:

A.

Histadiol

B.

Cysteine

C.

Methionine

D.

Aspartene

E.

Glutamine

Question 4

The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

Options:

A.

Virus

B.

Gram-negative bacterias

C.

Gram-positive bacterias

D.

Both gram-positive and negative bacterias

E.

Plasmodium

Question 5

Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin?

Options:

A.

Alanine

B.

Proline

C.

Leucine

D.

Glycin

E.

Histadin

Question 6

The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:

Options:

A.

5 L

B.

10 L

C.

15 L

D.

20 L

E.

25 L

Question 7

Purine may be the end product of:

Options:

A.

Amines

B.

Amino acids

C.

Uric acid

D.

Proteins

E.

Enzymes

Question 8

Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element?

Options:

A.

Sodium

B.

Magnesium

C.

Potassium

D.

Calcium

E.

Phosphorous

Question 9

Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Riboflavin

C.

Niacin

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Folic acid

Question 10

The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:

Options:

A.

when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km.

B.

when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration.

C.

when Vmax is much smaller than Km.

D.

when Vmax is much larger than Km.

E.

when Km approaches Vmax.

Question 11

Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by:

I- Consume of energy

II- Release stored energy from carbohydrates

III-Glycogenolysis is an example of carbohydrates catabolism reaction

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 12

Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of:

Options:

A.

glutathione conjugates.

B.

glucuronide conjugates.

C.

glycine conjugates.

D.

glutamate conjugates.

E.

sulfate conjugates.

Question 13

The most abundant metal ion in human body

Options:

A.

Iron

B.

Magnesium

C.

Aluminum

D.

Phosphorous

E.

Potassium

Question 14

Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide:

Options:

A.

Glucose + frutose

B.

Glucose + glucose

C.

Glucose + galactose

D.

Frutose + frutose

E.

Galactose + galactose

Question 15

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA?

Options:

A.

DNA polymerase

B.

DNA gyrase

C.

DNA ligase

D.

RNA transferase

E.

None of the above

Question 16

Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include:

Options:

A.

Carrier activated aminoacids to the ribosome

B.

Specifies aminoacids sequence templant for protein synthesis

C.

Enable DNA fragments to be joined

D.

Synthesize RNA

E.

Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells

Question 17

Goals of gout treatment may include:

I- Reduce inflammation during acute attacks

II- Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

III- Reduce the conversion of purine to uric acid

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 18

Drug of choice in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may include:

Options:

A.

Salbutamol

B.

Ipratropium

C.

Salmereol

D.

Sodium cromoglycate

E.

Fluticasone

Question 19

The MOST well known characteristic symptom of asthma include:

Options:

A.

Wheezing

B.

Mucosal edema

C.

Cough

D.

Chest tightness

E.

Tachycardia

Question 20

Patient has a relevant increase in his asthma symptoms due to environmental allergies. He is currently having salbutamol and fluticasone inhalers. What would you advise as an adjunct medication to treat his symptoms?

Options:

A.

Oral corticosteroids

B.

Higher dose of corticosteroid inhalers

C.

Salmeterol

D.

Sodium cromoglycate

E.

Anticholinergic agents

Question 21

Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity?

I Amiodarone

II Bleomycin

III Ramipril

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 22

Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?

Options:

A.

Balance sheet

B.

Statement of investments

C.

Statement of changes in financial position

D.

Income statement

E.

Statement of equity

Question 23

Acarbose smooths and lowers:

Options:

A.

postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates.

B.

postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates.

C.

preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates.

D.

preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates.

E.

preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates.

Question 24

Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA. include:

Options:

A.

induction of microsomal enzymes

B.

inhibition of microsomal enzymes

C.

inhibition of liposomal enzymes

D.

displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin

E.

enhanced platelet aggregation

Question 25

All are β2-agonists used as brochodilators in the treatment of bronchospasm, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Albuterol

B.

Salmeterol

C.

Terbutaline

D.

Pindolol

E.

Levalbuterol

Question 26

Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:

I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group.

II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity.

III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 27

The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is:

Options:

A.

ac

B.

aa

C.

pc

D.

ic

E.

cc

Question 28

Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects?

Options:

A.

Calcium carbonate

B.

Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate

C.

Magnesium hydroxide

D.

Calcium sulfate

E.

Aluminum silicate

Question 29

Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as:

Options:

A.

Asthma

B.

Bronchitis

C.

GERD

D.

COPD

E.

CHF

Question 30

Erythromycin:

I is effective against gram-positive cocci.

II is a macrolide antibiotic.

III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

Question 31

Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints?

Options:

A.

Bismuth subsalicylate

B.

Cotrimoxazole

C.

Doxycycline

D.

Amoxicillin

E.

Loperamide

Question 32

All of the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Airway obstruction and inflammation

B.

Destructive changes in the alveolar walls

C.

Thickened smooth muscle of airway

D.

Mucosal edema

E.

Narrowed lumen of airway

Question 33

All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents, EXCEPT

Options:

A.

Cephalexin

B.

Ofloxacin

C.

Norfloxacin

D.

Ciprofloxacin

E.

Levofloxacin

Question 34

Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent?

Options:

A.

Miconazole

B.

Clotrimazole

C.

Amphotericin

D.

Itraconazole

E.

Ketoconazole

Question 35

Which of the following is one of the most common side effects of vancomycin?

Options:

A.

Ototoxicity

B.

Disulfiram like side effect

C.

Diarrhea

D.

Weight gain

E.

Hallucinations

Question 36

Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria includes:

Options:

A.

Cloroquine

B.

Quinine

C.

Primaquin

D.

Quinine

E.

Quinidine

Question 37

Indication of sodium valproate is:

Options:

A.

Prophylaxis of certain infections

B.

Partial complex seizures

C.

Bipolar disorder

D.

Delirium tremor

E.

Primary immunodeficiency

Question 38

Subclass of tolbutamide is:

Options:

A.

Sulfonylureas

B.

Organic nitrates

C.

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

D.

Potassium channel agonists

E.

Biguanides

Question 39

Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of:

Options:

A.

PABA

B.

Folic acid

C.

Vitamin K

D.

Cyanide

E.

Nalidixic acid

Question 40

Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include:

I- Isoniazid

II- Rifampin

III- Ethambutol

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 41

Class of phenobarbital is:

Options:

A.

Barbiturates

B.

Antiprotozoan agents

C.

Antimycobacterial

D.

Benzodiazepines

E.

Sedatives

Question 42

Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors.

Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are:

I- Clavulanic acid

II- Sulbactam

III- Tazobactam

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 43

Which of the following statements refers to atenolol?

Options:

A.

No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.

B.

Can prevent recurrent infarction and sudden death in patients recovering from myocardial infarction.

C.

Is more likely to cause edema than verapamil

D.

Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may contain lead or other toxic metals.

E.

Should not be used as a sole agent in sustained forms of hyperthyroidism.

Question 44

All of the following penicillins are acid label penicillins, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Penicillin V

B.

Penicillin G

C.

Methicillin

D.

Nafcillin

E.

Carbenicillin

Question 45

Mechanism of action of salbutamol is:

Options:

A.

opiate agonist

B.

Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

Inhibits phospholipase A2

E.

Inhibits phospholipase C

Question 46

Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis?

Options:

A.

Sulfametoxazole

B.

Erythromycin

C.

Cephalexin

D.

Tetracycline

E.

Penicillin

Question 47

Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Aminoglycosides

B.

Tetracycline

C.

Cephalexin

D.

Chloramphenicol

E.

Clindamycin

Question 48

The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Pyridoxine

C.

Folic acid

D.

Niacin

E.

Cyanocobalamin

Question 49

Side effect of fluvastatin is:

Options:

A.

Seizures

B.

Skin rash

C.

Nausea

D.

Urinary tract complications

E.

Myalgia

Question 50

Route of administration of ofloxacin is:

Options:

A.

Intra-auricular

B.

Sublingual

C.

Oral

D.

IV

E.

Intramuscular

Question 51

Class of nelfinavir is:

Options:

A.

Glucocorticosteroids

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Polyenes

D.

Antivirals

E.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

Question 52

Indication of aspirin is:

Options:

A.

Insomnia

B.

Cyanide poisoning

C.

Cardiac arrest

D.

Inflammation

E.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Question 53

Side effect of dipyridamole is:

Options:

A.

Diarrhea

B.

Headache

C.

Bleeding

D.

Hypercalcemia

E.

Pseudothrombocytopenia (clumping of platelets)

Question 54

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

Options:

A.

Cataracts

B.

Hypotension

C.

Psychosis

D.

Acne

Question 55

Effect of bisacodyl is:

Options:

A.

Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

B.

Decreases water absorption

C.

Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%

D.

Enhances mucociliary clearance

E.

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

Question 56

Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

Options:

A.

Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

B.

Mutations in M (matrix) protein

C.

Beta-lactamase

D.

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

E.

Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection

Question 57

Indication of PTU is:

Options:

A.

Glaucoma

B.

Migraine prophylaxis

C.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

D.

Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias

E.

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

Question 58

Mechanism of resistance of sufentanil is:

Options:

A.

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

B.

Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

C.

Transport protein mutations

D.

Tolerance

E.

Mutation of viral DNA polymerase

Question 59

Which of the following causes the smallest change in solubility?

Options:

A.

Hydroxylation

B.

Glucuronidation

C.

Sulfation

D.

Glutathione conjugation

Question 60

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Options:

A.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

B.

Inhibits phospholipase C

C.

Mitotic spindle poison

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

Question 61

Mechanism of action of flunisolide is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits DNA gyrase

B.

Inhibits phosphodiesterase

C.

Inhibits phospholipase A2

D.

beta-2 agonist

E.

Competitively inhibits H2 receptors

Question 62

Mechanism of action of cefoxitin is:

Options:

A.

monoamine reuptake inhibitor

B.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

C.

Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIa

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

Question 63

Contraindication of sulfamethoxazole is:

Options:

A.

Gout

B.

Diabetes mellitus

C.

Hyperlipidemia

D.

Liver disease

E.

Late pregnancy

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