An IS auditor suspects an organization's computer may have been used to commit a crime. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST course of action?
Examine the computer to search for evidence supporting the suspicions.
Advise management of the crime after the investigation.
Contact the incident response team to conduct an investigation.
Notify local law enforcement of the potential crime before further investigation.
The IS auditor’s best course of action if they suspect an organization’s computer may have been used to commit a crime is to contact the incident response team to conduct an investigation. The incident response team is a group of experts who are responsible for responding to security incidents, such as data breaches, ransomware attacks, or cybercrimes. The incident response team can help to preserve and collect digital evidence, determine the scope and impact of the incident, contain and eradicate the threat, and restore normal operations. The IS auditor should not examine the computer themselves, as they may inadvertently alter or destroy potential evidence, or compromise the chain of custody. The IS auditor should also not notify local law enforcement before further investigation, as this may escalate the situation unnecessarily or interfere with the internal investigation process. The IS auditor should advise management of the crime after the investigation, or as soon as possible if there is an imminent risk or legal obligation to do so.
Which of the following should an IS auditor be MOST concerned with during a post-implementation review?
The system does not have a maintenance plan.
The system contains several minor defects.
The system deployment was delayed by three weeks.
The system was over budget by 15%.
A post-implementation review (PIR) is an assessment conducted at the end of a project cycle to determine if the project was indeed successful and to identify any existing flaws in the project1. One of the main objectives of a PIR is to evaluate the outcome and functional value of a project1. Therefore, an IS auditor should be most concerned with whether the system meets the intended requirements and delivers the expected benefits to the stakeholders. A system that does not have a maintenance plan is a major risk, as it may not be able to cope with changing needs, fix errors, or prevent security breaches. A maintenance plan is essential for ensuring the system’s reliability, availability, and performance in the long term2.
The other options are less critical for a PIR, as they are more related to the project management aspects than the system quality aspects. The system may contain several minor defects that do not affect its functionality or usability, and these can be resolved in future updates. The system deployment may be delayed by three weeks due to unforeseen circumstances or dependencies, but this does not necessarily mean that the system is faulty or ineffective. The system may be over budget by 15% due to various factors such as scope creep, resource constraints, or market fluctuations, but this does not imply that the system is not valuable or beneficial.
References: 1: Post-Implementation Review Best Practices - MetaPM 2: What is Post-Implementation Review in Project Management?
Documentation of workaround processes to keep a business function operational during recovery of IT systems is a core part of a:
business impact analysis (BIA).
threat and risk assessment.
business continuity plan (BCP).
disaster recovery plan (DRP).
A business continuity plan (BCP) is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function quickly in the event of a disaster1. A core part of a BCP is the documentation of workaround processes to keep a business function operational during recovery of IT systems. Workaround processes are alternative methods or procedures that can be used to perform a business function when the normal IT systems are unavailable or disrupted2. For example, if an online payment system is down, a workaround process could be to accept manual payments or use a backup system. Workaround processes help to minimize the impact of IT disruptions on the business operations and ensure continuity of service to customers and stakeholders3.
References:
Secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program are which type of control?
Detective
Logical
Preventive
Corrective
Secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program are preventive controls. Preventive controls are controls that aim to prevent or avoid undesirable events or outcomes from occurring, such as errors, defects, or incidents. Secure code reviews are activities that examine and evaluate the source code of a software or application to identify and eliminate any vulnerabilities, flaws, or weaknesses that may compromise its security, functionality, or performance. Secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program can help prevent or avoid security issues or incidents from occurring by ensuring that the code is secure and compliant before it is deployed to production. The other options are not correct types of controls for secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program, as they have different meanings and functions. Detective controls are controls that aim to detect or discover undesirable events or outcomes that have occurred, such as errors, defects, or incidents. Logical controls are controls that use software or hardware mechanisms to regulate or restrict access to IT resources, such as data, systems, or networks. Corrective controls are controls that aim to correct or rectify undesirable events or outcomes that have occurred, such as errors, defects, or incidents. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
Which of the following MOST effectively minimizes downtime during system conversions?
Phased approach
Direct cutover
Pilot study
Parallel run
The most effective way to minimize downtime during system conversions is to use a parallel run. A parallel run is a method of system conversion where both the old and new systems operate simultaneously for a period of time until the new system is verified to be functioning correctly. This reduces the risk of errors, data loss, or system failure during conversion and allows for a smooth transition from one system to another. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 467
During a review of a production schedule, an IS auditor observes that a staff member is not complying with mandatory operational procedures. The auditor's NEXT step should be to:
note the noncompliance in the audit working papers.
issue an audit memorandum identifying the noncompliance.
include the noncompliance in the audit report.
determine why the procedures were not followed.
A system development project is experiencing delays due to ongoing staff shortages. Which of the following strategies would provide the GREATEST assurance of system quality at implementation?
Implement overtime pay and bonuses for all development staff.
Utilize new system development tools to improve productivity.
Recruit IS staff to expedite system development.
Deliver only the core functionality on the initial target date.
The strategy that would provide the greatest assurance of system quality at implementation is delivering only the core functionality on the initial target date. This strategy can help avoid compromising the quality of the system by focusing on the essential features that meet the user needs and expectations. Delivering only the core functionality can also help reduce the scope creep, complexity, and testing efforts of the system development project.
Implementing overtime pay and bonuses for all development staff, utilizing new system development tools to improve productivity, and recruiting IS staff to expedite system development are not strategies that would provide the greatest assurance of system quality at implementation. These strategies may help speed up the system development process, but they may also introduce new risks or challenges such as burnout, learning curve, integration issues, or communication gaps. These risks or challenges may adversely affect the quality of the system.
Which of the following components of a risk assessment is MOST helpful to management in determining the level of risk mitigation to apply?
Risk identification
Risk classification
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Impact assessment
An IS audit reveals that an organization is not proactively addressing known vulnerabilities. Which of the following should the IS auditor recommend the organization do FIRST?
Verify the disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been tested.
Ensure the intrusion prevention system (IPS) is effective.
Assess the security risks to the business.
Confirm the incident response team understands the issue.
If an IS audit reveals that an organization is not proactively addressing known vulnerabilities, the IS auditor should recommend that the organization assess the security risks to the business first, as this would help to prioritize the vulnerabilities based on their impact and likelihood, and determine the appropriate mitigation strategies. Verifying the disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been tested, ensuring the intrusion prevention system (IPS) is effective, and confirming the incident response team understands the issue are important steps, but they are not as urgent as assessing the security risks to the business. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.6
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to implement version control for an end-user computing (EUC) application?
To ensure that older versions are availability for reference
To ensure that only the latest approved version of the application is used
To ensure compatibility different versions of the application
To ensure that only authorized users can access the application
Version control is a process of managing changes to an application or a document. It ensures that only the latest approved version of the application is used by end-users, which reduces the risk of errors, inconsistencies, and unauthorized modifications. Version control also allows tracking the history of changes and restoring previous versions if needed.
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the impact of ransomware attacks?
Invoking the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Backing up data frequently
Paying the ransom
Requiring password changes for administrative accounts
Ransomware is a type of malicious software that encrypts the victim’s data and demands a ransom for its decryption1. Ransomware attacks can cause significant damage to an organization’s operations, reputation, and finances1. Therefore, it is important to mitigate the impact of ransomware attacks by implementing effective prevention and recovery strategies.
One of the best ways to mitigate the impact of ransomware attacks is to back up data frequently12345. Data backups are copies of the organization’s data that are stored in a separate location or medium, such as an external hard drive, cloud storage, or tape2. Data backups can help the organization restore its data in case of a ransomware attack, without paying the ransom or losing valuable information2. Data backups should be performed regularly, preferably daily or weekly, depending on the criticality and volume of the data2. Data backups should also be tested periodically to ensure their integrity and usability2.
The other options are not as effective as backing up data frequently in mitigating the impact of ransomware attacks. Invoking the disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a reactive measure that can help the organization resume its operations after a ransomware attack, but it does not prevent or reduce the damage caused by the attack3. Paying the ransom is not a recommended option, as it does not guarantee the decryption of the data or the deletion of the stolen data by the attackers. Paying the ransom also encourages further attacks and funds criminal activities14. Requiring password changes for administrative accounts is a good security practice, but it is not sufficient to prevent or recover from ransomware attacks. Ransomware attacks can exploit other vulnerabilities, such as phishing emails, outdated software, or weak network security15.
References: 1: How to Mitigate the Risk of Ransomware Attacks: The Definitive Guide 2: Mitigating malware and ransomware attacks - The National Cyber Security Centre 3: 3 steps to prevent and recover from ransomware 4: Ransomware Epidemic: Use these 8 Strategies to Mitigate Risk 5: Practical Steps to Mitigate Ransomware Attacks - ITSecurityWire
Which of the following BEST minimizes performance degradation of servers used to authenticate users of an e-commerce website?
Configure a single server as a primary authentication server and a second server as a secondary authentication server.
Configure each authentication server as belonging to a cluster of authentication servers.
Configure each authentication server and ensure that each disk of its RAID is attached to the primary controller.
Configure each authentication server and ensure that the disks of each server form part of a duplex.
Configuring each authentication server as belonging to a cluster of authentication servers is the best way to minimize performance degradation of servers used to authenticate users of an e-commerce website. A cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, load balancing, and fault tolerance. If one server fails or becomes overloaded, another server in the cluster can take over its workload without disrupting the service. A single server as a primary authentication server and a second server as a secondary authentication server is not as effective as a cluster, because the secondary server is only used when the primary server fails, which means it is idle most of the time and does not improve performance. Configuring each authentication server and ensuring that each disk of its RAID is attached to the primary controller does not address the issue of performance degradation, but rather the issue of data redundancy and reliability. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technology that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that can tolerate disk failures and improve data access speed. Configuring each authentication server and ensuring that the disks of each server form part of a duplex does not address the issue of performance degradation, but rather the issue of data backup and recovery. A duplex is a pair of disks that store identical copies of data, so that if one disk fails, the other disk can be used to restore the data. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 310
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT?
Identifying relevant roles for an enterprise IT governance framework
Making decisions regarding risk response and monitoring of residual risk
Verifying that legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements are being met
Providing independent and objective feedback to facilitate improvement of IT processes
The most important benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT is providing independent and objective feedback to facilitate improvement of IT processes. Governance of enterprise IT is the process of ensuring that IT supports the organization’s strategy, goals, and objectives in an effective, efficient, ethical, and compliant manner. IS audit can provide value to governance of enterprise IT by assessing the alignment of IT with business needs, evaluating the performance and value delivery of IT, identifying risks and issues related to IT, recommending corrective actions and best practices, and monitoring the implementation and effectiveness of IT governance activities. IS audit can also provide assurance that IT governance processes are designed and operating in accordance with relevant standards, frameworks, laws, regulations, and contractual obligations. Identifying relevant roles for an enterprise IT governance framework is a benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT, but not the most important one. IS audit can help define and clarify the roles and responsibilities of various stakeholders involved in IT governance, such as board members, senior management, business units, IT function, external parties, etc. IS audit can also help ensure that these roles are aligned with the organization’s strategy, goals, and objectives, and that they have adequate authority, accountability, communication, and reporting mechanisms. However, this benefit is more related to the design phase of IT governance implementation than to the ongoing monitoring and improvement phase. Making decisions regarding risk response and monitoring of residual risk is a benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT, but not the most important one. IS audit can help identify and assess the risks associated with IT activities and processes, such as strategic risks, operational risks, compliance risks, security risks, etc. IS audit can also help evaluate the effectiveness of risk management practices and controls implemented by management to mitigate or reduce these risks. However, this benefit is more related to the assurance function of IS audit than to its advisory function. Verifying that legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements are being met is a benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT, but not the most important one. IS audit can help verify that IT activities and processes comply with applicable laws, regulations, and contractual obligations, such as data protection laws, privacy laws, cybersecurity laws, industry standards, service level agreements, etc. IS audit can also help identify and report any instances of noncompliance or violations that could result in legal or reputational consequences for the organization. However, this benefit is more related to the assurance function of IS audit than to its advisory function. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 283
Which of the following attack techniques will succeed because of an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall?
Phishing
Using a dictionary attack of encrypted passwords
Intercepting packets and viewing passwords
Flooding the site with an excessive number of packets
Flooding the site with an excessive number of packets is an attack technique that will succeed because of an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall. This type of attack is also known as a denial-of-service (DoS) attack or a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack if it involves multiple sources. The aim of this attack is to overwhelm the network bandwidth or the processing capacity of the firewall or the target system, rendering it unable to respond to legitimate requests or perform its normal functions. An Internet firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block or allow traffic based on various criteria, such as source address, destination address, port number, protocol type, application type, etc. However, a firewall cannot prevent traffic from reaching its interface or distinguish between legitimate and malicious traffic based on its content or behavior. Therefore, a firewall is vulnerable to flooding attacks that exploit its limited resources. Phishing is an attack technique that involves sending fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, online services, etc., in order to trick recipients into revealing their personal or financial information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, bank account details, etc., or into clicking on malicious links or attachments that can infect their systems with malware or ransomware. Phishing does not exploit an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall, but rather exploits human psychology and social engineering techniques. A firewall cannot prevent phishing emails or messages from reaching their intended targets, unless they contain some identifiable features that can be filtered out by the firewall rules. However, a firewall cannot detect or prevent users from responding to phishing emails or messages or from opening malicious links or attachments. Using a dictionary attack of encrypted passwords is an attack technique that involves trying to guess or crack passwords by using a list of common or likely passwords or by using a brute-force method that tries all possible combinations of characters. This type of attack does not exploit an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall, but rather exploits weak or poorly chosen passwords or weak encryption algorithms. A firewall cannot prevent a dictionary attack of encrypted passwords, unless it has some mechanisms to detect and block repeated or suspicious login attempts or to enforce strong password policies. However, a firewall cannot protect passwords from being stolen or intercepted by other means, such as phishing, malware, keylogging, etc. Intercepting packets and viewing passwords is an attack technique that involves capturing and analyzing network traffic that contains sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, bank account details, etc., in order to use them for malicious purposes. This type of attack does not exploit an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall, but rather exploits insecure or unencrypted network communication protocols or channels. A firewall cannot prevent packets from being intercepted and viewed by unauthorized parties, unless it has some mechanisms to encrypt or obfuscate the network traffic or to authenticate the source and destination of the traffic. However, a firewall cannot protect packets from being modified or tampered with by other means, such as man-in-the-middle attacks, replay attacks, etc. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 300
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of parallel processing for a new system implementation?
Assurance that the new system meets functional requirements
More time for users to complete training for the new system
Significant cost savings over other system implemental or approaches
Assurance that the new system meets performance requirements
Parallel processing is a system implementation approach that involves running the new system and the old system simultaneously for a period of time until the new system is verified and accepted. The primary advantage of parallel processing is that it provides assurance that the new system meets performance requirements and produces the same or better results as the old system. Parallel processing also minimizes the risk of system failure and data loss, as the old system can be used as a backup or fallback option in case of any problems with the new system.
What should be the PRIMARY basis for selecting which IS audits to perform in the coming year?
Senior management's request
Prior year's audit findings
Organizational risk assessment
Previous audit coverage and scope
The primary basis for selecting which IS audits to perform in the coming year is the organizational risk assessment. An organizational risk assessment is a formal process for identifying, evaluating, and controlling risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and objectives3. An organizational risk assessment can help IS auditors prioritize and plan their audit activities based on the level of risk exposure and impact of each area or process within the organization. An organizational risk assessment can also help IS auditors align their audit objectives and criteria with the organization’s strategy and performance indicators. Senior management’s request, prior year’s audit findings, and previous audit coverage and scope are also possible bases for selecting which IS audits to perform in the coming year, but not as primary as the organizational risk assessment. These factors are more secondary or supplementary sources of information that can help IS auditors refine or adjust their audit plan based on specific needs or issues identified by management or previous audits. However, these factors may not reflect the current or emerging risks that may affect the organization’s operations or performance. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 295
Which of the following is MOST important for an effective control self-assessment (CSA) program?
Determining the scope of the assessment
Performing detailed test procedures
Evaluating changes to the risk environment
Understanding the business process
Understanding the business process is the most important factor for an effective control self-assessment (CSA) program. A CSA program is a technique that allows managers and work teams directly involved in business units, functions or processes to participate in assessing the organization’s risk management and control processes1. A CSA program can help identify risks and potential exposures to achieving strategic business objectives, evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of controls, and implement remediation plans to address any gaps or weaknesses2. To conduct a successful CSA, it is essential to have a clear and comprehensive understanding of the business process under review, including its objectives, inputs, outputs, activities, resources, dependencies, stakeholders, performance indicators, etc. This will help to identify the relevant risks and controls associated with the process, as well as to evaluate their impact and likelihood. Determining the scope of the assessment, performing detailed test procedures, and evaluating changes to the risk environment are also important factors for an effective CSA program, but not as important as understanding the business process. These factors are more related to the execution and monitoring phases of the CSA program, while understanding the business process is related to the planning and preparation phase. Without a solid understanding of the business process, the scope, testing, and evaluation of the CSA may not be accurate or complete. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 310
During an incident management audit, an IS auditor finds that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period. Which of the following is the auditor's MOST important course of action?
Document the finding and present it to management.
Determine if a root cause analysis was conducted.
Confirm the resolution time of the incidents.
Validate whether all incidents have been actioned.
The IS auditor’s most important course of action after finding that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period is to determine if a root cause analysis was conducted. A root cause analysis is a systematic process that identifies the underlying causes of system failures or incidents. A root cause analysis can help to prevent recurrence of similar incidents, improve system performance and reliability, and enhance incident management processes. The IS auditor should evaluate whether a root cause analysis was performed for each incident, whether it was timely and thorough, and whether it resulted in effective corrective actions.
IS management has recently disabled certain referential integrity controls in the database management system (DBMS) software to provide users increased query performance. Which of the following controls will MOST effectively compensate for the lack of referential integrity?
More frequent data backups
Periodic table link checks
Concurrent access controls
Performance monitoring tools
Referential integrity is a property of data that ensures that all references between tables are valid and consistent. Disabling referential integrity controls can result in orphaned records, data anomalies, and inaccurate queries. The most effective way to compensate for the lack of referential integrity is to perform periodic table link checks, which verify that all foreign keys match existing primary keys in the related tables. More frequent data backups, concurrent access controls, and performance monitoring tools do not address the issue of data consistency and accuracy. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 291
In a 24/7 processing environment, a database contains several privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire. Which of the following recommendations would BEST address the risk with minimal disruption to the business?
Modify applications to no longer require direct access to the database.
Introduce database access monitoring into the environment
Modify the access management policy to make allowances for application accounts.
Schedule downtime to implement password changes.
The best recommendation to address the risk of privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire in a 24/7 processing environment is to introduce database access monitoring into the environment. Database access monitoring is a security control that tracks and records all activities and transactions performed on a database, especially by privileged users or accounts. Database access monitoring can help address the risk of privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire by detecting and alerting any unauthorized or abnormal access or actions on the database. The other options are not as effective as database access monitoring in addressing the risk, as they may cause disruption to the business or violate the access management policy. Modifying applications to no longer require direct access to the database is a complex and costly solution that may affect the functionality or performance of the applications, and it may not be feasible or practical in a 24/7 processing environment. Modifying the access management policy to make allowances for application accounts is a risky solution that may create exceptions or loopholes in the policy, and it may not comply with the best practices or standards for password management. Scheduling downtime to implement password changes is a disruptive solution that may affect the availability or continuity of the systems or applications, and it may not be acceptable or possible in a 24/7 processing environment. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
When reviewing an organization's information security policies, an IS auditor should verify that the policies have been defined PRIMARILY on the basis of:
a risk management process.
an information security framework.
past information security incidents.
industry best practices.
Information security policies are high-level statements that define the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from threats and risks. They should be based primarily on a risk management process, which is a systematic method of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, and monitoring information security risks. A risk management process can help ensure that the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite, business objectives, legal and regulatory requirements, and stakeholder expectations. An information security framework is a set of standards, guidelines, and best practices that provide a structure for implementing information security policies. It can support the risk management process, but it is not the primary basis for defining the policies. Past information security incidents and industry best practices can also provide valuable inputs for defining the policies, but they are not sufficient to address the organization’s specific context and needs. References: Insights and Expertise, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's PRIMARY focus when developing a risk-based IS audit program?
Portfolio management
Business plans
Business processes
IT strategic plans
Business processes should be the primary focus of an IS auditor when developing a risk-based IS audit program, because they represent the core activities and functions of the organization that support its objectives and goals. Business processes also involve the use of IT resources and systems that may pose risks to the organization’s performance and compliance. A risk-based IS audit program should identify and assess the risks associated with the business processes and determine the appropriate audit scope and procedures to provide assurance on their effectiveness and efficiency. Portfolio management, business plans, and IT strategic plans are also relevant factors for developing a risk-based IS audit program, but they are not as important as business processes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST consideration when scheduling follow-up activities for agreed-upon management responses to remediate audit observations?
Business interruption due to remediation
IT budgeting constraints
Availability of responsible IT personnel
Risk rating of original findings
The most important consideration for an IS auditor when scheduling follow-up activities for agreed-upon management responses to remediate audit observations is the risk rating of original findings. The risk rating of original findings is an assessment of the potential impact or likelihood of an audit issue or observation on the organization’s objectives, operations, or reputation. The risk rating of original findings can help determine the priority and urgency of follow-up activities for agreed-upon management responses to remediate audit observations by ensuring that high-risk issues are addressed first and more frequently than low-risk issues. The other options are not as important as the risk rating of original findings in scheduling follow-up activities for agreed-upon management responses to remediate audit observations, as they do not reflect the significance or severity of audit issues or observations. Business interruption due to remediation is a possible consequence of implementing corrective actions to address audit issues or observations, but it does not indicate the priority or urgency of follow-up activities. IT budgeting constraints is a possible factor that may affect the availability or feasibility of resources for implementing corrective actions to address audit issues or observations, but it does not indicate the priority or urgency of follow-up activities. Availability of responsible IT personnel is a possible factor that may affect the accountability or responsiveness of staff for implementing corrective actions to address audit issues or observations, but it does not indicate the priority or urgency of follow-up activities. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing follow-up audits?
Audit cycle defined in the audit plan
Complexity of management's action plans
Recommendation from executive management
Residual risk from the findings of previous audits
Residual risk from the findings of previous audits should be the primary basis for prioritizing follow-up audits, because it reflects the level of exposure and potential impact that remains after management has implemented corrective actions or accepted the risk. Follow-up audits should focus on verifying whether the residual risk is within acceptable levels and whether the corrective actions are effective and sustainable. Audit cycle defined in the audit plan, complexity of management’s action plans, and recommendation from executive management are not valid criteria for prioritizing follow-up audits, because they do not consider the residual risk from previous audits. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4.3
Which of the following would be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing the early stages of a software development project?
The lack of technical documentation to support the program code
The lack of completion of all requirements at the end of each sprint
The lack of acceptance criteria behind user requirements.
The lack of a detailed unit and system test plan
User requirements are statements that describe what the users expect from the software system in terms of functionality, quality, and usability. They are essential inputs for the software development process, as they guide the design, implementation, testing, and deployment of the system. Therefore, an IS auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing the early stages of a software development project would be the lack of acceptance criteria behind user requirements. Acceptance criteria are measurable conditions that define when a user requirement is met or satisfied. They help ensure that the user requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and verifiable. Without acceptance criteria, it would be difficult to evaluate whether the system meets the user expectations and delivers value to the organization. Technical documentation, such as program code, is usually produced in later stages of the software development process. Completion of all requirements at the end of each sprint is not mandatory in agile software development methods, as long as there is a prioritized backlog of requirements that can be delivered incrementally. A detailed unit and system test plan is also important for ensuring software quality, but it depends on well-defined user requirements and acceptance criteria. References: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
An IS auditor finds that a key Internet-facing system is vulnerable to attack and that patches are not available. What should the auditor recommend be done FIRST?
Implement a new system that can be patched.
Implement additional firewalls to protect the system.
Decommission the server.
Evaluate the associated risk.
The first step in addressing a vulnerability is to evaluate the associated risk, which involves assessing the likelihood and impact of a potential exploit. Based on the risk assessment, the appropriate mitigation strategy can be determined, such as implementing a new system, adding firewalls, or decommissioning the server. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 280
Which of the following tests would provide the BEST assurance that a health care organization is handling patient data appropriately?
Compliance with action plans resulting from recent audits
Compliance with local laws and regulations
Compliance with industry standards and best practice
Compliance with the organization's policies and procedures
The best test to provide assurance that a health care organization is handling patient data appropriately is compliance with local laws and regulations, as these are the primary sources of authority and obligation for data protection and privacy. Compliance with action plans, industry standards, or organizational policies and procedures are also important, but they may not cover all the legal requirements or reflect the current best practices for handling patient data. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.3
Which of the following is the BEST data integrity check?
Counting the transactions processed per day
Performing a sequence check
Tracing data back to the point of origin
Preparing and running test data
Data integrity is the property that ensures that data is accurate, complete, consistent, and reliable throughout its lifecycle. The best data integrity check is tracing data back to the point of origin, which is the source where the data was originally created or captured. This check can verify that data has not been altered or corrupted during transmission, processing, or storage. It can also identify any errors or discrepancies in data entry or conversion. Counting the transactions processed per day is a performance measure that does not directly assess data integrity. Performing a sequence check is a validity check that ensures that data follows a predefined order or pattern. It can detect missing or out-of-order data elements, but it cannot verify their accuracy or completeness. Preparing and running test data is a testing technique that simulates real data to evaluate how a system handles different scenarios. It can help identify errors or bugs in the system logic or functionality, but it cannot ensure data integrity in production environments. References: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
An organizations audit charier PRIMARILY:
describes the auditors' authority to conduct audits.
defines the auditors' code of conduct.
formally records the annual and quarterly audit plans.
documents the audit process and reporting standards.
An organization’s audit charter primarily describes the auditors’ authority to conduct audits. The audit charter is a formal document that defines the purpose, scope, responsibilities, and reporting relationships of the internal audit function. It also establishes the auditors’ right of access to information, records, personnel, and physical properties relevant to their work. The audit charter provides the basis for the auditors’ independence and accountability to the governing body and senior management.
Which of the following is the MOST important prerequisite for the protection of physical information assets in a data center?
Segregation of duties between staff ordering and staff receiving information assets
Complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed
Availability and testing of onsite backup generators
Knowledge of the IT staff regarding data protection requirements
The most important prerequisite for the protection of physical information assets in a data center is a complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed. Information assets are any data, devices, systems, or software that have value for the organization and need to be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction4. A data center is a facility that houses various information assets such as servers, storage devices, network equipment, etc., that support the organization’s IT operations and services5. A complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed in a data center can help to identify and classify the assets based on their importance, sensitivity, or criticality for the organization. This can help to determine the appropriate level of protection and security measures that need to be applied to each asset. A complete and accurate list of information assets can also help to track and monitor the location, status, ownership, usage, configuration, maintenance, etc., of each asset. This can help to prevent or detect any unauthorized or inappropriate changes or movements of assets that may compromise their security or integrity. Segregation of duties between staff ordering and staff receiving information assets, availability and testing of onsite backup generators, and knowledge of the IT staff regarding data protection requirements are also important prerequisites for the protection of physical information assets in a data center, but not as important as a complete and accurate list of information assets that have been deployed. These factors are more related to the implementation and maintenance of security controls and procedures that depend on having a complete and accurate list of information assets as a starting point. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 308
The PRIMARY benefit lo using a dry-pipe fire-suppression system rather than a wet-pipe system is that a dry-pipe system:
is more effective at suppressing flames.
allows more time to abort release of the suppressant.
has a decreased risk of leakage.
disperses dry chemical suppressants exclusively.
The primary benefit of using a dry-pipe fire-suppression system rather than a wet-pipe system is that a dry-pipe system has a decreased risk of leakage, as the pipes are filled with pressurized air or nitrogen instead of water until the system is activated. A wet-pipe system has a higher risk of leakage, corrosion, and freezing. A dry-pipe system is not more effective at suppressing flames, as it uses the same water-based suppressant as a wet-pipe system. A dry-pipe system does not allow more time to abort release of the suppressant, as it has a delay of only a few seconds before the water is released. A dry-pipe system does not disperse dry chemical suppressants exclusively, as it uses water as the primary suppressant. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to maintain network integrity when using mobile devices?
Implement network access control.
Implement outbound firewall rules.
Perform network reviews.
Review access control lists.
The most effective way to maintain network integrity when using mobile devices is to implement network access control. Network access control is a security control that regulates and restricts access to network resources based on predefined policies and criteria, such as device type, identity, location, or security posture. Network access control can help maintain network integrity when using mobile devices by preventing unauthorized or compromised devices from accessing or affecting network systems or data. The other options are not as effective as network access control in maintaining network integrity when using mobile devices, as they do not address all aspects of network access or security. Implementing outbound firewall rules is a security control that filters and blocks network traffic based on source, destination, protocol, or port, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions. Performing network reviews is a monitoring activity that evaluates and reports on the performance, availability, or security of network resources, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions. Reviewing access control lists is a verification activity that validates and confirms the access rights and privileges of network users or devices, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2
A data breach has occurred due lo malware. Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?
Notify the cyber insurance company.
Shut down the affected systems.
Quarantine the impacted systems.
Notify customers of the breach.
The first course of action when a data breach has occurred due to malware is to quarantine the impacted systems. This means isolating the infected systems from the rest of the network and preventing any further communication or data transfer with them. This can help contain the spread of the malware, limit the damage and exposure of sensitive data, and facilitate the investigation and remediation of the incident. Quarantining the impacted systems can also help preserve the evidence and logs that may be needed for forensic analysis or legal action.
References:
One benefit of return on investment (ROI) analysts in IT decision making is that it provides the:
basis for allocating indirect costs.
cost of replacing equipment.
estimated cost of ownership.
basis for allocating financial resources.
One benefit of return on investment (ROI) analysis in IT decision making is that it provides the basis for allocating financial resources. ROI analysis is a method of evaluating the profitability or cost-effectiveness of an IT project or investment by comparing the expected benefits with the required costs. ROI analysis can help IT decision makers prioritize and justify their IT initiatives, allocate their financial resources optimally, and demonstrate the value contribution of IT to the organization’s goals and objectives. Basis for allocating indirect costs, cost of replacing equipment, and estimated cost of ownership are not benefits of ROI analysis in IT decision making. These are more inputs or outputs of ROI analysis that could be used to calculate or estimate the costs or benefits of an IT project or investment. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 307
An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's information asset management process. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to the auditor?
The process does not require specifying the physical locations of assets.
Process ownership has not been established.
The process does not include asset review.
Identification of asset value is not included in the process.
An IS auditor would be most concerned if process ownership has not been established for the information asset management process, as this would indicate a lack of accountability, responsibility, and authority for managing the assets throughout their lifecycle. The process owner should also ensure that the process is aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards. The process should require specifying the physical locations of assets, include asset review, and identify asset value, but these are less critical than establishing process ownership. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
Which of the following is the BEST method to safeguard data on an organization's laptop computers?
Disabled USB ports
Full disk encryption
Biometric access control
Two-factor authentication
The best method to safeguard data on an organization’s laptop computers is full disk encryption. Full disk encryption is a technique that encrypts all the data stored on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, files, and folders. This means that if the laptop is lost, stolen, or accessed by an unauthorized person, they will not be able to read or modify any data without knowing the encryption key or password. Full disk encryption provides a strong level of protection for data at rest, as it prevents data leakage or exposure in case of physical theft or loss of the device.
References:
An IS auditor notes the transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release. Which of the following should the IS auditor review FIRST?
Capacity management plan
Training plans
Database conversion results
Stress testing results
The first thing that an IS auditor should review when finding that transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release is stress testing results. Stress testing is a type of testing that evaluates how a system performs under extreme or abnormal conditions, such as high volume, load, or concurrency of transactions. Stress testing results can help explain why transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release by revealing any bottlenecks, limitations, or errors in the system’s capacity, performance, or functionality under stress. The other options are not as relevant as stress testing results in explaining why transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release, as they do not directly measure how the system performs under extreme or abnormal conditions. Capacity management plan is a document that defines and implements the processes and activities for ensuring that the system has adequate resources and capabilities to meet current and future demands. Training plans are documents that define and implement the processes and activities for ensuring that the system users have adequate skills and knowledge to use the system effectively and efficiently. Database conversion results are outcomes or outputs of transforming data from one format or structure to another to suit the system’s requirements or specifications. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
A proper audit trail of changes to server start-up procedures would include evidence of:
subsystem structure.
program execution.
security control options.
operator overrides.
A proper audit trail of changes to server start-up procedures would include evidence of operator overrides, which are actions taken by the system operator to bypass or modify the normal execution of the server start-up process. Operator overrides may indicate unauthorized or improper changes that could affect the security, availability, or performance of the server. Therefore, an audit trail should capture and document any operator overrides that occur during the server start-up process.
Evidence of subsystem structure, program execution, and security control options are not directly related to changes to server start-up procedures. Subsystem structure refers to the components and relationships of a subsystem within a larger system. Program execution refers to the process of running a software program on a computer. Security control options refer to the settings and parameters that define the security level and access rights for a system or application. These are all important aspects of auditing a server, but they do not provide evidence of changes to server start-up procedures.
An organization's security policy mandates that all new employees must receive appropriate security awareness training. Which of the following metrics would BEST assure compliance with this policy?
Percentage of new hires that have completed the training.
Number of new hires who have violated enterprise security policies.
Number of reported incidents by new hires.
Percentage of new hires who report incidents
The best metric to assure compliance with the policy of providing security awareness training to all new employees is the percentage of new hires that have completed the training, as this directly measures the extent to which the policy is implemented and enforced. The number of new hires who have violated enterprise security policies, the number of reported incidents by new hires, and the percentage of new hires who report incidents are not directly related to the policy, as they may depend on other factors such as the nature and frequency of threats, the effectiveness of security controls, and the reporting culture of the organization. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.7
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when conducting a review of IT portfolio management?
Assignment of responsibility for each project to an IT team member
Adherence to best practice and industry approved methodologies
Controls to minimize risk and maximize value for the IT portfolio
Frequency of meetings where the business discusses the IT portfolio
Controls to minimize risk and maximize value for the IT portfolio should be the most important consideration when conducting a review of IT portfolio management, because they ensure that the IT portfolio aligns with the business strategy, objectives, and priorities, and that the IT investments deliver optimal benefits and outcomes. Assignment of responsibility for each project to an IT team member, adherence to best practice and industry approved methodologies, and frequency of meetings where the business discusses the IT portfolio are also relevant aspects of IT portfolio management, but they are not as important as controls to minimize risk and maximize value. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.2.3
An organization's enterprise architecture (EA) department decides to change a legacy system's components while maintaining its original functionality. Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to understand when reviewing this decision?
The current business capabilities delivered by the legacy system
The proposed network topology to be used by the redesigned system
The data flows between the components to be used by the redesigned system
The database entity relationships within the legacy system
When reviewing an enterprise architecture (EA) department’s decision to change a legacy system’s components while maintaining its original functionality, an IS auditor should understand the current business capabilities delivered by the legacy system, as this would help to evaluate whether the change is justified, feasible, and aligned with the business goals and needs. The proposed network topology to be used by the redesigned system, the data flows between the components to be used by the redesigned system, and the database entity relationships within the legacy system are technical details that are less relevant for an IS auditor to understand when reviewing this decision. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
An organization has outsourced its data processing function to a service provider. Which of the following would BEST determine whether the service provider continues to meet the organization s objectives?
Assessment of the personnel training processes of the provider
Adequacy of the service provider's insurance
Review of performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
Periodic audits of controls by an independent auditor
Reviewing the performance against service level agreements (SLAs) would best determine whether the service provider continues to meet the organization’s objectives, as SLAs define the expected level of service, quality, availability, and responsibilities of both parties. Assessment of the personnel training processes of the provider, adequacy of the service provider’s insurance, and periodic audits of controls by an independent auditor are important aspects of outsourcing, but they do not directly measure the performance of the service provider against the organization’s objectives. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.5.2
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization's information security policy?
Alignment with the IT tactical plan
IT steering committee minutes
Compliance with industry best practice
Business objectives
The most important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization’s information security policy is its alignment with the business objectives. The information security policy is a high-level document that defines the organization’s vision, goals, principles, and responsibilities for protecting its information assets. The information security policy should support and enable the achievement of the business objectives, such as increasing customer satisfaction, enhancing competitive advantage, or complying with legal requirements. The information security policy should also be consistent with other relevant policies, standards, and frameworks that guide the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance activities.
When an intrusion into an organization network is deleted, which of the following should be done FIRST?
Block all compromised network nodes.
Contact law enforcement.
Notify senior management.
Identity nodes that have been compromised.
The first thing that should be done when an intrusion into an organization network is detected is to identify nodes that have been compromised. Identifying nodes that have been compromised is a critical step in responding to an intrusion, as it helps determine the scope, impact, and source of the attack, and enables the implementation of appropriate containment and recovery measures. The other options are not the first things that should be done when an intrusion into an organization network is detected, as they may be premature or ineffective without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Blocking all compromised network nodes is a containment measure that can help isolate and prevent the spread of the attack, but it may not be possible or feasible without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Contacting law enforcement is a reporting measure that can help seek external assistance and comply with legal obligations, but it may not be necessary or appropriate without identifying nodes that have been compromised. Notifying senior management is a communication measure that can help inform and escalate the incident, but it may not be urgent or accurate without identifying nodes that have been compromised. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2
Which of the following is MOST useful for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization's goals?
Balanced scorecard
Enterprise dashboard
Enterprise architecture (EA)
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
The most useful tool for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization’s goals is a balanced scorecard. A balanced scorecard is a strategic management system that translates an organization’s vision and mission into a set of objectives and measures across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. A balanced scorecard helps align IT goals with organizational goals by linking them to a common strategy map that shows how IT contributes to value creation and performance improvement in each perspective. A balanced scorecard also helps monitor and evaluate IT performance against predefined targets and indicators.
Enterprise dashboard, enterprise architecture (EA), and key performance indicators (KPIs) are not the most useful tools for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization’s goals. These tools may help communicate, design, or measure IT goals or activities, but they do not provide a comprehensive framework for aligning IT goals with organizational goals across multiple dimensions.
A system administrator recently informed the IS auditor about the occurrence of several unsuccessful intrusion attempts from outside the organization. Which of the following is MOST effective in detecting such an intrusion?
Periodically reviewing log files
Configuring the router as a firewall
Using smart cards with one-time passwords
Installing biometrics-based authentication
The most effective way to detect an intrusion attempt is to periodically review log files, which record the activities and events on a system or network. Log files can provide evidence of unauthorized access attempts, malicious activities, or system errors. Configuring the router as a firewall, using smart cards with one-time passwords, and installing biometrics-based authentication are preventive controls that can reduce the likelihood of an intrusion, but they do not detect it. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 301
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to examine when reviewing an organization's privacy policy?
Whether there is explicit permission from regulators to collect personal data
The organization's legitimate purpose for collecting personal data
Whether sharing of personal information with third-party service providers is prohibited
The encryption mechanism selected by the organization for protecting personal data
The most important thing for an IS auditor to examine when reviewing an organization’s privacy policy is its legitimate purpose for collecting personal data. A legitimate purpose is a clear and specific reason for collecting personal data that is necessary for the organization’s business operations or legal obligations, and that respects the rights and interests of the data subjects. A legitimate purpose is the basis for establishing a lawful and fair processing of personal data, and it should be communicated to the data subjects in the privacy policy. The other options are not as important as the legitimate purpose in reviewing the privacy policy. Explicit permission from regulators to collect personal data is not always required, as there may be other lawful bases for data collection, such as consent, contract, or public interest. Sharing of personal information with third-party service providers is not prohibited, as long as there are adequate safeguards and agreements in place to protect the data. The encryption mechanism selected by the organization for protecting personal data is a technical control that can enhance data security, but it does not determine the legality or fairness of data collection. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2
An organization plans to receive an automated data feed into its enterprise data warehouse from a third-party service provider. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent accepting bad data?
Obtain error codes indicating failed data feeds.
Appoint data quality champions across the organization.
Purchase data cleansing tools from a reputable vendor.
Implement business rules to reject invalid data.
The best way to prevent accepting bad data from a third-party service provider is to implement business rules to reject invalid data. Business rules are logical expressions that define the business requirements and constraints for specific data elements. They can be used to validate, transform, or filter incoming data from external sources, ensuring that only high-quality data is accepted into the enterprise data warehouse. Business rules can also help to identify and resolve data quality issues, such as missing values, duplicates, outliers, or inconsistencies.
An IS auditor found that a company executive is encouraging employee use of social networking sites for business purposes. Which of the following recommendations would BEST help to reduce the risk of data leakage?
Requiring policy acknowledgment and nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) signed by employees
Establishing strong access controls on confidential data
Providing education and guidelines to employees on use of social networking sites
Monitoring employees' social networking usage
The best recommendation to reduce the risk of data leakage from employee use of social networking sites for business purposes is to provide education and guidelines to employees on use of social networking sites. Education and guidelines can help employees understand the benefits and risks of using social media for business purposes, such as enhancing brand awareness, engaging with customers, or sharing industry insights. They can also inform employees about the dos and don’ts of social media etiquette, such as respecting privacy, protecting intellectual property, avoiding conflicts of interest, or complying with legal obligations. Education and guidelines can also raise awareness of potential data leakage scenarios, such as phishing attacks, malicious links, fake profiles, or oversharing sensitive information, and provide tips on how to prevent or respond to them.
Which of the following is the BEST control to mitigate the malware risk associated with an instant messaging (IM) system?
Blocking attachments in IM
Blocking external IM traffic
Allowing only corporate IM solutions
Encrypting IM traffic
Allowing only corporate IM solutions is the best control to mitigate the malware risk associated with an IM system, because it can prevent unauthorized or malicious IM applications from accessing the network and infecting the system with malware. Corporate IM solutions can also enforce security policies and standards, such as encryption, authentication, and logging, to protect the IM system from malware attacks. Blocking attachments in IM, blocking external IM traffic, and encrypting IM traffic are also possible controls to mitigate the malware risk, but they are not as effective as allowing only corporate IM solutions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.4
Which of the following is the BEST source of information for assessing the effectiveness of IT process monitoring?
Real-time audit software
Performance data
Quality assurance (QA) reviews
Participative management techniques
The best source of information for assessing the effectiveness of IT process monitoring is performance data. Performance data is a type of information that measures and reports on the results or outcomes of IT processes, such as availability, reliability, throughput, response time, or error rate. Performance data can help assess the effectiveness of IT process monitoring by providing quantitative and qualitative indicators of whether IT processes are meeting their objectives, standards, or expectations. The other options are not as good as performance data in assessing the effectiveness of IT process monitoring, as they do not provide direct or objective evidence of IT process results or outcomes. Real-time audit software is a type of tool that can help automate and facilitate audit activities, such as data collection, analysis, or reporting, but it does not provide information on IT process performance. Quality assurance (QA) reviews are a type of activity that can help evaluate and improve the quality of IT processes, products, or services, but they do not provide information on IT process performance. Participative management techniques are a type of method that can help involve and motivate IT staff in decision-making and problem-solving processes, but they do not provide information on IT process performance. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
Which of the following should be GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system?
Data conversion was performed using manual processes.
Backups of the old system and data are not available online.
Unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion.
The change management process was not formally documented
The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system is unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. Unauthorized data modifications are changes or alterations to data that are not authorized, intended, or expected, such as due to errors, fraud, or sabotage. Unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion can compromise the accuracy, completeness, and integrity of the data being converted and migrated to the new application system, and may result in data loss, corruption, or inconsistency. The other options are not as concerning as unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion in reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system, as they do not affect the accuracy, completeness, or integrity of the data being converted and migrated. Data conversion was performed using manual processes is a possible factor that may increase the risk or complexity of data conversion and migration, but it does not necessarily imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. Backups of the old system and data are not available online is a possible factor that may affect the availability or accessibility of the old system and data for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. The change management process was not formally documented is a possible factor that may affect the quality or consistency of the change management process for implementing the new application system, but it does not imply that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor's BEST recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and:
the Internet.
the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
the organization's web server.
the organization's network.
When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor’s best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet, as this would provide an additional layer of security and alert the organization of any malicious traffic that bypasses or penetrates the firewall. Placing an IDS between the firewall and the demilitarized zone (DMZ), the organization’s web server, or the organization’s network would not be as effective, as it would only monitor the traffic that has already passed through the firewall. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.3
Which of the following is the BEST compensating control when segregation of duties is lacking in a small IS department?
Background checks
User awareness training
Transaction log review
Mandatory holidays
The best compensating control when segregation of duties is lacking in a small IS department is transaction log review. Transaction log review can help detect any unauthorized or fraudulent activities performed by IS staff who have access to multiple functions or systems. Transaction log review can also provide an audit trail for accountability and investigation purposes. The other options are not as effective as transaction log review in compensating for the lack of segregation of duties. Background checks are preventive controls that can help screen potential employees for any criminal records or dishonest behavior, but they do not prevent existing employees from abusing their access privileges. User awareness training is a detective control that can help educate users on how to report any suspicious or abnormal activities in the IS environment, but it does not monitor or verify the actions of IS staff. Mandatory holidays are deterrent controls that can discourage IS staff from engaging in fraudulent activities by requiring them to take periodic leave, but they do not prevent or detect such activities when they occur. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
To confirm integrity for a hashed message, the receiver should use:
the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a binary image of the file.
a different hashing algorithm from the sender's to create a binary image of the file.
the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file.
a different hashing algorithm from the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file.
To confirm integrity for a hashed message, the receiver should use the same hashing algorithm as the sender’s to create a binary image of the file. A hashing algorithm is a mathematical function that transforms an input data into a fixed-length output value, called a hash or a digest. A hashing algorithm has two main properties: it is one-way, meaning that it is easy to compute the hash from the input, but hard to recover the input from the hash; and it is collision-resistant, meaning that it is very unlikely to find two different inputs that produce the same hash. These properties make hashing algorithms useful for verifying the integrity of data, as any change in the input data will result in a different hash value. Therefore, to confirm integrity for a hashed message, the receiver should use the same hashing algorithm as the sender’s to create a binary image of the file, which is a representation of the file in bits (0s and 1s). The receiver should then compare this binary image with the hash value sent by the sender. If they match, then the message has not been altered in transit. If they do not match, then the message has been corrupted or tampered with.
References:
An incorrect version of the source code was amended by a development team. This MOST likely indicates a weakness in:
incident management.
quality assurance (QA).
change management.
project management.
A weakness in change management is the most likely cause of an incorrect version of source code being amended by a development team. Change management is the process of controlling and documenting changes to IT systems and software. It ensures that changes are authorized, tested, and implemented in a controlled manner. If change management is weak, there is a risk of using outdated or incorrect versions of source code, which can lead to errors, defects, or security vulnerabilities in the software.
Which of the following is MOST important to include in forensic data collection and preservation procedures?
Assuring the physical security of devices
Preserving data integrity
Maintaining chain of custody
Determining tools to be used
The most important thing to include in forensic data collection and preservation procedures is preserving data integrity. Data integrity is the property that ensures that data is accurate, complete, and consistent throughout its lifecycle. Preserving data integrity is essential for forensic data collection and preservation procedures because it ensures that the data can be used as valid and reliable evidence in legal proceedings or investigations. Preserving data integrity can be achieved by using methods such as hashing, checksums, digital signatures, write blockers, tamper-evident seals, or timestamps. The other options are not as important as preserving data integrity in forensic data collection and preservation procedures, as they do not affect the validity or reliability of the data. Assuring the physical security of devices is a security measure that protects devices from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or destruction, but it does not ensure that the data on the devices is accurate, complete, and consistent. Maintaining chain of custody is a documentation technique that records and tracks the handling and transfer of devices or data among different parties involved in forensic activities, but it does not ensure that the data on the devices is accurate, complete, and consistent. Determining tools to be used is a planning activity that selects and prepares the appropriate tools for forensic data collection and preservation procedures, but it does not ensure that the data collected and preserved by the tools is accurate, complete, and consistent. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4
An IT balanced scorecard is the MOST effective means of monitoring:
governance of enterprise IT.
control effectiveness.
return on investment (ROI).
change management effectiveness.
An IT balanced scorecard is a strategic management tool that aligns IT objectives with business goals and measures the performance of IT processes using key performance indicators (KPIs). It is the most effective means of monitoring governance of enterprise IT, which is the process of ensuring that IT supports the organization’s strategy and objectives. Governance of enterprise IT covers aspects such as IT value delivery, IT risk management, IT resource management, and IT performance measurement. An IT balanced scorecard can help monitor these aspects and provide feedback to improve IT governance. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following would BEST determine whether a post-implementation review (PIR) performed by the project management office (PMO) was effective?
Lessons learned were implemented.
Management approved the PIR report.
The review was performed by an external provider.
Project outcomes have been realized.
The best indicator of whether a PIR performed by the PMO was effective is whether project outcomes have been realized. Project outcomes are the benefits or value that a project delivers to its stakeholders, such as improved efficiency, quality, customer satisfaction, or revenue. A PIR should evaluate whether project outcomes have been achieved in accordance with project objectives, scope, budget, and schedule. The other options are not as good as project outcomes in determining the effectiveness of a PIR. Lessons learned are valuable inputs for improving future projects, but they do not measure whether project outcomes have been realized. Management approval of the PIR report is a sign of acceptance and support for the PIR findings and recommendations, but it does not reflect whether project outcomes have been achieved. The review performed by an external provider is a way of ensuring objectivity and independence for the PIR, but it does not guarantee whether project outcomes have been realized. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
An IS auditor is evaluating an organization's IT strategy and plans. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?
There is not a defined IT security policy.
The business strategy meeting minutes are not distributed.
IT is not engaged in business strategic planning.
There is inadequate documentation of IT strategic planning.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when evaluating an organization’s IT strategy and plans is that IT is not engaged in business strategic planning, as this indicates a lack of alignment between IT and business objectives, which could result in inefficient and ineffective use of IT resources and capabilities. The absence of a defined IT security policy, the nondistribution of business strategy meeting minutes, and the inadequate documentation of IT strategic planning are also issues that should be addressed by an IS auditor, but they are not as significant as IT’s noninvolvement in business strategic planning. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.1
Which of the following is the BEST justification for deferring remediation testing until the next audit?
The auditor who conducted the audit and agreed with the timeline has left the organization.
Management's planned actions are sufficient given the relative importance of the observations.
Auditee management has accepted all observations reported by the auditor.
The audit environment has changed significantly.
Deferring remediation testing until the next audit is justified only when there are significant changes in the audit environment that affect the relevance or validity of the audit observations and recommendations. For example, if there are changes in the business processes, systems, regulations, or risks that require a new audit scope or approach. The other options are not valid justifications for deferring remediation testing, as they do not address the timeliness or quality of the audit follow-up process. The auditor who conducted the audit and agreed with the timeline has left the organization does not affect the responsibility of the audit function to ensure that remediation testing is performed as planned. Management’s planned actions are sufficient given the relative importance of the observations does not guarantee that management will actually implement those actions or that they will be effective in addressing the audit issues. Auditee management has accepted all observations reported by the auditor does not eliminate the need for verification of remediation actions by an independent party. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4
Which of the following is the MOST effective control to mitigate unintentional misuse of authorized access?
Annual sign-off of acceptable use policy
Regular monitoring of user access logs
Security awareness training
Formalized disciplinary action
The most effective control to mitigate unintentional misuse of authorized access is security awareness training. This is because security awareness training can educate users on the proper use of their access rights, the potential consequences of misuse, and the best practices to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems. Security awareness training can also help users recognize and avoid common threats such as phishing, malware, and social engineering.
Annual sign-off of acceptable use policy, regular monitoring of user access logs, and formalized disciplinary action are not the most effective controls to mitigate unintentional misuse of authorized access. These controls may help deter or detect intentional misuse, but they do not address the root cause of unintentional misuse, which is often a lack of knowledge or awareness of security policies and procedures.
Which of the following fire suppression systems needs to be combined with an automatic switch to shut down the electricity supply in the event of activation?
Carbon dioxide
FM-200
Dry pipe
Halon
Carbon dioxide fire suppression systems need to be combined with an automatic switch to shut down the electricity supply in the event of activation. This is because carbon dioxide displaces oxygen in the air and can create a suffocation hazard for people in the protected area. Therefore, it is essential to cut off the power source before releasing carbon dioxide to avoid electrical shocks and sparks that could ignite the fire again. Carbon dioxide systems are typically used for total flooding applications in spaces that are not habitable, such as server rooms or data centers.
During an audit of a reciprocal disaster recovery agreement between two companies, the IS auditor would be MOST concerned with the:
allocation of resources during an emergency.
frequency of system testing.
differences in IS policies and procedures.
maintenance of hardware and software compatibility.
During an audit of a reciprocal disaster recovery agreement between two companies, the IS auditor would be most concerned with the allocation of resources during an emergency. A reciprocal disaster recovery agreement is an arrangement by which one organization agrees to use another’s resources in the event of a business continuity event or incident. The IS auditor would need to ensure that both parties have clearly defined their roles and responsibilities, their resource requirements, their priority levels, their communication channels, and their escalation procedures in case of a disaster. The IS auditor would also need to verify that both parties have tested their agreement and have updated it regularly to reflect any changes in their business environments. The frequency of system testing is not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because system testing can be performed periodically or on demand, while resource allocation is a dynamic and complex process that requires careful planning and coordination. The differences in IS policies and procedures are not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because both parties can agree on common standards and protocols for their disaster recovery operations, or they can adapt their policies and procedures to suit each other’s needs. The maintenance of hardware and software compatibility is not as critical as the allocation of resources during an emergency, because both parties can use compatible or interoperable systems, or they can use virtualization or cloud computing technologies to overcome any compatibility issues. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 281
Which of the following is an executive management concern that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard?
Effectiveness of the security program
Security incidents vs. industry benchmarks
Total number of hours budgeted to security
Total number of false positives
The executive management concern that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard is the effectiveness of the security program. A security metrics dashboard is a tool that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs) related to the organization’s information security objectives and activities. A security metrics dashboard can help executive management monitor and evaluate the performance and value delivery of the security program, identify strengths and weaknesses, assess compliance with policies and standards, and support decision making and improvement initiatives. Security incidents vs. industry benchmarks, total number of hours budgeted to security, and total number of false positives are not executive management concerns that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard. These are more operational or technical aspects of information security that could be measured and reported by other means, such as incident reports, budget reports, or log analysis. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 302
Which of the following is the BEST detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission?
Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management.
Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP).
Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review.
Job failure alerts are automatically generated and routed to support personnel.
The best detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission is job failure alerts that are automatically generated and routed to support personnel. Job failure alerts are notifications that indicate when a scheduled job or task fails to execute or complete successfully, such as due to errors, interruptions, or delays. Job failure alerts can help detect and correct any issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission by informing and alerting the support personnel who can investigate and resolve the problem. The other options are not as effective as job failure alerts in detecting issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission, as they do not provide timely or specific information or feedback. Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management is a reporting technique that can help measure and improve the performance and reliability of the job scheduling process, but it does not provide immediate or detailed information on individual job failures. Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a preventive control that can help ensure the timeliness and security of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not detect any issues or anomalies that may occur during the process. Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review is a logging technique that can help record and track the status and results of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not provide real-time or proactive information on job failures. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
During the implementation of an upgraded enterprise resource planning (ERP) system, which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a go-live decision?
Rollback strategy
Test cases
Post-implementation review objectives
Business case
The most important consideration for a go-live decision when implementing an upgraded enterprise resource planning (ERP) system is the business case. The business case is the document that defines and justifies the need, value, feasibility, and risks of the project. It also outlines the expected costs, benefits, outcomes, and impacts of the project. The business case provides the basis for measuring and evaluating the success of the project. Therefore, before deciding to go live with an upgraded ERP system, it is essential to review and validate the business case to ensure that it is still relevant, accurate, realistic, and achievable.
A rollback strategy, test cases, and post-implementation review objectives are not the most important considerations for a go-live decision when implementing an upgraded ERP system. These are important elements of project planning, execution, and evaluation, but they are not sufficient to determine whether the project is worth pursuing or delivering. These elements should be aligned with and derived from the business case.
An IS auditor has been asked to assess the security of a recently migrated database system that contains personal and financial data for a bank's customers. Which of the following controls is MOST important for the auditor to confirm is in place?
The default configurations have been changed.
All tables in the database are normalized.
The service port used by the database server has been changed.
The default administration account is used after changing the account password.
Changing the default configurations of a database system is a critical control for securing it from unauthorized access or exploitation. Default configurations often include weak passwords, unnecessary services, open ports, or known vulnerabilities that can be easily exploited by attackers. The other options are not as important as changing the default configurations, as they do not address the root cause of the security risks. Normalizing tables in the database is a design technique for improving data quality and performance, but it does not affect security. Changing the service port used by the database server is a form of security by obscurity, which can be easily bypassed by port scanning tools. Using the default administration account after changing the account password is still risky, as the account name may be known or guessed by attackers. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
Management is concerned about sensitive information being intentionally or unintentionally emailed as attachments outside the organization by employees. What is the MOST important task before implementing any associated email controls?
Require all employees to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs).
Develop an acceptable use policy for end-user computing (EUC).
Develop an information classification scheme.
Provide notification to employees about possible email monitoring.
The most important task before implementing any associated email controls to prevent sensitive information from being emailed outside the organization by employees is to develop an information classification scheme. An information classification scheme is a framework that defines the categories and levels of sensitivity for different types of information, such as public, internal, confidential, or secret. An information classification scheme can help implement email controls by providing criteria and guidelines for identifying, labeling, handling, and protecting sensitive information in email attachments. The other options are not as important as developing an information classification scheme, as they do not address the root cause of the problem or provide the same benefits. Requiring all employees to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) is a legal control that can help deter or penalize employees from disclosing sensitive information, but it does not prevent them from emailing it outside the organization. Developing an acceptable use policy for end-user computing (EUC) is a governance control that can help define and communicate the rules and expectations for using IT resources, such as email, but it does not prevent employees from emailing sensitive information outside the organization. Providing notification to employees about possible email monitoring is a transparency control that can help inform and warn employees about the potential consequences of emailing sensitive information outside the organization, but it does not prevent them from doing so. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2
An IS auditor is following up on prior period items and finds management did not address an audit finding. Which of the following should be the IS auditor's NEXT course of action?
Note the exception in a new report as the item was not addressed by management.
Recommend alternative solutions to address the repeat finding.
Conduct a risk assessment of the repeat finding.
Interview management to determine why the finding was not addressed.
If an IS auditor finds that management did not address a prior period audit finding, the next course of action should be to interview management to determine why the finding was not addressed, as this would help to understand the root cause, the impact, and the risk level of the issue. Noting the exception in a new report, recommending alternative solutions, or conducting a risk assessment are possible subsequent steps, but they should not precede interviewing management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.6
When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor's BEST recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and:
the organization's web server.
the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
the organization's network.
the Internet
The best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet. An IDS is a device or software that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. By placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet, the IS auditor can enhance the security of the network perimeter and detect any attack attempts that the firewall was unable to recognize.
The other options are not as effective as placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet:
Which of the following would BEST help lo support an auditor’s conclusion about the effectiveness of an implemented data classification program?
Purchase of information management tools
Business use cases and scenarios
Access rights provisioned according to scheme
Detailed data classification scheme
Access rights provisioned according to scheme would best help to support an auditor’s conclusion about the effectiveness of an implemented data classification program. This would indicate that the data classification program has been properly implemented and enforced, and that the data is protected according to its sensitivity and value. The other options are not sufficient to demonstrate the effectiveness of a data classification program, as they do not show how the data is actually accessed and used by authorized users. References:
During an IT governance audit, an IS auditor notes that IT policies and procedures are not regularly reviewed and updated. The GREATEST concern to the IS auditor is that policies and procedures might not:
reflect current practices.
include new systems and corresponding process changes.
incorporate changes to relevant laws.
be subject to adequate quality assurance (QA).
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated is that policies and procedures might not reflect current practices. Policies are documents that define the goals, objectives, and guidelines for an organization’s information systems and resources. Procedures are documents that describe the steps, tasks, or activities for implementing or executing policies. Policies and procedures should be regularly reviewed and updated to ensure that they are relevant, accurate, consistent, and effective for the organization’s information systems and resources. Policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated might not reflect current practices, as they might be outdated, obsolete, or incompatible with the current state or needs of the organization’s information systems and resources. This can cause confusion, inconsistency, inefficiency, or noncompliance among users or stakeholders who rely on policies and procedures for guidance or direction. Policies and procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated, but it is not the greatest one. Policies and procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes, as they might be unaware of or unresponsive to the introduction or modification of information systems or resources within the organization. This can cause gaps, overlaps, or conflicts among policies and procedures that affect different information systems or resources.
Which of the following are BEST suited for continuous auditing?
Low-value transactions
Real-lime transactions
Irregular transactions
Manual transactions
Continuous auditing is a method of performing audit-related activities on a real-time or near real-time basis. Continuous auditing is best suited for real-time transactions, such as online banking, e-commerce, or electronic funds transfer, that require immediate verification and assurance. Low-value transactions are not necessarily suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not pose significant risks or require frequent monitoring. Irregular transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not occur frequently or consistently enough to justify the use of continuous auditing techniques. Manual transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not be captured or processed by automated systems that enable continuous auditing. References:
IT disaster recovery time objectives (RTOs) should be based on the:
maximum tolerable loss of data.
nature of the outage
maximum tolerable downtime (MTD).
business-defined criticality of the systems.
IT disaster recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time that an IT system can be unavailable after a disaster before it causes unacceptable consequences for the business. IT RTOs should be based on the business-defined criticality of the systems, which reflects how important they are for supporting the business processes and functions. The maximum tolerable loss of data, the nature of the outage, and the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) are also factors that affect the IT RTOs, but they are not the primary basis for determining them.
Which of the following BEST demonstrates that IT strategy Is aligned with organizational goals and objectives?
IT strategies are communicated to all Business stakeholders
Organizational strategies are communicated to the chief information officer (CIO).
Business stakeholders are Involved In approving the IT strategy.
The chief information officer (CIO) is involved In approving the organizational strategies
Business stakeholders being involved in approving the IT strategy best demonstrates that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives. IT strategy is a plan that defines how IT resources and capabilities will support and enable the achievement of business goals and objectives. Business stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the organization’s activities and outcomes. By involving business stakeholders in approving the IT strategy, the organization can ensure that the IT strategy reflects and supports the business needs, expectations, and priorities. The other options do not necessarily indicate that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives, as they do not involve the participation or feedback of business stakeholders. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 97
An IS audit learn is evaluating the documentation related to the most recent application user-access review performed by IT and business management It is determined that the user list was not system-generated. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?
Availability of the user list reviewed
Confidentiality of the user list reviewed
Source of the user list reviewed
Completeness of the user list reviewed
An employee loses a mobile device resulting in loss of sensitive corporate data. Which o( the following would have BEST prevented data leakage?
Data encryption on the mobile device
Complex password policy for mobile devices
The triggering of remote data wipe capabilities
Awareness training for mobile device users
The best way to prevent data leakage from a lost mobile device is data encryption on the mobile device. Data encryption is a technique that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Data encryption protects data from unauthorized access or disclosure in case of loss or theft of a mobile device. Complex password policy for mobile devices, triggering of remote data wipe capabilities, and awareness training for mobile device users are useful measures to enhance data security on mobile devices, but they do not prevent data leakage as effectively as data encryption. A complex password policy can be bypassed by brute force attacks or password cracking tools. Remote data wipe capabilities depend on network connectivity and device power availability. Awareness training for mobile device users can reduce human errors or negligence, but it cannot guarantee compliance or behavior change. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience
Which of the following controls BEST ensures appropriate segregation of dudes within an accounts payable department?
Ensuring that audit trails exist for transactions
Restricting access to update programs to accounts payable staff only
Including the creator's user ID as a field in every transaction record created
Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles
Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles is the best control for ensuring appropriate segregation of duties within an accounts payable department. An IS auditor should verify that the access rights and permissions of the accounts payable staff are based on their roles and responsibilities, and that they are not able to perform incompatible or conflicting functions such as creating, approving, or paying invoices. This will help to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of authority within the accounts payable process. The other options are less effective controls for ensuring segregation of duties, as they may involve audit trails, access restrictions, or user identification. References:
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with storing customer data on a web server?
Data availability
Data confidentiality
Data integrity
Data redundancy
The greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server is data confidentiality. Data confidentiality is the property that ensures that data are accessible only to authorized entities or individuals, and protected from unauthorized disclosure or exposure. Storing customer data on a web server poses a high risk to data confidentiality, as web servers are exposed to the internet and may be vulnerable to various types of attacks or breaches that can compromise the security and privacy of customer data, such as hacking, phishing, malware, denial of service (DoS), etc. Customer data may contain sensitive or personal information that can cause harm or damage to customers or the organization if disclosed or exposed, such as identity theft, fraud, reputation loss, legal liability, etc. Data availability is the property that ensures that data are accessible and usable by authorized entities or individuals when needed. Data availability is a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as web servers may experience failures or disruptions that can affect the accessibility and usability of customer data, such as hardware faults, network issues, power outages, etc. However, data availability is not the greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as it does not affect the security and privacy of customer data. Data integrity is the property that ensures that data are accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Data integrity is a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as web servers may be subject to attacks or errors that can affect the accuracy and consistency of customer data, such as injection attacks, tampering, replication issues, etc. However, data integrity is not the greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as it does not affect the security and privacy of customer data. Data redundancy is the condition of having duplicate or unnecessary data in a database or system. Data redundancy is not a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, but rather a result of poor database design or management.
During an audit of a financial application, it was determined that many terminated users' accounts were not disabled. Which of the following should be the IS auditor's NEXT step?
Perform substantive testing of terminated users' access rights.
Perform a review of terminated users' account activity
Communicate risks to the application owner.
Conclude that IT general controls ate ineffective.
The IS auditor’s next step after determining that many terminated users’ accounts were not disabled is to perform a review of terminated users’ account activity. This means that the IS auditor should check whether any of the terminated users’ accounts were accessed or used after their termination date, which could indicate unauthorized or fraudulent activity. The IS auditor should also assess the impact and risk of such activity on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and data. The other options are not as appropriate as performing a review of terminated users’ account activity, as they do not provide sufficient evidence or assurance of the extent and effect of the problem. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 240
Which of the following environments is BEST used for copying data and transformation into a compatible data warehouse format?
Testing
Replication
Staging
Development
The best environment for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format is the staging environment. The staging environment is a temporary area where data from various sources are extracted, transformed, and loaded (ETL) before being moved to the data warehouse. The staging environment allows for data cleansing, validation, integration, and standardization without affecting the source or target systems. The testing environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for verifying and validating the functionality and performance of applications or systems. The replication environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating identical copies of data or systems for backup or recovery purposes. The development environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating or modifying applications or systems. References:
The IS auditor has recommended that management test a new system before using it in production mode. The BEST approach for management in developing a test plan is to use processing parameters that are:
randomly selected by a test generator.
provided by the vendor of the application.
randomly selected by the user.
simulated by production entities and customers.
The best approach for management in developing a test plan is to use processing parameters that are simulated by production entities and customers. This is because using realistic data and scenarios can help to evaluate the functionality, performance, reliability, and security of the new system under actual operating conditions and expectations. Using processing parameters that are randomly selected by a test generator, provided by the vendor of the application, or randomly selected by the user may not be sufficient or representative of the production environment and may not reveal all the potential issues or defects of the new system. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 266.
An IS auditor finds that an organization's data loss prevention (DLP) system is configured to use vendor default settings to identify violations. The auditor's MAIN concern should be that:
violation reports may not be reviewed in a timely manner.
a significant number of false positive violations may be reported.
violations may not be categorized according to the organization's risk profile.
violation reports may not be retained according to the organization's risk profile.
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to verify when evaluating an organization's firewall?
Logs are being collected in a separate protected host
Automated alerts are being sent when a risk is detected
Insider attacks are being controlled
Access to configuration files Is restricted.
A firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help protect an organization’s network and information systems from unauthorized or malicious access, by filtering or blocking unwanted or harmful packets. The most important thing for an IS auditor to verify when evaluating an organization’s firewall is that the logs are being collected in a separate protected host. Logs are records of events or activities that occur on a system or network, such as connections, requests, responses, errors, and alerts. Logs can provide valuable information for auditing, monitoring, troubleshooting, and investigating security incidents. However, logs can also be tampered with, deleted, or corrupted by attackers or insiders who want to hide their tracks or evidence of their actions. Therefore, it is essential that logs are stored in a separate host that is isolated and secured from the network and the firewall itself, to prevent unauthorized access or modification of the logs. Automated alerts are being sent when a risk is detected is a good practice for enhancing the security and efficiency of a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as alerts may not always be accurate, timely, or actionable. Insider attacks are being controlled is a desirable outcome for a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as insider attacks may involve other factors or methods that bypass or compromise the firewall, such as social engineering, credential theft, or physical access. Access to configuration files is restricted is a critical control for ensuring the security and integrity of a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as configuration files may not reflect the actual state or performance of the firewall.
An IS auditor has been asked to audit the proposed acquisition of new computer hardware. The auditor’s PRIMARY concern Is that:
the implementation plan meets user requirements.
a full, visible audit trail will be Included.
a dear business case has been established.
the new hardware meets established security standards
The IS auditor’s primary concern when auditing the proposed acquisition of new computer hardware is that a clear business case has been established. A business case is a document that justifies the need, feasibility, and benefits of a proposed project or investment. A clear business case can help to ensure that the acquisition of new computer hardware is aligned with the organization’s goals, objectives, and requirements, and that it provides value for money and return on investment. The other options are not as important as establishing a clear business case, as they do not address the rationale or justification for acquiring new computer hardware. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 467
The PRIMARY focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that:
enterprise architecture (EA) has been complied with.
user requirements have been met.
acceptance testing has been properly executed.
user access controls have been adequately designed.
The primary focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that user requirements have been met. User requirements are specifications that define what users need or expect from a system or service, such as functionality, usability, reliability, etc. User requirements are usually gathered and documented at the beginning of a project, and used as a basis for designing, developing, testing, and implementing a system or service. A post-implementation review is an evaluation that assesses whether a system or service meets its objectives and delivers its expected benefits after it has been implemented. The primary focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that user requirements have been met, as this can indicate whether the system or service satisfies the user needs and expectations, provides value and quality to the users, and supports the user goals and tasks. Enterprise architecture (EA) has been complied with is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. EA is a framework that defines how an organization’s business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure are aligned and integrated to support its vision and strategy. EA has been complied with, as this can indicate whether the system or service fits with the organization’s current and future state, and follows the organization’s standards and principles. Acceptance testing has been properly executed is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. Acceptance testing is a process that verifies whether a system or service meets the user requirements and expectations before it is accepted by the users or stakeholders. Acceptance testing has been properly executed, as this can indicate whether the system or service has been tested and validated by the users or stakeholders, and whether any issues or defects have been identified and resolved. User access controls have been adequately designed is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. User access controls are mechanisms that ensure that only authorized users can access or use a system or service, and prevent unauthorized access or use. User access controls have been adequately designed, as this can indicate whether the system or service has appropriate security and privacy measures in place, and whether any risks or threats have been mitigated.
During an audit of a multinational bank's disposal process, an IS auditor notes several findings. Which of the following should be the auditor's GREATEST concern?
Backup media are not reviewed before disposal.
Degaussing is used instead of physical shredding.
Backup media are disposed before the end of the retention period
Hardware is not destroyed by a certified vendor.
During an audit of a multinational bank’s disposal process, an IS auditor should be most concerned about backup media being disposed before the end of the retention period. This is because backup media contain sensitive and critical data that may be required for business continuity, legal compliance, or forensic purposes. Disposing backup media prematurely may result in data loss, unavailability, or corruption, which may have severe consequences for the bank’s reputation, operations, and security. Backup media not being reviewed before disposal, degaussing being used instead of physical shredding, and hardware not being destroyed by a certified vendor are also findings that may pose some risks to the bank’s disposal process, but they are not as critical as backup media being disposed before the end of the retention period. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 302.
The GREATEST benefit of using a polo typing approach in software development is that it helps to:
minimize scope changes to the system.
decrease the time allocated for user testing and review.
conceptualize and clarify requirements.
Improve efficiency of quality assurance (QA) testing
The greatest benefit of using a prototyping approach in software development is that it helps to conceptualize and clarify requirements. A prototyping approach is a method of creating a simplified or partial version of a software product to demonstrate its features and functionality. A prototyping approach can help to elicit, validate, and refine the requirements of the software product, as well as to obtain feedback from the users and stakeholders. The other options are not the greatest benefits of using a prototyping approach, but rather possible outcomes or advantages of doing so. References:
Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance?
Ensure the third party allocates adequate resources to meet requirements.
Use analytics within the internal audit function
Conduct a capacity planning exercise
Utilize performance monitoring tools to verify service level agreements (SLAs)
The best way for an organization to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance is to utilize performance monitoring tools to verify service level agreements (SLAs). Performance monitoring tools are software or hardware devices that measure and report the performance of an application or system, such as speed, availability, reliability, etc. Performance monitoring tools can help mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, by allowing the organization to verify whether the third-party provider is meeting the SLAs, which are contracts or agreements that define the expected level and quality of service for an application or system. Performance monitoring tools can also help identify and resolve any performance issues or problems that may arise from the third-party application. Ensuring the third party allocates adequate resources to meet requirements is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and suitability of the resources. Using analytics within the internal audit function is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be timely or relevant depending on the frequency, scope, and quality of the analytics. Conducting a capacity planning exercise is a possible way to mitigate the risk associated with third-party application performance, but it is not the best one, as it may not be accurate or reliable depending on the assumptions, methods, and data used for the capacity planning.
A now regulation requires organizations to report significant security incidents to the regulator within 24 hours of identification. Which of the following is the IS auditor’s BEST recommendation to facilitate compliance with the regulation?
Establish key performance indicators (KPls) for timely identification of security incidents.
Engage an external security incident response expert for incident handling.
Enhance the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS).
Include the requirement in the incident management response plan.
The best recommendation for the IS auditor to facilitate compliance with the new regulation is to include the requirement in the incident management response plan. An incident management response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, processes, and procedures for responding to security incidents. By including the new regulation in the plan, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization is aware of the reporting obligation, has a clear workflow for notifying the regulator within 24 hours, and has the necessary documentation and evidence to support the report.
The other options are not as effective as including the requirement in the incident management response plan:
Which of the following BEST protects an organization's proprietary code during a joint-development activity involving a third party?
Statement of work (SOW)
Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
Privacy agreement
A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) is the best way to protect an organization’s proprietary code during a joint-development activity involving a third party. An NDA is a legal contract that binds the parties involved in a joint-development activity to keep confidential any information, data or materials that are shared or exchanged during the activity. An NDA specifies what constitutes confidential information, how it can be used, disclosed or protected, how long it remains confidential, what are the exceptions and remedies for breach of confidentiality, and other terms and conditions. An NDA can help to protect an organization’s proprietary code from being copied, modified, distributed or exploited by unauthorized parties without its consent or knowledge. The other options are not as effective as option B, as they do not address confidentiality issues specifically. A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, tasks, roles, responsibilities, timelines and costs of a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the quality, performance and availability standards and metrics for a service provided by one party to another party in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A privacy agreement is a document that defines how personal information collected from customers or users is collected, used, disclosed and protected by one party or both parties in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues related to proprietary code. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.2: Project Management Practices.
Upon completion of audit work, an IS auditor should:
provide a report to senior management prior to discussion with the auditee.
distribute a summary of general findings to the members of the auditing team.
provide a report to the auditee stating the initial findings.
review the working papers with the auditee.
Upon completion of audit work, an IS auditor should distribute a summary of general findings to the members of the auditing team. This is to ensure that the audit team members are aware of the audit results, have an opportunity to provide feedback, and can agree on the audit conclusions and recommendations. Providing a report to senior management prior to discussion with the auditee, providing a report to the auditee stating the initial findings, and reviewing the working papers with the auditee are not appropriate actions for an IS auditor to take upon completion of audit work, as they may compromise the audit independence, objectivity, and quality. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 221
An IS auditor concludes that an organization has a quality security policy. Which of the following is MOST important to determine next? The policy must be:
well understood by all employees.
based on industry standards.
developed by process owners.
updated frequently.
The most important thing to determine next after concluding that an organization has a quality security policy is whether the policy is well understood by all employees. A security policy is a document that defines the objectives, scope, roles, responsibilities, and rules for information security within an organization. A quality security policy is one that is clear, concise, consistent, comprehensive, and aligned with business goals and requirements. However, a quality security policy is useless if it is not well understood by all employees who are expected to comply with it. Therefore, the IS auditor should assess the level of awareness and understanding of the security policy among employees and identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. The other options are not as important as ensuring that the security policy is well understood by all employees, as they do not directly affect the implementation and effectiveness of the security policy. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 317
After the merger of two organizations, which of the following is the MOST important task for an IS auditor to perform?
Verifying that access privileges have been reviewed
investigating access rights for expiration dates
Updating the continuity plan for critical resources
Updating the security policy
The most important task for an IS auditor to perform after the merger of two organizations is to verify that access privileges have been reviewed. Access privileges are the permissions granted to users, groups, or roles to access, modify, or manage IT resources, such as systems, applications, data, or networks. After a merger, the IS auditor should ensure that the access privileges of both organizations are aligned with the new business objectives, policies, and processes, and that there are no conflicts, overlaps, or gaps in the access rights. The IS auditor should also verify that the access privileges are based on the principle of least privilege, which means that users are granted only the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks.
The other options are not as important as verifying that access privileges have been reviewed:
An IS auditor is reviewing the release management process for an in-house software development solution. In which environment Is the software version MOST likely to be the same as production?
Staging
Testing
Integration
Development
A staging environment is a replica of the production environment that is used to test and verify software before deploying it to production. A staging environment is most likely to have the same software version as production, as it mimics the real-world conditions and configurations that will be encountered in production. A testing environment is a separate environment that is used to perform various types of testing on software, such as functional testing, performance testing, security testing, etc. A testing environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may undergo frequent changes or updates based on testing results or feedback. An integration environment is a separate environment that is used to combine and test software components or modules from different developers or sources, to ensure that they work together as expected. An integration environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may involve different versions or branches of software from different sources. A development environment is a separate environment that is used by developers to create and modify software code. A development environment may not have the same software version as production, as it may contain unfinished or untested code that has not been released yet.
Which of the following BEST Indicates that an incident management process is effective?
Decreased time for incident resolution
Increased number of incidents reviewed by IT management
Decreased number of calls lo the help desk
Increased number of reported critical incidents
Decreased time for incident resolution is the best indicator that an incident management process is effective. Incident management is a process that aims to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident, which is an unplanned interruption or reduction in quality of an IT service. Decreased time for incident resolution means that the incident management process is able to identify, analyze, respond to, and resolve incidents efficiently and effectively. The other indicators do not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of the incident management process, as they may depend on other factors such as the nature, frequency, and severity of incidents. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 372
Which of the following is the BEST audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization's security policy?
Reviewing the parameter settings
Reviewing the system log
Interviewing the firewall administrator
Reviewing the actual procedures
The best audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy is reviewing the parameter settings. Parameter settings are values or options that define how a firewall operates and functions, such as rules, filters, ports, protocols, etc. By reviewing the parameter settings of a firewall, an IS auditor can verify whether they match with the organization’s security policy, which is a document that outlines the security objectives, requirements, and guidelines for an organization’s information systems and resources. Reviewing the system log is a possible audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as a system log records events or activities that occur on a firewall, such as connections, requests, responses, errors, alerts, etc., and may not indicate whether they comply with the organization’s security policy. Interviewing the firewall administrator is a possible audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as a firewall administrator may not provide accurate or reliable information about the firewall configuration, and may have conflicts of interest or ulterior motives. Reviewing the actual procedures is a possible audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as actual procedures describe how a firewall is configured and maintained, such as installation, testing, updating, etc., and may not reflect whether they comply with the organization’s security policy.
Due to limited storage capacity, an organization has decided to reduce the actual retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions. Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to ensure?
The policy includes a strong risk-based approach.
The retention period allows for review during the year-end audit.
The retention period complies with data owner responsibilities.
The total transaction amount has no impact on financial reporting
The most important factor for the organization to ensure when reducing the retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions is that the retention period complies with data owner responsibilities. Data owners are accountable for defining the retention and disposal requirements for the data under their custody, based on business, legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations. The policy should reflect the data owner’s decisions and obtain their approval. The policy should also include a risk-based approach, but this is not as important as complying with data owner responsibilities. The retention period should allow for review during the year-end audit, but this may not be necessary for low-value transactions that have minimal impact on financial reporting. The total transaction amount may have some impact on financial reporting, but this is not a direct consequence of reducing the retention period. References:
In which phase of penetration testing would host detection and domain name system (DNS) interrogation be performed?
Discovery
Attacks
Planning
Reporting
Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. Penetration testing typically consists of four phases: planning, discovery, attacks, and reporting. In the discovery phase, penetration testers gather information about the target system or network, such as host detection, domain name system (DNS) interrogation, port scanning, service identification, operating system fingerprinting, vulnerability scanning, etc. This information can help to identify potential entry points, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities that can be exploited in the subsequent attack phase. Host detection and DNS interrogation are techniques that can be used in the discovery phase to determine the active hosts and their IP addresses and hostnames on the target network. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 368.
Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of an information security management system?
To identify and eliminate the root causes of information security incidents
To enhance the impact of reports used to monitor information security incidents
To keep information security policies and procedures up-to-date
To reduce the frequency and impact of information security incidents
The main purpose of an information security management system (ISMS) is to reduce the frequency and impact of information security incidents. An ISMS is a systematic approach to managing information security risks, policies, procedures, and controls within an organization. An ISMS aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets, as well as to comply with relevant laws and regulations. The other options are not the main purpose of an ISMS, but rather some of its possible benefits or components. References:
The performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure are BEST measured using a:
risk management review
control self-assessment (CSA).
service level agreement (SLA).
balanced scorecard.
A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure. An IS auditor can use an SLA to measure how well the IT infrastructure meets the business needs and objectives, as well as to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. The other options are not directly related to measuring the performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure. References:
Which of the following activities provides an IS auditor with the MOST insight regarding potential single person dependencies that might exist within the organization?
Reviewing vacation patterns
Reviewing user activity logs
Interviewing senior IT management
Mapping IT processes to roles
Mapping IT processes to roles is an activity that provides an IS auditor with the most insight regarding potential single person dependencies that might exist within the organization. Single person dependencies occur when only one person has the knowledge, skills, or access rights to perform a critical IT function. Mapping IT processes to roles can help to identify such dependencies and assess their impact on the continuity and security of IT operations. The other activities do not provide as much insight into single person dependencies, as they do not show the relationship between IT processes and roles. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 94
Which of the following would lead an IS auditor to conclude that the evidence collected during a digital forensic investigation would not be admissible in court?
The person who collected the evidence is not qualified to represent the case.
The logs failed to identify the person handling the evidence.
The evidence was collected by the internal forensics team.
The evidence was not fully backed up using a cloud-based solution prior to the trial.
The evidence collected during a digital forensic investigation would not be admissible in court if the logs failed to identify the person handling the evidence. This would violate the chain of custody principle, which requires that the evidence be properly documented, secured, and tracked throughout the investigation process. The chain of custody ensures that the evidence is authentic, reliable, and trustworthy, and that it has not been tampered with or altered. The person who collected the evidence, whether qualified or not, is not relevant to the admissibility of the evidence, as long as they followed the proper procedures and protocols. The evidence collected by the internal forensics team can be admissible in court, as long as they are independent, objective, and competent. The evidence does not need to be fully backed up using a cloud-based solution prior to the trial, as long as it is preserved and protected from damage or loss. References: ISACA Journal Article: Digital Forensics: Chain of Custody
In an environment that automatically reports all program changes, which of the following is the MOST efficient way to detect unauthorized changes to production programs?
Reviewing the last compile date of production programs
Manually comparing code in production programs to controlled copies
Periodically running and reviewing test data against production programs
Verifying user management approval of modifications
Reviewing the last compile date of production programs is the most efficient way to detect unauthorized changes to production programs, as it can quickly identify any discrepancies between the expected and actual dates of program modification. The last compile date is a timestamp that indicates when a program was last compiled or translated from source code to executable code. Any changes to the source code would require a recompilation, which would update the last compile date. The IS auditor can compare the last compile date of production programs with the authorized change requests and reports to verify that only approved changes were implemented. The other options are not as efficient as option A, as they are more time-consuming, labor-intensive or error-prone. Manually comparing code in production programs to controlled copies is a method of verifying that the code in production matches the code in a secure repository or library, but it requires access to both versions of code and a tool or technique to compare them line by line. Periodically running and reviewing test data against production programs is a method of verifying that the programs produce the expected outputs and results, but it requires designing, executing and evaluating test cases for each program. Verifying user management approval of modifications is a method of verifying that the changes to production programs were authorized and documented, but it does not ensure that the changes were implemented correctly or accurately. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.3: Change Management Practices.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the IS auditor m an organization's information classification process?
Securing information assets in accordance with the classification assigned
Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification
Ensuring classification levels align with regulatory guidelines
Defining classification levels for information assets within the organization
Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification is the primary role of the IS auditor in an organization’s information classification process. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the information security controls are adequate and effective in safeguarding the information assets based on their classification levels. The other options are not the primary role of the IS auditor, but rather the responsibilities of the information owners, custodians, or security managers. References:
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to consider when performing the risk assessment poor to an audit engagement?
The design of controls
Industry standards and best practices
The results of the previous audit
The amount of time since the previous audit
The results of the previous audit are an important source of information for an IS auditor to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as they can provide insights into the current state and performance of the auditee, identify any issues or gaps that need to be followed up or addressed, and highlight any areas that require special attention or focus. The design of controls is an important factor to evaluate during an audit engagement, but it is not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as it does not reflect the actual implementation or effectiveness of the controls. Industry standards and best practices are useful benchmarks or guidelines for an IS auditor to compare or measure against during an audit engagement, but they are not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as they may not be applicable or relevant to the specific context or objectives of the auditee. The amount of time since the previous audit is a relevant criterion to determine the frequency or timing of an audit engagement, but it is not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as it does not indicate the level or nature of risk associated with the auditee.
Which of the following concerns is BEST addressed by securing production source libraries?
Programs are not approved before production source libraries are updated.
Production source and object libraries may not be synchronized.
Changes are applied to the wrong version of production source libraries.
Unauthorized changes can be moved into production.
Unauthorized changes can be moved into production is the best concern that is addressed by securing production source libraries. Production source libraries contain the source code of programs that are used in the production environment. Securing production source libraries means implementing access controls, change management procedures, and audit trails to prevent unauthorized or improper changes to the source code that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the production programs. The other options are less relevant concerns that may not be directly addressed by securing production source libraries, but rather by other controls such as program approval, version control, or change testing. References:
Which of the following types of firewalls provide the GREATEST degree of control against hacker intrusion?
Circuit gateway
Application level gateway
Packet filtering router
Screening router
The type of firewall that provides the greatest degree of control against hacker intrusion is an application level gateway. A firewall is a device or software that filters or blocks network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall can help protect an information system or network from unauthorized access or attack by hackers or other malicious entities. An application level gateway is a type of firewall that operates at the application layer of the network model (layer 7), which is where user applications communicate with each other over the network. An application level gateway provides the greatest degree of control against hacker intrusion, by inspecting and analyzing the content and context of each network packet at the application level, such as protocols, commands, requests, responses, etc., and allowing or denying access based on specific criteria or conditions. An application level gateway can also perform additional functions such as authentication, encryption, caching, logging, etc., to enhance the security and performance of network traffic. A circuit gateway is a type of firewall that operates at the transport layer of the network model (layer 4), which is where data are transferred between end points over the network. A circuit gateway provides a moderate degree of control against hacker intrusion by establishing a secure connection between two end points (such as client and server) and relaying network packets between them without inspecting or analyzing their content. A circuit gateway can also perform functions such as encryption, authentication, or address translation to improve the security and privacy of network traffic. A packet filtering router is a type of firewall that operates at the network layer of the network model (layer 3), which is where data are routed between different networks or subnets. A packet filtering router provides a low degree of control against hacker intrusion by examining the header of each network packet and allowing or denying access based on basic criteria such as source address, destination address, port number, protocol, etc. A packet filtering router can also perform functions such as routing, forwarding, or address translation to optimize the delivery and efficiency of network traffic. A screening router is a type of firewall that operates at the network layer of the network model (layer 3), which is where data are routed between different networks or subnets. A screening router provides a low degree of control against hacker intrusion by examining the header of each network packet and allowing or denying access based on basic criteria such as source address, destination address, port number, protocol, etc. A screening router can also perform functions such as routing, forwarding, or address translation to optimize the delivery and efficiency of network traffic.
An IS auditor is reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit. What should the auditor consider the MOST significant concern?
Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems.
There is a greater risk of system exploitation.
Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place.
Technical specifications are not documented.
The most significant concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit is that there is a greater risk of system exploitation. System exploitation is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual takes advantage of a vulnerability or weakness in a system to compromise its security or functionality. System exploitation can cause harm or damage to the system or its users, such as data loss, corruption, theft, manipulation, denial of service (DoS), etc. An ICS that uses older unsupported technology poses a high risk of system exploitation, as older technology may have known or unknown vulnerabilities or defects that have not been patched or fixed by the vendor or manufacturer, and unsupported technology may not receive any updates or support from the vendor or manufacturer in case of issues or incidents. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Attack vectors are methods or pathways that attackers use to gain access to or attack a system. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems, as attackers are developing new techniques or tools to target ICSs that are increasingly connected and complex. However, this concern may not be specific to older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level. Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. DRPs are documents that outline the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical functions or processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. DRPs are not in place, as they may affect the availability and continuity of the ICS and its functions or processes in case of a failure or incident. However, this concern may not be related to older unsupported technology, as it may apply to any ICS regardless of its technology level. Technical specifications are not documented is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Technical specifications are documents that describe the technical characteristics or requirements of a system or component, such as functionality, performance, design, etc. Technical specifications are not documented, as they may affect the understanding, maintenance, and improvement of the ICS and its components. However, this concern may not be associated with older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level.
Which of the following activities would allow an IS auditor to maintain independence while facilitating a control sell-assessment (CSA)?
Implementing the remediation plan
Partially completing the CSA
Developing the remediation plan
Developing the CSA questionnaire
Developing the CSA questionnaire is an activity that would allow an IS auditor to maintain independence while facilitating a control self-assessment (CSA). An IS auditor can design and provide a CSA questionnaire to help the business units or process owners to evaluate their own controls and identify any issues or improvement opportunities. This will enable an IS auditor to support and guide the CSA process without compromising their objectivity or independence. The other options are activities that would impair an IS auditor’s independence while facilitating a CSA, as they involve implementing, completing, or developing remediation actions for control issues. References:
During an exit interview, senior management disagrees with some of me facts presented m the draft audit report and wants them removed from the report. Which of the following would be the auditor's BEST course of action?
Revise the assessment based on senior management's objections.
Escalate the issue to audit management.
Finalize the draft audit report without changes.
Gather evidence to analyze senior management's objections
The auditor’s best course of action when senior management disagrees with some of the facts presented in the draft audit report is to gather evidence to analyze senior management’s objections. The auditor should not revise the assessment, escalate the issue, or finalize the report without changes until they have evaluated the validity and relevance of senior management’s objections and resolved any discrepancies or misunderstandings. The auditor should maintain a professional and objective attitude and seek to present a fair and accurate audit report based on sufficient and appropriate evidence. References:
Which of the following is the BEST reason for an organization to use clustering?
To decrease system response time
To Improve the recovery lime objective (RTO)
To facilitate faster backups
To improve system resiliency
Clustering is a technique that groups multiple servers or nodes together to act as one system, providing high availability, scalability, and load balancing for applications or services. Clustering can improve system resiliency, which is the ability of a system to withstand or recover from failures or disruptions without compromising its functionality or performance. Clustering can achieve this by providing redundancy and fault tolerance for critical components or processes, enabling automatic failover and recovery in case of node failures, distributing workload among multiple nodes to avoid overloading or bottlenecks, and allowing dynamic addition or removal of nodes to meet changing demand or capacity needs. Clustering may also decrease system response time by improving performance and efficiency through load balancing and parallel processing, but this is not its primary purpose. Clustering may facilitate faster backups by enabling concurrent backup operations across multiple nodes, but this is not its main benefit. Clustering may improve the recovery time objective (RTO), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, by reducing the downtime and data loss caused by failures, but this is not the best reason for using clustering, as there may be other factors that affect the RTO, such as backup frequency, recovery procedures, and testing methods.
A new system is being developed by a vendor for a consumer service organization. The vendor will provide its proprietary software once system development is completed Which of the following is the MOST important requirement to include In the vendor contract to ensure continuity?
Continuous 24/7 support must be available.
The vendor must have a documented disaster recovery plan (DRP) in place.
Source code for the software must be placed in escrow.
The vendor must train the organization's staff to manage the new software
Source code for the software must be placed in escrow is the most important requirement to include in the vendor contract to ensure continuity. Source code is the original code of a software program that can be modified or enhanced by programmers. Placing source code in escrow means depositing it with a trusted third party who can release it to the customer under certain conditions, such as vendor bankruptcy, breach of contract, or failure to provide support. This can help to ensure continuity of the software product and its maintenance in case of vendor unavailability or dispute. The other options are less important requirements to include in the vendor contract, as they may involve support availability, disaster recovery plan, or staff training. References:
Which of the following must be in place before an IS auditor initiates audit follow-up activities?
Available resources for the activities included in the action plan
A management response in the final report with a committed implementation date
A heal map with the gaps and recommendations displayed in terms of risk
Supporting evidence for the gaps and recommendations mentioned in the audit report
This must be in place before an IS auditor initiates audit follow-up activities, because it indicates that management has acknowledged and accepted the audit findings and recommendations, and has agreed to take corrective actions within a specified timeframe. Audit follow-up activities are the processes and procedures that the IS auditor performs to verify that management has implemented the agreed-upon actions effectively and in a timely manner, and that the audit findings have been resolved or mitigated.
The other options are not required to be in place before an IS auditor initiates audit follow-up activities:
In data warehouse (DW) management, what is the BEST way to prevent data quality issues caused by changes from a source system?
Configure data quality alerts to check variances between the data warehouse and the source system
Require approval for changes in the extract/Transfer/load (ETL) process between the two systems
Include the data warehouse in the impact analysis (or any changes m the source system
Restrict access to changes in the extract/transfer/load (ETL) process between the two systems
Including the data warehouse in the impact analysis for any changes in the source system is the best way to prevent data quality issues caused by changes from a source system. A data warehouse is a centralized repository of integrated data from one or more source systems. An impact analysis is a technique of assessing the potential effects and consequences of a change on the existing system or environment. Including the data warehouse in the impact analysis can help to identify and mitigate any data quality issues that may arise from changes in the source system, such as data inconsistency, incompleteness, or inaccuracy. The other options are less effective ways to prevent data quality issues, as they may involve data quality alerts, approval for changes, or access restrictions. References:
Capacity management enables organizations to:
forecast technology trends
establish the capacity of network communication links
identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded
determine business transaction volumes.
Capacity management is a process that ensures that the IT resources of an organization are sufficient to meet the current and future demands of the business. Capacity management enables organizations to identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded, by monitoring and analyzing the performance, utilization, and availability of the IT components, such as servers, networks, storage, applications, etc., and identifying any bottlenecks, gaps, or risks that may affect the service level agreements (SLAs) or quality of service (QoS). Capacity management also helps organizations to plan and optimize the use of IT resources, by forecasting the future demand and growth of the business, and aligning the IT capacity with the business needs and objectives. Forecasting technology trends is a possible outcome of capacity management, but it is not its main purpose. Establishing the capacity of network communication links is a part of capacity management, but it is not its main goal. Determining business transaction volumes is an input for capacity management, but it is not its main objective.
Which of the following security risks can be reduced by a property configured network firewall?
SQL injection attacks
Denial of service (DoS) attacks
Phishing attacks
Insider attacks
A network firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A network firewall can help reduce the risk of denial of service (DoS) attacks, which are attempts to overwhelm a system or network with excessive requests or traffic, by filtering or blocking unwanted or malicious packets. A SQL injection attack is a type of code injection attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database query, by inserting malicious SQL statements into the input fields. A phishing attack is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware, by sending fraudulent emails or messages that impersonate legitimate entities. An insider attack is a type of malicious activity that originates from within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners, who abuse their access privileges or credentials to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information systems or data. A network firewall cannot prevent these types of attacks, as they rely on exploiting human or application weaknesses rather than network vulnerabilities.
An IS auditor performs a follow-up audit and learns the approach taken by the auditee to fix the findings differs from the agreed-upon approach confirmed during the last audit. Which of the following should be the auditor's NEXT course of action?
Evaluate the appropriateness of the remedial action taken.
Conduct a risk analysis incorporating the change.
Report results of the follow-up to the audit committee.
Inform senior management of the change in approach.
The auditor’s next course of action should be to evaluate the appropriateness of the remedial action taken by the auditee. The auditor should assess whether the alternative approach taken by the auditee is effective, efficient, and aligned with the audit objectives and recommendations. The auditor should also consider the impact of the change on the audit scope, criteria, and risk assessment. Conducting a risk analysis incorporating the change, reporting results of the follow-up to the audit committee, and informing senior management of the change in approach are possible subsequent actions that the auditor may take after evaluating the appropriateness of the remedial action taken. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 1 - Information Systems Auditing Process
Which of the following provides IS audit professionals with the BEST source of direction for performing audit functions?
Audit charter
IT steering committee
Information security policy
Audit best practices
The audit charter is the document that defines the purpose, authority and responsibility of the IS audit function. It provides IS audit professionals with the best source of direction for performing audit functions, as it establishes the scope, objectives, reporting lines, independence, accountability and resources of the IS audit function. The IT steering committee is a governance body that oversees the strategic alignment, prioritization and direction of IT initiatives, but it does not provide specific guidance for IS audit functions. The information security policy is a document that defines the rules and principles for protecting information assets in the organization, but it does not cover all aspects of IS audit functions. Audit best practices are general guidelines and recommendations for conducting effective and efficient audits, but they are not binding or authoritative sources of direction for IS audit functions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.1: Audit Charter.
Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk associated with data migration from a legacy human resources (HR) system to a cloud-based system?
Data from the source and target system may be intercepted.
Data from the source and target system may have different data formats.
Records past their retention period may not be migrated to the new system.
System performance may be impacted by the migration
The greatest security risk associated with data migration from a legacy human resources (HR) system to a cloud-based system is data from the source and target system may be intercepted. Data interception is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual captures or accesses data that are being transmitted or stored on an information system or network. Data interception can compromise the confidentiality and integrity of data, and cause harm or damage to data owners or users. Data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system involves transferring data from one system or location to another system or location over a network connection. This poses a high risk of data interception, as data may be exposed or vulnerable during transit or storage on unsecured or untrusted networks or systems. Data from the source and target system may have different data formats is a possible challenge associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. Data formats are specifications that define how data are structured or encoded on an information system or network. Data formats may vary depending on different systems or platforms. Data migration may require converting data from one format to another format to ensure compatibility and interoperability between systems. Records past their retention period may not be migrated to the new system is a possible outcome associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. Retention period is a duration that defines how long data should be kept or stored on an information system or network before being deleted or destroyed. Retention period may depend on various factors such as legal requirements, business needs, storage capacity, etc. Data migration may involve deleting or destroying data that are past their retention period to reduce the volume or complexity of data to be transferred or to comply with regulations or policies. System performance may be impacted by the migration is a possible impact associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. System performance is a measure of how well an information system or network functions or operates, such as speed, reliability, availability, etc. System performance may be affected by data migration, as data migration may consume significant resources or bandwidth, cause interruptions or delays, or introduce errors or inconsistencies.
An IS auditor Is reviewing a recent security incident and is seeking information about me approval of a recent modification to a database system's security settings Where would the auditor MOST likely find this information?
System event correlation report
Database log
Change log
Security incident and event management (SIEM) report
A change log is a record of all changes made to a system or application, including the date, time, description, and approval of each change. A change log can help an IS auditor to trace the source and authorization of a modification to a system’s security settings. A system event correlation report is a tool that analyzes data from multiple sources to identify patterns and anomalies that indicate potential security incidents. A database log is a record of all transactions and activities performed on a database, such as queries, updates, and backups. A security incident and event management (SIEM) report is a tool that collects, analyzes, and reports on data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents.
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when an international organization intends to roll out a global data privacy policy?
Requirements may become unreasonable.
The policy may conflict with existing application requirements.
Local regulations may contradict the policy.
Local management may not accept the policy.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when an international organization intends to roll out a global data privacy policy is that local regulations may contradict the policy. Data privacy regulations vary across different countries and regions, and they may impose different or conflicting requirements on how personal data can be collected, processed, stored, transferred, and disclosed. The organization should ensure that its global data privacy policy complies with the applicable local regulations in each jurisdiction where it operates, or risk facing legal sanctions or reputational damage. Requirements may become unreasonable, but this is not a major concern for an IS auditor, as it is a business decision that should be based on a cost-benefit analysis. The policy may conflict with existing application requirements, but this is not a serious concern for an IS auditor, as it can be resolved by modifying or updating the applications to align with the policy. Local management may not accept the policy, but this is not a critical concern for an IS auditor, as it can be mitigated by providing adequate training and awareness on the policy and its benefits. References:
Which of the following is a social engineering attack method?
An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone.
A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access.
An intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties.
An unauthorized person attempts to gain access to secure premises by following an authorized person through a secure door.
Social engineering is a technique that exploits human weaknesses, such as trust, curiosity, or greed, to obtain information or access from a target. An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone is an example of a social engineering attack method, as it involves manipulating the employee into divulging sensitive information that can be used to compromise the network or system. A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access, an intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties, and an unauthorized person attempts to gain access to secure premises by following an authorized person through a secure door are not examples of social engineering attack methods, as they do not involve human interaction or deception. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 361.
An internal audit department recently established a quality assurance (QA) program. Which of the following activities Is MOST important to include as part of the QA program requirements?
Long-term Internal audit resource planning
Ongoing monitoring of the audit activities
Analysis of user satisfaction reports from business lines
Feedback from Internal audit staff
Ongoing monitoring of the audit activities is the most important activity to include as part of the quality assurance (QA) program requirements for an internal audit department. An IS auditor should perform regular reviews and evaluations of the audit processes, methods, standards, and outcomes to ensure that they comply with the QA program objectives and criteria. This will help to maintain and improve the quality and consistency of the audit services and deliverables. The other options are less important activities to include as part of the QA program requirements, as they may involve long-term resource planning, user satisfaction reports, or feedback from internal audit staff. References:
Which of the following would be of MOST concern for an IS auditor evaluating the design of an organization's incident management processes?
Service management standards are not followed.
Expected time to resolve incidents is not specified.
Metrics are not reported to senior management.
Prioritization criteria are not defined.
he design of an incident management process should include prioritization criteria to ensure that incidents are handled according to their impact and urgency. Without prioritization criteria, the organization may not be able to allocate resources effectively and respond to incidents in a timely manner. Expected time to resolve incidents, service management standards, and metrics reporting are important aspects of incident management, but they are not as critical as prioritization criteria for the design of the process. References: ISACA Journal Article: Incident Management: A Practical Approach
What is the MAIN reason to use incremental backups?
To improve key availability metrics
To reduce costs associates with backups
To increase backup resiliency and redundancy
To minimize the backup time and resources
Incremental backups are backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or incremental backup. The main reason to use incremental backups is to minimize the backup time and resources, as they require less storage space and network bandwidth than full backups. Incremental backups can also improve key availability metrics, such as recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO), but that is not their primary purpose. Reducing costs associated with backups and increasing backup resiliency and redundancy are possible benefits of incremental backups, but they depend on other factors, such as the backup frequency, retention policy, and media type. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to do during an exit meeting with an auditee?
Ensure that the facts presented in the report are correct
Communicate the recommendations lo senior management
Specify implementation dates for the recommendations.
Request input in determining corrective action.
Ensuring that the facts presented in the report are correct is the most important thing for an IS auditor to do during an exit meeting with an auditee. An IS auditor should confirm that the audit findings and observations are accurate, complete, and supported by sufficient evidence, as well as that the auditee understands and agrees with them. This will help to avoid any misunderstandings or disputes later on, as well as to enhance the credibility and quality of the audit report. The other options are less important things for an IS auditor to do during an exit meeting, as they may involve communicating the recommendations to senior management, specifying implementation dates for the recommendations, or requesting input in determining corrective action. References:
Which of the following would provide the MOST important input during the planning phase for an audit on the implementation of a bring your own device (BYOD) program?
Findings from prior audits
Results of a risk assessment
An inventory of personal devices to be connected to the corporate network
Policies including BYOD acceptable user statements
The most important input during the planning phase for an audit on the implementation of a bring your own device (BYOD) program is policies including BYOD acceptable user statements. Policies are documents that define the organization’s objectives, requirements, expectations, and responsibilities regarding a specific topic or area. BYOD policies should include acceptable user statements that specify what types of personal devices are allowed to connect to the corporate network, what security measures must be implemented on those devices, what data can be accessed or stored on those devices, what actions must be taken in case of device loss or theft, and what consequences will apply for non-compliance. Policies including BYOD acceptable user statements can provide an IS auditor with a clear understanding of the scope, criteria, and objectives of the BYOD program audit. Findings from prior audits, results of a risk assessment, and an inventory of personal devices to be connected to the corporate network are also useful inputs for planning a BYOD program audit, but they are not as important as policies including BYOD acceptable user statements. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 381.
Due to a recent business divestiture, an organization has limited IT resources to deliver critical projects Reviewing the IT staffing plan against which of the following would BEST guide IT management when estimating resource requirements for future projects?
Human resources (HR) sourcing strategy
Records of actual time spent on projects
Peer organization staffing benchmarks
Budgeted forecast for the next financial year
The best source of information for IT management to estimate resource requirements for future projects is the records of actual time spent on projects. This data can provide a realistic and reliable basis for forecasting future resource needs based on historical trends and patterns. The records of actual time spent on projects can also help IT management to identify any gaps or inefficiencies in resource allocation and utilization. The human resources (HR) sourcing strategy is not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as it may not reflect the actual demand and availability of IT resources. The peer organization staffing benchmarks are not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as they may not account for the specific characteristics and needs of each organization. The budgeted forecast for the next financial year is not a good source of information for estimating resource requirements for future projects, as it may not be based on accurate or realistic assumptions. References:
Following a security breach in which a hacker exploited a well-known vulnerability in the domain controller, an IS audit has been asked to conduct a control assessment. the auditor's BEST course of action would be to determine if:
the patches were updated.
The logs were monitored.
The network traffic was being monitored.
The domain controller was classified for high availability.
The auditor’s best course of action after a security breach in which a hacker exploited a well-known vulnerability in the domain controller is to determine if the logs were monitored. Log monitoring is an essential control for detecting and responding to security incidents, especially when known vulnerabilities exist in the system. The auditor should assess if the logs were properly configured, collected, reviewed, analyzed, and acted upon by the responsible parties. Updating patches, monitoring network traffic, and classifying domain controllers for high availability are also important controls, but they are not directly related to the detection and response of the security breach. References:
The due date of an audit project is approaching, and the audit manager has determined that only 60% of the audit has been completed. Which of the following should the audit manager do FIRST?
Determine where delays have occurred
Assign additional resources to supplement the audit
Escalate to the audit committee
Extend the audit deadline
The first thing that the audit manager should do when faced with a situation where only 60% of the audit has been completed and the due date is approaching is to determine where delays have occurred. This can help the audit manager to identify and analyze the root causes of the delays, such as unexpected issues, scope changes, resource constraints, communication problems, etc., and evaluate their impact on the audit objectives, scope, quality, and timeline. Based on this analysis, the audit manager can then decide on the best course of action to address the delays and complete the audit successfully. Assigning additional resources to supplement the audit is a possible option for resolving delays in an audit project, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and suitability of the additional resources. Escalating to the audit committee is a possible option for communicating delays in an audit project and seeking guidance or support from senior management, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be necessary or appropriate depending on the severity and urgency of the delays. Extending the audit deadline is a possible option for accommodating delays in an audit project and ensuring sufficient time for completing the audit tasks and activities, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be possible or desirable depending on the contractual obligations, stakeholder expectations, and regulatory requirements.
In an online application, which of the following would provide the MOST information about the transaction audit trail?
System/process flowchart
File layouts
Data architecture
Source code documentation
In an online application, data architecture provides the most information about the transaction audit trail, as it describes how data are created, stored, processed, accessed and exchanged among different components of the application. Data architecture includes data models, schemas, dictionaries, metadata, standards and policies that define the structure, quality, integrity, security and governance of data. Data architecture can help the IS auditor to trace the origin, flow, transformation and destination of data in an online transaction, and to identify the key data elements, attributes and relationships that are relevant for audit purposes. A system/process flowchart is a graphical representation of the sequence of steps or activities that are performed by a system or process. A system/process flowchart can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. A system/process flowchart shows the inputs, outputs, decisions and actions of a system or process, but it does not show the data elements, attributes and relationships that are involved in each step or activity. A file layout is a specification of the format and structure of a data file. A file layout can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. A file layout shows the fields, types, lengths and positions of data in a file, but it does not show the origin, flow, transformation and destination of data in an online transaction. Source code documentation is a description of the logic, functionality and purpose of a program or module written in a programming language. Source code documentation can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. Source code documentation shows the instructions, variables and parameters that are used to perform calculations and operations on data, but it does not show the data elements, attributes and relationships that are involved in each instruction or operation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2: Data Administration Practices.
Which of the following findings should be of GREATEST concern for an IS auditor when auditing the effectiveness of a phishing simu-lation test administered for staff members?
Staff members who failed the test did not receive follow-up education
Test results were not communicated to staff members.
Staff members were not notified about the test beforehand.
Security awareness training was not provided prior to the test.
The IS auditor should be most concerned about the lack of follow-up education for staff members who failed the phishing simulation test. Phishing simulation tests are designed to assess the level of awareness and susceptibility of staff members to phishing attacks, and to provide feedback and training to improve their security behavior. If staff members who failed the test do not receive follow-up education, they will not learn from their mistakes and may continue to fall victim to real phishing attacks, which could compromise the security of the organization.
The other options are less concerning for the IS auditor:
Which of the following metrics would BEST measure the agility of an organization's IT function?
Average number of learning and training hours per IT staff member
Frequency of security assessments against the most recent standards and guidelines
Average time to turn strategic IT objectives into an agreed upon and approved initiative
Percentage of staff with sufficient IT-related skills for the competency required of their roles
The metric that would best measure the agility of an organization’s IT function is average time to turn strategic IT objectives into an agreed upon and approved initiative. IT agility is the ability of an IT function to respond quickly and effectively to changing business needs and opportunities. By measuring how fast an IT function can translate strategic IT objectives into actionable initiatives, such as projects or programs, an organization can assess how well its IT function can align with and support its business strategy. Average number of learning and training hours per IT staff member, frequency of security assessments against the most recent standards and guidelines, and percentage of staff with sufficient IT-related skills for the competency required of their roles are metrics that may indicate other aspects of IT performance, such as capability development, security maturity, and skills gap analysis, but they do not directly measure IT agility. References: ISACA Journal Article: Measuring IT Agility
Which of the following would be an appropriate rote of internal audit in helping to establish an organization's privacy program?
Analyzing risks posed by new regulations
Designing controls to protect personal data
Defining roles within the organization related to privacy
Developing procedures to monitor the use of personal data
Analyzing risks posed by new regulations is an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program. An internal auditor can provide assurance and advisory services on the compliance and effectiveness of the privacy program, as well as identify and assess the potential risks and impacts of new or changing privacy regulations. The other options are not appropriate roles of internal audit, but rather the responsibilities of the management, the information security officer, or the privacy officer. References:
Which of the following occurs during the issues management process for a system development project?
Contingency planning
Configuration management
Help desk management
Impact assessment
Impact assessment is an activity that occurs during the issues management process for a system development project. Issues management is a process of identifying, analyzing, resolving, and monitoring issues that may affect the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. Impact assessment is a technique of evaluating the severity and priority of an issue, as well as its implications for the project objectives and deliverables. The other options are not activities that occur during the issues management process, but rather related to other processes such as contingency planning, configuration management, or help desk management. References:
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate and effective fire suppression method for an unstaffed computer room?
Water sprinkler
Fire extinguishers
Carbon dioxide (CO2)
Dry pipe
The most appropriate and effective fire suppression method for an un-staffed computer room is carbon dioxide (CO2). Carbon dioxide is a gaseous clean agent that extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen and reducing the combustion process. Carbon dioxide is suitable for un-staffed computer rooms because it does not leave any residue, damage, or corrosion on the electronic equipment, and it does not require water or other chemicals that could harm the environment or human health. However, carbon dioxide can pose a risk of asphyxiation to any person who may enter the computer room during or after the discharge, so proper safety precautions and warning signs should be in place.
The other options are not as appropriate or effective as carbon dioxide for an un-staffed computer room:
The waterfall life cycle model of software development is BEST suited for which of the following situations?
The protect requirements are wall understood.
The project is subject to time pressures.
The project intends to apply an object-oriented design approach.
The project will involve the use of new technology.
The waterfall life cycle model of software development is best suited for situations where the project requirements are well understood. The waterfall life cycle model is a sequential and linear approach to software development that consists of several phases, such as planning, analysis, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance. Each phase depends on the completion and approval of the previous phase before proceeding to the next phase. The waterfall life cycle model is best suited for situations where the project requirements are well understood, as it assumes that the requirements are clear, stable, and fixed at the beginning of the project, and do not change significantly throughout the project. The project is subject to time pressures is not a situation where the waterfall life cycle model of software development is best suited, as it may not be flexible or agile enough to accommodate changes or adjustments in the project schedule or timeline. The waterfall life cycle model may involve long delays or dependencies between phases, and may not allow for early feedback or delivery of software products. The project intends to apply an object-oriented design approach is not a situation where the waterfall life cycle model of software development is best suited, as it may not be compatible or effective with the object-oriented design approach. The object-oriented design approach is a technique that models software as a collection of interacting objects that have attributes and behaviors. The object-oriented design approach may require iterative and incremental development methods that allow for dynamic and adaptive changes in software design and functionality. The project will involve the use of new technology is not a situation where the waterfall life cycle model of software development is best suited, as it may not be able to cope with the uncertainty or complexity of new technology. The waterfall life cycle model may not allow for sufficient exploration or experimentation with new technology, and may not be able to handle changes or issues that arise from new technology.
While auditing a small organization's data classification processes and procedures, an IS auditor noticed that data is often classified at the incorrect level. What is the MOST effective way for the organization to improve this situation?
Use automatic document classification based on content.
Have IT security staff conduct targeted training for data owners.
Publish the data classification policy on the corporate web portal.
Conduct awareness presentations and seminars for information classification policies.
This is the most effective way for the organization to improve its data classification processes and procedures, because data owners are the ones who are responsible for assigning the appropriate level of classification to the data they create, collect, or manage. Data owners should be aware of the data classification policy, the criteria for each level of classification, and the implications of misclassification. IT security staff can provide tailored training for data owners based on their roles, functions, and types of data they handle.
The other options are not as effective as having IT security staff conduct targeted training for data owners:
Which of the following is an IS auditor's BEST recommendation for mitigating risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of sensitive information by employees?
Intrusion prevention system (IPS) and firewalls
Data loss prevention (DLP) technologies
Cryptographic protection
Email phishing simulation exercises
DLP technologies are designed to prevent the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as PII, intellectual property, or financial information, by employees or other insiders. DLP technologies can monitor, detect, and block data in motion, data at rest, and data in use across various channels, such as email, web, cloud, or removable devices. DLP technologies can also help enforce data security policies and compliance requirements.
References
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 253
The role of disclosures in risk assessment and mitigation
Mitigate Risk Strategy for Information Management
During audit planning, the IS audit manager is considering whether to budget for audits of entities regarded by the business as having low risk. Which of the following is the BEST course of action in this situation?
Outsource low-risk audits to external audit service providers.
Conduct limited-scope audits of low-risk business entities.
Validate the low-risk entity ratings and apply professional judgment.
Challenge the risk rating and include the low-risk entities in the plan.
Audit planning is the process of developing an overall strategy and approach for conducting an audit. Audit planning involves identifying the objectives, scope, criteria, and methodology of the audit, as well as the resources, schedule, and reporting requirements. Audit planning also involves performing a risk assessment to identify and prioritize the areas of highest risk and significance for the audit1.
Risk assessment is a systematic process of evaluating the potential risks that may be involved in a projected activity or undertaking. Risk assessment involves identifying the sources and causes of risk, analyzing the likelihood and impact of risk, and determining the level of risk and the appropriate response2.
During audit planning, the IS audit manager is considering whether to budget for audits of entities regarded by the business as having low risk. The best course of action in this situation is C. Validate the low-risk entity ratings and apply professional judgment.
This is because validating the low-risk entity ratings can help to ensure that the risk assessment is accurate, reliable, and consistent with the business objectives and expectations. Validating the low-risk entity ratings can also help to identify any changes or developments that may affect the risk profile of the entities since the last assessment. Applying professional judgment can help to determine whether the low-risk entities should be included or excluded from the audit plan, based on factors such as materiality, relevance, significance, and assurance needs3.
An IS auditor is evaluating the access controls for a shared customer relationship management (CRM) system. Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern?
Single sign-on is not enabled
Audit logging is not enabled
Security baseline is not consistently applied
Complex passwords are not required
The greatest concern for an IS auditor evaluating the access controls for a shared customer relationship management (CRM) system is that audit logging is not enabled. Audit logging is a process that records and tracks the activities and events that occur on a system, such as who accessed what data, when, how, and why. Audit logging can help monitor and verify the compliance and effectiveness of the access controls, as well as detect and investigate any unauthorized or suspicious access or actions. Audit logging can also provide evidence and accountability for the security and integrity of the system and the data.
Without audit logging, the IS auditor would not be able to audit the access controls for the shared CRM system, as there would be no reliable or traceable records of the access history or patterns. Without audit logging, the organization would also not be able to identify or respond to any potential breaches or incidents that may compromise the confidentiality, availability, or accuracy of the CRM data. Without audit logging, the organization would also not be able to demonstrate or prove its compliance with any applicable policies, regulations, or standards that may require audit logging for CRM systems.
Single sign-on is not enabled is not a great concern for an IS auditor evaluating the access controls for a shared CRM system, but rather a potential improvement or enhancement. Single sign-on is a process that allows users to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as a username and password. Single sign-on can help simplify and streamline the user experience, as well as reduce the risk of password fatigue or compromise. However, single sign-on is not a mandatory or essential requirement for access controls, and it may also introduce some challenges or risks, such as dependency on a single point of failure or vulnerability.
Security baseline is not consistently applied is not a great concern for an IS auditor evaluating the access controls for a shared CRM system, but rather a minor issue or gap. Security baseline is a set of minimum security standards or requirements that apply to a system or application, such as password policies, encryption protocols, or firewall rules. Security baseline can help ensure that the system or application meets a certain level of security and compliance. However, security baseline is not a sufficient or comprehensive measure for access controls, and it may also need to be customized or adjusted according to the specific needs and risks of each system or application.
Complex passwords are not required is not a great concern for an IS auditor evaluating the access controls for a shared CRM system, but rather a common practice or recommendation. Complex passwords are passwords that are composed of a combination of different types of characters, such as letters, numbers, symbols, and cases. Complex passwords can help prevent or deter brute-force attacks or guessing attempts by making the passwords harder to crack or predict. However, complex passwords are not a guarantee or guarantee of security, and they may also have some drawbacks or limitations, such as user inconvenience, memorability issues, or reuse across multiple systems or applications.
References:
An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's business continuity plan (BCP) following a change in organizational structure with significant impact to business processes. Which of the following findings should be the auditor's GREATEST concern?
Key business process end users did not participate in the business impact " analysis (BIA)
Copies of the BCP have not been distributed to new business unit end users sjnce the reorganization
A test plan for the BCP has not been completed during the last two years
A test plan for the BCP is essential to ensure that the plan is effective, updated and aligned with the current business needs and objectives. A change in organizational structure with significant impact to business processes may require a revision of the BCP and a new test plan to validate its adequacy. The lack of a test plan for the BCP for two years indicates a high risk of failure in the event of a disaster or disruption. Therefore, this should be the auditor’s greatest concern among the given options. References:
The FIRST step in auditing a data communication system is to determine:
traffic volumes and response-time criteria
physical security for network equipment
the level of redundancy in the various communication paths
business use and types of messages to be transmitted
The first step in auditing a data communication system is to determine the business use and types of messages to be transmitted. This is because the auditor needs to understand the purpose, scope, and objectives of the data communication system, as well as the nature, volume, and sensitivity of the data being transmitted. This will help the auditor to identify the risks, controls, and audit criteria for the data communication system. Traffic volumes and response-time criteria, physical security for network equipment, and the level of redundancy in the various communication paths are important aspects of a data communication system, but they are not the first step in auditing it. They depend on the business use and types of messages to be transmitted, and they may vary according to different scenarios and requirements. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Auditing Standards]
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an IS auditor assessing an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
The DRP was developed by the IT department.
The DRP has not been tested during the past three years.
The DRP has not been updated for two years.
The DRP does not include the recovery the time objective (RTO) for a key system.
The DRP is a set of procedures and resources that enable an organization to restore its critical IT functions and operations in the event of a disaster or disruption. The DRP should be tested regularly to ensure its effectiveness, validity, and readiness. Testing the DRP can help to identify and resolve any gaps, issues, or weaknesses in the plan, as well as to evaluate the performance and capability of the recovery team and resources. If the DRP has not been tested during the past three years, it may not reflect the current IT environment, business requirements, or recovery objectives, and it may fail to meet the expectations and needs of the stakeholders.
References
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 255
Disaster Recovery Plan Testing: The Ultimate Checklist
What is a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) and How Do You Write One?
Which of the following is the BEST source of information to determine the required level of data protection on a file server?
Data classification policy and procedures
Access rights of similar file servers
Previous data breach incident reports
Acceptable use policy and privacy statements
The best source of information to determine the required level of data protection on a file server is the data classification policy and procedures, which define the criteria and methods for classifying data according to its sensitivity, value, and criticality, and specify the appropriate security measures and controls for each data category. Data classification policy and procedures help to ensure that data is protected in proportion to its importance and risk exposure. Access rights of similar file servers, previous data breach incident reports, and acceptable use policy and privacy statements are not sufficient or reliable sources of information to determine the required level of data protection on a file server, as they do not provide clear and consistent guidance on how to classify and protect data. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.1: Information Asset Security Framework
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk when an application uses individual end-user accounts to access the underlying database?
Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process_
User accounts may remain active after a termination.
Users may be able to circumvent application controls.
Application may not capture a complete audit trail.
The most significant risk when an application uses individual end-user accounts to access the underlying database is that users may be able to circumvent application controls. Application controls are the policies, procedures, and mechanisms that ensure the accuracy, completeness, validity, and authorization of transactions and data within an application. Application controls can include input validation, output verification, processing logic, reconciliation, exception handling, and audit trails. Application controls can help prevent or detect errors, fraud, or unauthorized access or modification of data.
However, if an application uses individual end-user accounts to access the underlying database, it means that the users have direct access to the database without going through the application layer. This can expose the database to potential risks such as:
Therefore, using individual end-user accounts to access the underlying database can pose a serious threat to the integrity, confidentiality, availability, and reliability of the data and the application.
The other options are not as significant as option C. Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process is a performance issue that can affect the efficiency and responsiveness of the application and the database, but it does not necessarily compromise the data quality or security. User accounts may remain active after a termination is a security issue that can increase the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of data by former employees or others who have access to their credentials, but it can be mitigated by implementing proper account management and monitoring processes. Application may not capture a complete audit trail is a compliance issue that can affect the accountability and traceability of transactions and data within the application and the database, but it does not directly affect the data accuracy or protection.
References:
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to confirm when reviewing an organization's incident response management program?
All incidents have a severity level assigned.
All identified incidents are escalated to the CEO and the CISO.
Incident response is within defined service level agreements (SLAs).
The alerting tools and incident response team can detect incidents.
The most important aspect of an incident response management program is the ability to detect incidents in a timely and accurate manner. Without effective detection, the organization cannot respond to incidents, mitigate their impact, or prevent their recurrence. The alerting tools and incident response team are responsible for monitoring the IT environment, identifying anomalies or threats, and notifying the appropriate stakeholders.
References
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 255
What is an incident response plan? And why do you need one?
ISACA CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Exam … - PUPUWEB
Which of the following is MOST critical to the success of an information security program?
User accountability for information security
Management's commitment to information security
Integration of business and information security
Alignment of information security with IT objectives
Management’s commitment to information security is the most critical factor for the success of an information security program, as it sets the tone and direction for the organization’s security culture and practices. Management’s commitment is demonstrated by establishing a clear security policy, providing adequate resources, assigning roles and responsibilities, enforcing compliance, and supporting continuous improvement. The other options are important elements of an information security program, but they depend on management’s commitment to be effective. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 439.
The BEST way to provide assurance that a project is adhering to the project plan is to:
require design reviews at appropriate points in the life cycle.
have an IS auditor participate on the steering committee.
have an IS auditor participate on the quality assurance (QA) team.
conduct compliance audits at major system milestones.
The best way to provide assurance that a project is adhering to the project plan is to conduct compliance audits at major system milestones. A compliance audit is a systematic and independent examination of the project’s activities, documents, and deliverables to determine whether they conform to the project plan and its specifications, standards, and requirements1. A major system milestone is a significant point or event in the project’s life cycle that marks the completion of a phase, stage, or deliverable2.
By conducting compliance audits at major system milestones, the auditor can provide assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan by:
The other options are not as effective as conducting compliance audits at major system milestones for providing assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan. Requiring design reviews at appropriate points in the life cycle is a useful technique for ensuring that the project’s design meets the user and business requirements and follows the design standards and best practices3. However, design reviews are not sufficient for providing assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan, as they do not cover other aspects of the project such as schedule, budget, quality, or risks. Having an IS auditor participate on the steering committee is a possible way for providing assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan, as the auditor can provide independent advice and oversight to the steering committee on quality management issues and remediation efforts4. However, this may not be feasible or appropriate for every project, as it may create a conflict of interest or compromise the auditor’s objectivity and independence. Having an IS auditor participate on the quality assurance (QA) team is another possible way for providing assurance that the project is adhering to the project plan, as the auditor can assist the QA team in implementing procedures to facilitate adoption of quality management best practices5. However, this may also not be feasible or appropriate for every project, as it may create a conflict of interest or compromise the auditor’s objectivity and independence. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST security control to validate the integrity of data communicated between production databases and a big data analytics
system?
Hashing in-scope data sets
Encrypting in-scope data sets
Running and comparing the count function within the in-scope data sets
Hosting a digital certificate for in-scope data sets
Hashing is a technique that transforms data into a fixed-length value, called a hash or a digest, that uniquely represents the original data. Hashing can be used to validate the integrity of data communicated between production databases and a big data analytics system by comparing the hash values of the data before and after the communication. If the hash values match, the data has not been altered; if they differ, the data has been tampered with or corrupted. Hashing is a better security control than encrypting, running and comparing the count function, or hosting a digital certificate for this purpose because:
References:
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the information security framework of an organization?
The information security policy has not been updated in the last two years.
Senior management was not involved in the development of the information security policy.
A list of critical information assets was not included in the information security policy.
The information security policy is not aligned with regulatory requirements.
The effectiveness of an organization’s security awareness program can be measured by capturing data on changes in the way people react to threats, such as the ability to recognize and avoid social engineering attacks1. An increase in the number of phishing emails reported by employees indicates that they are more aware of the signs and risks of phishing, and are more likely to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of such attacks23.
References
1: The Importance Of Measuring Security Awareness 2: Measuring the effectiveness of your security awareness program 3: How effective is security awareness training?
Which of the following is the BEST reason for an IS auditor to emphasize to management the importance of using an IT governance framework?
Frameworks enable IT benchmarks against competitors
Frameworks can be tailored and optimized for different organizations
Frameworks help facilitate control self-assessments (CSAs)
Frameworks help organizations understand and manage IT risk
The best reason for an IS auditor to emphasize to management the importance of using an IT governance framework is that frameworks can be tailored and optimized for different organizations. An IT governance framework is a set of principles, guidelines, and processes that help an organization align its IT strategy with its business goals, manage IT risks and performance, and deliver value from IT investments. An IT governance framework can be adapted and customized to suit the specific needs, context, and culture of each organization, taking into account factors such as size, industry, maturity, objectives, and stakeholders. An IT governance framework can also help an organization adopt best practices and standards from various sources, such as COBIT2, ITIL3, ISO/IEC 200004, and others.
The other options are not as good as option B, as they may not capture the full scope or benefits of using an IT governance framework. Frameworks enable IT benchmarks against competitors, but this is not the main purpose or advantage of using an IT governance framework. Frameworks help facilitate control self-assessments (CSAs), but this is only one aspect or tool of an IT governance framework. Frameworks help organizations understand and manage IT risk, but this is also only one outcome or objective of an IT governance framework.
References:
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor when auditing an organization's IT strategy development process?
The IT strategy was developed before the business plan
A business impact analysis (BIA) was not performed to support the IT strategy
The IT strategy was developed based on the current IT capability
Information security was not included as a key objective m the IT strategic plan.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when auditing an organization’s IT strategy development process is that information security was not included as a key objective in the IT strategic plan. Information security is a vital component of IT strategy, as it ensures the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information assets, and supports the business objectives and regulatory compliance. The other options are not as significant as the lack of information security in the IT strategic plan. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.31
To reduce operational costs, IT management plans to reduce the number of servers currently used to run business applications. Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying which servers are no longer required?
Performance feedback from the user community
Contract with the server vendor
Server CPU usage trends
Mean time between failure (MTBF) of each server
When identifying which servers are no longer required, reviewing server CPU usage trends is the most helpful approach. Monitoring the CPU usage over time provides insights into how actively a server is being utilized. Servers with consistently low CPU usage may be candidates for consolidation or decommissioning. By analyzing CPU utilization patterns, IT management can make informed decisions about which servers can be retired without impacting performance or availability1.
References:
A source code repository should be designed to:
prevent changes from being incorporated into existing code.
prevent developers from accessing secure source code.
provide secure versioning and backup capabilities for existing code.
provide automatic incorporation and distribution of modified code.
A source code repository is a system that stores and manages the source code of a software project. A source code repository should be designed to provide secure versioning and backup capabilities for existing code, as these are essential features for concurrent development, code quality, and disaster recovery. Versioning allows developers to track, compare, and revert changes to the code over time. Backup ensures that the code is safely stored and can be restored in case of data loss or corruption.
References
Source Code Repositories: What is a Source Code Repository?
Git Source Code Repository Design Considerations
Best practices for repositories - GitHub Docs
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of obtaining a baseline image during an operating system audit?
To identify atypical running processes
To verify antivirus definitions
To identify local administrator account access
To verify the integrity of operating system backups
The primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image during an operating system audit is to identify atypical running processes. A baseline image is a snapshot of the normal state and configuration of an operating system, including the processes that are expected to run on it. By comparing the current state of the operating system with the baseline image, an IS auditor can detect any deviations or anomalies that may indicate unauthorized or malicious activity, such as malware infection, privilege escalation, or data exfiltration. A baseline image can also help an IS auditor to assess the performance and efficiency of the operating system, as well as its compliance with security standards and policies.
Verifying antivirus definitions (option B) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the baseline configuration. Antivirus definitions are the files that contain the signatures and rules for detecting and removing malware. An IS auditor may verify that the antivirus definitions are up to date and consistent across the operating system, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.
Identifying local administrator account access (option C) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the baseline configuration. Local administrator accounts are user accounts that have full control over the operating system and its resources. An IS auditor may identify and review the local administrator accounts to ensure that they are properly secured and authorized, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.
Verifying the integrity of operating system backups (option D) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the backup process. Operating system backups are copies of the operating system data and settings that can be used to restore the system in case of failure or disaster. An IS auditor may verify that the operating system backups are complete, accurate, and accessible, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.
References: : Linux security and system hardening checklist : CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA : CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide, 4th Edition : CISA - Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide [Book]
Which of the following physical controls provides the GREATEST assurance that only authorized individuals can access a data center?
The data center is patrolled by a security guard.
Access to the data center is monitored by video cameras.
ID badges must be displayed before access is granted
Access to the data center is controlled by a mantrap.
Access to the data center is controlled by a mantrap provides the greatest assurance that only authorized individuals can access a data center. A mantrap is a physical security device that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second set opens1. A mantrap prevents unauthorized entry by requiring authentication at both doors, such as biometric scanners, card readers, or PIN codes. A mantrap also prevents tailgating, which is the act of following an authorized person into a restricted area without proper authorization2. A mantrap can also detect and trap intruders who attempt to force their way through the doors.
The other options are less effective physical controls for data center access. The data center is patrolled by a security guard is a deterrent measure, but it does not prevent unauthorized access by itself. A security guard may not be able to monitor all entry points, or may be distracted, bribed, or overpowered by intruders. Access to the data center is monitored by video cameras is a detective measure, but it does not prevent unauthorized access either. Video cameras can record the activities of intruders, but they cannot stop them from entering or alert the security personnel in real time. ID badges must be displayed before access is granted is a preventive measure, but it relies on human verification, which can be prone to errors or manipulation. ID badges can also be lost, stolen, or forged by intruders.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to include in an organization's bring your own device (BYOD)
policy to help prevent data leakage?
Require employees to waive privacy rights related to data on BYOD devices.
Require multi-factor authentication on BYOD devices,
Specify employee responsibilities for reporting lost or stolen BYOD devices.
Allow only registered BYOD devices to access the network.
The best recommendation to include in an organization’s bring your own device (BYOD) policy to help prevent data leakage is to require multi-factor authentication on BYOD devices. BYOD is a practice that allows employees to use their own personal devices, such as smartphones, tablets, or laptops, to access the organization’s network, data, and systems. Data leakage is a risk that involves the unauthorized or accidental disclosure or transfer of sensitive or confidential data from the organization to external parties or devices. Multi-factor authentication is a security measure that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity and access rights, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, or codes. Multi-factor authentication can help prevent data leakage by reducing the likelihood of unauthorized access to the organization’s data and systems through BYOD devices, especially if they are lost, stolen, or compromised. The other options are not as effective as requiring multi-factor authentication on BYOD devices, because they either do not prevent data leakage directly, or they are reactive rather than proactive measures. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3
Which of the following is the MOST important Issue for an IS auditor to consider with regard to Voice-over IP (VoIP) communications?
Continuity of service
Identity management
Homogeneity of the network
Nonrepudiation
The most important issue for an IS auditor to consider with regard to Voice-over IP (VoIP) communications is the homogeneity of the network, because it affects the quality, security, and reliability of the VoIP service. A homogeneous network is one that uses a single protocol or standard for VoIP communication, such as Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) or H.32312. A homogeneous network can reduce the complexity, latency, and interoperability issues that may arise from using different or incompatible protocols or devices for VoIP communication12. Continuity of service, identity management, and nonrepudiation are also important issues for VoIP communications, but not as important as the homogeneity of the network. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.4.3 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 4, Lesson 4
Several unattended laptops containing sensitive customer data were stolen from personnel offices Which of the following would be an IS auditor's BEST recommendation to protect data in case of recurrence?
Encrypt the disk drive.
Require two-factor authentication
Enhance physical security
Require the use of cable locks
According to the CISA - Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide1, the correct answer to your question is A. Encrypt the disk drive. This is because encryption is a logical security measure that can protect data even if the physical device is stolen or lost. Encryption makes the data unreadable and inaccessible without the proper key or password. The other options are not as effective as encryption in this scenario. Two-factor authentication is a user authentication method that requires two pieces of evidence to verify the user’s identity, such as a password and a code sent to a phone. However, this does not prevent unauthorized access to the data if the laptop is already logged in or if the attacker can bypass the authentication. Enhancing physical security is a preventive measure that can reduce the risk of theft, but it does not guarantee that theft will not occur or that the data will be safe if it does. Requiring the use of cable locks is another preventive measure that can deter thieves, but it can also be easily cut or removed by a determined attacker.
Controls related to authorized modifications to production programs are BEST tested by:
tracing modifications from the original request for change forward to the executable program.
tracing modifications from the executable program back to the original request for change.
testing only the authorizations to implement the new program.
reviewing only the actual lines of source code changed in the program.
Controls related to authorized modifications to production programs are best tested by tracing modifications from the original request for change forward to the executable program, as this ensures that the change management process was followed and that the modifications were approved, documented, tested, and implemented correctly. Tracing modifications from the executable program back to the original request for change may not reveal any unauthorized or undocumented changes that occurred during the process. Testing only the authorizations to implement the new program or reviewing only the actual lines of source code changed in the program are not sufficient to test the controls related to authorized modifications, as they do not cover the entire change management process. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations, Maintenance and Service Management, Section 4.2: Change Management
An organization has replaced all of the storage devices at its primary data center with new higher-capacity units The replaced devices have been installed at the disaster recovery site to replace older units An IS auditor s PRIMARY concern would be whether
the recovery site devices can handle the storage requirements
hardware maintenance contract is in place for both old and new storage devices
the procurement was in accordance with corporate policies and procedures
the relocation plan has been communicated to all concerned parties
An IS auditor’s primary concern would be whether the recovery site devices can handle the storage requirements. The storage requirements are determined by the amount and type of data that needs to be backed up and restored in case of a disaster at the primary data center. The recovery site devices should have enough capacity, performance, reliability, and compatibility to meet these requirements.
If the recovery site devices cannot handle the storage requirements, then there is a risk that some data may not be backed up properly or may not be available for recovery when needed. This could result in data loss, corruption, or inconsistency, which could affect the business continuity and integrity of the organization.
Therefore, an IS auditor should verify that:
References:
An IS auditor is reviewing a bank's service level agreement (SLA) with a third-party provider that hosts the bank's secondary data center, which of the following findings should be of GREATEST concern to the auditor?
The recovery time objective (RTO) has a longer duration than documented in the disaster recovery plan (ORP).
The SLA has not been reviewed in more than a year.
Backup data is hosted online only.
The recovery point objective (RPO) has a shorter duration than documented in the disaster recovery plan (DRP).
The recovery time objective (RTO) has a longer duration than documented in the disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of greatest concern to the auditor when reviewing a bank’s SLA with a third-party provider that hosts the bank’s secondary data center. This is because the RTO is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or an application after a disaster or a disruption. A longer RTO than the DRP means that the bank may not be able to resume its critical business operations within the expected time frame, which may result in significant financial losses, reputational damage, customer dissatisfaction, or regulatory non-compliance12.
The SLA has not been reviewed in more than a year is not the greatest concern, although it is a good practice to review and update the SLA periodically to ensure that it reflects the current business needs and expectations, as well as any changes in the service provider’s capabilities or performance. However, a lack of review does not necessarily imply a lack of compliance or quality of service, as long as the SLA is still valid and enforceable34.
Backup data is hosted online only is not the greatest concern, although it may pose some security risks if the backup data is not encrypted or protected by adequate access controls. Online backup data means that the backup data is stored on a remote server that can be accessed via the Internet, which may offer some advantages such as faster recovery, lower cost, and higher availability than offline backup data that is stored on physical media such as tapes or disks. However, online backup data also requires reliable network connectivity and bandwidth, as well as proper security measures to prevent unauthorized access or tampering56.
The recovery point objective (RPO) has a shorter duration than documented in the DRP is not the greatest concern, although it may indicate some inconsistency or misalignment between the SLA and the DRP. The RPO is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time from a disaster or a disruption. A shorter RPO than the DRP means that the bank may lose less data than expected, which may be beneficial for its business continuity and recovery. However, a shorter RPO may also imply more frequent backups, which may increase the cost and complexity of the backup process
To ensure confidentiality through the use of asymmetric encryption, a message is encrypted with which of the following?
Recipient's public key
Sender's private key
Sender's public key
Recipient's private key
The best option for ensuring confidentiality through the use of asymmetric encryption is to encrypt a message with the recipient’s public key (option A). This is because:
Therefore, the best option for ensuring confidentiality through the use of asymmetric encryption is to encrypt a message with the recipient’s public key (option A), as this ensures that only the recipient can decrypt it with their private key.
References: 1: What is asymmetric encryption? | Asymmetric vs. symmetric … - Cloudflare 2: What is Asymmetric Encryption? - GeeksforGeeks
In an annual audit cycle, the audit of an organization's IT department resulted in many findings. Which of the following would be the MOST important consideration when planning the next audit?
Postponing the review until all of the findings have been rectified
Limiting the review to the deficient areas
Verifying that all recommendations have been implemented
Following up on the status of all recommendations
The most important consideration when planning the next audit after many findings is to follow up on the status of all recommendations, as this will ensure that the audit findings are addressed in a timely and effective manner, and that the root causes of the issues are resolved12. Following up on the status of all recommendations will also help to assess the progress and performance of the IT department, and to identify any new or emerging risks or challenges34.
References
1: What to consider when resolving internal audit findings3 2: A brief guide to follow up4 3: Guidance on auditing planning for Internal Audit2 4: Corrective Action Plan (CAP): How to Manage Audit Findings1
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY role of an internal audit function in the management of identified business risks?
Establishing a risk appetite
Establishing a risk management framework
Validating enterprise risk management (ERM)
Operating the risk management framework
The primary role of an internal audit function in the management of identified business risks is to validate the enterprise risk management (ERM) process and provide assurance on its effectiveness. The internal audit function should evaluate whether the ERM process is aligned with the organization’s objectives, strategies, policies and culture, and whether it covers all relevant risks and controls. The internal audit function should also assess whether the ERM process is operating as designed and producing reliable and timely information for decision making. The other options are not the primary role of an internal audit function, but rather the responsibilities of senior management, board of directors or risk owners. References:
Which of the following should be the FIRST step m managing the impact of a recently discovered zero-day attack?
Evaluating the likelihood of attack
Estimating potential damage
Identifying vulnerable assets
Assessing the Impact of vulnerabilities
The first step in managing the impact of a recently discovered zero-day attack is to identify vulnerable assets. A zero-day attack is a cyberattack that exploits a previously unknown or unpatched vulnerability in a software or system, before the vendor or developer has had time to fix it. Identifying vulnerable assets is crucial for managing the impact of a zero-day attack, because it helps to determine the scope and severity of the attack, prioritize the protection and mitigation measures, and isolate or quarantine the affected assets from further damage or compromise. The other options are not the first steps in managing the impact of a zero-day attack, because they either require more information about the vulnerable assets, or they are part of the subsequent steps of assessing, responding, or recovering from the attack. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
Which of the following observations should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor performing an audit of change and release management controls for a new complex system developed by a small in-house IT team?
Access to change testing strategy and results is not restricted to staff outside the IT team.
Some user acceptance testing (IJAT) was completed by members of the IT team.
IT administrators have access to the production and development environment
Post-implementation testing is not conducted for all system releases.
Post-implementation testing is the process of verifying and validating the functionality, performance, and security of a system after it has been deployed to the production environment1. Post-implementation testing is important for ensuring that the system meets the user requirements and expectations, as well as the operational and business objectives. Post-implementation testing also helps to identify and resolve any defects, errors, or issues that may have occurred during the deployment process or that may have been missed during the previous testing stages2.
Therefore, the observation that post-implementation testing is not conducted for all system releases should be of greatest concern to an IS auditor performing an audit of change and release management controls for a new complex system developed by a small in-house IT team. This observation indicates that the system may have quality, reliability, or security problems that could affect the user satisfaction, system performance, or data integrity. This observation also suggests that the change and release management controls are not adequate or effective, as they do not ensure that all system releases are properly tested and validated before and after deployment.
Option A is not correct because access to change testing strategy and results is not restricted to staff outside the IT team is not a major concern for an IS auditor. While it is good practice to limit access to sensitive or confidential information, such as test data or test cases, to authorized personnel only, access to change testing strategy and results may not pose a significant risk to the system or the organization. Moreover, access to change testing strategy and results may be beneficial for some stakeholders outside the IT team, such as business users, project managers, or auditors, who may need to review or evaluate the testing process or outcomes.
Option B is not correct because some user acceptance testing (UAT) was completed by members of the IT team is not a major concern for an IS auditor. User acceptance testing is the process of verifying and validating that the system meets the user requirements and expectations by involving actual or representative users in the testing process3. While it is preferable to have independent and unbiased users perform UAT, it may not be feasible or practical for some organizations, especially those with small or limited resources. Therefore, some UAT may be completed by members of the IT team, as long as they have sufficient knowledge and experience of the user needs and expectations, and as long as they follow the UAT plan and criteria.
Option C is not correct because IT administrators have access to the production and development environment is not a major concern for an IS auditor. IT administrators are responsible for managing and maintaining the IT infrastructure, including the production and development environments4. Therefore, it is reasonable and necessary for them to have access to both environments, as long as they follow the appropriate policies and procedures for accessing, using, and securing them. Moreover, IT administrators may need to perform tasks such as backup, restore, patching, or troubleshooting in both environments.
References:
An IS auditor is reviewing a data conversion project Which of the following is the auditor's BEST recommendation prior to go-live?
Review test procedures and scenarios
Conduct a mock conversion test
Establish a configuration baseline
Automate the test scripts
The auditor’s best recommendation prior to go-live is to conduct a mock conversion test. This is because a mock conversion test can help to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data conversion process. A mock conversion test can also help to identify and resolve any issues or errors before the actual conversion takes place. A mock conversion test can also provide assurance that the converted data meets the business requirements and expectations. References:
Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an IS auditor to examine the results of a post-incident review performed after a security incident?
To evaluate the effectiveness of continuous improvement efforts
To compare incident response metrics with industry benchmarks
To re-analyze the incident to identify any hidden backdoors planted by the attacker
To evaluate the effectiveness of the network firewall against future security breaches
A post-incident review (PIR) is a process to review the incident information from occurrence to closure and to identify potential findings and recommendations for improvement1. The most important reason for an IS auditor to examine the results of a PIR is to evaluate the effectiveness of continuous improvement efforts and to ensure that the lessons learned from the incident are implemented and followed up2. A PIR can help an organization to eliminate or reduce the risk of the incident to re-occur, improve the initial incident detection time, identify improvements needed to diagnose and repair the incident, and update the incident management best practices1. Therefore, a PIR is a valuable source of information for an IS auditor to assess the maturity and performance of the organization’s incident management process.
What is the FIRST step when creating a data classification program?
Categorize and prioritize data.
Develop data process maps.
Categorize information by owner.
Develop a policy.
The first step when creating a data classification program is to develop a policy (D). A data classification policy is a document that defines the purpose, scope, objectives, roles, responsibilities, and procedures of the data classification program. A data classification policy is essential for establishing the governance framework, standards, and guidelines for the data classification process. A data classification policy also helps to communicate the expectations and benefits of the data classification program to the stakeholders, such as data owners, users, custodians, and auditors12.
Categorizing and prioritizing data (A) is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the third step. Categorizing and prioritizing data involves defining and applying the criteria and labels for classifying data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. For example, data can be categorized into public, internal, confidential, or restricted levels. Categorizing and prioritizing data helps to identify and protect the most critical and sensitive data assets of the organization12.
Developing data process maps (B) is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the fourth step. Developing data process maps involves documenting and analyzing the flow and lifecycle of data within the organization. Data process maps show how data is created, collected, stored, processed, transmitted, used, shared, archived, and disposed of. Developing data process maps helps to understand the context and dependencies of data, as well as to identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues related to data quality, security, or compliance12.
Categorizing information by owner © is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the second step. Categorizing information by owner involves assigning roles and responsibilities for each type of data based on its ownership and stewardship. Data owners are the individuals or entities that have the authority and accountability for the data. Data stewards are the individuals or entities that have the operational responsibility for managing and maintaining the data. Data custodians are the individuals or entities that have the technical responsibility for implementing and enforcing the security and access controls for the data12.
References:
Which of the following is MOST useful to an IS auditor performing a review of access controls for a document management system?
Policies and procedures for managing documents provided by department heads
A system-generated list of staff and their project assignments. roles, and responsibilities
Previous audit reports related to other departments' use of the same system
Information provided by the audit team lead an the authentication systems used by the department
The answer B is correct because a system-generated list of staff and their project assignments, roles, and responsibilities is the most useful to an IS auditor performing a review of access controls for a document management system. A document management system is a software that helps organizations store, manage, and share documents electronically. Access controls are the mechanisms that restrict or allow access to the documents based on predefined criteria, such as user identity, role, or project. An IS auditor needs to verify that the access controls are properly configured and implemented to ensure the security, confidentiality, and integrity of the documents.
A system-generated list of staff and their project assignments, roles, and responsibilities can help the IS auditor to perform the following tasks:
The other options are not as useful as option B. Policies and procedures for managing documents provided by department heads (option A) are not reliable sources of information for an IS auditor because they may not reflect the actual practices or compliance status of the document management system. Previous audit reports related to other departments’ use of the same system (option C) are not relevant for an IS auditor because they may not address the specific issues or risks associated with the current department’s use of the document management system. Information provided by the audit team lead on the authentication systems used by the department (option D) is not sufficient for an IS auditor because authentication is only one aspect of access control and it does not provide information on the authorization or auditing of the document access.
References:
What should an IS auditor do FIRST when a follow-up audit reveals some management action plans have not been initiated?
Confirm whether the identified risks are still valid.
Provide a report to the audit committee.
Escalate the lack of plan completion to executive management.
Request an additional action plan review to confirm the findings.
The first thing that an IS auditor should do when a follow-up audit reveals some management action plans have not been initiated is to escalate the lack of plan completion to executive management. This is because the failure to implement the agreed management action plans may indicate that the management is not taking the audit findings and recommendations seriously, or that they are accepting too much risk by not addressing the identified issues. Escalating the lack of plan completion to executive management can help to raise awareness and accountability, as well as to seek support and intervention to ensure that the management action plans are executed in a timely and effective manner12.
Confirming whether the identified risks are still valid is not the first thing to do, although it may be a useful step to reassess the current situation and the potential impact of not implementing the management action plans. However, confirming the validity of the risks does not address the root cause of why the management action plans have not been initiated, nor does it provide any assurance or remediation for the unresolved issues34.
Providing a report to the audit committee is not the first thing to do, although it may be a necessary step to communicate and document the results of the follow-up audit. However, providing a report to the audit committee does not guarantee that the management action plans will be initiated, nor does it resolve any conflicts or challenges that may prevent the management from implementing them34.
Requesting an additional action plan review to confirm the findings is not the first thing to do, although it may be a prudent step to verify and validate the accuracy and completeness of the follow-up audit. However, requesting an additional review may delay or defer the implementation of the management action plans, as well as consume more internal audit resources and time
A CFO has requested an audit of IT capacity management due to a series of finance system slowdowns during month-end reporting. What would be MOST important to consider before including this audit in the program?
Whether system delays result in more frequent use of manual processing
Whether the system's performance poses a significant risk to the organization
Whether stakeholders are committed to assisting with the audit
Whether internal auditors have the required skills to perform the audit
The most important thing to consider before including an audit of IT capacity management in the program is whether the system’s performance poses a significant risk to the organization. IT capacity management is a process that ensures that IT resources are sufficient to meet current and future business needs, and that they are optimized for cost and performance. A poor IT capacity management can result in system slowdowns, outages, failures, or breaches, which can affect the availability, reliability, security, and efficiency of IT services and business processes. Therefore, before conducting an audit of IT capacity management, the auditor should assess the potential impact and likelihood of these risks on the organization’s objectives, reputation, compliance, and customer satisfaction.
Whether system delays result in more frequent use of manual processing (option A) is not the most important thing to consider before including an audit of IT capacity management in the program, as it is only one possible consequence of poor IT capacity management. Manual processing can introduce errors, delays, inefficiencies, and inconsistencies in the data and reports, which can affect the quality and accuracy of financial information. However, manual processing is not the only or the worst outcome of poor IT capacity management; there may be other more severe or frequent risks that need to be considered.
Whether stakeholders are committed to assisting with the audit (option C) is also not the most important thing to consider before including an audit of IT capacity management in the program, as it is a factor that affects the feasibility and effectiveness of the audit, not the necessity or priority of it. Stakeholder commitment is important for ensuring that the auditor has access to relevant information, documents, data, and personnel, as well as for facilitating communication, collaboration, and feedback during the audit process. However, stakeholder commitment is not a sufficient reason to conduct an audit of IT capacity management; there must be a clear risk-based rationale for selecting this area for audit.
Whether internal auditors have the required skills to perform the audit (option D) is also not the most important thing to consider before including an audit of IT capacity management in the program, as it is a factor that affects the quality and credibility of the audit, not the urgency or importance of it. Internal auditors should have the appropriate knowledge, skills, and experience to perform an audit of IT capacity management, which may include technical, business, analytical, and communication skills. However, internal auditors can also acquire or supplement these skills through training, coaching, consulting, or outsourcing. Therefore, internal auditors’ skills are not a decisive factor for choosing this area for audit.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References:
If a source code is not recompiled when program changes are implemented, which of the following is a compensating control to ensure synchronization of source and object?
Comparison of object and executable code
Review of audit trail of compile dates
Comparison of date stamping of source and object code
Review of developer comments in executable code
Source code synchronization is the process of ensuring that the source code and the object code (the compiled version of the source code) are consistent and up-to-date1. When program changes are implemented, the source code should be recompiled to generate a new object code that reflects the changes. However, if the source code is not recompiled, there is a risk that the object code may be outdated or incorrect. A compensating control is a measure that reduces the risk of an existing control weakness or deficiency2. A compensating control for source code synchronization is to compare the date stamping of the source and object code. Date stamping is a method of recording the date and time when a file is created or modified3. By comparing the date stamping of the source and object code, one can verify if they are synchronized or not. If the date stamping of the source code is newer than the object code, it means that the source code has been changed but not recompiled. If the date stamping of the object code is newer than the source code, it means that the object code has been compiled from a different source code. If the date stamping of both files are identical, it means that they are synchronized.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of adopting an international IT governance framework rather than establishing a new framework based on the actual situation of a specific organization1?
Readily available resources such as domains and risk and control methodologies
Comprehensive coverage of fundamental and critical risk and control areas for IT governance
Fewer resources expended on trial-and-error attempts to fine-tune implementation methodologies
Wide acceptance by different business and support units with IT governance objectives
The greatest benefit of adopting an international IT governance framework rather than establishing a new framework based on the actual situation of a specific organization is wide acceptance by different business and support units with IT governance objectives. An international IT governance framework, such as COBIT, provides a common language and understanding for IT governance among various stakeholders, such as management, users, auditors and regulators. This facilitates alignment, communication and collaboration among them. Readily available resources, comprehensive coverage and fewer resources expended are also benefits of adopting an international IT governance framework, but they are not the greatest benefit. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1.
What is the PRIMARY purpose of performing a parallel run of a now system?
To train the end users and supporting staff on the new system
To verify the new system provides required business functionality
To reduce the need for additional testing
To validate the new system against its predecessor
The primary purpose of performing a parallel run of a new system is to validate the new system against its predecessor. A parallel run is a strategy for system changeover where a new system slowly assumes the roles of the older system while both systems operate simultaneously. This allows for comparison of the results and outputs of both systems to ensure that the new system is working correctly and reliably. A parallel run can also help identify and resolve any errors, discrepancies, or inconsistencies in the new system before the old system is discontinued.
The other options are not the primary purpose of performing a parallel run of a new system. A. To train the end users and supporting staff on the new system. Training is an important part of system implementation, but it is not the main reason for doing a parallel run. Training can be done before, during, or after the parallel run, depending on the needs and preferences of the organization. B. To verify the new system provides required business functionality. Verifying the business functionality of the new system is part of user acceptance testing (UAT), which is a formal and structured process of testing whether the new system meets the specifications and expectations of the users and stakeholders. UAT is usually done before the parallel run, as a prerequisite for system changeover. C. To reduce the need for additional testing. Reducing the need for additional testing is not the primary purpose of performing a parallel run, but rather a possible benefit or outcome of doing so. A parallel run can help ensure that the new system is thoroughly tested and validated in a real-world environment, which may reduce the likelihood of encountering major issues or defects later on. However, additional testing may still be needed after the parallel run, depending on the feedback and evaluation of the users and stakeholders.
References:
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing an effective security awareness program?
Training personnel are information security professionals.
Outcome metrics for the program are established.
Security threat scenarios are included in the program content.
Phishing exercises are conducted post-training
The most important factor to ensure when developing an effective security awareness program is B. Outcome metrics for the program are established. This is because outcome metrics are measures that evaluate the impact and results of the security awareness program on the behavior and performance of the users, and the security posture and objectives of the organization1. Outcome metrics can help ensure the effectiveness of the security awareness program by:
Which of the following should be the FIRST step to successfully implement a corporate data classification program?
Approve a data classification policy.
Select a data loss prevention (DLP) product.
Confirm that adequate resources are available for the project.
Check for the required regulatory requirements.
The first step to successfully implement a corporate data classification program is to approve a data classification policy. A data classification policy is a document that defines the objectives, scope, principles, roles, responsibilities, and procedures for classifying data based on its sensitivity and value to the organization. A data classification policy is essential for establishing a common understanding and a consistent approach for data classification across the organization, as well as for ensuring compliance with relevant regulatory and contractual requirements.
Selecting a data loss prevention (DLP) product (option B) is not the first step to implement a data classification program, as it is a technical solution that supports the enforcement of the data classification policy, not the definition of it. A DLP product can help prevent unauthorized access, use, or disclosure of sensitive data by monitoring, detecting, and blocking data flows that violate the data classification policy. However, before selecting a DLP product, the organization needs to have a clear and approved data classification policy that specifies the criteria and rules for data classification.
Confirming that adequate resources are available for the project (option C) is also not the first step to implement a data classification program, as it is a project management activity that ensures the feasibility and sustainability of the project, not the design of it. Confirming that adequate resources are available for the project involves estimating and securing the necessary budget, staff, time, and tools for implementing and maintaining the data classification program. However, before confirming that adequate resources are available for the project, the organization needs to have a clear and approved data classification policy that defines the scope and objectives of the project.
Checking for the required regulatory requirements (option D) is also not the first step to implement a data classification program, as it is an input to the development of the data classification policy, not an output of it. Checking for the required regulatory requirements involves identifying and analyzing the applicable laws, regulations, standards, and contracts that govern the protection and handling of sensitive data. However, checking for the required regulatory requirements is not enough to implement a data classification program; the organization also needs to have a clear and approved data classification policy that incorporates and complies with those requirements.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
References:
An IS auditor has been tasked with auditing the inventory control process for a large organization that processes millions of data transactions. Which of the following is the BEST testing strategy to adopt?
Continuous monitoring
Control self-assessments (CSAs)
Risk assessments
Stop-or-go sampling
Given the large volume of data transactions, continuous monitoring is the best testing strategy for auditing the inventory control process. Continuous monitoring involves the automated review of operational and financial data to identify anomalies or areas of concern12. This approach allows for real-time identification and resolution of issues, making it particularly effective for large organizations with high transaction volumes12.
References: ISACA’s Information Systems Auditor Study Materials1
An IS auditor has been tasked to review the processes that prevent fraud within a business expense claim system. Which of the following stakeholders is MOST important to involve in this review?
Information security manager
Quality assurance (QA) manager
Business department executive
Business process owner
The business process owner is the most important stakeholder to involve in the review of the processes that prevent fraud within a business expense claim system. This is because the business process owner is responsible for defining, implementing, and monitoring the business rules and policies that govern the expense claim process. The business process owner also has the authority and accountability to approve or reject expense claims, as well as to investigate and report any suspicious or fraudulent activities. The business process owner can provide valuable insights and feedback to the IS auditor on the effectiveness and efficiency of the current processes, as well as the potential risks and controls that need to be addressed12.
The information security manager is not the most important stakeholder because their role is mainly focused on ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information systems and data that support the expense claim process. The information security manager can help the IS auditor with assessing the technical aspects of the system, such as access controls, encryption, logging, and backup, but they may not have sufficient knowledge or authority over the business rules and policies that prevent fraud1.
The quality assurance (QA) manager is not the most important stakeholder because their role is mainly focused on ensuring the quality and reliability of the software applications and systems that support the expense claim process. The QA manager can help the IS auditor with testing and verifying the functionality and performance of the system, but they may not have sufficient knowledge or authority over the business rules and policies that prevent fraud1.
The business department executive is not the most important stakeholder because their role is mainly focused on overseeing the strategic objectives and financial performance of the business department that uses the expense claim system. The business department executive can help the IS auditor with understanding the business context and needs of the expense claim process, but they may not have sufficient knowledge or authority over the operational details and controls that prevent fraud
An IT strategic plan that BEST leverages IT in achieving organizational goals will include:
a comparison of future needs against current capabilities.
a risk-based ranking of projects.
enterprise architecture (EA) impacts.
IT budgets linked to the organization's budget.
An IT strategic plan that best leverages IT in achieving organizational goals will include enterprise architecture (EA) impacts. EA is the practice of analyzing, designing, planning, and implementing enterprise analysis to successfully execute on business strategies1. EA helps organizations structure IT projects and policies to align with business goals, to stay agile and resilient in the face of rapid change, and to stay on top of industry trends and disruptions1. EA also describes an organization’s processes, information processes and personnel and other organizational subunits aligned with the organization’s core goals and strategies2. By including EA impacts in the IT strategic plan, an organization can ensure that the IT initiatives are consistent with the business vision, objectives, and tactics, and that they support the desired business outcomes3.
A comparison of future needs against current capabilities, a risk-based ranking of projects, and IT budgets linked to the organization’s budget are all important elements of an IT strategic plan, but they do not necessarily leverage IT in achieving organizational goals. A comparison of future needs against current capabilities can help identify gaps and opportunities for improvement, but it does not provide a clear direction or roadmap for how to achieve them. A risk-based ranking of projects can help prioritize the most critical and beneficial projects, but it does not ensure that they are aligned with the business strategy or that they deliver value to the stakeholders. IT budgets linked to the organization’s budget can help allocate resources and monitor costs, but they do not reflect the impact or contribution of IT to the business performance or growth.
References:
The use of which of the following would BEST enhance a process improvement program?
Model-based design notations
Balanced scorecard
Capability maturity models
Project management methodologies
Capability maturity models (CMMs) are frameworks that help organizations assess and improve their processes in various domains, such as software development, project management, service delivery, and cybersecurity1. CMMs define different levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and describe the characteristics and best practices of each level. By using CMMs, organizations can benchmark their current processes against a common standard, identify gaps and weaknesses, and implement improvement actions to achieve higher levels of process maturity2. CMMs can also help organizations align their processes with their strategic goals, measure their performance, and increase their efficiency, quality, and customer satisfaction3.
Therefore, the use of CMMs would best enhance a process improvement program, as they provide a systematic and structured approach to evaluate and improve processes based on proven principles and practices. Option C is the correct answer.
Option A is not correct because model-based design notations are graphical or textual languages that help designers specify, visualize, and document the structure and behavior of systems4. While they can be useful for designing and communicating complex systems, they do not directly address the process improvement aspect of a program.
Option B is not correct because balanced scorecard is a strategic management tool that helps organizations translate their vision and mission into measurable objectives and indicators. While it can be useful for monitoring and evaluating the performance of a program, it does not provide specific guidance on how to improve processes.
Option D is not correct because project management methodologies are sets of principles and practices that help organizations plan, execute, and control projects. While they can be useful for managing the scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk of a program, they do not focus on the process improvement aspect of a program.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining the overall IT risk appetite of an organization when business units use different methods for managing IT risks?
Average the business units’ IT risk levels
Identify the highest-rated IT risk level among the business units
Prioritize the organization's IT risk scenarios
Establish a global IT risk scoring criteria
The best approach for determining the overall IT risk appetite of an organization when business units use different methods for managing IT risks is to prioritize the organization’s IT risk scenarios. IT risk appetite is the amount and type of IT risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the potential impact of IT risk events on the organization’s objectives, processes, and resources. By prioritizing the organization’s IT risk scenarios, the IS auditor can identify the most significant IT risks that affect the organization as a whole, and align them with the organization’s strategic goals, values, and culture. Prioritizing the organization’s IT risk scenarios can also help to communicate and monitor the IT risk appetite across the organization, and facilitate consistent and informed decision making. The other approaches (A, B and D) are not effective for determining the overall IT risk appetite of an organization, as they do not consider the impact and likelihood of IT risks on the organization’s objectives, nor do they account for the diversity and complexity of IT risks across different business units. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of Information Technology, Section 2.3: Information Technology Risk Management
Which of the following is the MOST efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves
for care?
Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider
Software as a Service (SaaS) provider
Network segmentation
Dynamic localization
The answer B is correct because Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is the most efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. SaaS is a cloud computing model that allows users to access software applications over the internet, without having to install, maintain, or update them on their own devices or servers. SaaS providers host and manage the software applications and the underlying infrastructure, and handle any issues such as security, availability, and performance.
SaaS can offer several benefits for a multi-location healthcare organization, such as:
Some examples of SaaS providers that offer solutions for healthcare organizations are:
The other options are not as efficient as option B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provider (option A) is a cloud computing model that provides users with access to computing resources such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems over the internet. IaaS can offer some benefits such as flexibility, scalability, and cost-effectiveness for a multi-location healthcare organization, but it also requires more technical expertise and management from the organization than SaaS. The organization would still need to install, configure, update, and secure the software applications that run on the IaaS infrastructure. Network segmentation (option C) is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation can improve the performance, security, and manageability of a network by reducing congestion, isolating threats, and enforcing policies. However, network segmentation alone does not enable a multi-location healthcare organization to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. The organization would still need a software solution that can store, manage, and share patient data across different segments of the network. Dynamic localization (option D) is a process that adapts the content and functionality of a software application to suit the preferences and needs of users in different locations or regions. Dynamic localization can enhance the user experience and satisfaction by providing relevant information in local languages, currencies, formats, and regulations. However, dynamic localization does not address the core issue of accessing patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. The organization would still need a software solution that can store, manage, and share patient data across different locations or regions.
References:
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an |$ auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system?
The change management process was not formally documented
Backups of the old system and data are not available online
Unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion,
Data conversion was performed using manual processes
The finding that should be of greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system is that unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion. Data conversion and migration is a process that involves transferring data from one system to another, ensuring its accuracy, completeness, integrity, and usability. Unauthorized data modifications during conversion can result in data loss, corruption, inconsistency, or duplication, which can affect the functionality, performance, reliability, and security of the new system. Unauthorized data modifications can also have serious business implications, such as affecting decision making, reporting, compliance, customer service, and revenue. The IS auditor should verify that adequate controls are in place to prevent, detect, and correct unauthorized data modifications during conversion, such as access control, data validation, reconciliation, audit trail, and backup and recovery. The other findings (A, B and D) are less concerning, as they can be mitigated by documenting the change management process, restoring the backups of the old system and data from offline storage, or automating the data conversion process. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.4: System Implementation
An IS auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review of an application system. Which of the following would impair the auditor's independence?
The auditor implemented a specific control during the development of the system.
The auditor provided advice concerning best practices.
The auditor participated as a member of the project team without operational responsibilities
The auditor designed an embedded audit module exclusively for audit
The auditor implemented a specific control during the development of the system. This would impair the auditor’s independence, as it would create a self-review threat, which is a situation where an auditor has to evaluate or review the results of his or her own work or judgment1. A self-review threat may compromise the auditor’s objectivity and impartiality, as the auditor may be biased or influenced by his or her own involvement or interest in the system1. The auditor may also face a conflict of interest or a loss of credibility if he or she has to report on any issues or deficiencies related to the control he or she implemented.
In the case of a disaster where the data center is no longer available, which of the following tasks should be done FIRST?
Perform data recovery.
Arrange for a secondary site.
Analyze risk.
Activate the call tree.
In the event of a disaster where the data center is no longer available, the first step should be to activate the call tree1. A call tree is a layered hierarchical communication model used to notify specific individuals of an event and coordinate recovery efforts1. This ensures that all relevant parties are informed about the situation and can begin executing their parts of the disaster recovery plan1.
References:
One advantage of monetary unit sampling is the fact that
results are stated m terms of the frequency of items in error
it can easily be applied manually when computer resources are not available
large-value population items are segregated and audited separately
it increases the likelihood of selecting material items from the population
Monetary unit sampling (MUS) is a statistical sampling method that is used to determine if the account balances or monetary amounts in a population contain any misstatements. MUS treats each individual dollar in the population as a separate sampling unit, so that larger balances or amounts have a higher probability of being selected than smaller ones. MUS then projects the results of testing the sample to the entire population in terms of dollar values, rather than error rates.
One advantage of MUS is that it increases the likelihood of selecting material items from the population. Material items are those that have a significant impact on the financial statements and could influence the decisions of users. By giving more weight to larger items, MUS ensures that material misstatements are more likely to be detected and reported. MUS also reduces the sample size required to achieve a desired level of confidence and precision, as compared to other sampling methods that do not consider the value of items.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST way to address potential data privacy concerns associated with inadvertent disclosure of machine identifier information contained within security logs?
Unit the use of logs to only those purposes for which they were collected
Restrict the transfer of log files from host machine to online storage
Only collect logs from servers classified as business critical
Limit log collection to only periods of increased security activity
Limiting the use of logs to only those purposes for which they were collected is the best way to address potential data privacy concerns associated with inadvertent disclosure of machine identifier information contained within security logs, because it minimizes the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or leakage of personal data that may be embedded in the logs. Logs should be collected and processed in accordance with the data protection principles and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)12. Restricting the transfer of log files from host machine to online storage, only collecting logs from servers classified as business critical, and limiting log collection to only periods of increased security activity are not effective ways to address data privacy concerns, because they do not prevent or mitigate the potential disclosure of personal data in the logs. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.4 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with security patches being automatically downloaded and applied to production servers?
Supporting documentation is not updated.
Anti-malware is disabled during patch installation.
Patches may be installed regardless of their criticality.
Patches may result in major service failures.
The greatest risk associated with security patches being automatically downloaded and applied to production servers is that patches may result in major service failures, as they may introduce new bugs, conflicts, or incompatibilities that could affect the functionality, performance, or availability of the servers12. Automatic patching may also bypass the testing and validation processes that are necessary to ensure the quality and reliability of the patches34.
References
1: Do you leave Windows Automatic Updates enabled on your production IIS server? - Server Fault1 2: Azure now installs security updates on Windows VMs automatically3 3: Server Patch Management | Process of Server Patching - ManageEngine2 4: Windows Security Updates | Microsoft Patch Updates Guide - ManageEngine4
Which of the following would provide management with the MOST reasonable assurance that a new data warehouse will meet the needs of the
organization?
Integrating data requirements into the system development life cycle (SDLC)
Appointing data stewards to provide effective data governance
Classifying data quality issues by the severity of their impact to the organization
Facilitating effective communication between management and developers
A data warehouse is a centralized repository of data that is collected from various sources and organized for analysis and reporting purposes. A data warehouse can help an organization gain insights into its business performance, trends, and opportunities. However, building a data warehouse requires careful planning, design, and implementation to ensure that it meets the needs of the organization.
One of the best practices that would provide management with the most reasonable assurance that a new data warehouse will meet the needs of the organization is A. Integrating data requirements into the system development life cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a framework that defines the phases and activities involved in developing a software system, such as planning, analysis, design, testing, deployment, and maintenance1. By integrating data requirements into the SDLC, an organization can ensure that the data warehouse is aligned with the business objectives and expectations, and that it delivers value to the end users.
Some of the benefits of integrating data requirements into the SDLC are:
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of vulnerability scanning over penetration testing?
The testing produces a lower number of false positive results
Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently
Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately
The testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets
The greatest advantage of vulnerability scanning over penetration testing is that the testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets. Vulnerability scanning is an automated, high-level security test that reports its findings of known vulnerabilities in systems, networks, applications, and devices. Vulnerability scanning can be performed frequently, quickly, and efficiently to scan a large number of assets and identify potential weaknesses that need to be addressed. Vulnerability scanning can also help organizations comply with security standards and regulations, such as PCI DSS1.
The other options are not as advantageous as option D, as they may not reflect the true benefits or limitations of vulnerability scanning compared to penetration testing. The testing produces a lower number of false positive results, but this is not necessarily true, as vulnerability scanning may report vulnerabilities that are not exploitable or relevant in the context of the organization. Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently, but this may not be a significant advantage, as vulnerability scanning may still consume considerable network resources depending on the scope and frequency of the scans. Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately, but this is also not true, as vulnerability scanning may not be able to detect complex or unknown vulnerabilities that require manual analysis or exploitation.
References:
An organization is planning to implement a work-from-home policy that allows users to work remotely as needed. Which of the following is the BEST solution for ensuring secure remote access to corporate resources?
Additional firewall rules
Multi-factor authentication
Virtual private network (VPN)
Virtual desktop
The best solution for ensuring secure remote access to corporate resources is to use a virtual private network (VPN), as this creates an encrypted tunnel between the user’s device and the corporate network, preventing unauthorized interception or modification of data in transit. Additional firewall rules may help to restrict access to certain ports or protocols, but they do not provide encryption or authentication. Multi-factor authentication may help to verify the identity of the user, but it does not protect the data in transit. Virtual desktop may help to provide a consistent user interface and access to applications, but it does not ensure the security of the communication channel. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.2: Network Security Devices and Technologies
A bank wants to outsource a system to a cloud provider residing in another country. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate IS audit recommendation?
Find an alternative provider in the bank's home country.
Ensure the provider's internal control system meets bank requirements.
Proceed as intended, as the provider has to observe all laws of the clients’ countries.
Ensure the provider has disaster recovery capability.
A post-implementation review (PIR) is a process to evaluate whether the objectives of the project were met, determine how effectively this was achieved, learn lessons for the future, and ensure that the organisation gets the most benefit from the implementation of projects1. A PIR is an important tool for assessing the success and value of a project, as well as identifying the areas for improvement and best practices for future projects.
One of the key elements of a PIR is to measure the benefits of the project against the expected outcomes and benefits that were defined at the beginning of the project. Measurable benefits are the quantifiable and verifiable results or outcomes that the project delivers to the organisation or its stakeholders, such as increased revenue, reduced costs, improved quality, enhanced customer satisfaction, or compliance with regulations2. Measurable benefits should be aligned with the organisation’s strategy, vision, and goals, and should be SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound).
The finding that measurable benefits were not defined is of greatest significance among the four findings, because it implies that:
Therefore, an IS auditor should recommend that measurable benefits are defined for any project before its implementation, and that they are reviewed and reported regularly during and after the project’s completion.
The other possible findings are:
References: 1: The role & importance of the Post Implementation Review 2: What is Post-Implementation Review in Project Management?
Which of the following is MOST important during software license audits?
Judgmental sampling
Substantive testing
Compliance testing
Stop-or-go sampling
Substantive testing is the most important type of testing during software license audits, as it provides evidence of the accuracy and completeness of the software inventory and licensing records. Substantive testing involves examining transactions, balances, and other data to verify their validity, existence, accuracy, and valuation. Compliance testing, on the other hand, is more focused on assessing the adequacy and effectiveness of internal controls over software licensing, such as policies, procedures, and monitoring mechanisms. Compliance testing alone cannot provide sufficient assurance that the software license audit objectives are met, as it does not verify the actual software usage and compliance status. Judgmental sampling and stop-or-go sampling are methods of selecting samples for testing, not types of testing themselves. *References: According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 1206 Testing, “The IS audit and assurance professional should perform sufficient testing to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to support conclusions reached.” 1 The section also defines substantive testing as “testing performed to obtain audit evidence to detect material misstatements in transactions or balances” and compliance testing as “testing performed to obtain audit evidence on the operating effectiveness of controls.” 1 According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Guideline G15 Software License Management, “The objective of a software license audit is to provide management with an independent assessment relating to compliance with software license agreements.” 2 The guideline also states that “substantive tests should be performed on a sample basis to verify that all software installed on devices within scope has been appropriately licensed.” 2
When is it MOST important for an IS auditor to apply the concept of materiality in an audit?
When planning an audit engagement
When gathering information for the fieldwork
When a violation of a regulatory requirement has been identified
When evaluating representations from the auditee
The concept of materiality is most important for an IS auditor to apply when planning an audit engagement, because it helps the auditor to determine the scope, objectives, procedures and resources of the audit. Materiality is the degree to which an omission or misstatement of information could affect the users’ decisions or the achievement of the audit objectives. By applying the concept of materiality, the auditor can focus on the most significant and relevant areas of the audit and avoid wasting time and effort on trivial or immaterial matters. The other options are not as important as planning an audit engagement, because they are either based on or affected by the materiality assessment done during the planning phase. References:
Demonstrated support from which of the following roles in an organization has the MOST influence over information security governance?
Chief information security officer (CISO)
Information security steering committee
Board of directors
Chief information officer (CIO)
Information security governance is the subset of enterprise governance that provides strategic direction, ensures that objectives are achieved, manages risk appropriately, uses organizational resources responsibly, and monitors the success or failure of the enterprise security program. Information security governance is essential for ensuring that an organization’s information assets are protected from internal and external threats, and that the organization complies with relevant laws and standards.
Demonstrated support from which of the following roles in an organization has the most influence over information security governance? The answer is C, the board of directors. The board of directors is the highest governing body of an organization, responsible for overseeing its strategic direction, performance, and accountability. The board of directors sets the tone at the top for information security governance by:
The board of directors has the most influence over information security governance because it has the ultimate authority and responsibility for ensuring that information security is aligned with the organization’s business objectives, risks, and stakeholder expectations.
References:
Which of the following provides the MOST protection against emerging threats?
Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
Heuristic intrusion detection system (IDS)
Real-time updating of antivirus software
Signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS)
A heuristic intrusion detection system (IDS) provides the most protection against emerging threats, as it uses behavioral analysis and anomaly detection to identify unknown or zero-day attacks. A heuristic IDS can adapt to changing patterns and learn from previous incidents, making it more effective than a signature-based IDS, which relies on predefined rules and signatures to detect known attacks. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a network segment that separates the internal network from the external network, and it can provide some protection against external threats, but not against internal or emerging threats. Real-time updating of antivirus software is important to protect against malware, but it may not be sufficient to prevent new or sophisticated attacks that exploit unknown vulnerabilities. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 452-453.
An IS auditor evaluating the change management process must select a sample from the change log. What is the BEST way to the auditor to confirm the change log is complete?
Interview change management personnel about completeness.
Take an item from the log and trace it back to the system.
Obtain management attestation of completeness.
Take the last change from the system and trace it back to the log.
The answer D is correct because the best way for the auditor to confirm the change log is complete is to take the last change from the system and trace it back to the log. A change log is a record of all the changes that have been made to a system, such as software updates, bug fixes, configuration modifications, etc. A change log should contain information such as the date and time of the change, the description and purpose of the change, the person or service who made the change, and the approval status of the change. A complete change log helps to ensure that the system is secure, reliable, and compliant with the relevant standards and regulations.
An IS auditor evaluating the change management process must select a sample from the change log to verify that the changes are properly authorized, documented, tested, and implemented. However, before selecting a sample, the auditor must ensure that the change log is complete and accurate, meaning that it contains all the changes that have been made to the system and that there are no missing, duplicated, or falsified entries. To do this, the auditor can use a technique called backward tracing, which involves taking the last change from the system and tracing it back to the log. This way, the auditor can check if the change is recorded in the log with all the relevant details and if there are any gaps or inconsistencies in the log. If the last change from the system is not found in the log or does not match with the log entry, it indicates that the change log is incomplete or inaccurate.
The other options are not as good as option D. Interviewing change management personnel about completeness (option A) is not a reliable way to confirm the change log is complete because it relies on subjective opinions and self-reported information, which may not be truthful or accurate. Taking an item from the log and tracing it back to the system (option B) is a technique called forward tracing, which can be used to verify that a specific change in the log has been implemented in the system. However, this technique does not confirm that all changes in the system are recorded in the log. Obtaining management attestation of completeness (option C) is not a sufficient way to confirm the change log is complete because it does not provide any evidence or verification of completeness. Management attestation may also be biased or influenced by conflicts of interest.
References:
An organization has shifted from a bottom-up approach to a top-down approach in the development of IT policies. This should result in:
greater consistency across the organization.
a synthesis of existing operational policies.
a more comprehensive risk assessment plan.
greater adherence to best practices.
A top-down approach in the development of IT policies means that the policies are derived from the strategic objectives and goals of the organization, and are aligned with the business needs and expectations. This should result in greater consistency across the organization, as the policies will be coherent, integrated and applicable to all levels and functions of the organization. A bottom-up approach, on the other hand, means that the policies are developed by individual units or departments based on their operational needs and preferences, which may lead to inconsistency, duplication or conflict among different policies. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, IT Governance and Process Maturity
Which of the following controls is MOST important for ensuring the integrity of system interfaces?
Periodic audits
File counts
File checksums
IT operator monitoring
File checksums are values that are calculated from the contents of a file and can detect any changes or corruption in the file. They are used to verify that the files that are transferred or processed through system interfaces are not altered in any way. File checksums are more effective than periodic audits, file counts, or IT operator monitoring, which are other types of controls that can help ensure the integrity of system interfaces, but they are not as reliable or timely as file checksums.
In a review of the organization standards and guidelines for IT management, which of the following should be included in an IS development methodology?
Value-added activity analysis
Risk management techniques
Access control rules
Incident management techniques
Risk management techniques should be included in an IS development methodology. An IS development methodology is a set of guidelines, standards, and procedures that provide a structured and consistent approach to developing information systems. A good IS development methodology should cover all the phases of the system development life cycle (SDLC), from planning and analysis to design, implementation, testing, and maintenance1.
Risk management techniques are an essential part of an IS development methodology, as they help to identify, assess, prioritize, mitigate, monitor, and communicate the risks that may affect the success of the system development project. Risk management techniques can also help to ensure that the system meets the requirements and expectations of the stakeholders, complies with the relevant laws and regulations, and delivers value to the organization2.
The other options are not as relevant or appropriate as risk management techniques for an IS development methodology. Value-added activity analysis is a technique for evaluating the efficiency and effectiveness of business processes, but it is not specific to IS development3. Access control rules are policies and mechanisms for restricting or granting access to information systems and resources, but they are more related to security management than IS development4. Incident management techniques are methods for handling and resolving incidents that disrupt the normal operation of information systems and services, but they are more related to service management than IS development5.
References:
The record-locking option of a database management system (DBMS) serves to.
eliminate the risk of concurrent updates to a record
allow database administrators (DBAs) to record the activities of users.
restrict users from changing certain values within records.
allow users to lock others out of their files.
The record-locking option of a database management system (DBMS) serves to eliminate the risk of concurrent updates to a record by different users or transactions. Record locking is a technique of preventing simultaneous access to data in a database, to prevent inconsistent results1. For example, if two bank clerks try to update the same bank account for two different transactions, record locking can ensure that only one clerk can modify the record at a time, while the other has to wait until the lock is released. This way, the record will reflect both transactions correctly and avoid data corruption.
Record locking does not serve to allow database administrators (DBAs) to record the activities of users. This is a function of auditing or logging, which can track the actions performed by users on the database2. Record locking does not affect the ability of DBAs to monitor or audit user activities.
Record locking does not serve to restrict users from changing certain values within records. This is a function of access control or authorization, which can enforce rules or policies on what data users can view or modify2. Record locking does not affect the permissions or privileges of users on the database.
Record locking does not serve to allow users to lock others out of their files. This is a function of encryption or password protection, which can secure files from unauthorized access or modification3. Record locking does not affect the security or confidentiality of files on the database.
References:
During a review, an IS auditor discovers that corporate users are able to access cloud-based applications and data any Internet-connected web browser. Which Of the following
is the auditor’s BEST recommendation to prevent unauthorized access?
Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS),
Update security policies and procedures.
Implement multi-factor authentication.
Utilize strong anti-malware controls on all computing devices.
The best recommendation to prevent unauthorized access to cloud-based applications and data is to implement multi-factor authentication (MFA). MFA is a method of verifying the identity of a user by requiring two or more pieces of evidence, such as a password, a code sent to a phone, or a biometric factor. MFA adds an extra layer of security to prevent unauthorized access, even if the user’s password is compromised or stolen. MFA can also help comply with data privacy and security regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
The other options are not as effective as MFA in preventing unauthorized access. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a tool that monitors network traffic and alerts administrators of suspicious or malicious activity, but it does not prevent access by itself. Updating security policies and procedures is a good practice, but it does not ensure that users follow them or that they are enforced. Utilizing strong anti-malware controls on all computing devices can help protect against malware infections, but it does not prevent users from accessing cloud-based applications and data from any Internet-connected web browser.
References:
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when reviewing an organization's defined data backup and restoration procedures?
Business continuity plan (BCP)
Recovery point objective (RPO)
Mean time to restore (MTTR)
Mean time between failures (MTBF)
A recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss after an unplanned data-loss incident, expressed as an amount of time. This is generally thought of as the point in time before the event at which data can be successfully recovered – that is, the time elapsed since the most recent reliable backup1. RPOs are important to consider when reviewing an organization’s defined data backup and restoration procedures, because they determine how frequently the organization needs to perform backups, and how much data it can afford to lose in case of a disaster. RPOs are usually defined based on the business impact and criticality of the data, as well as the compliance and regulatory requirements. For example, a financial institution may have a very low RPO (such as a few minutes or seconds) for its transactional data, while a research institute may have a higher RPO (such as a few hours or days) for its experimental data.
The other possible options are:
Which of the following would be an auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing data inputs from spreadsheets into the core finance system?
Undocumented code formats data and transmits directly to the database.
There is not a complete inventory of spreadsheets, and file naming is inconsistent.
The department data protection policy has not been reviewed or updated for two years.
Spreadsheets are accessible by all members of the finance department.
The auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing data inputs from spreadsheets into the core finance system would be undocumented code that formats data and transmits directly to the database. This is because undocumented code can introduce errors, inconsistencies, and security risks in the data processing and reporting. Undocumented code can also make it difficult to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data inputs and outputs, as well as to trace the source and destination of the data. Undocumented code can also violate the principles of segregation of duties, as the same person who creates the code may also have access to the data and the database.
The other options are not as concerning as undocumented code, although they may also pose some risks. A lack of complete inventory of spreadsheets and inconsistent file naming may make it challenging to identify and locate the relevant spreadsheets, but they do not directly affect the quality or integrity of the data inputs. The department data protection policy not being reviewed or updated for two years may indicate a lack of awareness or compliance with the current data protection regulations, but it does not necessarily imply that the data inputs are compromised or inaccurate. Spreadsheets being accessible by all members of the finance department may increase the risk of unauthorized or accidental changes to the data, but it can be mitigated by implementing access controls, password protection, and audit trails.
References:
An IS auditor is reviewing a contract for the outsourcing of IT facilities. If missing, which of the following should present the GREATEST concern to the auditor?
Hardware configurations
Access control requirements
Help desk availability
Perimeter network security diagram
The missing access control requirements should present the greatest concern to the IS auditor when reviewing a contract for the outsourcing of IT facilities. Access control requirements are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the outsourced IT resources and data. They specify the roles, responsibilities, and permissions of the outsourcing vendor and its staff, as well as the client and its users, in accessing and managing the IT facilities. They also define the security policies, standards, and procedures that the outsourcing vendor must follow to protect the IT facilities from unauthorized or malicious access, use, modification, or disclosure. Without clear and comprehensive access control requirements, the outsourcing contract may expose the client to significant risks of data breaches, compliance violations, service disruptions, or reputational damage.
Hardware configurations, help desk availability, and perimeter network security diagram are important aspects of an outsourcing contract, but they are not as critical as access control requirements. Hardware configurations describe the technical specifications and performance of the IT equipment that the outsourcing vendor will provide and maintain. Help desk availability defines the service levels and support channels that the outsourcing vendor will offer to the client and its users. Perimeter network security diagram illustrates the network architecture and security measures that the outsourcing vendor will implement to protect the IT facilities from external threats. These aspects can be verified or modified during the implementation or operation phases of the outsourcing contract, but access control requirements need to be established and agreed upon before signing the contract.
References:
An IS auditor is reviewing the installation of a new server. The IS auditor's PRIMARY objective is to ensure that
security parameters are set in accordance with the manufacturer s standards.
a detailed business case was formally approved prior to the purchase.
security parameters are set in accordance with the organization's policies.
the procurement project invited lenders from at least three different suppliers.
The primary objective of an IS auditor when reviewing the installation of a new server is to ensure that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies. Security parameters are settings or options that control the security level and behavior of the server, such as authentication methods, encryption algorithms, access rights, audit logs, firewall rules, or password policies7. The organization’s policies are documents that define the security goals, requirements, standards, and guidelines for the organization’s information systems. An IS auditor should verify that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies to ensure that the new server complies with the organization’s security expectations and regulations. The other options are less important or incorrect because:
Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement a data retention policy?
To limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information
To document business objectives for processing data within the organization
To assign responsibility and ownership for data protection outside IT
To establish a recovery point detective (RPO) for (toaster recovery procedures
The best reason to implement a data retention policy is to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information. A data retention policy is a document that defines how long data should be kept by an organization and how they should be disposed of when they are no longer needed. A data retention policy should comply with the applicable laws and regulations that govern the data retention requirements and obligations of organizations, such as tax laws, privacy laws, or industry standards4. Implementing a data retention policy can help to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information by reducing the amount of data that need to be stored and secured, minimizing the risk of data breaches or leaks, ensuring compliance with legal or contractual obligations, and avoiding potential fines or penalties for non-compliance5. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
Which of the following is a challenge in developing a service level agreement (SLA) for network services?
Establishing a well-designed framework for network servirces.
Finding performance metrics that can be measured properly
Ensuring that network components are not modified by the client
Reducing the number of entry points into the network
One of the challenges in developing a SLA for network services is finding performance metrics that can be measured properly and reflect the quality of service expected by the customer. Establishing a well-designed framework for network services is not a challenge, but a good practice. Ensuring that network components are not modified by the client or reducing the number of entry points into the network are security issues, not SLA issues. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 333
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that an organization's IT strategy is aligned lo its business objectives?
The IT strategy is modified in response to organizational change.
The IT strategy is approved by executive management.
The IT strategy is based on IT operational best practices.
The IT strategy has significant impact on the business strategy
The best evidence that an organization’s IT strategy is aligned to its business objectives is that the IT strategy is approved by executive management. This implies that the IT strategy has been reviewed and validated by the senior leaders of the organization, who are responsible for setting and overseeing the business objectives. The IT strategy may be modified in response to organizational change, based on IT operational best practices, or have significant impact on the business strategy, but these are not sufficient indicators of alignment without executive approval. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1
Which of the following would be MOST useful when analyzing computer performance?
Statistical metrics measuring capacity utilization
Operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time
Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage
Report of off-peak utilization and response time
Computer performance is the measure of how well a computer system can execute tasks and applications within a given time frame. Computer performance can be affected by various factors, such as hardware specifications, software configuration, network conditions, and user behavior. To analyze computer performance, it is important to use statistical metrics that can quantify the capacity utilization of the system resources, such as CPU, memory, disk, and network. These metrics can help identify the bottlenecks, inefficiencies, and anomalies that may degrade the performance of the system. Examples of such metrics include CPU utilization, memory usage, disk throughput, network bandwidth, and response time.
The other options are not as useful as statistical metrics when analyzing computer performance. An operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time is a subjective measure that may not reflect the actual performance of the system. Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage is a corrective action that can improve performance, but it is not a method of analysis. A report of off-peak utilization and response time is a limited snapshot that may not capture the peak performance or the average performance of the system.
References:
An IS auditor is reviewing logical access controls for an organization's financial business application Which of the following findings should be of GREATEST concern to the auditor?
Users are not required to change their passwords on a regular basis
Management does not review application user activity logs
User accounts are shared between users
Password length is set to eight characters
The finding that should be of greatest concern to the IS auditor is that user accounts are shared between users. User accounts are unique identifiers that grant access to an organization’s financial business application based on the roles and responsibilities of the users. User accounts should be individualized and personalized to ensure accountability, traceability, and auditability of user actions and transactions. User accounts should not be shared between users, because this can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the financial data and systems, and can enable unauthorized or fraudulent activities. If user accounts are shared between users, the IS auditor may not be able to determine who performed what action or transaction, or whether the user had the appropriate authorization or approval. The other findings are also concerning, but not as much as user account sharing, because they either affect the password strength or frequency rather than the user identity, or they relate to monitoring rather than controlling user access. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2
When verifying the accuracy and completeness of migrated data for a new application system replacing a legacy system. It is MOST effective for an IS auditor to review;
data analytics findings.
audit trails
acceptance lasting results
rollback plans
When verifying the accuracy and completeness of migrated data for a new application system replacing a legacy system, it is most effective for an IS auditor to review data analytics findings. Data analytics is a technique that uses software tools and statistical methods to analyze large volumes of data and identify patterns, anomalies, errors or inconsistencies. Data analytics can help to compare the source and target data sets, validate the data quality and integrity, and detect any data loss or corruption during the migration process. The other options are not as effective, because audit trails only record the actions performed on the data, acceptance testing results only verify the functionality of the new system, and rollback plans only provide contingency measures in case of migration failure. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.6
Which of the following would BEST ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster''
Use an electronic vault for incremental backups
Deploy a fully automated backup maintenance system.
Periodically test backups stored in a remote location
Use both tape and disk backup systems
The best way to ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster is to periodically test backups stored in a remote location. Testing backups is essential to verify that the backup copies are valid, complete, and recoverable. Testing backups also helps to identify any issues or errors that may affect the backup process or the restoration of data. Storing backups in a remote location is important to protect the backup copies from physical damage, theft, or unauthorized access that may occur at the primary site. Using an electronic vault for incremental backups, deploying a fully automated backup maintenance system, or using both tape and disk backup systems are not sufficient to ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster, as they do not address the need for testing backups or storing them in a remote location. References: Backup and Recovery of Data: The Essential Guide | Veritas, The Truth About Data Backup for Mission-Critical Environments - DATAVERSITY.
Which of the following would BEST enable an organization to address the security risks associated with a recently implemented bring your own device (BYOD) strategy?
Mobile device tracking program
Mobile device upgrade program
Mobile device testing program
Mobile device awareness program
A mobile device awareness program would best enable an organization to address the security risks associated with a recently implemented bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. A mobile device awareness program is a set of activities that aim to educate and inform the employees about the benefits, challenges, and best practices of using their personal mobile devices for work purposes. A mobile device awareness program can help the organization to:
A mobile device awareness program can help the organization to reduce the security risks associated with BYOD by enhancing the employees’ knowledge, skills, and behavior in using their mobile devices securely and responsibly. A mobile device awareness program can also help the organization to comply with relevant regulations and standards that govern data privacy and security in the cloud1.
The other options are not as effective as a mobile device awareness program in enabling an organization to address the security risks associated with BYOD. Option A, mobile device tracking program, is a tool that allows the organization to monitor and locate the employees’ mobile devices in case of loss or theft. However, this tool may not prevent or detect other types of security risks, such as malware infection or data breach. Option B, mobile device upgrade program, is a process that ensures that the employees’ mobile devices are running the latest versions of operating systems and applications. However, this process may not address other aspects of security, such as user behavior or data protection. Option C, mobile device testing program, is a method that verifies the functionality and compatibility of the employees’ mobile devices with the organization’s systems and networks. However, this method may not cover all the scenarios or factors that may affect the security of the mobile devices or the organization’s data2.
References:
A review of Internet security disclosed that users have individual user accounts with Internet service providers (ISPs) and use these accounts for downloading business data. The organization wants to ensure that only the corporate network is used. The organization should FIRST:
use a proxy server to filter out Internet sites that should not be accessed.
keep a manual log of Internet access.
monitor remote access activities.
include a statement in its security policy about Internet use.
The first step that the organization should take to ensure that only the corporate network is used for downloading business data is to include a statement in its security policy about Internet use. A security policy is a document that defines the rules, expectations, and overall approach that an organization uses to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of its data1. A security policy should clearly state the acceptable and unacceptable use of Internet resources, such as personal accounts with ISPs, and the consequences of violating the policy. A security policy also helps to guide the implementation of technical controls, such as proxy servers, firewalls, or monitoring tools, that can enforce the policy and prevent or detect unauthorized Internet access.
The other options are not the first step that the organization should take, but rather subsequent or complementary steps that depend on the security policy. Using a proxy server to filter out Internet sites that should not be accessed is a technical control that can help implement the security policy, but it does not address the root cause of why users are using personal accounts with ISPs. Keeping a manual log of Internet access is a monitoring technique that can help audit the compliance with the security policy, but it does not prevent or deter users from using personal accounts with ISPs. Monitoring remote access activities is another monitoring technique that can help detect unauthorized Internet access, but it does not specify what constitutes unauthorized access or how to respond to it.
References:
An organization allows its employees lo use personal mobile devices for work. Which of the following would BEST maintain information security without compromising employee privacy?
Installing security software on the devices
Partitioning the work environment from personal space on devices
Preventing users from adding applications
Restricting the use of devices for personal purposes during working hours
Partitioning the work environment from personal space on devices. This would best maintain information security without compromising employee privacy by creating a separate and secure area on the personal mobile devices for work-related data and applications. This way, the organization can protect its information from unauthorized access, loss, or leakage, while respecting the employees’ personal data and preferences on their own devices.
The other options are not as effective as option B in balancing information security and employee privacy. Option A, installing security software on the devices, is a good practice but may not be sufficient to prevent data breaches or comply with regulatory requirements. Option C, preventing users from adding applications, is too restrictive and may interfere with the employees’ personal use of their devices. Option D, restricting the use of devices for personal purposes during working hours, is impractical and difficult to enforce.
References:
Which of the following IT service management activities is MOST likely to help with identifying the root cause of repeated instances of network latency?
Change management
Problem management
incident management
Configuration management
Problem management is an IT service management activity that is most likely to help with identifying the root cause of repeated instances of network latency. Problem management involves analyzing incidents that affect IT services and finding solutions to prevent them from recurring or minimize their impact. Change management is an IT service management activity that involves controlling and documenting any modifications to IT services or infrastructure. Incident management is an IT service management activity that involves restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident has occurred. Configuration management is an IT service management activity that involves identifying and maintaining records of IT assets and their relationships. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 334
An IS auditor is reviewing processes for importing market price data from external data providers. Which of the following findings should the auditor consider MOST critical?
The quality of the data is not monitored.
Imported data is not disposed frequently.
The transfer protocol is not encrypted.
The transfer protocol does not require authentication.
The most critical finding that the IS auditor should consider when reviewing processes for importing market price data from external data providers is that the quality of the data is not monitored. This is because market price data is essential for financial transactions, risk management, valuation and reporting, and any errors or inaccuracies in the data can have significant impact on the organization’s performance, reputation and compliance. The IS auditor should ensure that the organization has established quality criteria and controls for the imported data, such as validity, completeness, timeliness, consistency and accuracy, and that the data is regularly checked and verified against these criteria. The other findings are also important, but not as critical as data quality. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.7
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization's information security policy?
IT steering committee minutes
Business objectives
Alignment with the IT tactical plan
Compliance with industry best practice
The most important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization’s information security policy is the business objectives. An information security policy is a document that defines the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from internal and external threats. It should align with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and goals, and support its business processes and functions1. An information security policy should also be focused on the business needs and requirements of the organization, rather than on technical details or specific solutions2.
The other options are not as important as the business objectives, because they do not directly reflect the organization’s purpose and direction. IT steering committee minutes are records of the discussions and decisions made by a group of senior executives who oversee the IT strategy and governance of the organization. They may provide some insights into the information security policy, but they are not sufficient to evaluate its adequacy3. Alignment with the IT tactical plan is a measure of how well the information security policy supports the short-term actions and projects that implement the IT strategy. However, the IT tactical plan itself should be aligned with the business objectives, and not vice versa4. Compliance with industry best practice is a desirable quality of an information security policy, but it is not a guarantee of its effectiveness or suitability for the organization. Industry best practices are general guidelines or recommendations that may not apply to every organization or situation. An information security policy should be customized and tailored to the specific context and needs of the organization. References:
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with unintentional modifications of complex calculations in end-user computing (EUC)?
Have an independent party review the source calculations
Execute copies of EUC programs out of a secure library
implement complex password controls
Verify EUC results through manual calculations
The best way to mitigate the risk associated with unintentional modifications of complex calculations in end-user computing (EUC) is to execute copies of EUC programs out of a secure library. This will ensure that the original EUC programs are protected from unauthorized changes and that the copies are run in a controlled environment. A secure library is a repository of EUC programs that have been tested, validated, and approved by the appropriate authority. Executing copies of EUC programs out of a secure library can also help with version control, backup, and recovery of EUC programs. Having an independent party review the source calculations, implementing complex password controls, and verifying EUC results through manual calculations are not as effective as executing copies of EUC programs out of a secure library, as they do not prevent or detect unintentional modifications of complex calculations in EUC. References: End-User Computing (EUC) Risks: A Comprehensive Guide, End User Computing (EUC) Risk Management
An IS auditor assessing the controls within a newly implemented call center would First
gather information from the customers regarding response times and quality of service.
review the manual and automated controls in the call center.
test the technical infrastructure at the call center.
evaluate the operational risk associated with the call center.
The first step in assessing the controls within a newly implemented call center is to evaluate the operational risk associated with the call center. This will help the IS auditor to identify the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect the call center’s objectives, performance, and availability. The evaluation of operational risk will also provide a basis for determining the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit. The other options are possible audit procedures, but they are not the first step in the audit process. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
The DRP has not been formally approved by senior management.
The DRP has not been distributed to end users.
The DRP has not been updated since an IT infrastructure upgrade.
The DRP contains recovery procedures for critical servers only.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP) is that the DRP has not been updated since an IT infrastructure upgrade. This could render the DRP obsolete or ineffective, as it may not reflect the current configuration, dependencies or recovery requirements of the IT systems. The IS auditor should ensure that the DRP is reviewed and updated regularly to align with any changes in the IT environment. The DRP has not been formally approved by senior management is a concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s DRP, but it is not as critical as ensuring that the DRP is up to date and valid. The DRP has not been distributed to end users or the DRP contains recovery procedures for critical servers only are issues that relate to the communication or scope of the DRP, but not to its validity or effectiveness. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 389
Which of the following should be the IS auditor's PRIMARY focus, when evaluating an organization's offsite storage facility?
Shared facilities
Adequacy of physical and environmental controls
Results of business continuity plan (BCP) test
Retention policy and period
The IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating an organization’s offsite storage facility should be the adequacy of physical and environmental controls. Physical and environmental controls are essential to protect the offsite storage facility from unauthorized access, theft, fire, water damage, pests or other hazards that could compromise the integrity and availability of backup media. Shared facilities is something that the IS auditor should consider when evaluating the offsite storage facility, but it is not the primary focus. Results of business continuity plan (BCP) test or retention policy and period are things that the IS auditor should review when evaluating the organization’s BCP or backup strategy, not the offsite storage facility itself. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 388
Which of the following application input controls would MOST likely detect data input errors in the customer account number field during the processing of an accounts receivable transaction?
Limit check
Parity check
Reasonableness check
Validity check
The most likely application input control that would detect data input errors in the customer account number field during the processing of an accounts receivable transaction is a validity check. A validity check is a type of application control that verifies whether the data entered in an application matches a predefined set of values or criteria1. For example, a validity check can compare the customer account number entered by the user with a list of existing customer account numbers stored in a database, and reject any input that does not match any of the valid values2.
The other options are not as likely to detect data input errors in the customer account number field, because they do not compare the input with a predefined set of values or criteria. A limit check is a type of application control that verifies whether the data entered in an application falls within a specified range or limit1. For example, a limit check can ensure that the amount entered for an invoice does not exceed a certain maximum value2. A parity check is a type of application control that verifies whether the data entered in an application has an even or odd number of bits1. For example, a parity check can detect transmission errors in binary data by adding an extra bit to the data and checking whether the number of bits is consistent3. A reasonableness check is a type of application control that verifies whether the data entered in an application is logical or sensible based on other related data or information1. For example, a reasonableness check can ensure that the date entered for an order is not in the future or before the date of creation of the customer account2. References:
Which of the following would an IS auditor recommend as the MOST effective preventive control to reduce the risk of data leakage?
Ensure that paper documents arc disposed security.
Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS).
Verify that application logs capture any changes made.
Validate that all data files contain digital watermarks
Digital watermarks are hidden marks or codes that can be embedded into digital files, such as images, videos, audio, or documents. They can be used to identify the source, owner, or authorized user of the data, as well as to track any unauthorized copying or distribution of the data. Digital watermarks can help prevent data leakage by deterring potential leakers from sharing sensitive data or by providing evidence of data leakage if it occurs.
The other options are not as effective as digital watermarks in preventing data leakage. Ensuring that paper documents are disposed securely can reduce the risk of physical data leakage, but it does not address the digital data leakage that is more prevalent in today’s environment. Implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS) can help detect and respond to cyberattacks that may cause data leakage, but it does not prevent data leakage from insiders or authorized users who have legitimate access to the data. Verifying that application logs capture any changes made can help audit and investigate data leakage incidents, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place.
References:
An externally facing system containing sensitive data is configured such that users have either read-only or administrator rights. Most users of the system have administrator access. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with this situation?
Users can export application logs.
Users can view sensitive data.
Users can make unauthorized changes.
Users can install open-licensed software.
The greatest risk associated with having most users with administrator access to an externally facing system containing sensitive data is that users can make unauthorized changes to the system or the data, which could compromise the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of the system and the data. Users can export application logs, view sensitive data, and install open-licensed software are also risks, but they are not as severe as unauthorized changes. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition Chapter 4
During an IT general controls audit of a high-risk area where both internal and external audit teams are reviewing the same approach to optimize resources?
Leverage the work performed by external audit for the internal audit testing.
Ensure both the internal and external auditors perform the work simultaneously.
Request that the external audit team leverage the internal audit work.
Roll forward the general controls audit to the subsequent audit year.
The best approach to optimize resources when both internal and external audit teams are reviewing the same IT general controls area is to leverage the work performed by external audit for the internal audit testing. This can avoid duplication of efforts, reduce audit costs and enhance coordination between the audit teams. The internal audit team should evaluate the quality and reliability of the external audit work before relying on it. Ensuring both the internal and external auditors perform the work simultaneously is not an efficient use of resources, as it would create redundancy and possible interference. Requesting that the external audit team leverage the internal audit work may not be feasible or acceptable, as the external audit team may have different objectives, standards and independence requirements. Rolling forward the general controls audit to the subsequent audit year is not a good practice, as it would delay the identification and remediation of any control weaknesses in a high-risk area. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 247
A review of an organization’s IT portfolio revealed several applications that are not in use. The BEST way to prevent this situation from recurring would be to implement.
A formal request for proposal (RFP) process
Business case development procedures
An information asset acquisition policy
Asset life cycle management.
Asset life cycle management is a technique of asset management where facility managers maximize the usable life of assets through planning, purchasing, using, maintaining, and disposing of assets1. The main aim of asset life cycle management is to reduce costs and increase productivity by optimizing the performance, reliability, and lifespan of assets2. Asset life cycle management can help prevent the situation of having unused applications by ensuring that the applications are aligned with the business needs, objectives, and strategies, and that they are regularly reviewed, updated, or retired as necessary3.
The other options are not as effective as asset life cycle management for preventing unused applications. A formal request for proposal (RFP) process is a method of soliciting bids from potential vendors or suppliers for a project or service. A RFP process can help select the best application for a specific requirement, but it does not ensure that the application will be used or maintained throughout its lifecycle. Business case development procedures are a set of steps that involve defining the problem, analyzing the alternatives, and proposing a solution for a project or initiative. Business case development procedures can help justify the need and value of an application, but they do not guarantee that the application will be utilized or supported after its implementation. An information asset acquisition policy is a document that outlines the rules and standards for acquiring information assets such as applications. An information asset acquisition policy can help ensure that the applications are acquired in a consistent and compliant manner, but it does not address how the applications will be managed or disposed of after their acquisition.
Which of the following issues associated with a data center's closed-circuit television (CCTV) surveillance cameras should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor?
CCTV recordings are not regularly reviewed.
CCTV cameras are not installed in break rooms
CCTV records are deleted after one year.
CCTV footage is not recorded 24 x 7.
The most concerning issue associated with a data center’s CCTV surveillance cameras is that the recordings are not regularly reviewed. This means that any unauthorized access, theft, vandalism, or other security incidents may go unnoticed and unreported. CCTV recordings are a valuable source of evidence and deterrence for data center security, and they should be monitored and audited periodically to ensure compliance with policies and regulations. If the recordings are not reviewed, the data center may face legal, financial, or reputational risks in case of a security breach or an audit failure.
The other options are less concerning because they do not directly affect the security of the data center. CCTV cameras are not required to be installed in break rooms, as they are not critical areas for data protection. CCTV records can be deleted after one year, as long as they comply with the data retention policy of the organization and the applicable laws. CCTV footage does not need to be recorded 24 x 7, as long as there is sufficient coverage of the data center during operational hours and when access is granted to authorized personnel. References:
An IS auditor has completed the fieldwork phase of a network security review and is preparing the initial following findings should be ranked as the HIGHEST risk?
Network penetration tests are not performed
The network firewall policy has not been approved by the information security officer.
Network firewall rules have not been documented.
The network device inventory is incomplete.
The finding that should be ranked as the highest risk is that network penetration tests are not performed. Network penetration tests are simulated cyberattacks that aim to identify and exploit the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of the network security controls, such as firewalls, routers, switches, servers, and devices. Network penetration tests are essential for assessing the effectiveness and resilience of the network security posture, and for providing recommendations for improvement and remediation. If network penetration tests are not performed, the organization may not be aware of the existing or potential threats and risks to its network, and may not be able to prevent or respond to real cyberattacks, which can result in data breaches, service disruptions, financial losses, reputational damage, and legal or regulatory penalties. The other findings are also important, but not as risky as the lack of network penetration tests, because they either do not directly affect the network security controls, or they can be addressed by documentation or approval processes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
An IS auditor finds that one employee has unauthorized access to confidential data. The IS auditor's BEST recommendation should be to:
reclassify the data to a lower level of confidentiality
require the business owner to conduct regular access reviews.
implement a strong password schema for users.
recommend corrective actions to be taken by the security administrator.
The best recommendation for an IS auditor who finds that one employee has unauthorized access to confidential data is to require the business owner to conduct regular access reviews. Access reviews are periodic assessments of user access rights and permissions to ensure that they are appropriate, necessary, and aligned with the business needs and objectives. Access reviews help to identify and remediate any unauthorized, excessive, or obsolete access that could pose a security risk or violate compliance requirements. The business owner is responsible for defining and approving the access requirements for their data and ensuring that they are enforced and monitored. References:
During a follow-up audit, an IS auditor finds that some critical recommendations have the IS auditor's BEST course of action?
Require the auditee to address the recommendations in full.
Adjust the annual risk assessment accordingly.
Evaluate senior management's acceptance of the risk.
Update the audit program based on management's acceptance of risk.
The best course of action for an IS auditor who finds that some critical recommendations have not been implemented is to evaluate senior management’s acceptance of the risk. The IS auditor should understand the reasons why the recommendations have not been implemented and the implications for the organization’s risk exposure. The IS auditor should also verify that senior management has formally acknowledged and accepted the residual risk and has documented the rationale and justification for their decision. The IS auditor should communicate the findings and the risk acceptance to the audit committee and other relevant stakeholders. References:
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk that IS auditors are required to consider for each engagement?
Process and resource inefficiencies
Irregularities and illegal acts
Noncompliance with organizational policies
Misalignment with business objectives
The most significant risk that IS auditors are required to consider for each engagement is the misalignment with business objectives. This is because IS audit engagements are intended to provide assurance that the IT systems and processes support the achievement of the business objectives and strategies. If there is a misalignment, it could result in wasted resources, missed opportunities, inefficiencies, errors, or failures that could adversely affect the organization’s performance and reputation12. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.3: Audit Risk, page 28 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Lesson 1.3: Audit Risk
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to confirm when reviewing an organization's plans to implement robotic process automation (RPA> to automate routine business tasks?
The end-to-end process is understood and documented.
Roles and responsibilities are defined for the business processes in scope.
A benchmarking exercise of industry peers who use RPA has been completed.
A request for proposal (RFP) has been issued to qualified vendors.
The most important thing for an IS auditor to confirm when reviewing an organization’s plans to implement robotic process automation (RPA) to automate routine business tasks is that the end-to-end process is understood and documented. This is because RPA involves the use of software robots or digital workers to mimic human actions and execute predefined rules and workflows. Therefore, it is essential that the IS auditor verifies that the organization has a clear and accurate understanding of the current state of the process, the desired state of the process, the inputs and outputs, the exceptions and errors, the roles and responsibilities, and the performance measures12. Without a proper documentation of the end-to-end process, the organization may face challenges in designing, developing, testing, deploying, and monitoring the RPA solution3. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2: IT Service Delivery and Support, page 211 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Lesson 4.2: IT Service Delivery and Support 3: ISACA Journal Volume 5, 2019, Article: Robotic Process Automation: Benefits, Risks and Controls
An IS auditor plans to review all access attempts to a video-monitored and proximity card-controlled communications room. Which of the following would be MOST useful to the auditor?
Manual sign-in and sign-out log
System electronic log
Alarm system with CCTV
Security incident log
A system electronic log is the most useful source of information for an IS auditor to review all access attempts to a video-monitored and proximity card-controlled communications room. A system electronic log can provide accurate and detailed records of the date, time, card number, and status (success or failure) of each access attempt. A system electronic log can also be easily searched, filtered, and analyzed by the auditor to identify any unauthorized or suspicious access attempts.
A manual sign-in and sign-out log is not as reliable or useful as a system electronic log, because it depends on the honesty and compliance of the users. A manual log can be easily manipulated, forged, or omitted by the users or intruders. A manual log also does not capture the status of each access attempt, and it can be difficult to verify the identity of the users based on their signatures.
An alarm system with CCTV is not as useful as a system electronic log, because it only captures the events that trigger the alarm, such as unauthorized or forced entry. An alarm system with CCTV does not provide a complete record of all access attempts, and it can be affected by factors such as camera angle, lighting, and resolution. An alarm system with CCTV also requires more time and effort to review the video footage by the auditor.
A security incident log is not as useful as a system electronic log, because it only records the incidents that are reported by the users or detected by the security staff. A security incident log does not provide a comprehensive record of all access attempts, and it can be incomplete or inaccurate depending on the reporting and detection mechanisms. A security incident log also does not capture the details of each access attempt, such as the card number and status.
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In response to an audit finding regarding a payroll application, management implemented a new automated control. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the IS auditor when evaluating the effectiveness of the new control?
Approved test scripts and results prior to implementation
Written procedures defining processes and controls
Approved project scope document
A review of tabletop exercise results
The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new automated control is to review the written procedures that define the processes and controls. This will help the IS auditor to understand the objectives, scope, roles, responsibilities, and expected outcomes of the control. The written procedures will also provide a basis for testing the control and verifying its compliance with the audit finding recommendations. References:
Which of the following types of environmental equipment will MOST likely be deployed below the floor tiles of a data center?
Temperature sensors
Humidity sensors
Water sensors
Air pressure sensors
Water sensors are devices that can detect the presence of water or moisture in a given area. They are often deployed below the floor tiles of a data center to monitor for any water leaks that may damage the equipment or cause electrical hazards. Water sensors can alert the data center staff or trigger an automatic response to prevent or mitigate the water leakage.
The other options are not likely to be deployed below the floor tiles of a data center. Temperature sensors and humidity sensors are usually deployed above the floor tiles to measure the ambient conditions of the data center and ensure optimal cooling and ventilation. Air pressure sensors are typically deployed at the air vents or ducts to monitor the airflow and pressure distribution in the data center.
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Which of the following is the BEST way to enforce the principle of least privilege on a server containing data with different security classifications?
Limiting access to the data files based on frequency of use
Obtaining formal agreement by users to comply with the data classification policy
Applying access controls determined by the data owner
Using scripted access control lists to prevent unauthorized access to the server
The best way to enforce the principle of least privilege on a server containing data with different security classifications is to apply access controls determined by the data owner. The principle of least privilege states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. The data owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility to classify, label, and protect the data according to its sensitivity and value. The data owner can define the access rights and permissions for each user or role based on the data classification policy and the business needs. This will ensure that only authorized and appropriate users can access the data and prevent unauthorized or excessive access that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the data. References:
Management receives information indicating a high level of risk associated with potential flooding near the organization's data center within the next few years. As a result, a decision has been made to move data center operations to another facility on higher ground. Which approach has been adopted?
Risk avoidance
Risk transfer
Risk acceptance
Risk reduction
The approach adopted by management in this scenario is risk avoidance. Risk avoidance is the elimination of a risk by discontinuing or not undertaking an activity that poses a threat to the organization3. By moving data center operations to another facility on higher ground, management is avoiding the potential flooding risk that could disrupt or damage the data center. Risk transfer, risk acceptance and risk reduction are other possible approaches for dealing with risks, but they do not apply in this case. References:
A warehouse employee of a retail company has been able to conceal the theft of inventory items by entering adjustments of either damaged or lost stock items lo the inventory system. Which control would have BEST prevented this type of fraud in a retail environment?
Separate authorization for input of transactions
Statistical sampling of adjustment transactions
Unscheduled audits of lost stock lines
An edit check for the validity of the inventory transaction
Separate authorization for input of transactions. This control would have best prevented this type of fraud in a retail environment by ensuring that the warehouse employee who handles the inventory items does not have the authority to enter adjustments to the inventory system. This would create a segregation of duties that would reduce the risk of collusion and concealment of theft.
The other options are not as effective as option A in preventing this type of fraud. Option B, statistical sampling of adjustment transactions, is a detective control that may help identify fraudulent transactions after they have occurred, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place. Option C, unscheduled audits of lost stock lines, is also a detective control that may reveal discrepancies between the physical and recorded inventory, but it does not address the root cause of the fraud. Option D, an edit check for the validity of the inventory transaction, is a preventive control that may help verify the accuracy and completeness of the transaction data, but it does not prevent unauthorized or fraudulent adjustments.
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Which of the following features of a library control software package would protect against unauthorized updating of source code?
Required approvals at each life cycle step
Date and time stamping of source and object code
Access controls for source libraries
Release-to-release comparison of source code
Access controls for source libraries are the features of a library control software package that would protect against unauthorized updating of source code. Access controls are the mechanisms that regulate who can access, modify, or delete the source code stored in the source libraries. Source libraries are the repositories that contain the source code files and their versions. By implementing access controls for source libraries, the library control software package can prevent unauthorized or malicious users from tampering with the source code and compromising its integrity, security, or functionality1.
The other options are not as effective as access controls for source libraries in protecting against unauthorized updating of source code. Option A, required approvals at each life cycle step, is a good practice but may not be sufficient to prevent unauthorized updates if the approval process is bypassed or compromised. Option B, date and time stamping of source and object code, is a useful feature but may not prevent unauthorized updates if the date and time stamps are altered or ignored. Option D, release-to-release comparison of source code, is a helpful feature but may not prevent unauthorized updates if the comparison results are not reviewed or acted upon.
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in a controlled application development environment, the MOST important segregation of duties should be between the person who implements changes into the production environment and the:
application programmer
systems programmer
computer operator
quality assurance (QA) personnel
In a controlled application development environment, the most important segregation of duties should be between the person who implements changes into the production environment and the application programmer. This segregation of duties ensures that no one person can create and deploy code without proper review, testing, and approval. This reduces the risk of errors, fraud, or malicious code being introduced into the production environment.
The other options are not as important as the segregation between the application programmer and the person who implements changes into production, but they are still relevant for achieving a secure and reliable application development environment. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the systems programmer is important to prevent unauthorized or untested changes to system software or configuration. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the computer operator is important to prevent unauthorized or uncontrolled access to production data or resources. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the quality assurance (QA) personnel is important to ensure independent verification and validation of code quality and functionality.
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An IS auditor discovers that an IT organization serving several business units assigns equal priority to all initiatives, creating a risk of delays in securing project funding Which of the following would be MOST helpful in matching demand for projects and services with available resources in a way that supports business objectives?
Project management
Risk assessment results
IT governance framework
Portfolio management
The most helpful tool in matching demand for projects and services with available resources in a way that supports business objectives is portfolio management. Portfolio management is the process of selecting, prioritizing, balancing and aligning IT projects and services with the strategic goals and value proposition of the organization3. Portfolio management helps the IT organization to allocate resources efficiently and effectively, to deliver value to the business units, and to align IT initiatives with business strategies. Project management, risk assessment results and IT governance framework are also important tools, but they are not as helpful as portfolio management in matching demand and supply of IT projects and services. References:
The PRIMARY role of a control self-assessment (CSA) facilitator is to:
conduct interviews to gain background information.
focus the team on internal controls.
report on the internal control weaknesses.
provide solutions for control weaknesses.
The primary role of a control self-assessment (CSA) facilitator is to focus the team on internal controls. A CSA facilitator is a person who guides the CSA process and helps the participants to identify, assess, and improve their internal controls. The facilitator does not conduct interviews, report on weaknesses, or provide solutions, as these are the responsibilities of the participants themselves1.
The other options are incorrect because they are not the primary role of a CSA facilitator. Option A, conduct interviews to gain background information, is a preliminary step that may be done by the facilitator or the participants before the CSA session, but it is not the main purpose of the facilitator. Option C, report on the internal control weaknesses, is an outcome of the CSA process that should be done by the participants who own and operate the controls. Option D, provide solutions for control weaknesses, is also an outcome of the CSA process that should be done by the participants who are in charge of implementing the improvements.
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A post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor?
The survey results were not presented in detail lo management.
The survey questions did not address the scope of the business case.
The survey form template did not allow additional feedback to be provided.
The survey was issued to employees a month after implementation.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users is that the survey questions did not address the scope of the business case. A post-implementation review is a process of evaluating the outcomes and benefits of a project after it has been completed and implemented. A post-implementation review can help to assess whether the project met its objectives, delivered its expected value, and satisfied its stakeholders1. A survey is a method of collecting feedback and opinions from users or other stakeholders about their experience and satisfaction with the project. A survey can help to measure the user acceptance, usability, and functionality of the project deliverables2. A business case is a document that justifies the need for a project based on its expected benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. A business case defines the scope, objectives, and requirements of the project and provides a basis for its approval and initiation3. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned if the survey questions did not address the scope of the business case, as it may indicate that the post-implementation review was not comprehensive, relevant, or aligned with the project goals. The other options are less concerning or incorrect because:
An IS auditor has discovered that a software system still in regular use is years out of date and no longer supported the auditee has stated that it will take six months until the software is running on the current version. Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the immediate risk associated with using an unsupported version of the software?
Verify all patches have been applied to the software system's outdated version
Close all unused ports on the outdated software system.
Segregate the outdated software system from the main network.
Monitor network traffic attempting to reach the outdated software system.
The best way to reduce the immediate risk associated with using an unsupported version of the software is to segregate the outdated software system from the main network. An unsupported software system may have unpatched vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers to compromise the system or access sensitive data. By isolating the system from the rest of the network, the organization can limit the exposure and impact of a potential breach. Verifying all patches have been applied to the outdated software system, closing all unused ports on the outdated software system and monitoring network traffic attempting to reach the outdated software system are also good practices, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of vendor support and updates. References:
Which of the following is MOST important when implementing a data classification program?
Understanding the data classification levels
Formalizing data ownership
Developing a privacy policy
Planning for secure storage capacity
Data classification is the process of organizing data into categories based on its sensitivity, value, and risk to the organization. Data classification helps to ensure that data is protected according to its importance and regulatory requirements. Data classification also enables data owners to make informed decisions about data access, retention, and disposal.
To implement a data classification program, it is most important to formalize data ownership. Data owners are the individuals or business units that have the authority and responsibility for the data they create or use. Data owners should be involved in defining the data classification levels, assigning the appropriate classification to their data, and ensuring that the data is handled according to the established policies and procedures. Data owners should also review and update the data classification periodically or when there are changes in the data or its usage.
The other options are not as important as formalizing data ownership when implementing a data classification program. Understanding the data classification levels is necessary, but it is not sufficient without identifying the data owners who will apply them. Developing a privacy policy is a good practice, but it is not specific to data classification. Planning for secure storage capacity is a technical consideration, but it does not address the business and legal aspects of data classification.
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An IS auditor has been asked to advise on measures to improve IT governance within the organization. Which at the following is the BEST recommendation?
Implement key performance indicators (KPIs)
Implement annual third-party audits.
Benchmark organizational performance against industry peers.
Require executive management to draft IT strategy
The best recommendation for improving IT governance within the organization is to implement key performance indicators (KPIs). KPIs are measurable values that show how effectively the organization is achieving its key business objectives. KPIs can help the organization to monitor and evaluate the performance, efficiency, and alignment of its IT processes and resources with its business goals and strategies1.
The other options are not as effective as implementing KPIs for improving IT governance. Option B, implementing annual third-party audits, is a good practice but may not be sufficient or timely to identify and address the issues or gaps in IT governance. Option C, benchmarking organizational performance against industry peers, is a useful technique but may not reflect the specific needs and expectations of the organization’s stakeholders. Option D, requiring executive management to draft IT strategy, is a necessary step but not enough to ensure that IT governance is implemented and monitored throughout the organization.
Which of the following BEST enables the effectiveness of an agile project for the rapid development of a new software application?
Project segments are established.
The work is separated into phases.
The work is separated into sprints.
Project milestones are created.
The best way to enable the effectiveness of an agile project for the rapid development of a new software application is to separate the work into sprints. Sprints are short, time-boxed iterations that deliver a potentially releasable product increment at the end of each sprint. Sprints allow agile teams to work in a flexible and adaptive manner, respond quickly to changing customer needs and feedback, and deliver value faster and more frequently. Sprints also help teams to plan, execute, review, and improve their work in a collaborative and transparent way. Project segments, phases, and milestones are not specific to agile projects and do not necessarily enable the effectiveness of an agile project. References: Agile Project Management [What is it & How to Start] - Atlassian, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version).
Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that potential security issues are considered by the development team as part of incremental changes to agile-developed software?
Assign the security risk analysis to a specially trained member of the project management office.
Deploy changes in a controlled environment and observe for security defects.
Include a mandatory step to analyze the security impact when making changes.
Mandate that the change analyses are documented in a standard format.
The best way to ensure that potential security issues are considered by the development team as part of incremental changes to agile-developed software is to include a mandatory step to analyze the security impact when making changes. This will help to identify and mitigate any security risks or vulnerabilities that may arise from the changes, and to ensure that the software meets the security requirements and standards. The other options are not as effective, because they either delegate the security analysis to someone outside the development team, rely on post-deployment testing, or focus on documentation rather than analysis. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.5
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an organization to help ensure agreed-upon action plans from an IS audit will be implemented?
Ensure sufficient audit resources are allocated,
Communicate audit results organization-wide.
Ensure ownership is assigned.
Test corrective actions upon completion.
The most effective way for an organization to help ensure agreed-upon action plans from an IS audit will be implemented is to ensure ownership is assigned. This means that the management of the audited area should accept responsibility for implementing the action plans and report on their progress and completion to the audit committee or senior management. This will ensure accountability, commitment, and follow-up for the audit recommendations34. References: 3: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.6: Reporting, page 41 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Lesson 1.6: Reporting
The PRIMARY objective of value delivery in reference to IT governance is to:
promote best practices
increase efficiency.
optimize investments.
ensure compliance.
The primary objective of value delivery in reference to IT governance is to optimize investments. Value delivery is one of the five focus areas of IT governance that aims to ensure that IT delivers expected benefits to stakeholders and enables business value creation. Value delivery involves aligning IT investments with business objectives and strategies, managing IT performance and benefits realization, optimizing IT costs and risks, and enhancing IT innovation and agility. Value delivery helps to maximize the return on investment (ROI) and value for money (VFM) of IT resources and capabilities. References:
An IS auditor follows up on a recent security incident and finds the incident response was not adequate. Which of the following findings should be considered MOST critical?
The security weakness facilitating the attack was not identified.
The attack was not automatically blocked by the intrusion detection system (IDS).
The attack could not be traced back to the originating person.
Appropriate response documentation was not maintained.
The most critical finding for an IS auditor following up on a recent security incident is that the security weakness facilitating the attack was not identified. This finding indicates that the root cause of the incident was not analyzed, and the vulnerability that allowed the attack to succeed was not remediated. This means that the organization is still exposed to the same or similar attacks in the future, and its security posture has not improved. Identifying and addressing the security weakness is a key step in the incident response process, as it helps to prevent recurrence, mitigate impact, and improve resilience.
The other findings are not as critical as the failure to identify the security weakness, but they are still important issues that should be addressed by the organization. The attack was not automatically blocked by the intrusion detection system (IDS) is a finding that suggests that the IDS was not configured properly, or that it did not have the latest signatures or rules to detect and prevent the attack. The attack could not be traced back to the originating person is a finding that implies that the organization did not have sufficient logging, monitoring, or forensic capabilities to identify and attribute the attacker. Appropriate response documentation was not maintained is a finding that indicates that the organization did not follow a consistent and formal incident response procedure, or that it did not document its actions, decisions, and lessons learned from the incident.
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Which of the following provides the BEST providence that outsourced provider services are being properly managed?
The service level agreement (SLA) includes penalties for non-performance.
Adequate action is taken for noncompliance with the service level agreement (SLA).
The vendor provides historical data to demonstrate its performance.
Internal performance standards align with corporate strategy.
Adequate action taken for noncompliance with the service level agreement (SLA) provides the best evidence that outsourced provider services are being properly managed. This shows that the organization is monitoring the performance of the provider and enforcing the terms of the SLA.
The other options are not as convincing as evidence of proper management. Option A, the SLA includes penalties for non-performance, is a good practice but does not guarantee that the penalties are actually applied or that the performance is satisfactory. Option C, the vendor provides historical data to demonstrate its performance, is not reliable because the data may be biased or inaccurate. Option D, internal performance standards align with corporate strategy, is irrelevant to the question of outsourced provider management.
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Which of the following is necessary for effective risk management in IT governance?
Local managers are solely responsible for risk evaluation.
IT risk management is separate from corporate risk management.
Risk management strategy is approved by the audit committee.
Risk evaluation is embedded in management processes.
The necessary condition for effective risk management in IT governance is that risk evaluation is embedded in management processes. Risk evaluation is the process of comparing the results of risk analysis with risk criteria to determine whether the risk and/or its magnitude is acceptable or tolerable. Risk evaluation should be integrated into the management processes of planning, implementing, monitoring, and reviewing the IT activities and resources. This will ensure that risk management is aligned with the business objectives, strategies, and values, and that risk responses are timely, appropriate, and effective. References:
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing a network printer disposal process?
Disposal policies and procedures are not consistently implemented
Evidence is not available to verify printer hard drives have been sanitized prior to disposal.
Business units are allowed to dispose printers directly to
Inoperable printers are stored in an unsecured area.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing a network printer disposal process is that evidence is not available to verify printer hard drives have been sanitized prior to disposal. This can expose sensitive data to unauthorized parties and cause data breaches. Disposal policies and procedures not being consistently implemented or business units being allowed to dispose printers directly to vendors are compliance issues, but not as critical as data protection. Inoperable printers being stored in an unsecured area is a physical security issue, but not as severe as data leakage. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 387
Which of the following is the MOST efficient way to identify segregation of duties violations in a new system?
Review a report of security rights in the system.
Observe the performance of business processes.
Develop a process to identify authorization conflicts.
Examine recent system access rights violations.
The most efficient way to identify segregation of duties violations in a new system is to review a report of security rights in the system. Segregation of duties is a control principle that aims to prevent or detect errors, fraud, or abuse by ensuring that no single individual has the ability to perform incompatible or conflicting functions or activities within a system or process. A report of security rights in the system can provide a comprehensive and accurate overview of the roles, responsibilities, and access levels assigned to different users or groups in the system, and can help to identify any potential segregation of duties violations or risks. The other options are not as efficient as reviewing a report of security rights in the system, because they either rely on observation or testing rather than analysis, or they focus on existing rather than potential violations. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of using visualization technology for corporate applications?
Improved disaster recovery
Better utilization of resources
Stronger data security
Increased application performance
Visualization technology is the use of software and hardware to create graphical representations of data, such as charts, graphs, maps, images, etc. Visualization technology can help users to understand, analyze, and communicate complex and large amounts of data in an intuitive and engaging way1.
One of the primary advantages of using visualization technology for corporate applications is that it can improve the utilization of resources, such as time, money, human capital, and physical assets. Some of the ways that visualization technology can achieve this are:
Therefore, using visualization technology for corporate applications can help organizations to better utilize their resources and achieve their goals.
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During audit framework. an IS auditor teams that employees are allowed to connect their personal devices to company-owned computers. How can the auditor BEST validate that appropriate security controls are in place to prevent data loss?
Conduct a walk-through to view results of an employee plugging in a device to transfer confidential data.
Review compliance with data loss and applicable mobile device user acceptance policies.
Verify the data loss prevention (DLP) tool is properly configured by the organization.
Verify employees have received appropriate mobile device security awareness training.
The best way to validate that appropriate security controls are in place to prevent data loss is to review compliance with data loss and applicable mobile device user acceptance policies. This will ensure that the organization has established clear rules and guidelines for employees to follow when connecting their personal devices to company-owned computers. A walk-through, a DLP tool configuration, and a security awareness training are not sufficient to validate the effectiveness of the controls, as they may not cover all possible scenarios and risks. References: IT Audit Fundamentals Certificate Resources
Which of the following audit procedures would be MOST conclusive in evaluating the effectiveness of an e-commerce application system's edit routine?
Review of program documentation
Use of test transactions
Interviews with knowledgeable users
Review of source code
The most conclusive audit procedure for evaluating the effectiveness of an e-commerce application system’s edit routine is to use test transactions. A test transaction is a simulated input that is processed by the system to verify its output and performance1. By using test transactions, an auditor can directly observe how the edit routine checks the validity, accuracy, and completeness of data entered by users, and how it handles incorrect or invalid data. A test transaction can also help measure the efficiency, reliability, and security of the edit routine, as well as identify any errors or weaknesses in the system.
The other options are not as conclusive as using test transactions, as they rely on indirect or secondary sources of information. Reviewing program documentation is an audit procedure that involves examining the written description of the system’s design, specifications, and functionality2. However, program documentation may not reflect the actual implementation or operation of the system, and it may not reveal any discrepancies or defects in the edit routine. Interviews with knowledgeable users is an audit procedure that involves asking questions to the people who use or manage the system3. However, interviews with knowledgeable users may not provide sufficient or objective evidence of the edit routine’s effectiveness, and they may be influenced by personal opinions or biases. Reviewing source code is an audit procedure that involves analyzing the programming language and logic of the system4. However, reviewing source code may not be feasible or practical for complex or large systems, and it may not demonstrate how the edit routine performs in real scenarios.
Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the alignment of IT and business strategy?
Level of stakeholder satisfaction with the scope of planned IT projects
Percentage of enterprise risk assessments that include IT-related risk
Percentage of stat satisfied with their IT-related roles
Frequency of business process capability maturity assessments
The best metric to measure the alignment of IT and business strategy is the percentage of enterprise risk assessments that include IT-related risk. This metric indicates how well the organization identifies and manages the IT risks that could affect its strategic objectives and performance. A high percentage of enterprise risk assessments that include IT-related risk shows that the organization considers IT as an integral part of its business strategy and aligns its IT resources and capabilities with its business needs and goals . References: : CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.2: IT Strategy, page 67 : CISA Online Review Course, Module 2: Governance and Management of IT, Lesson 2.2: IT Strategy
An IS auditor finds that the process for removing access for terminated employees is not documented What is the MOST significant risk from this observation?
Procedures may not align with best practices
Human resources (HR) records may not match system access.
Unauthorized access cannot he identified.
Access rights may not be removed in a timely manner.
The most significant risk from this observation is that access rights may not be removed in a timely manner. If the process for removing access for terminated employees is not documented, there is no clear guidance or accountability for who, how, when, and what actions should be taken to revoke the access rights of the employees who leave the organization. This could result in delays, inconsistencies, or omissions in removing access rights, which could allow terminated employees to retain unauthorized access to the organization’s systems and data. This could compromise the security, confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. References:
An organization has made a strategic decision to split into separate operating entities to improve profitability. However, the IT infrastructure remains shared between the entities. Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that IS audit still covers key risk areas within the IT environment as part of its annual plan?
Increasing the frequency of risk-based IS audits for each business entity
Developing a risk-based plan considering each entity's business processes
Conducting an audit of newly introduced IT policies and procedures
Revising IS audit plans to focus on IT changes introduced after the split
Developing a risk-based plan considering each entity’s business processes would best help to ensure that IS audit still covers key risk areas within the IT environment as part of its annual plan. A risk-based plan is a plan that prioritizes the audit activities based on the level of risk associated with each area or process. A risk-based plan can help to allocate the audit resources more efficiently and effectively, and provide more assurance and value to the stakeholders1.
By considering each entity’s business processes, the IS audit can identify and assess the specific risks and controls that affect the IT environment of each entity, and tailor the audit objectives, scope, and procedures accordingly. This can help to address the unique needs and expectations of each entity, and ensure that the IS audit covers the key risk areas that are relevant and significant to each entity’s operations, performance, and compliance2.
The other options are not as effective as developing a risk-based plan considering each entity’s business processes in ensuring that IS audit still covers key risk areas within the IT environment as part of its annual plan. Option A, increasing the frequency of risk-based IS audits for each business entity, is not a feasible or efficient solution, as it may increase the audit costs and workload, and create duplication or overlap of audit efforts. Option C, conducting an audit of newly introduced IT policies and procedures, is a limited and narrow approach, as it may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of the IT environment that may have changed or been affected by the split. Option D, revising IS audit plans to focus on IT changes introduced after the split, is a reactive and short-term approach, as it may not reflect the current or future state of the IT environment or the business objectives of each entity.
References:
An IS auditor has found that a vendor has gone out of business and the escrow has an older version of the source code. What is the auditor's BEST recommendation for the organization?
Analyze a new application that moots the current re
Perform an analysis to determine the business risk
Bring the escrow version up to date.
Develop a maintenance plan to support the application using the existing code
This means that the organization should obtain the source code from the escrow agent and compare it with the current version of the application that they are using. The organization should then identify and apply any changes or updates that are missing or different in the escrow version, so that it matches the current version. This way, the organization can ensure that they have a complete and accurate copy of the source code that reflects their current needs and requirements.
Bringing the escrow version up to date can help the organization to avoid or reduce the risks and costs associated with using an outdated or incompatible version of the source code. For example, an older version of the source code may have bugs, errors, or vulnerabilities that could affect the functionality, security, or performance of the application. An older version of the source code may also lack some features, enhancements, or integrations that could improve the usability, efficiency, or value of the application. An older version of the source code may also not comply with some standards, regulations, or contracts that could affect the quality, reliability, or legality of the application1.
The other options are not as good as bringing the escrow version up to date for the organization. Option A, analyzing a new application that meets the current requirements, is a possible option but it may be more time-consuming, expensive, and risky than updating the existing application. The organization may have to go through a complex and lengthy process of selecting, acquiring, implementing, testing, and migrating to a new application, which could disrupt their operations and performance. The organization may also have to deal with compatibility, interoperability, or data quality issues when switching to a new application2. Option B, performing an analysis to determine the business risk, is a necessary step but not a recommendation for the organization. The organization should already be aware of the business risk of using an application whose vendor has gone out of business and whose escrow has an older version of the source code. The organization should focus on finding and implementing a solution to mitigate or eliminate this risk3. Option D, developing a maintenance plan to support the application using the existing code, is not a feasible option because it assumes that the organization has access to the existing code. However, this is not the case because the vendor has gone out of business and the escrow has an older version of the source code. The organization cannot support or maintain an application without having a complete and accurate copy of its source code.
References:
Which of the following security measures will reduce the risk of propagation when a cyberattack occurs?
Perimeter firewall
Data loss prevention (DLP) system
Web application firewall
Network segmentation
Network segmentation is the best security measure to reduce the risk of propagation when a cyberattack occurs, because it divides the network into smaller subnetworks that are isolated from each other and have different access controls and security policies. This limits the spread of malicious traffic and prevents attackers from accessing sensitive data or systems in other segments. A perimeter firewall, a data loss prevention (DLP) system, and a web application firewall are also useful security measures, but they do not prevent propagation within the network as effectively as network segmentation does. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3
Which of the following should be the FRST step when developing a data toes prevention (DIP) solution for a large organization?
Identify approved data workflows across the enterprise.
Conduct a threat analysis against sensitive data usage.
Create the DLP pcJc.es and templates
Conduct a data inventory and classification exercise
The first step when developing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution for a large organization is to conduct a data inventory and classification exercise. This step is essential to identify the types, locations, owners, and sensitivity levels of the data that need to be protected by the DLP solution. A data inventory and classification exercise helps to define the scope, objectives, and requirements of the DLP solution, as well as to prioritize the data protection efforts based on the business value and risk of the data. A data inventory and classification exercise also enables the organization to comply with relevant laws and regulations regarding data privacy and security.
The other options are not the first step when developing a DLP solution, but rather subsequent steps that depend on the outcome of the data inventory and classification exercise. Identifying approved data workflows across the enterprise is a step that helps to design and implement the DLP policies and controls that match the business processes and data flows. Conducting a threat analysis against sensitive data usage is a step that helps to assess and mitigate the risks associated with data leakage, theft, or misuse. Creating the DLP policies and templates is a step that helps to enforce the data protection rules and standards across the organization.
References:
Which of the following would be the MOST useful metric for management to consider when reviewing a project portfolio?
Cost of projects divided by total IT cost
Expected return divided by total project cost
Net present value (NPV) of the portfolio
Total cost of each project
The most useful metric for management to consider when reviewing a project portfolio is the net present value (NPV) of the portfolio. NPV is a measure of the profitability and value of a project or a portfolio of projects, taking into account the time value of money and the expected cash flows. NPV compares the present value of the future cash inflows with the present value of the initial investment and shows how much value is created or lost by undertaking a project or a portfolio of projects1. A positive NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth more than its cost and will generate a positive return on investment. A negative NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth less than its cost and will result in a loss. Therefore, NPV helps management to prioritize and select the most profitable and valuable projects or portfolios that align with the organizational strategy and objectives2. The other options are less useful or incorrect because:
During an audit of an organization's risk management practices, an IS auditor finds several documented IT risk acceptances have not been renewed in a timely manner after the assigned expiration date When assessing the seventy of this finding, which mitigating factor would MOST significantly minimize the associated impact?
There are documented compensating controls over the business processes.
The risk acceptances were previously reviewed and approved by appropriate senior management
The business environment has not significantly changed since the risk acceptances were approved.
The risk acceptances with issues reflect a small percentage of the total population
The mitigating factor that would most significantly minimize the impact of not renewing IT risk acceptances in a timely manner is having documented compensating controls over the business processes. Compensating controls are alternative controls that reduce or eliminate the risk when the primary control is not feasible or cost-effective. The other factors, such as previous approval by senior management, unchanged business environment, and small percentage of issues, do not mitigate the risk as effectively as compensating controls. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition Chapter 1
Which of the following should be performed FIRST before key performance indicators (KPIs) can be implemented?
Analysis of industry benchmarks
Identification of organizational goals
Analysis of quantitative benefits
Implementation of a balanced scorecard
The first thing that should be performed before key performance indicators (KPIs) can be implemented is the identification of organizational goals. This is because KPIs are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving its key business objectives4. Therefore, it is necessary that the organization defines its goals clearly and aligns them with its vision, mission, and strategy. By identifying its goals, the organization can then determine what KPIs are relevant and meaningful to measure its progress and performance . References: 4: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.3: Benefits Realization, page 77 : CISA Online Review Course, Module 2: Governance and Management of IT, Lesson 2.3: Benefits Realization : ISACA Journal Volume 1, 2020, Article: How to Measure Anything in IT Governance
An audit identified that a computer system is not assigning sequential purchase order numbers to order requests. The IS auditor is conducting an audit follow-up to determine if management has reserved this finding. Which of two following is the MOST reliable follow-up procedure?
Review the documentation of recant changes to implement sequential order numbering.
Inquire with management if the system has been configured and tested to generate sequential order numbers.
Inspect the system settings and transaction logs to determine if sequential order numbers are generated.
Examine a sample of system generated purchase orders obtained from management
The most reliable follow-up procedure to determine if management has resolved the finding of non-sequential purchase order numbers is to inspect the system settings and transaction logs to determine if sequential order numbers are generated. This will provide direct evidence of the system’s functionality and compliance with the audit recommendation. The other options are less reliable because they rely on indirect evidence or information obtained from management, which may not be accurate or complete. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Standards, Guidelines, Tools and Techniques
Which of the following should an IS auditor expect to see in a network vulnerability assessment?
Misconfiguration and missing updates
Malicious software and spyware
Zero-day vulnerabilities
Security design flaws
A network vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and exposures in a network that could be exploited by attackers to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the network or its resources. A network vulnerability assessment typically involves scanning the network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, and workstations, using automated tools that compare the device configurations, software versions, and patch levels against a database of known vulnerabilities. A network vulnerability assessment can also include manual testing and verification of the network architecture, design, policies, and procedures. One of the main objectives of a network vulnerability assessment is to detect and report any misconfiguration and missing updates in the network devices that could pose a security risk1. Misconfiguration refers to any deviation from the recommended or best practice settings for the network devices, such as weak passwords, open ports, unnecessary services, default accounts, or incorrect permissions. Missing updates refer to any outdated or unsupported software or firmware that has not been patched with the latest security fixes or enhancements from the vendors2. Misconfiguration and missing updates are common sources of network vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute malicious code, cause denial of service, or escalate privileges on the network devices3. Therefore, an IS auditor should expect to see misconfiguration and missing updates in a network vulnerability assessment. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
What should an IS auditor do FIRST upon discovering that a service provider did not notify its customers of a security breach?
Notify law enforcement of the finding.
Require the third party to notify customers.
The audit report with a significant finding.
Notify audit management of the finding.
The IS auditor should notify audit management of the finding first, as this is a significant issue that may affect the audit scope and objectives. The IS auditor should not notify law enforcement or require the third party to notify customers without consulting audit management first. The audit report with a significant finding should be issued after the audit is completed and the findings are validated. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 247
Which of the following is MOST critical for the effective implementation of IT governance?
Strong risk management practices
Internal auditor commitment
Supportive corporate culture
Documented policies
The most critical factor for the effective implementation of IT governance is a supportive corporate culture. A supportive corporate culture is one that fosters collaboration, communication and commitment among all stakeholders involved in IT governance processes. A supportive corporate culture also promotes a shared vision, values and goals for IT governance across the organization. Strong risk management practices, internal auditor commitment or documented policies are important elements for IT governance implementation, but they are not sufficient without a supportive corporate culture. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 41