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Isaca CISM Certified Information Security Manager Exam Practice Test

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Total 920 questions

Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for an information security manager to align security and business goals?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Reviewing the business strategy

C.

Defining key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Actively engaging with stakeholders

Question 2

An organization is about to purchase a rival organization. The PRIMARY reason for performing information security due diligence prior to making the purchase is to:

Options:

A.

determine the security exposures.

B.

assess the ability to integrate the security department operations.

C.

ensure compliance with international standards.

D.

evaluate the security policy and standards.

Question 3

Which of the following would BEST guide the development and maintenance of an information security program?

Options:

A.

A business impact assessment

B.

A comprehensive risk register

C.

An established risk assessment process

D.

The organization's risk appetite

Question 4

The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:

Options:

A.

increase efficiency of access management

B.

increase the security of related applications.

C.

strengthen user passwords.

D.

support multiple authentication mechanisms.

Question 5

Which of the following is the PRIMARY preventive method to mitigate risks associated with privileged accounts?

Options:

A.

Eliminate privileged accounts.

B.

Perform periodic certification of access to privileged accounts.

C.

Frequently monitor activities on privileged accounts.

D.

Provide privileged account access only to users who need it.

Question 6

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

Question 7

The effectiveness of an incident response team will be GREATEST when:

Options:

A.

the incident response team meets on a regular basis to review log files.

B.

the incident response team members are trained security personnel.

C.

the incident response process is updated based on lessons learned.

D.

incidents are identified using a security information and event monitoring {SIEM) system.

Question 8

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to assign a risk owner in an organization?

Options:

A.

To remediate residual risk

B.

To define responsibilities

C.

To ensure accountability

D.

To identify emerging risk

Question 9

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

To aid in future risk assessments

B.

To improve the response process

C.

To determine whether digital evidence is admissible

D.

To notify regulatory authorities

Question 10

An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

Options:

A.

isolate the affected network segment.

B.

report the root cause to the board of directors.

C.

assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.

D.

shut down the entire network.

Question 11

Internal audit has reported a number of information security issues that are not in compliance with regulatory requirements. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a security exception.

B.

Perform a gap analysis to determine needed resources.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Assess the risk to business operations.

Question 12

Which of the following should be done FIRST to prioritize response to incidents?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Escalation

C.

Analysis

D.

Triage

Question 13

Which of the following will BEST enable an organization to meet incident response requirements when outsourcing its incident response function?

Options:

A.

Including response times in service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Including a right-to-audit clause in service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Contracting with a well-known incident response provider

D.

Requiring comprehensive response applications and tools

Question 14

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

Question 15

What should be an information security manager’s FIRST course of action upon learning a business unit is bypassing an existing control in order to increase operational efficiency?

Options:

A.

Report the noncompliance to senior management.

B.

Assess the risk of noncompliance.

C.

Activate the incident response plan.

D.

Evaluate possible compensating controls.

Question 16

Which of the following is the BEST way to improve an organization's ability to detect and respond to incidents?

Options:

A.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Conduct periodic awareness training.

C.

Perform a security gap analysis.

D.

Perform network penetration testing.

Question 17

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to provide ongoing assurance that legal and regulatory compliance requirements can be met?

Options:

A.

Embedding compliance requirements within operational processes

B.

Engaging external experts to provide guidance on changes in compliance requirements

C.

Performing periodic audits for compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Assigning the operations manager accountability for meeting compliance requirements

Question 18

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure the effective execution of an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

The plan is reviewed by senior and IT operational management.

B.

The plan is based on industry best practices.

C.

Process steps are documented by the disaster recovery team.

D.

Procedures are available at the primary and failover location.

Question 19

In which cloud model does the cloud service buyer assume the MOST security responsibility?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 20

Which of the following is the BEST indication ofa successful information security culture?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing is done regularly and findings remediated.

B.

End users know how to identify and report incidents.

C.

Individuals are given roles based on job functions.

D.

The budget allocated for information security is sufficient.

Question 21

An organization is selecting security metrics to measure security performance, and a firewall specialist suggests tracking the number of external attacks blocked by the firewalls. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with using this metric?

Options:

A.

The number of blocked external attacks is not representative of the true threat profile.

B.

The number of blocked external attacks will vary by month, causing inconsistent graphs.

C.

The number of blocked external attacks is an indicator of the organization's popularity.

D.

The number of blocked external attacks over time does not explain the attackers' motivations.

Question 22

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Review information security policies

D.

Review the state of security awareness

Question 23

In a cloud technology environment, which of the following would pose the GREATEST challenge to the investigation of security incidents?

Options:

A.

Access to the hardware

B.

Data encryption

C.

Non-standard event logs

D.

Compressed customer data

Question 24

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on efforts to improve an organization's security posture?

Options:

A.

Regular reporting to senior management

B.

Supportive tone at the top regarding security

C.

Automation of security controls

D.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

Question 25

An employee who is a remote user has copied financial data from the corporate server to a laptop using virtual private network (VPN) connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST important factor to determine if it should be classified as a data leakage incident?

Options:

A.

Review of the audit logs

B.

Ownership of the data

C.

Employee's job role

D.

Valid use case

Question 26

An email digital signature will:

Options:

A.

protect the confidentiality of an email message.

B.

verify to recipient the integrity of an email message.

C.

automatically correct unauthorized modification of an email message.

D.

prevent unauthorized modification of an email message.

Question 27

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an incident response plan to ensure incidents are responded to by the appropriate individuals?

Options:

A.

Skills required for the incident response team

B.

A list of external resources to assist with incidents

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A detailed incident notification process

Question 28

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

Question 29

Who is accountable for ensuring proper controls are in place to address the confidentiality and availability of an information system?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Information owner

C.

Business manager

D.

Information security manager

Question 30

Which of the following BEST determines the data retention strategy and subsequent policy for an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business requirements

C.

Supplier requirements

D.

Risk appetite

Question 31

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?

Options:

A.

Statistical reports will be incorrect.

B.

The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.

C.

Escalation procedures will be ineffective.

D.

Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.

Question 32

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to prevent information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool

B.

Implementing a security awareness training program for employees

C.

Deploying a consistent incident response approach

D.

Deploying intrusion detection tools in the network environment

Question 33

Identifying which of the following BEST enables a cyberattack to be contained?

Options:

A.

The vulnerability exploited by the attack

B.

The segment targeted by the attack

C.

The IP address of the computer that launched the attack

D.

The threat actor that initiated the attack

Question 34

After a recovery from a successful malware attack, instances of the malware continue to be discovered. Which phase of incident response was not successful?

Options:

A.

EradicationB Recovery

B.

Lessons learned review

C.

Incident declaration

Question 35

When preventive controls to appropriately mitigate risk are not feasible, which of the following is the MOST important action for the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Managing the impact

B.

Identifying unacceptable risk levels

C.

Assessing vulnerabilities

D.

Evaluating potential threats

Question 36

An information security manager learns through a threat intelligence service that the organization may be targeted for a major emerging threat. Which of the following is the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an information security audit.

B.

Validate the relevance of the information.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Inform senior management

Question 37

Which of the following will BEST facilitate integrating the information security program into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

An up-to-date security strategy

B.

Documentation of the threat landscape

C.

Documentation of residual risk

D.

A minimum security baseline

Question 38

Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to include when presenting changes in the security risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Security training test results

C.

Performance measures for existing controls

D.

Number of false positives

Question 39

Which of the following is the BEST approach for governing noncompliance with security requirements?

Options:

A.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on residual risk,

B.

Require users to acknowledge the acceptable use policy.

C.

Require the steering committee to review exception requests.

D.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on inherent risk.

Question 40

To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective, its contents should be:

Options:

A.

based on recent incidents.

B.

based on employees’ roles.

C.

aligned to business processes.

D.

focused on information security policy.

Question 41

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the criticality of an organization's business functions?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Security assessment report (SAR)

Question 42

An organization is in the process of acquiring a new company Which of the following would be the BEST approach to determine how to protect newly acquired data assets prior to integration?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract

B.

Assess security controls.

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Review data architecture.

Question 43

Which of the following is the BEST way to contain an SQL injection attack that has been detected by a web application firewall?

Options:

A.

Force password changes on the SQL database.

B.

Reconfigure the web application firewall to block the attack.

C.

Update the detection patterns on the web application firewall.

D.

Block the IPs from where the attack originates.

Question 44

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST recommendation to senior management following a breach at the organization's Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Update the vendor risk assessment.

B.

Engage legal counsel.

C.

Renegotiate the vendor contract.

D.

Terminate the relationship with the vendor.

Question 45

Which of the following considerations is MOST important when selecting a third-party intrusion detection system (IDS) vendor?

Options:

A.

The vendor's proposal allows for contract modification during technology refresh cycles.

B.

The vendor's proposal aligns with the objectives of the organization.

C.

The vendor's proposal requires the provider to have a business continuity plan (BCP).

D.

The vendor's proposal allows for escrow in the event the third party goes out of business.

Question 46

In order to gain organization-wide support for an information security program, which of the following is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the security policy

B.

Clarity of security roles and responsibilities

C.

Corporate culture

D.

Corporate risk framework

Question 47

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST to address the risk associated with a new third-party cloud application that will not meet organizational security requirements?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Consult with the business owner.

D.

Restrict application network access temporarily.

Question 48

Who is BEST suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified?

Options:

A.

Database analyst

B.

Database administrator (DBA)

C.

Information security analyst

D.

Data owner

Question 49

To confirm that a third-party provider complies with an organization's information security requirements, it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

security metrics are included in the service level agreement (SLA).

B.

contract clauses comply with the organization's information security policy.

C.

the information security policy of the third-party service provider is reviewed.

D.

right to audit is included in the service level agreement (SLA).

Question 50

An organization has been penalized by regulatory authorities for failing to notify them of a major security breach that may have compromised customer data. Which of the following is MOST likely in need of review and updating to prevent similar penalties in the future?

Options:

A.

Information security policies and procedures

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Incident communication plan

D.

Incident response training program

Question 51

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to enhance its incident response plan processes and procedures?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessments

B.

Lessons learned analysis

C.

Information security audits

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 52

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an information security manager to periodically review existing controls?

Options:

A.

To prioritize security initiatives

B.

To avoid redundant controls

C.

To align with emerging risk

D.

To address end-user control complaints

Question 53

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

Options:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

Question 54

Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY responsible for developing an information classification framework based on business needs?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Information security steering committee

C.

Information owner

D.

Senior management

Question 55

To improve the efficiency of the development of a new software application, security requirements should be defined:

Options:

A.

based on code review.

B.

based on available security assessment tools.

C.

after functional requirements.

D.

concurrently with other requirements.

Question 56

Which of the following activities MUST be performed by an information security manager for change requests?

Options:

A.

Perform penetration testing on affected systems.

B.

Scan IT systems for operating system vulnerabilities.

C.

Review change in business requirements for information security.

D.

Assess impact on information security risk.

Question 57

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on the successful integration of information security within the business?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure and culture

B.

Risk tolerance and organizational objectives

C.

The desired state of the organization

D.

Information security personnel

Question 58

A business continuity plan (BCP) should contain:

Options:

A.

information about eradication activities.

B.

hardware and software inventories.

C.

data restoration procedures.

D.

criteria for activation.

Question 59

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure incident management readiness?

Options:

A.

The plan is compliant with industry standards.

B.

The plan is regularly tested.

C.

The plan is updated annually.

D.

The plan is concise and includes a checklist.

Question 60

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage?

Options:

A.

Security risk analysis

B.

Gap assessment

C.

Maturity assessment

D.

Vulnerability scan report

Question 61

An organization wants to integrate information security into its HR management processes. Which of the following should be the FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Benchmark the processes with best practice to identify gaps.

B.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI).

C.

Provide security awareness training to HR.

D.

Assess the business objectives of the processes.

Question 62

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine the costs of downtime for a critical application?

Options:

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Return on investment (ROI) analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 63

Senior management recently approved a mobile access policy that conflicts with industry best practices. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action when developing security standards for mobile access to the organization's network?

Options:

A.

Align the standards with the organizational policy.

B.

Align the standards with industry best practices.

C.

Resolve the discrepancy before developing the standards.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis of aligning the standards to policy.

Question 64

An information security manager has become aware that a third-party provider is not in compliance with the statement of work (SOW). Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Notify senior management of the issue.

B.

Report the issue to legal personnel.

C.

Initiate contract renegotiation.

D.

Assess the extent of the issue.

Question 65

A security review identifies that confidential information on the file server has been accessed by unauthorized users in the organization. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Invoke the incident response plan

B.

Implement role-based access control (RBAC)

C.

Remove access to the information

D.

Delete the information from the file server

Question 66

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when noncompliance with security standards is identified?

Options:

A.

Report the noncompliance to senior management.

B.

Validate the noncompliance.

C.

Include the noncompliance in the risk register.

D.

Implement compensating controls to mitigate the noncompliance.

Question 67

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY outcome of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Strategic alignment

B.

Risk elimination

C.

Cost reduction

D.

Threat reduction

Question 68

A recent audit found that an organization's new user accounts are not set up uniformly. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to review?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

Question 69

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

Question 70

A risk owner has accepted a large amount of risk due to the high cost of controls. Which of the following should be the information security manager's PRIMARY focus in this situation?

Options:

A.

Establishing a strong ongoing risk monitoring process

B.

Presenting the risk profile for approval by the risk owner

C.

Conducting an independent review of risk responses

D.

Updating the information security standards to include the accepted risk

Question 71

Which of the following is MOST important to include in security incident escalation procedures?

Options:

A.

Key objectives of the security program

B.

Recovery procedures

C.

Notification criteria

D.

Containment procedures

Question 72

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization has a mature information security culture?

Options:

A.

Information security training is mandatory for all staff.

B.

The organization's information security policy is documented and communicated.

C.

The chief information security officer (CISO) regularly interacts with the board.

D.

Staff consistently consider risk in making decisions.

Question 73

Which of the following is MOST relevant for an information security manager to communicate to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The level of inherent risk

B.

Vulnerability assessments

C.

The level of exposure

D.

Threat assessments

Question 74

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when aligning a security awareness program with the organization's business strategy?

Options:

A.

Regulations and standards

B.

People and culture

C.

Executive and board directives

D.

Processes and technology

Question 75

A critical server for a hospital has been encrypted by ransomware. The hospital is unable to function effectively without this server Which of the following would MOST effectively allow the hospital to avoid paying the ransom?

Options:

A.

Employee training on ransomware

B.

A properly tested offline backup system

C.

A continual server replication process

D.

A properly configured firewall

Question 76

A penetration test was conducted by an accredited third party. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ensure a risk assessment is performed to evaluate the findings

B.

Ensure vulnerabilities found are resolved within acceptable timeframes

C.

Request funding needed to resolve the top vulnerabilities

D.

Report findings to senior management

Question 77

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after learning through mass media of a data breach at the organization's hosted payroll service provider?

Options:

A.

Suspend the data exchange with the provider

B.

Notify appropriate regulatory authorities of the breach.

C.

Initiate the business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Validate the breach with the provider

Question 78

Which of the following is the BEST reason for senior management to support a business case for developing a monitoring system for a critical application?

Options:

A.

An industry peer experienced a recent breach with a similar application.

B.

The system can be replicated for additional use cases.

C.

The cost of implementing the system is less than the impact of downtime.

D.

The solution is within the organization's risk tolerance.

Question 79

Which of the following should be the KEY consideration when creating an information security communication plan with industry peers?

Options:

A.

Balancing the benefits of information sharing with the drawbacks of sharing sensitive information

B.

Reducing the costs associated with information sharing by automating the process

C.

Ensuring information is detailed enough to be of use to other organizations

D.

Notifying the legal department whenever incident-related information is shared

Question 80

An organization is implementing an information security governance framework. To communicate the program's effectiveness to stakeholders, it is MOST important to establish:

Options:

A.

a control self-assessment (CSA) process.

B.

automated reporting to stakeholders.

C.

a monitoring process for the security policy.

D.

metrics for each milestone.

Question 81

Which of the following BEST enables staff acceptance of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Strong senior management support

B.

Gomputer-based training

C.

Arobust incident response program

D.

Adequate security funding

Question 82

Which of the following should be done FIRST after a ransomware incident has been successfully contained?

Options:

A.

Notify relevant stakeholders.

B.

Conduct forensic analysis.

C.

Perform lessons learned.

D.

Restore impacted systems.

Question 83

Which of the following is MOST helpful for aligning security operations with the IT governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessment

B.

Security operations program

C.

Information security policy

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 84

Following a risk assessment, an organization has made the decision to adopt a bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Develop a personal device policy

B.

Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution

C.

Develop training specific to BYOD awareness

D.

Define control requirements

Question 85

Which of the following elements of a service contract would BEST enable an organization to monitor the information security risk associated with a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Indemnification clause

B.

Breach detection and notification

C.

Compliance status reporting

D.

Physical access to service provider premises

Question 86

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to ensure information security is aligned with the organization's strategy?

Options:

A.

To identify the organization's risk tolerance

B.

To improve security processes

C.

To align security roles and responsibilities

D.

To optimize security risk management

Question 87

The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability identification is to:

Options:

A.

Remediate vulnerabilities before they are exploited

B.

Discover control deficiencies

C.

Provide vulnerability identifiers for risk reporting

D.

Prioritize vulnerability remediation

Question 88

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for executive management to be involved in establishing an enterprise's security management framework?

Options:

A.

To ensure industry best practices for enterprise security are followed

B.

To establish the minimum level of controls needed

C.

To determine the desired state of enterprise security

D.

To satisfy auditors' recommendations for enterprise security

Question 89

Which of the following is the MOST important objective when planning an incident response program?

Options:

A.

Managing resources

B.

Ensuring IT resiliency

C.

Recovering from a disaster

D.

Minimizing business impact

Question 90

Which of the following tasks should be performed once a disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been developed?

Options:

A.

Develop the test plan.

B.

Analyze the business impact.

C.

Define response team roles.

D.

Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 91

Which of the following would BEST enable a new information security manager to obtain senior management support for an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Demonstrating the program's value to the organization

B.

Discussing governance programs found in similar organizations

C.

Providing the results of external audits

D.

Providing examples of information security incidents within the organization

Question 92

When analyzing the emerging risk and threat landscape, an information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

determine the impact if threats materialize.

B.

determine the sources of emerging threats.

C.

review historical threats within the industry.

D.

map threats to business assets.

Question 93

Which of the following is the BEST tool to use for identifying and correlating intrusion attempt alerts?

Options:

A.

Threat analytics software

B.

Host intrusion detection system

C.

SIEM

D.

Network intrusion detection system

Question 94

Which of the following is the BEST source of information to support an organization's information security vision and strategy?

Options:

A.

Metrics dashboard

B.

Governance policies

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Enterprise information security architecture

Question 95

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to convey information security responsibilities across an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing security awareness programs

B.

Documenting information security responsibilities within job descriptions

C.

Developing a skills matrix

D.

Defining information security responsibilities in the security policy

Question 96

When establishing classifications of security incidents for the development of an incident response plan, which of the following provides the MOST valuable input?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Vulnerability assessment results

C.

The business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Recommendations from senior management

Question 97

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when defining control objectives?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

An information security framework

C.

Control recommendations from a recent audit

D.

The organization's risk appetite

Question 98

Management has announced the acquisition of a new company. The information security manager of the parent company is concerned that conflicting access rights may cause critical information to be exposed during the integration of the two companies. To BEST address this concern, the information security manager should:

Options:

A.

review access rights as the acquisition integration occurs.

B.

perform a risk assessment of the access rights.

C.

escalate concerns for conflicting access rights to management.

D.

implement consistent access control standards.

Question 99

A daily monitoring report reveals that an IT employee made a change to a firewall rule outside of the change control process. The information security manager's FIRST step in addressing the issue should be to:

Options:

A.

require that the change be reversed

B.

review the change management process

C.

perform an analysis of the change

D.

report the event to senior management

Question 100

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to operate smoothly with reduced capacities when service has been disrupted?

Options:

A.

Crisis management plan

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

Question 101

An information security manager learns that business unit leaders are encouraging increased use of social media platforms to reach customers. Which of the following should be done FIRST to help mitigate the risk of confidential information being disclosed by employees on social media?

Options:

A.

Establish an organization-wide social media policy.

B.

Develop sanctions for misuse of social media sites.

C.

Monitor social media sites visited by employees.

D.

Restrict social media access on corporate devices.

Question 102

Which of the following should be the FIRST step to gain approval for outsourcing to address a security gap?

Options:

A.

Collect additional metrics.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Submit funding request to senior management.

D.

Begin due diligence on the outsourcing company.

Question 103

Senior management is concerned about data exposure through the use of public Al services. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Train all employees on the appropriate use of public Al services and confidential data.

B.

Disable access to public Al from company devices.

C.

Perform a risk assessment of public Al with appropriate recommendations for senior management.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA) of public Al.

Question 104

Following an information security risk assessment of a critical system, several significant issues have been identified. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to confirm?

Options:

A.

The risks are reported to the business unit’s senior management

B.

The risks are escalated to the IT department for remediation

C.

The risks are communicated to the central risk function

D.

The risks are entered in the organization's risk register

Question 105

Which of the following roles has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure the operating effectiveness of IT controls?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control tester

C.

IT compliance leader

D.

Information security manager

Question 106

Which type of backup BEST enables an organization to recover data after a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Online backup

B.

Incremental backup

C.

Differential backup

D.

Offline backup

Question 107

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a threat intelligence report indicates a large number of ransomware attacks targeting the industry?

Options:

A.

Increase the frequency of system backups.

B.

Review the mitigating security controls.

C.

Notify staff members of the threat.

D.

Assess the risk to the organization.

Question 108

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Limiting the number of KRIs

B.

Comprehensively reporting on KRIs

C.

Aggregating common KRIs

D.

Linking KRIs to specific risks

Question 109

Which of the following is MOST important in increasing the effectiveness of incident responders?

Options:

A.

Communicating with the management team

B.

Integrating staff with the IT department

C.

Testing response scenarios

D.

Reviewing the incident response plan annually

Question 110

An organization has decided to implement an Internet of Things (IoT) solution to remain competitive in the market. Which of the following should information security do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recalculate risk profile

B.

Implement compensating controls

C.

Reassess risk tolerance levels

D.

Update the security architecture

Question 111

A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

Options:

A.

The time and location that the breach occurred

B.

Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user

C.

The underlying reason for the user error

D.

Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

Question 112

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective disaster recovery planning process?

Options:

A.

Hot sites are required for any declared disaster.

B.

Chain of custody is maintained throughout the disaster recovery process.

C.

Post-incident reviews are conducted after each event.

D.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are shorter than recovery point objectives (RPOs).

Question 113

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of testing security controls within a critical infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the continued resilience and security of IT services

B.

Decreasing the percentage of security deployments that cause failures in production

C.

Reducing the number of control assessments to optimize resources

D.

Identifying and addressing security team performance issues

Question 114

To ensure the information security of outsourced IT services, which of the following is the MOST critical due diligence activity?

Options:

A.

Request the service provider comply with information security policy.

B.

Review a recent independent audit report of the service provider.

C.

Assess the level of security awareness of the service provider.

D.

Review samples of service level reports from the service provider.

Question 115

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

Question 116

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to increase security awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implement regularly scheduled information security audits.

B.

Require signed acknowledgment of information security policies.

C.

Conduct periodic simulated phishing exercises.

D.

Include information security requirements in job descriptions.

Question 117

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration during the design phase of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Selecting quality metrics to monitor business performance

B.

Identifying critical functions for business operations

C.

Estimating the likelihood that end-to-end processes will be disrupted

D.

Obtaining reserve funding to prepare for possible business failures

Question 118

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

Options:

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

Question 119

Which of the following should be updated FIRST when aligning the incident response plan with the corporate strategy?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident notification plan

C.

Risk response scenarios

D.

Security procedures

Question 120

A user reports a stolen personal mobile device that stores sensitive corporate data. Which of the following will BEST minimize the risk of data exposure?

Options:

A.

Prevent the user from using personal mobile devices.

B.

Report the incident to the police.

C.

Wipe the device remotely.

D.

Remove user's access to corporate data.

Question 121

When developing an incident escalation process, the BEST approach is to classify incidents based on:

Options:

A.

estimated time to recover.

B.

information assets affected.

C.

recovery point objectives (RPOs).

D.

their root causes.

Question 122

To help users apply appropriate controls related to data privacy regulation, what is MOST important to communicate to the users?

Options:

A.

Data storage procedures

B.

Data classification policy

C.

Results of penetration testing

D.

Features of data protection products

Question 123

Which of the following would be MOST useful to help senior management understand the status of information security compliance?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Risk assessment results

Question 124

Which of the following is BEST to include in a business case when the return on investment (ROI) for an information security initiative is difficult to calculate?

Options:

A.

Projected Increase in maturity level

B.

Estimated reduction in risk

C.

Projected costs over time

D.

Estimated increase in efficiency

Question 125

An information security team plans to strengthen authentication requirements for a customer-facing site, but there are concerns it will negatively impact the user experience. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Assess business impact against security risk.

B.

Provide security awareness training to customers.

C.

Refer to industry best practices.

D.

Quantify the security risk to the business.

Question 126

When mitigation is the chosen risk treatment, which of the following roles is responsible for effective implementation of the chosen treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Business system owner

D.

Application owner

Question 127

Which of the following is CRITICAL to ensure the appropriate stakeholder makes decisions during a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder plan

B.

Escalation plan

C.

Up-to-date risk register

D.

Asset classification

Question 128

Which of the following is the MOST essential element of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking the program with global standards for relevance

B.

Prioritizing program deliverables based on available resources

C.

Involving functional managers in program development

D.

Applying project management practices used by the business

Question 129

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure an organization's risk appetite will be considered as part of the risk treatment process?

Options:

A.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Use quantitative risk assessment methods.

C.

Provide regular reporting on risk treatment to senior management

D.

Require steering committee approval of risk treatment plans.

Question 130

Which of the following provides an information security manager with the MOST accurate indication of the organization's ability to respond to a cyber attack?

Options:

A.

Walk-through of the incident response plan

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Simulated phishing exercise

D.

Red team exercise

Question 131

Which of the following is the FIRST step in developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Determine the business recovery strategy

B.

Determine available resources.

C.

Identify the applications with the shortest recovery time objectives (RTOs).

D.

Identify critical business processes.

Question 132

An organization has remediated a security flaw in a system. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Assess the residual risk.

B.

Share lessons learned with the organization.

C.

Update the system's documentation.

D.

Allocate budget for penetration testing.

Question 133

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Evaluate information security tools and skills relevant for the environment.

B.

Gain an understanding of the business and cultural attributes.

C.

Contract a third party to conduct an independent review of the program.

D.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis of the framework.

Question 134

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place when conducting a security control assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Control specifications

B.

Assurance test plan

C.

Scanning tools

D.

Security documentation

Question 135

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place to determine the effectiveness of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Program metrics

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Risk register

D.

Security strategy

Question 136

Which type of plan is PRIMARILY intended to reduce the potential impact of security events that may occur?

Options:

A.

Security awareness plan

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Incident response plan

Question 137

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

Question 138

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a lessons learned exercise following a successful response to a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Establishing the root cause of the incident

B.

Identifying attack vectors utilized in the incident

C.

When business operations were restored after the incident

D.

How incident management processes were executed

Question 139

Which of the following is the MOST important function of an information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

Assigning data classifications to organizational assets

B.

Developing organizational risk assessment processes

C.

Obtaining multiple perspectives from the business

D.

Defining security standards for logical access controls

Question 140

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure compliance with an organization's information security requirements by an IT service provider?

Options:

A.

Requiring an external security audit of the IT service provider

B.

Requiring regular reporting from the IT service provider

C.

Defining information security requirements with internal IT

D.

Defining the business recovery plan with the IT service provider

Question 141

Which of the following BEST facilitates recovery of data lost as a result of a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Removable storage media

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Offsite data backups

D.

Encrypted data drives

Question 142

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on the development of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Business strategy

B.

Past and current threats

C.

IT security framework

D.

Industry standards

Question 143

An information security manager learns that IT personnel are not adhering to the information security policy because it creates process inefficiencies. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Conduct user awareness training within the IT function.

B.

Propose that IT update information security policies and procedures.

C.

Determine the risk related to noncompliance with the policy.

D.

Request that internal audit conduct a review of the policy development process,

Question 144

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of a comprehensive information security policy?

Options:

A.

Alignment with an established information security framework

B.

An established internal audit program

C.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Areview of recent information security incidents

Question 145

Which of the following is MOST important for the successful implementation of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring response staff are appropriately trained

B.

Developing metrics for incident response reporting

C.

Establishing an escalation process for the help desk

D.

Developing a RACI chart of response staff functions

Question 146

Meeting which of the following security objectives BEST ensures that information is protected against unauthorized disclosure?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Nonrepudiation

Question 147

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when using a web application that has known vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Monitor application level logs.

B.

Deploy host-based intrusion detection.

C.

Deploy an application firewall.

D.

Install anti-spyware software.

Question 148

A technical vulnerability assessment on a personnel information management server should be performed when:

Options:

A.

the data owner leaves the organization unexpectedly.

B.

changes are made to the system configuration.

C.

the number of unauthorized access attempts increases.

D.

an unexpected server outage has occurred.

Question 149

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

Question 150

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the client organization when adopting a Software as a Service (SaaS) model?

Options:

A.

Host patching

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Infrastructure hardening

D.

Data classification

Question 151

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk response when the risk impact has been determined to be immaterial and the likelihood is very low?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Avoid

C.

Transfer

D.

Accept

Question 152

The PRIMARY advantage of performing black-box control tests as opposed to white-box control tests is that they:

Options:

A.

cause fewer potential production issues.

B.

require less IT staff preparation.

C.

simulate real-world attacks.

D.

identify more threats.

Question 153

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective information security metric?

Options:

A.

The metric expresses residual risk relative to risk tolerance.

B.

The metric is frequently reported to senior management.

C.

The metric directly maps to an industry risk management framework.

D.

The metric compares the organization's inherent risk against its risk appetite.

Question 154

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action when responding to a major security incident that could disrupt the business?

Options:

A.

Follow the escalation process.

B.

Identify the indicators of compromise.

C.

Notify law enforcement.

D.

Contact forensic investigators.

Question 155

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of security incidents from targeted email attacks?

Options:

A.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) system

B.

Disable all incoming cloud mail services

C.

Conduct awareness training across the organization

D.

Require acknowledgment of the acceptable use policy

Question 156

The contribution of recovery point objective (RPO) to disaster recovery is to:

Options:

A.

minimize outage periods.

B.

eliminate single points of failure.

C.

define backup strategy

D.

reduce mean time between failures (MTBF).

Question 157

Which of the following plans should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Business contingency plan

Question 158

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an inforrnation security manager contact the information owner? After the:

Options:

A.

incident has been confirmed.

B.

incident has been contained.

C.

potential incident has been logged.

D.

incident has been mitigated.

Question 159

What should be the FIRST step when implementing data loss prevention (DLP) technology?

Options:

A.

Perform due diligence with vendor candidates.

B.

Build a business case.

C.

Classify the organization's data.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

Question 160

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of an organization using Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) to help manage its disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

It offers the organization flexible deployment options using cloud infrastructure.

B.

It allows the organization to prioritize its core operations.

C.

It is more secure than traditional data backup architecture.

D.

It allows the use of a professional response team at a lower cost.

Question 161

An organization's information security manager is performing a post-incident review of a security incident in which the following events occurred:

• A bad actor broke into a business-critical FTP server by brute forcing an administrative password

• The third-party service provider hosting the server sent an automated alert message to the help desk, but was ignored

• The bad actor could not access the administrator console, but was exposed to encrypted data transferred to the server

• After three hours, the bad actor deleted the FTP directory, causing incoming FTP attempts by legitimate customers to fail

Which of the following could have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Ignored alert messages

B.

The server being compromised

C.

The brute force attack

D.

Stolen data

Question 162

An organization has updated its business goals in the middle of the fiscal year to respond to changes in market conditions. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to update in support of the new goals?

Options:

A.

Information security threat profile

B.

Information security policy

C.

Information security objectives

D.

Information security strategy

Question 163

Which of the following is a function of the information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

Deliver external communication during incident response.

B.

Align the security framework with security standards.

C.

Align security strategy with business objectives.

D.

Monitor regulatory requirements.

Question 164

An experienced information security manager joins a new organization and begins by conducting an audit of all key IT processes. Which of the following findings about the vulnerability management program should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Identified vulnerabilities are not published and communicated in awareness programs.

B.

Identified vulnerabilities are not logged and resolved in a timely manner.

C.

The number of vulnerabilities identified exceeds industry benchmarks. D. Vulnerabilities are identified by internal staff rather than by external consultants.

Question 165

An organization has decided to outsource IT operations. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Security requirements are included in the vendor contract

B.

External security audit results are reviewed.

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs) meet operational standards.

D.

Business continuity contingency planning is provided

Question 166

Which of the following should be updated FIRST to account for new regulatory requirements that impact current information security controls?

Options:

A.

Control matrix

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Risk register

D.

Information security policy

Question 167

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

Question 168

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain support for a new organization-wide information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmark against similar industry organizations

B.

Deliver an information security awareness campaign.

C.

Publish an information security RACI chart.

D.

Establish an information security strategy committee.

Question 169

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security metrics

B.

Organizational culture

C.

IT governance

D.

Risk management

Question 170

The BEST way to report to the board on the effectiveness of the information security program is to present:

Options:

A.

a dashboard illustrating key performance metrics.

B.

a summary of the most recent audit findings.

C.

peer-group industry benchmarks.

D.

a report of cost savings from process improvements.

Question 171

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing a security program?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk analysis

B.

Implement data encryption.

C.

Create an information asset inventory.

D.

Determine the value of information assets.

Question 172

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

Options:

A.

quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost.

B.

tracked and reported on until their final resolution.

C.

documented in security awareness programs.

D.

noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found.

Question 173

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to transform its culture to support information security?

Options:

A.

Periodic compliance audits

B.

Strong management support

C.

Robust technical security controls

D.

Incentives for security incident reporting

Question 174

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

Question 175

During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

Options:

A.

Post-incident review

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Identification

Question 176

An information security manager has been notified that two senior executives have the ability to elevate their own privileges in the corporate accounting system, in violation of policy. What is the FIRST step to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Immediately suspend the executives' access privileges.

B.

Notify the CISO of the security policy violation.

C.

Perform a full review of all system transactions over the past 90 days.

D.

Perform a system access review.

Question 177

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk is treated to an acceptable level.

B.

The number of security incidents reported by staff has increased.

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are established.

D.

Policies are reviewed and approved by senior management.

Question 178

Which of the following is the MOST important role of the information security manager when the organization is in the process of adopting emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Assessing how peer organizations using the same technologies have been impacted

B.

Understanding the impact on existing resources

C.

Reviewing vendor contracts and service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Developing training for end users to familiarize them with the new technology

Question 179

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

Question 180

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining which type of failover site to employ?

Options:

A.

Reciprocal agreements

B.

Disaster recovery test results

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Data retention requirements

Question 181

Which of the following BEST enables the capability of an organization to sustain the delivery of products and services within acceptable time frames and at predefined capacity during a disruption?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 182

An organization is going through a digital transformation process, which places the IT organization in an unfamiliar risk landscape. The information security manager has been tasked with leading the IT risk management process. Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority?

Options:

A.

Identification of risk

B.

Analysis of control gaps

C.

Design of key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Selection of risk treatment options

Question 183

Which of the following is ESSENTIAL to ensuring effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Classification scheme

D.

Senior management support

Question 184

How would the information security program BEST support the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Conducting a control assessment

B.

Developing an emerging technology roadmap

C.

Providing effective risk governance

D.

Developing an acceptable use policy

Question 185

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place for an organization's information security program to be effective?

Options:

A.

Documented information security processes

B.

A comprehensive IT strategy

C.

Senior management support

D.

Defined and allocated budget

Question 186

A PRIMARY benefit of adopting an information security framework is that it provides:

Options:

A.

credible emerging threat intelligence.

B.

security and vulnerability reporting guidelines.

C.

common exploitability indices.

D.

standardized security controls.

Question 187

Which of the following would provide the BEST input to a business case for a technical solution to address potential system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Vulnerability scan results

Question 188

Which of the following BEST helps to enable the desired information security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Information security awareness training and campaigns

B.

Effective information security policies and procedures

C.

Delegation of information security roles and responsibilities

D.

Incentives for appropriate information security-related behavior

Question 189

An organization faces severe fines and penalties if not in compliance with local regulatory requirements by an established deadline. Senior management has asked the information security manager to prepare an action plan to achieve compliance.

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for planning purposes? »

Options:

A.

Results from a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Deadlines and penalties for noncompliance

C.

Results from a gap analysis

D.

An inventory of security controls currently in place

Question 190

Which of the following BEST indicates the organizational benefit of an information security solution?

Options:

A.

Cost savings the solution brings to the information security department

B.

Reduced security training requirements

C.

Alignment to security threats and risks

D.

Costs and benefits of the solution calculated over time

Question 191

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should be responsible for determining the initial recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

External consultant

B.

Information owners

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business continuity coordinator

Question 192

An information security manager has been made aware of a new data protection regulation that will soon go into effect. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk of noncompliance?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Consult with senior management on the best course of action.

C.

Implement a program of work to comply with the new legislation.

D.

Understand the cost of noncompliance.

Question 193

When building support for an information security program, which of the following elements is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Identification of existing vulnerabilities

B.

Information risk assessment

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

Question 194

An information security manager is MOST likely to obtain approval for a new security project when the business case provides evidence of:

Options:

A.

organizational alignment

B.

IT strategy alignment

C.

threats to the organization

D.

existing control costs

Question 195

Which of the following defines the MOST comprehensive set of security requirements for a newly developed information system?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Audit findings

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Baseline controls

Question 196

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of including incident classification criteria within an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Ability to monitor and control incident management costs

B.

More visibility to the impact of disruptions

C.

Effective protection of information assets

D.

Optimized allocation of recovery resources

Question 197

Reevaluation of risk is MOST critical when there is:

Options:

A.

resistance to the implementation of mitigating controls.

B.

a management request for updated security reports.

C.

a change in security policy.

D.

a change in the threat landscape.

Question 198

A startup company deployed several new applications with vulnerabilities into production because security reviews were not conducted. What will BEST help to ensure effective application risk management going forward?

Options:

A.

Conduct automated scans on applications before deployment.

B.

Supplement existing development teams with security engineers.

C.

Integrate information security into existing change management.

D.

Create a new governance council for application security.

Question 199

Which of the following BEST determines the allocation of resources during a security incident response?

Options:

A.

Senior management commitment

B.

A business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

An established escalation process

D.

Defined levels of severity

Question 200

A newly appointed information security manager has been asked to update all security-related policies and procedures that have been static for five years or more. What should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Update in accordance with the best business practices.

B.

Perform a risk assessment of the current IT environment.

C.

Gain an understanding of the current business direction.

D.

Inventory and review current security policies.

Question 201

Which of the following devices, when placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ), would be considered the MOST significant exposure?

Options:

A.

Mail relay server

B.

Proxy server

C.

Database server

D.

Application server

Question 202

A business unit recently integrated the organization's new strong password policy into its business application which requires users to reset passwords every 30 days. The help desk is now flooded with password reset requests. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Provide end-user training.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Continue to enforce the policy.

D.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

Question 203

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of information security controls to senior management?

Options:

A.

Downtime due to malware infections

B.

Number of security vulnerabilities uncovered with network scans

C.

Percentage of servers patched

D.

Annualized loss resulting from security incidents

Question 204

To ensure that a new application complies with information security policy, the BEST approach is to:

Options:

A.

review the security of the application before implementation.

B.

integrate functionality the development stage.

C.

perform a vulnerability analysis.

D.

periodically audit the security of the application.

Question 205

An incident management team leader sends out a notification that the organization has successfully recovered from a cyberattack. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Prepare an executive summary for senior management

B.

Gather feedback on business impact

C.

Conduct a meeting to capture lessons learned.

D.

Secure and preserve digital evidence for analysis.

Question 206

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of managed security solutions?

Options:

A.

Wider range of capabilities

B.

Easier implementation across an organization

C.

Greater ability to focus on core business operations

D.

Lower cost of operations

Question 207

Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the information security goxernance function?

Options:

A.

Administering information security awareness training

B.

Defining security strategies to support organizational programs

C.

Ensuring adequate support for solutions using emerging technologies

D.

Advising senior management on optimal levels of risk appetite and tolerance

Question 208

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

Question 209

The PRIMARY objective of timely declaration of a disaster is to:

Options:

A.

ensure engagement of business management in the recovery process.

B.

assess and correct disaster recovery process deficiencies.

C.

protect critical physical assets from further loss.

D.

ensure the continuity of the organization's essential services.

Question 210

Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program?

Options:

A.

Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B.

Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.

C.

Include information security requirements in the change control process.

D.

Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

Question 211

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining whether a firewall has been configured to provide a comprehensive perimeter defense9

Options:

A.

A validation of the current firewall rule set

B.

A port scan of the firewall from an internal source

C.

A ping test from an external source

D.

A simulated denial of service (DoS) attack against the firewall

Question 212

When collecting admissible evidence, which of the following is the MOST important requirement?

Options:

A.

Need to know

B.

Preserving audit logs

C.

Due diligence

D.

Chain of custody

Question 213

Which of the following risk scenarios is MOST likely to emerge from a supply chain attack?

Options:

A.

Compromise of critical assets via third-party resources

B.

Unavailability of services provided by a supplier

C.

Loss of customers due to unavailability of products

D.

Unreliable delivery of hardware and software resources by a supplier

Question 214

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the information security investment process?

Options:

A.

IT governance framework

B.

Information security policy

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 215

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when determining whether data should be stored?

Options:

A.

Data protection regulations

B.

Data storage limitations

C.

Business requirements

D.

Type and nature of data

Question 216

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

An increase in the frequency of phishing tests

B.

An increase in positive user feedback

C.

An increase in the speed of incident resolution

D.

An increase in the identification rate during phishing simulations

Question 217

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a forensic investigation?

Options:

A.

Analyzing system memory

B.

Documenting analysis steps

C.

Capturing full system images

D.

Maintaining a chain of custody

Question 218

Of the following, who should be assigned as the owner of a newly identified risk related to an organization's new payroll system?

Options:

A.

Data privacy officer

B.

Information security manager

C.

Head of IT department

D.

Head of human resources (HR)

Question 219

After the occurrence of a major information security incident, which of the following will BEST help an information security manager determine corrective actions?

Options:

A.

Calculating cost of the incident

B.

Conducting a postmortem assessment

C.

Performing an impact analysis

D.

Preserving the evidence

Question 220

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

Question 221

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

Question 222

An incident response plan is being developed for servers hosting sensitive information. In the event of a breach, who should make the decision to shut down the system?

Options:

A.

Operations manager

B.

Service owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Incident response team

Question 223

Which of the following is PRIMARILY determined by asset classification?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage required for assets

B.

Level of protection required for assets

C.

Priority for asset replacement

D.

Replacement cost of assets

Question 224

A business requires a legacy version of an application to operate but the application cannot be patched. To limit the risk exposure to the business, a firewall is implemented in front of the legacy application. Which risk treatment option has been applied?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

Question 225

An organization has identified IT failures in a call center application. Of the following, who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Head of the call center

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Head of the IT department

Question 226

What should an information security manager do FIRST when an organization is planning to use a third-party cloud computing service for a critical business process?

Options:

A.

Identify the data to be hosted.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Analyze the business requirements.

Question 227

An organization's marketing department wants to use an online collaboration service, which is not in compliance with the information security policy, A risk assessment is performed, and risk acceptance is being pursued. Approval of risk acceptance should be provided by:

Options:

A.

the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

business senior management.

C.

the information security manager.

D.

the compliance officer.

Question 228

Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Conduct a compliance review.

B.

Assign accountability.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Create a business case.

Question 229

An incident response team has established that an application has been breached. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Maintain the affected systems in a forensically acceptable state

B.

Conduct a risk assessment on the affected application

C.

Inform senior management of the breach.

D.

Isolate the impacted systems from the rest of the network

Question 230

Which of the following events is MOST likely to require an organization to revisit its information security framework?

Options:

A.

New services offered by IT

B.

Changes to the risk landscape

C.

A recent cybersecurity attack

D.

A new technology implemented

Question 231

Implementing the principle of least privilege PRIMARILY requires the identification of:

Options:

A.

job duties

B.

data owners

C.

primary risk factors.

D.

authentication controls

Question 232

To effectively manage an organization's information security risk, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

assign risk management responsibility to an experienced consultant.

B.

periodically identify and correct new systems vulnerabilities.

C.

establish and communicate risk tolerance.

D.

benchmark risk scenarios against peer organizations.

Question 233

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that an information security manager should restrict the use of generic administrator accounts in a multi-user environment?

Options:

A.

To ensure separation of duties is maintained

B.

To ensure system audit trails are not bypassed

C.

To prevent accountability issues

D.

To prevent unauthorized user access

Question 234

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to communicate to affected parties that a security incident has occurred?

Options:

A.

To improve awareness of information security

B.

To disclose the root cause of the incident

C.

To increase goodwill toward the organization

D.

To comply with regulations regarding notification

Question 235

In order to understand an organization's security posture, it is MOST important for an organization's senior leadership to:

Options:

A.

evaluate results of the most recent incident response test.

B.

review the number of reported security incidents.

C.

ensure established security metrics are reported.

D.

assess progress of risk mitigation efforts.

Question 236

An organization is considering the feasibility of implementing a big data solution to analyze customer data. In order to support this initiative, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

inventory sensitive customer data to be processed by the solution.

B.

determine information security resource and budget requirements.

C.

assess potential information security risk to the organization.

D.

develop information security requirements for the big data solution.

Question 237

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of an information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

The committee has strong regulatory knowledge.

B.

The committee is comprised of representatives from senior management.

C.

The committee has cross-organizational representation.

D.

The committee uses a risk management framework.

Question 238

Who has the PRIMARY authority to decide if additional risk treatments are required to mitigate an identified risk?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Risk owner

Question 239

Which of the following is the BEST way to enhance training for incident response teams?

Options:

A.

Perform post-incident reviews.

B.

Establish incident key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Conduct interviews with organizational units.

D.

Participate in emergency response activities.

Question 240

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the gap between the present and desired state of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk analysis for critical applications.

B.

Determine whether critical success factors (CSFs) have been defined.

C.

Conduct a capability maturity model evaluation.

D.

Review and update current operational procedures.

Question 241

Which of the following would provide the MOST value to senior management when presenting the results of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Mapping the risks to the security classification scheme

B.

Illustrating risk on a heat map

C.

Mapping the risks to existing controls

D.

Providing a technical risk assessment report

Question 242

Which of the following would BEST ensure that security is integrated during application development?

Options:

A.

Employing global security standards during development processes

B.

Providing training on secure development practices to programmers

C.

Performing application security testing during acceptance testing

D.

Introducing security requirements during the initiation phase

Question 243

After a server has been attacked, which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Initiate incident response.

B.

Review vulnerability assessment.

C.

Conduct a security audit.

D.

Isolate the system.

Question 244

Which of the following is the MOST effective defense against malicious insiders compromising confidential information?

Options:

A.

Regular audits of access controls

B.

Strong background checks when hiring staff

C.

Prompt termination procedures

D.

Role-based access control (RBAC)

Question 245

Which of the following roles is accountable for ensuring the impact of a new regulatory framework on a business system is assessed?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Application owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Legal representative

Question 246

An information security program is BEST positioned for success when it is closely aligned with:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

recognized industry frameworks.

C.

information security policies.

D.

the information security strategy.

Question 247

From a business perspective, the GREATEST benefit of an incident response plan is that it:

Options:

A.

Promotes efficiency by providing predefined response procedures

B.

Improves security responsiveness to disruptive events

C.

Limits the negative impact of disruptive events

D.

Ensures compliance with regulatory requirements

Question 248

A business impact analysis (BIA) should be periodically executed PRIMARILY to:

Options:

A.

validate vulnerabilities on environmental changes.

B.

analyze the importance of assets.

C.

check compliance with regulations.

D.

verify the effectiveness of controls.

Question 249

An organization is considering using a third party to host sensitive archived data. Which of the following is MOST important to verify before entering into the relationship?

Options:

A.

The vendor's data centers are in the same geographic region.

B.

The encryption keys are not provisled to the vendor.

C.

The vendor's controls are in line with the organization's security standards.

D.

Independent audits of the vendor's operations are regularly conducted.

Question 250

A small organization with limited budget hires a new information security manager who finds the same IT staff member is assigned the responsibility of system administrator, security administrator, database administrator (DBA), and application administrator What is the manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Automate user provisioning activities.

B.

Maintain strict control over user provisioning activities.

C.

Formally document IT administrator activities.

D.

Implement monitoring of IT administrator activities.

Question 251

An incident response policy should include:

Options:

A.

A description of testing methodology.

B.

Notification requirements.

C.

An infrastructure diagram.

D.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 252

A KEY consideration in the use of quantitative risk analysis is that it:

Options:

A.

aligns with best practice for risk analysis of information assets.

B.

assigns numeric values to exposures of information assets.

C.

applies commonly used labels to information assets.

D.

is based on criticality analysis of information assets.

Question 253

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

Question 254

Which of the following is the BEST approach for data owners to use when defining access privileges for users?

Define access privileges based on user roles.

Adopt user account settings recommended by the vendor.

Perform a risk assessment of the users' access privileges.

Options:

A.

Implement an identity and access management (IDM) tool.

Question 255

An international organization with remote branches is implementing a corporate security policy for managing personally identifiable information (PII). Which of the following should be the information security manager's MAIN concern?

Options:

A.

Local regulations

B.

Data backup strategy

C.

Consistency in awareness programs

D.

Organizational reporting structure

Question 256

Which of the following BEST provides an information security manager with sufficient assurance that a service provider complies with the organization's information security requirements?

Options:

A.

Alive demonstration of the third-party supplier's security capabilities

B.

The ability to i third-party supplier's IT systems and processes

C.

Third-party security control self-assessment (CSA) results

D.

An independent review report indicating compliance with industry standards

Question 257

Which of the following is the MOST important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the asset

B.

Cost of additional mitigation

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Annual rate of occurrence

Question 258

A forensic examination of a PC is required, but the PC has been switched off. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform a backup of the hard drive using backup utilities.

B.

Perform a bit-by-bit backup of the hard disk using a write-blocking device

C.

Perform a backup of the computer using the network

D.

Reboot the system using third-party forensic software in the CD-ROM drive

Question 259

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a security operations center's wna GY of potential security breaches?

Options:

A.

IT system clocks are not synchronized with the centralized logging server.

B.

Operating systems are no longer supported by the vendor.

C.

The patch management system does not deploy patches in a timely manner.

D.

An organization has a decentralized data center that uses cloud services.

Question 260

A common drawback of email software packages that provide native encryption of messages is that the encryption:

Options:

A.

cannot encrypt attachments

B.

cannot interoperate across product domains.

C.

has an insufficient key length.

D.

has no key-recovery mechanism.

Question 261

Which of the following tools provides an incident response team with the GREATEST insight into insider threat activity across multiple systems?

Options:

A.

A security information and event management (SIEM) system

B.

An intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

A virtual private network (VPN) with multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) system

Question 262

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

Question 263

A recovery point objective (RPO) is required in which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Information security plan

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

Question 264

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance in determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical security system?

Options:

A.

Available annual budget

B.

Cost-benefit analysis of mitigating controls

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

Question 265

The PRIMARY reason to create and externally store the disk hash value when performing forensic data acquisition from a hard disk is to:

Options:

A.

validate the confidentiality during analysis.

B.

reinstate original data when accidental changes occur.

C.

validate the integrity during analysis.

D.

provide backup in case of media failure.

Question 266

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Including all business units in testing

B.

Simulating realistic test scenarios

C.

Reviewing test results quarterly

D.

Testing after major business changes

Question 267

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

Options:

A.

Establish performance metrics for the team

B.

Perform a post-incident review

C.

Implement a SIEM solution

D.

Perform a threat analysis

Question 268

Of the following, who is BEST suited to own the risk discovered in an application?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Senior management

C.

System owner

D.

Control owner

Question 269

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

Question 270

Which of the following is necessary to ensure consistent protection for an organization's information assets?

Options:

A.

Classification model

B.

Control assessment

C.

Data ownership

D.

Regulatory requirements

Question 271

Which of the following is the BEST course of action if the business activity residual risk is lower than the acceptable risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor the effectiveness of controls

B.

Update the risk assessment framework

C.

Review the inherent risk level

D.

Review the risk probability and impact

Question 272

An information security policy was amended recently to support an organization's new information security strategy. Which of the following should be the information security manager's NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the alignment with business strategy.

B.

Review technical controls.

C.

Update standards and procedures.

D.

Refresh the security training program.

Question 273

Of the following, who is BEST positioned to be accountable for risk acceptance decisions based on risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Information security steering committee

D.

Risk owner

Question 274

When creating an incident response plan, the PRIMARY benefit of establishing a clear definition of a security incident is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

the incident response process to stakeholders

B.

adequately staff and train incident response teams.

C.

develop effective escalation and response procedures.

D.

make tabletop testing more effective.

Question 275

A PRIMARY purpose of creating security policies is to:

Options:

A.

define allowable security boundaries.

B.

communicate management's security expectations.

C.

establish the way security tasks should be executed.

D.

implement management's security governance strategy.

Question 276

Of the following, who would provide the MOST relevant input when aligning the information security strategy with organizational goals?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk committee

B.

Information security steering committee

C.

Data privacy officer (DPO)

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

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Total 920 questions