Cisco 200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Exam Practice Test
Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers
What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?
What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.)
Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?
Which security protocol is appropriate for a WPA3 implementation?
Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?
Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?
How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must replicate the AccessSw1 NTP configuration on a new switch. The engineer could not access privileged mode on AccessSw1 to view its configuration.
Which command must be applied to the new switch to replicate the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?
Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?
Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is occurring on this switch?
Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?
Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?
What is represented by the word " LB13 " within this JSON schema?
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?
Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?
Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:
Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.
Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.
Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLAN " has Layer 2 Security configured with MAC filtering enabled. What additional security is provided by this specific feature?
How does MAC learning function?
What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?
Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?
What is the default interface for in-band wireless network management on a WLC?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Which statement describes virtual machines?
Which type of protocol is VRRP?
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?
What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?
Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows UDP 69 through the firewall?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?
Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?
How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?
What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?
Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?
How does MAC learning function?
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?
Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?
Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:
Handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections
Minimizes consumption of public IP addresses
Which configuration meets the requirements?
Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?
Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the let into the order on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLan " has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?
Which key function is provided by the data plane?
Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?
Which statement describes virtualization on containers?
Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.
Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table
How does the switch handle the frame?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
Refer to the exhibit.
Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message: " % Connection refused by remote host " Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
What is the purpose of an SSID?
Refer to the exhibit.
To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
What Is a syslog facility?
Refer to the exhibit.
The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right
Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
Refer to me exhibit.
Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?
Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?
Which group of channels in the 802.11b/g/n/ax 2.4 GHz frequency bands are non-overlapping channels?
A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)
What is used as a solution for protecting an individual network endpoint from attack?
What are two lacts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
Refer to the exhibit.
An architect is managing a wireless network with APs from several branch offices connecting to the WLC in the data center. There is a new requirement for a single WLAN to process the client data traffic without sending it to the WLC. Which action must be taken to complete the request?
A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?
Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access?
Refer to the exhibit.
A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?
Which command creates a static NAT binding for a PC address of 10.1.1.1 to the public routable address 209.165.200.225 assigned to the PC?
Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)
The address block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements:
Create 8 new subnets
Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet.
A Layer 3 interface is used.
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.
Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?
What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?
Refer to the exhibit.
How many JSON objects are presented?
What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?
Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?
An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?
Which action must be taken when password protection is Implemented?
Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?
An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.
Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a functionality of the control plane in the network?
Exhibit.
The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that was successfully tested. The Interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a ' down " status. What is the cause of this issue?
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?
What is the benefit of using FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol)?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?
A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:
• accommodates current configured VLANs
• expands the range to include VLAN 20
• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs
Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the management connection types from the left onto the definitions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?
PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and must now remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)
A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Which IPsec encryption mode is appropriate when the destination of a packet differs from the security termination point?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to confère router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?
Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
Refer to the exhibit.
How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be enable a floating default route on router A?
What is a valid IPv6 address record in DNS?
Refer to the exhibit.
Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?
What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP address and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user ' s computer?
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?
A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?
Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >
What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two.)
What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?
What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1?
Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wireless authentication?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which protocol uses the SSL?
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
What is a DHCP client?
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?
How is the native VLAN secured in a network?
Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0 ' 1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
What is the benefit of using FHRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
Refer to the exhibit.
A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
Refer to the Exhibit.
After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?
By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.
Refer to exhibit.
Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root bridge?
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
What are network endpoints?
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
Which option about JSON is true?
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
