An organization was recently notified by its regulatory body of significant discrepancies in its reporting data. A preliminary investigation revealed that the discrepancies were caused by problems with the organization's data quality Management has directed the data quality team to enhance their program. The audit committee has asked internal audit to be advisors to the process. To ensure that management concerns are addressed, which data set should internal audit recommend be reviewed FIRST?
Data with customer personal information
Data reported to the regulatory body
Data supporting financial statements
Data impacting business objectives
To ensure that management concerns are addressed, internal audit should recommend that the data quality team review the data reported to the regulatory body first. This is because this data set is the most relevant and critical to the issue that triggered the enhancement of the data quality program. The data reported to the regulatory body should be accurate, complete, consistent, and timely, as any discrepancies could result in fines, penalties, or reputational damage for the organization.Data with customer personal information is important for data quality, but it is not directly related to the regulatory reporting issue. Data supporting financial statements is important for data quality, but it may not be the same as the data reported to the regulatory body. Data impacting business objectives is important for data quality, but it may not be as urgent or sensitive as the data reported to the regulatory body. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 404-4051
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 262
Which of the following must be in place before an IS auditor initiates audit follow-up activities?
Available resources for the activities included in the action plan
A management response in the final report with a committed implementation date
A heal map with the gaps and recommendations displayed in terms of risk
Supporting evidence for the gaps and recommendations mentioned in the audit report
This must be in place before an IS auditor initiates audit follow-up activities, because it indicates that management has acknowledged and accepted the audit findings and recommendations, and has agreed to take corrective actions within a specified timeframe. Audit follow-up activities are the processes and procedures that the IS auditor performs to verify that management has implemented the agreed-upon actions effectively and in a timely manner, and that the audit findings have been resolved or mitigated.
The other options are not required to be in place before an IS auditor initiates audit follow-up activities:
Available resources for the activities included in the action plan. This is a factor that may affect the feasibility and success of the action plan, but it is not a prerequisite for the audit follow-up activities. The IS auditor should assess the availability and adequacy of the resources for the action plan during the audit planning and execution phases, and provide recommendations accordingly. However, the IS auditor does not need to wait for the resources to be available before initiating the audit follow-up activities.
A heat map with the gaps and recommendations displayed in terms of risk. This is a tool that may help the IS auditor prioritize and communicate the gaps and recommendations, but it is not a requirement for the audit follow-up activities. A heat map is a graphical representation of data that uses colors to indicate the level of risk or impact of each gap or recommendation. The IS auditor may use a heat map to support the audit report or presentation, but it does not replace the need for a management response with a committed implementation date.
Supporting evidence for the gaps and recommendations mentioned in the audit report. This is a component that should be included in the audit report, but it is not a condition for the audit follow-up activities. Supporting evidence is the information or data that supports or substantiates the audit findings and recommendations. The IS auditor should collect and document sufficient, reliable, relevant, and useful evidence during the audit execution phase, and present it in the audit report. However, the IS auditor does not need to have supporting evidence in place before initiating the audit follow-up activities.
Due to limited storage capacity, an organization has decided to reduce the actual retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions. Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to ensure?
The policy includes a strong risk-based approach.
The retention period allows for review during the year-end audit.
The retention period complies with data owner responsibilities.
The total transaction amount has no impact on financial reporting
The most important factor for the organization to ensure when reducing the retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions is that the retention period complies with data owner responsibilities. Data owners are accountable for defining the retention and disposal requirements for the data under their custody, based on business, legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations. The policy should reflect the data owner’s decisions and obtain their approval. The policy should also include a risk-based approach, but this is not as important as complying with data owner responsibilities. The retention period should allow for review during the year-end audit, but this may not be necessary for low-value transactions that have minimal impact on financial reporting. The total transaction amount may have some impact on financial reporting, but this is not a direct consequence of reducing the retention period. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 414-4151
CISA Review Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID: 255
Which of the following is MOST important to verify when determining the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process?
The organization's systems inventory is kept up to date.
Vulnerability scanning results are reported to the CISO.
The organization is using a cloud-hosted scanning tool for Identification of vulnerabilities
Access to the vulnerability scanning tool is periodically reviewed
The completeness of the vulnerability scanning process depends on the accuracy and currency of the organization’s systems inventory, which is a list of all the hardware and software assets that are owned or used by the organization. A complete and up-to-date systems inventory can help ensure that all the systems are identified and scanned for vulnerabilities, and that no system is missed or overlooked. Vulnerability scanning results are reported to the CISO is a good practice for ensuring accountability and visibility of the vulnerability management process, but it is not the most important thing to verify when determining the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, as reporting does not guarantee that all the systems are scanned. The organization is using a cloud-hosted scanning tool for identification of vulnerabilities is a possible option for conducting vulnerability scanning, but it is not the most important thing to verify when determining the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, as the type of scanning tool does not affect the scope or coverage of the scanning. Access to the vulnerability scanning tool is periodically reviewed is a critical control for ensuring the security and integrity of the vulnerability scanning tool, but it is not the most important thing to verify when determining the completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, as access review does not ensure that all the systems are scanned.
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to do during an exit meeting with an auditee?
Ensure that the facts presented in the report are correct
Communicate the recommendations lo senior management
Specify implementation dates for the recommendations.
Request input in determining corrective action.
Ensuring that the facts presented in the report are correct is the most important thing for an IS auditor to do during an exit meeting with an auditee. An IS auditor should confirm that the audit findings and observations are accurate, complete, and supported by sufficient evidence, as well as that the auditee understands and agrees with them. This will help to avoid any misunderstandings or disputes later on, as well as to enhance the credibility and quality of the audit report. The other options are less important things for an IS auditor to do during an exit meeting, as they may involve communicating the recommendations to senior management, specifying implementation dates for the recommendations, or requesting input in determining corrective action. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.5.21
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 222
While auditing a small organization's data classification processes and procedures, an IS auditor noticed that data is often classified at the incorrect level. What is the MOST effective way for the organization to improve this situation?
Use automatic document classification based on content.
Have IT security staff conduct targeted training for data owners.
Publish the data classification policy on the corporate web portal.
Conduct awareness presentations and seminars for information classification policies.
This is the most effective way for the organization to improve its data classification processes and procedures, because data owners are the ones who are responsible for assigning the appropriate level of classification to the data they create, collect, or manage. Data owners should be aware of the data classification policy, the criteria for each level of classification, and the implications of misclassification. IT security staff can provide tailored training for data owners based on their roles, functions, and types of data they handle.
The other options are not as effective as having IT security staff conduct targeted training for data owners:
Use automatic document classification based on content. This is a possible option, but it may not be feasible or accurate for a small organization. Automatic document classification is a process that uses artificial intelligence or machine learning to analyze the content of a document and assign a class label based on predefined rules or models. However, this process may require a lot of resources, expertise, and maintenance, and it may not capture all the nuances and context of the data. The IS auditor should also verify the reliability and validity of the automatic document classification system.
Publish the data classification policy on the corporate web portal. This is a good practice, but it is not enough to improve the data classification situation. Publishing the data classification policy on the corporate web portal can increase the visibility and accessibility of the policy, but it does not ensure that data owners will read, understand, and follow it. The IS auditor should also monitor and enforce the compliance with the policy.
Conduct awareness presentations and seminars for information classification policies. This is a useful measure, but it is not the most effective one. Conducting awareness presentations and seminars can raise the general awareness and knowledge of information classification policies among all employees, but it may not address the specific needs and challenges of data owners. The IS auditor should also provide more in-depth and practical training for data owners.
An IS auditor learns the organization has experienced several server failures in its distributed environment. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to limit the potential impact of server failures in the future?
Redundant pathways
Clustering
Failover power
Parallel testing
Clustering is a technique that allows multiple servers to work together as a single system, providing high availability, load balancing, and fault tolerance. Clustering can limit the potential impact of server failures in a distributed environment, as it can automatically switch the workload to another server in the cluster if one server fails, without interrupting the service. Redundant pathways, failoverpower, and parallel testing are also useful for improving the reliability and availability of servers, but they do not directly address the issue of server failures.
Which of the following is the MOST important activity in the data classification process?
Labeling the data appropriately
Identifying risk associated with the data
Determining accountability of data owners
Determining the adequacy of privacy controls
Determining accountability of data owners is the most important activity in the data classification process. Data classification is a process that assigns categories or labels to data based on their value, sensitivity, criticality and risk to the organization. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection, access and retention for data. Determining accountability of data owners is an activity that identifies and assigns roles and responsibilities for data classification, protection and management to individuals or functions within the organization. Data owners are individuals or functions who have authority and responsibility for defining, classifying, protecting and managing data throughout their lifecycle. Determining accountability of data owners is essential for ensuring that data are classified correctly and consistently, and that data classification policies and procedures are followed and enforced. The other options are not as important as option C, as they are dependent on or derived from the accountability of data owners. Labeling the data appropriately is an activity that applies the categories or labels assigned by data owners to data based on their classification criteria. Identifying risk associated with the data is an activity that assesses the potential impact and likelihood of loss, disclosure, modification or destruction of data based on their classification level. Determining the adequacy of privacy controls is an activity that evaluates whether the controls implemented to protect personal or sensitive data are sufficient and effective based on their classification level. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Data Classification.
Which of the following MUST be completed as part of the annual audit planning process?
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Fieldwork
Risk assessment
Risk control matrix
Risk assessment is a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, as it helps to identify and prioritize the areas that pose the highest risk to the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk assessment involves analyzing the internal and external factors that affect the organization’s risk profile, evaluating the likelihood and impact of potential events or scenarios, assessing the existing controls and mitigation strategies, and determining the residual risk level. Based on the risk assessment results, the IS auditor can allocate resources and schedule audits accordingly. A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the critical business functions and processes that could be disrupted by a disaster or incident, and estimates the potential impact on the organization’s operations, reputation and finances. A BIA is not a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, but it can be used as an input for risk assessment or as a subject for audit. Fieldwork is the phase of an audit where the IS auditor collects evidence to support the audit objectives and conclusions. Fieldwork is not part of the annual audit planning process, but it is part of each individual audit engagement. A risk control matrix is a tool that maps the risks identified in a risk assessment to the controls that mitigate them. A risk control matrix is not a mandatory part of the annual audit planning process, but it can be used as an output of risk assessment or as a tool for audit testing. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.2: Audit Planning.
A manager Identifies active privileged accounts belonging to staff who have left the organization. Which of the following is the threat actor In this scenario?
Terminated staff
Unauthorized access
Deleted log data
Hacktivists
A threat actor is an entity or individual that poses a potential harm or danger to an organization’s information systems or data. Terminated staff are the threat actors in this scenario, as they are former employees who may still have active privileged accounts that grant them access to sensitive or critical information or resources of the organization. Terminated staff may abuse their access privileges or credentials to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the information systems or data, either intentionally or unintentionally. Unauthorized access is a threat event or action that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual gains access to an organization’s information systems or data without permission or authorization. Unauthorized access is not a threat actor, but rather a result of a threat actor’s activity. Deleted log data is a threat consequence or impact that occurs when log data, which are records of events or activities that occur on an information system or network, are erased or corrupted by a threat actor. Deleted log data can affect the auditability, accountability, and visibility of the information system or network, and prevent detection or investigation of security incidents. Deleted log data is not a threat actor, but rather a result of a threat actor’s activity. Hacktivists are threat actors who use hacking techniques to promote a political or social cause or agenda. Hacktivists are not the threat actors in this scenario, as there is no indication that they are involved in this case.
The due date of an audit project is approaching, and the audit manager has determined that only 60% of the audit has been completed. Which of the following should the audit manager do FIRST?
Determine where delays have occurred
Assign additional resources to supplement the audit
Escalate to the audit committee
Extend the audit deadline
The first thing that the audit manager should do when faced with a situation where only 60% of the audit has been completed and the due date is approaching is to determine where delays have occurred. This can help the audit manager to identify and analyze the root causes of the delays, such as unexpected issues, scope changes, resource constraints, communication problems, etc., and evaluate their impact on the audit objectives, scope, quality, and timeline. Based on this analysis, the audit manager can then decide on the best course of action to address the delays and complete the audit successfully. Assigning additional resources to supplement the audit is a possible option forresolving delays in an audit project, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be feasible or effective depending on the availability, cost, and suitability of the additional resources. Escalating to the audit committee is a possible option for communicating delays in an audit project and seeking guidance or support from senior management, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be necessary or appropriate depending on the severity and urgency of the delays. Extending the audit deadline is a possible option for accommodating delays in an audit project and ensuring sufficient time for completing the audit tasks and activities, but it is not the first thing that the audit manager should do, as it may not be possible or desirable depending on the contractual obligations, stakeholder expectations, and regulatory requirements.
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to verify when evaluating an organization's firewall?
Logs are being collected in a separate protected host
Automated alerts are being sent when a risk is detected
Insider attacks are being controlled
Access to configuration files Is restricted.
A firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help protect an organization’s network and information systems from unauthorized or malicious access, by filtering or blocking unwanted or harmful packets. The most important thing for an IS auditor to verify when evaluating an organization’s firewall is that the logs are being collected in a separate protected host. Logs are records of events or activities that occur on a system or network, such as connections, requests, responses, errors, and alerts. Logs can provide valuable information for auditing, monitoring, troubleshooting, and investigating security incidents. However, logs can also be tampered with, deleted, or corrupted by attackers or insiders who want to hide their tracks or evidence of their actions. Therefore, it is essential that logs are stored in a separate host that is isolated and secured from the network and the firewall itself, to prevent unauthorized access or modification of the logs. Automated alerts are being sent when a risk is detected is a good practice for enhancing the security and efficiency of a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as alerts may not always be accurate, timely, or actionable. Insider attacks are being controlled is a desirable outcome for a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as insider attacks may involve other factors or methods that bypass or compromise the firewall, such as social engineering, credential theft, or physical access. Access to configuration files is restricted is a critical control for ensuring the security and integrity of a firewall, but it is not the most important thing for an IS auditor to verify, as configuration files may not reflect the actual state or performance of the firewall.
Which of the following documents should specify roles and responsibilities within an IT audit organization?
Organizational chart
Audit charier
Engagement letter
Annual audit plan
The audit charter is a document that defines the purpose, scope, authority, and responsibility of an IT audit organization. The audit charter should specify roles and responsibilities within an IT audit organization, such as who is accountable for approving the audit plan, who is responsible for conducting the audits, who is authorized to access the audit evidence, and who is accountable for reporting the audit results. The organizational chart, the engagement letter, and the annual audit plan are also important documents for an IT audit organization, but they do not specify roles and responsibilities as clearly and comprehensively as the audit charter.
An organization recently implemented a cloud document storage solution and removed the ability for end users to save data to their local workstation hard drives. Which of the following findings should be the IS auditor's GREATEST concern?
Users are not required to sign updated acceptable use agreements.
Users have not been trained on the new system.
The business continuity plan (BCP) was not updated.
Mobile devices are not encrypted.
This should be the IS auditor’s greatest concern, because it means that the organization has not considered the potential impact of the cloud document storage solution on its ability to continue its operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP is a document that outlines the procedures and actions to be taken in order to maintain or resume critical business functions during and after a crisis. A BCP should be updated whenever there is a significant change in the organization’s IT infrastructure, systems, processes, or dependencies, such as implementing a cloud document storage solution. The IS auditor should verify that the BCP reflects the current state of the organization’s IT environment, and that it addresses the risks, challenges, and opportunities associated with the cloud document storage solution.
The other options are not as concerning as the BCP not being updated:
Users are not required to sign updated acceptable use agreements. This is a minor concern, but it does not pose a major threat to the organization’s business continuity. Acceptable use agreements are documents that define the rules and guidelines for using IT resources, such as the cloud document storage solution. Users should sign updated acceptable use agreements to acknowledge their responsibilities and obligations, and to comply with the organization’s policies and standards. However, this does not affect the organization’s ability to continue its operations in a crisis.
Users have not been trained on the new system. This is a moderate concern, but it does not jeopardize the organization’s business continuity. Training users on the new system is important to ensure that they can use it effectively and efficiently, and to avoid errors or misuse that could compromise the security or performance of the system. However, this does not prevent the organization from accessing or restoring its data in a crisis.
Mobile devices are not encrypted. This is a serious concern, but it does not directly impact the organization’s business continuity. Encrypting mobile devices is a security measure thatprotects the data stored on them from unauthorized access or disclosure in case of loss or theft. However, this does not affect the availability or integrity of the data stored in the cloud document storage solution, which should have its own encryption mechanisms.
Which of the following findings from an IT governance review should be of GREATEST concern?
The IT budget is not monitored
All IT services are provided by third parties.
IT value analysis has not been completed.
IT supports two different operating systems.
IT value analysis has not been completed is a finding from an IT governance review that should be of greatest concern. IT value analysis is a process of measuring and demonstrating the contribution of IT to the organization’s goals and objectives. An IS auditor should be concerned about the lack of IT value analysis, as it may indicate that the IT investments and resources are not aligned with the business needs and expectations, or that the IT performance and outcomes are not monitored and evaluated. The other options are less critical findings that may not have a significant impact on the IT governance. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 218
Which of the following should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the public key infrastructure (PKI) for enterprise email?
The certificate revocation list has not been updated.
The PKI policy has not been updated within the last year.
The private key certificate has not been updated.
The certificate practice statement has not been published
During an audit of a multinational bank's disposal process, an IS auditor notes several findings. Which of the following should be the auditor's GREATEST concern?
Backup media are not reviewed before disposal.
Degaussing is used instead of physical shredding.
Backup media are disposed before the end of the retention period
Hardware is not destroyed by a certified vendor.
During an audit of a multinational bank’s disposal process, an IS auditor should be most concerned about backup media being disposed before the end of the retention period. This is because backup media contain sensitive and critical data that may be required for business continuity, legal compliance, or forensic purposes. Disposing backup media prematurely may result in data loss, unavailability, or corruption, which may have severe consequences for the bank’s reputation, operations, and security. Backup media not being reviewed before disposal, degaussing being used instead of physical shredding, and hardware not being destroyed by a certified vendor are also findings that may pose some risks to the bank’s disposal process, but they are not as critical as backup media being disposed before the end of the retention period. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 302.
An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's primary router access control list. Which of the following should result in a finding?
There are conflicting permit and deny rules for the IT group.
The network security group can change network address translation (NAT).
Individual permissions are overriding group permissions.
There is only one rule per group with access privileges.
This should result in a finding because it violates the best practice of setting rules for groups rather than users. According to one of the web search results1, using group permissions instead of individual permissions can simplify the management and maintenance of ACLs, reduce the risk of human errors, and ensure consistency and compliance. Individual permissions can create conflicts, confusion, and security gaps in the ACLs. Therefore, the IS auditor should report this as a finding and recommend using group permissions instead.
The performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure are BEST measured using a:
risk management review
control self-assessment (CSA).
service level agreement (SLA).
balanced scorecard.
A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure. An IS auditor can use an SLA to measure how well the IT infrastructure meets the business needs and objectives, as well as to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. The other options are not directly related to measuring the performance, risks, and capabilities of an IT infrastructure. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 203
Which of the following is the BEST source of information for an IS auditor to use as a baseline to assess the adequacy of an organization's privacy policy?
Historical privacy breaches and related root causes
Globally accepted privacy best practices
Local privacy standards and regulations
Benchmark studies of similar organizations
The best source of information for an IS auditor to use as a baseline to assess the adequacy of an organization’s privacy policy is the local privacy standards and regulations. Privacy standards and regulations are legal requirements that specify how personal data should be collected, processed, stored, shared, and disposed of by organizations. By using local privacy standards and regulations as a baseline, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization’s privacy policy complies with the applicable laws and protects the rights and interests of data subjects. Historical privacy breaches and related root causes, globally accepted privacy best practices, and benchmark studies of similar organizations are useful sources of information for improving an organization’s privacy policy, but they are not as authoritative and relevant as local privacy standards and regulations. References: CISAReview Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 2 - Governance and Management of Information Technology
Which of the following is the BEST source of information tor an IS auditor to use when determining whether an organization's information security policy is adequate?
Information security program plans
Penetration test results
Risk assessment results
Industry benchmarks
The best source of information for an IS auditor to use when determining whether an organization’s information security policy is adequate is the risk assessment results. The risk assessment results provide the auditor with an overview of the organization’s risk profile, including the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. The auditor can use the risk assessment results to compare the organization’s information security policy with the risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk treatment strategies of the organization. The auditor can also use the risk assessment results to evaluate if the information security policy is aligned with the organization’s objectives, requirements, and regulations.
Some of the web sources that support this answer are:
Performance Measurement Guide for Information Security
ISO 27001 Annex A.5 - Information Security Policies
[CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor – Question0551]
Which of the following occurs during the issues management process for a system development project?
Contingency planning
Configuration management
Help desk management
Impact assessment
Impact assessment is an activity that occurs during the issues management process for a system development project. Issues management is a process of identifying, analyzing, resolving, and monitoring issues that may affect the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. Impact assessment is a technique of evaluating the severity and priority of an issue, as well as its implications for the project objectives and deliverables. The other options are not activities that occur during the issues management process, but rather related to other processes such as contingency planning, configuration management, or help desk management. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 217
Which of the following controls BEST ensures appropriate segregation of dudes within an accounts payable department?
Ensuring that audit trails exist for transactions
Restricting access to update programs to accounts payable staff only
Including the creator's user ID as a field in every transaction record created
Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles
Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles is the best control for ensuring appropriate segregation of duties within an accounts payable department. An IS auditor should verify that the access rights and permissions of the accounts payable staff are based on their roles and responsibilities, and that they are not able to perform incompatible or conflicting functions such as creating, approving, or paying invoices. This will help to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of authority within the accounts payable process. The other options are less effective controls for ensuring segregation of duties, as they may involve audit trails, access restrictions, or user identification. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database,Question ID 223
An information systems security officer's PRIMARY responsibility for business process applications is to:
authorize secured emergency access
approve the organization's security policy
ensure access rules agree with policies
create role-based rules for each business process
Ensuring access rules agree with policies is an information systems security officer’s primary responsibility for business process applications. An information systems security officer should verifythat the access controls implemented for the business process applications are consistent with the organization’s security policy and objectives. The other options are not the primary responsibility of an information systems security officer, but rather the tasks of an application owner, a senior management, or a business analyst. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.3.11
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 208
An organization has recently implemented a Voice-over IP (VoIP) communication system. Which ot the following should be the IS auditor's PRIMARY concern?
A single point of failure for both voice and data communications
Inability to use virtual private networks (VPNs) for internal traffic
Lack of integration of voice and data communications
Voice quality degradation due to packet toss
The IS auditor’s primary concern when an organization has recently implemented a Voice-over IP (VoIP) communication system is a single point of failure for both voice and data communications. VoIP is a technology that allows voice communication over IP networks such as the internet. VoIP can offer benefits such as lower costs, higher flexibility, and better integration with other applications. However, VoIP also introduces risks such as dependency on network availability, performance, and security. If both voice and data communications share the same network infrastructure and devices, then a single point of failure can affect both services simultaneously and cause significant disruption to business operations. Therefore, the IS auditor should evaluate the availability and redundancy of the network components and devices that support VoIP communication. The other options are not as critical as a single point of failure for both voice and data communications, as they do not pose a direct threat to business continuity. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 385
An IS audit learn is evaluating the documentation related to the most recent application user-access review performed by IT and business management It is determined that the user list was not system-generated. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?
Availability of the user list reviewed
Confidentiality of the user list reviewed
Source of the user list reviewed
Completeness of the user list reviewed
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of signature-based intrusion detection systems (lDS)?
An increase in the number of identified false positives
An increase in the number of detected Incidents not previously identified
An increase in the number of unfamiliar sources of intruders
An increase in the number of internally reported critical incidents
Signature-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) are systems that compare network traffic with predefined patterns of known attacks, called signatures. The effectiveness of signature-based IDS depends on how well they can detect new or unknown attacks that are not in their signature database. Therefore, an increase in the number of detected incidents not previously identified is the best indicator of the effectiveness of signature-based IDS, as it shows that they can recognize novel or modified attacks.
Which of the following would be of MOST concern for an IS auditor evaluating the design of an organization's incident management processes?
Service management standards are not followed.
Expected time to resolve incidents is not specified.
Metrics are not reported to senior management.
Prioritization criteria are not defined.
he design of an incident management process should include prioritization criteria to ensure that incidents are handled according to their impact and urgency. Without prioritization criteria, the organization may not be able to allocate resources effectively and respond to incidents in a timely manner. Expected time to resolve incidents, service management standards, and metrics reporting are important aspects of incident management, but they are not as critical as prioritization criteria for the design of the process. References: ISACA Journal Article: Incident Management: A Practical Approach
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of an organization's incident response program?
Number of successful penetration tests
Percentage of protected business applications
Financial impact per security event
Number of security vulnerability patches
The best indicator of the effectiveness of an organization’s incident response program is the financial impact per security event. This metric measures the direct and indirect costs associated with security incidents, such as loss of revenue, reputation damage, legal fees, recovery expenses, and fines. By reducing the financial impact per security event, the organization can demonstrate that its incident response program is effective in mitigating the consequences of security breaches and restoring normal operations as quickly as possible. Number of successful penetration tests, percentage of protected business applications, and number of security vulnerability patches are indicators of the security posture of the organization, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the incident response program. References: ISACA Journal Article: Measuring Incident Response Effectiveness
The PRIMARY reason for an IS auditor to use data analytics techniques is to reduce which type of audit risk?
Technology risk
Detection risk
Control risk
Inherent risk
The primary reason for an IS auditor to use data analytics techniques is to reduce detection risk. Detection risk is the risk that an IS auditor will fail to detect material errors or irregularities in the information systems environment. By using data analytics techniques, such as data extraction, analysis, visualization, and reporting, an IS auditor can enhance the audit scope, coverage, efficiency, and effectiveness. Data analytics techniques can help an IS auditor to identify anomalies, patterns, trends, correlations, and outliers in large volumes of data that may indicate potential issues or risks. Technology risk, control risk, and inherent risk are types of audit risk that are not directly affected by the use of data analytics techniques by an IS auditor. References: [ISACA Journal Article: Data Analytics for Auditors]
An IS auditor is reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit. What should the auditor consider the MOST significant concern?
Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems.
There is a greater risk of system exploitation.
Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place.
Technical specifications are not documented.
The most significant concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit is that there is a greater risk of system exploitation. System exploitation is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual takes advantage of a vulnerability or weakness in a system to compromise its security or functionality. System exploitation can cause harm or damage to the system or its users, such as data loss, corruption, theft, manipulation, denial of service (DoS), etc. An ICS that uses older unsupported technology poses a high risk of system exploitation, as older technology may have known or unknown vulnerabilities or defects that have not been patched or fixed by the vendor or manufacturer, and unsupported technology may not receive any updates or support from the vendor or manufacturer in case of issues or incidents. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Attack vectors are methods or pathways that attackers use to gain access to or attack a system. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems, as attackers are developing new techniques or tools to target ICSs that are increasingly connected and complex. However, this concern may not be specific to older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level. Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. DRPs are documents that outline the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical functions or processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. DRPs are not in place, as they may affect the availability and continuity of the ICS and its functions or processes in case of a failure or incident. However, this concern may not be related to older unsupported technology, as it may apply to any ICS regardless of its technology level. Technical specifications are not documented is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Technical specifications are documents that describe the technical characteristics or requirements of a system or component, such as functionality, performance, design, etc. Technical specifications are not documented, as they may affect the understanding, maintenance, and improvement of the ICS and its components. However, this concern may not beassociated with older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level.
An organization that has suffered a cyber-attack is performing a forensic analysis of the affected users' computers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern for the IS auditor reviewing this process?
An imaging process was used to obtain a copy of the data from each computer.
The legal department has not been engaged.
The chain of custody has not been documented.
Audit was only involved during extraction of the Information
The chain of custody has not been documented is a finding that should be of greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing a forensic analysis process of an organization that has suffered a cyber attack. The chain of custody is a record of who handled, accessed, or modified the evidence during a forensic investigation. Documenting the chain of custody is essential to preserve the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in a court of law. The other options are less concerning findings that may not affect the validity or reliability of the forensic analysis process. References:
CISAReview Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.51
CISA Review Questions, Answers &Explanations Database, Question ID 220
Which of the following types of firewalls provide the GREATEST degree of control against hacker intrusion?
Circuit gateway
Application level gateway
Packet filtering router
Screening router
The type of firewall that provides the greatest degree of control against hacker intrusion is an application level gateway. A firewall is a device or software that filters or blocks network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall can help protect an information system or networkfrom unauthorized access or attack by hackers or other malicious entities. An application level gateway is a type of firewall that operates at the application layer of the network model (layer 7), which is where user applications communicate with each other over the network. An application level gateway provides the greatest degree of control against hacker intrusion, by inspecting and analyzing the content and context of each network packet at the application level, such as protocols, commands, requests, responses, etc., and allowing or denying access based on specific criteria or conditions. An application level gateway can also perform additional functions such as authentication, encryption, caching, logging, etc., to enhance the security and performance of network traffic. A circuit gateway is a type of firewall that operates at the transport layer of the network model (layer 4), which is where data are transferred between end points over the network. A circuit gateway provides a moderate degree of control against hacker intrusion by establishing a secure connection between two end points (such as client and server) and relaying network packets between them without inspecting or analyzing their content. A circuit gateway can also perform functions such as encryption, authentication, or address translation to improve the security and privacy of network traffic. A packet filtering router is a type of firewall that operates at the network layer of the network model (layer 3), which is where data are routed between different networks or subnets. A packet filtering router provides a low degree of control against hacker intrusion by examining the header of each network packet and allowing or denying access based on basic criteria such as source address, destination address, port number, protocol, etc. A packet filtering router can also perform functions such as routing, forwarding, or address translation to optimize the delivery and efficiency of network traffic. A screening router is a type of firewall that operates at the network layer of the network model (layer 3), which is where data are routed between different networks or subnets. A screening router provides a low degree of control against hacker intrusion by examining the header of each network packet and allowing or denying access based on basic criteria such as source address, destination address, port number, protocol, etc. A screening router can also perform functions such as routing, forwarding, or address translation to optimize the delivery and efficiency of network traffic.
Which of the following is the BEST audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization's security policy?
Reviewing the parameter settings
Reviewing the system log
Interviewing the firewall administrator
Reviewing the actual procedures
The best audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy is reviewing the parameter settings. Parameter settings are values or options that define how a firewall operates and functions, such as rules, filters, ports, protocols, etc. By reviewing the parameter settings of a firewall, an IS auditor can verify whether they match with the organization’s security policy, which is a document that outlines the security objectives, requirements, and guidelines for an organization’s information systems and resources. Reviewing the system log is a possible audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as a system log records events or activities that occur on a firewall, such as connections, requests, responses, errors, alerts, etc., and may not indicate whether they comply with the organization’s security policy. Interviewing the firewall administrator is a possible audit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as a firewall administrator may not provide accurate or reliable information about the firewall configuration, and may have conflicts of interest or ulterior motives. Reviewing the actual procedures is a possibleaudit procedure to determine whether a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy, but it is not the best one, as actual procedures describe how a firewall is configured and maintained, such as installation, testing, updating, etc., and may not reflect whether they comply with the organization’s security policy.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to follow a configuration management process to maintain application?
To optimize system resources
To follow system hardening standards
To optimize asset management workflows
To ensure proper change control
Following a configuration management process to maintain applications is the primary reason for ensuring proper change control. Configuration management is a process of identifying, documenting, controlling, and verifying the configuration items and their interrelationships within an IT system or environment. Following a configuration management process can help to ensure that any changes to the applications are authorized, tested, documented, and tracked throughout their lifecycle. This will help to prevent unauthorized or improper changes that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the applications. The other options are not the primary reasons for following a configuration management process, but rather possible benefits or outcomes of doing so. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 225
Which of the following would lead an IS auditor to conclude that the evidence collected during a digital forensic investigation would not be admissible in court?
The person who collected the evidence is not qualified to represent the case.
The logs failed to identify the person handling the evidence.
The evidence was collected by the internal forensics team.
The evidence was not fully backed up using a cloud-based solution prior to the trial.
The evidence collected during a digital forensic investigation would not be admissible in court if the logs failed to identify the person handling the evidence. This would violate the chain of custody principle, which requires that the evidence be properly documented, secured, and tracked throughout the investigation process. The chain of custody ensures that the evidence is authentic, reliable, andtrustworthy, and that it has not been tampered with or altered. The person who collected the evidence, whether qualified or not, is not relevant to the admissibility of the evidence, as long as they followed the proper procedures and protocols. The evidence collected by the internal forensics team can be admissible in court, as long as they are independent, objective, and competent. The evidence does not need to be fully backed up using a cloud-based solution prior to the trial, as long as it is preserved and protected from damage or loss. References: ISACA Journal Article: Digital Forensics: Chain of Custody
In a RAO model, which of the following roles must be assigned to only one individual?
Responsible
Informed
Consulted
Accountable
In a RAO model, which stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed, the accountable role must be assigned to only one individual. The accountable role is the person who has the ultimate authority and responsibility for the outcome of the project or task, and who approves or rejects the work done by the responsible role. The accountable role cannot be delegated or shared, as it is essential to have a clear and single point of accountability for each project or task.
The other roles can be assigned to more than one individual:
Responsible. This is the person who does the work or performs the task. There can be multiple responsible roles for different aspects or phases of a project or task, as long as they are coordinated and supervised by the accountable role.
Informed. This is the person who needs to be notified or updated about the progress or results of the project or task. There can be multiple informed roles who have an interest or stake in the project or task, but who do not need to be consulted or involved in the decision-making process.
Consulted. This is the person who provides input, feedback, or advice on the project or task. There can be multiple consulted roles who have expertise or experience relevant to the project or task, but who do not have the authority or responsibility to approve or reject the work done by the responsible role.
A now regulation requires organizations to report significant security incidents to the regulator within 24 hours of identification. Which of the following is the IS auditor’s BEST recommendation to facilitate compliance with the regulation?
Establish key performance indicators (KPls) for timely identification of security incidents.
Engage an external security incident response expert for incident handling.
Enhance the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS).
Include the requirement in the incident management response plan.
The best recommendation for the IS auditor to facilitate compliance with the new regulation is to include the requirement in the incident management response plan. An incident management response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, processes, and procedures for responding to security incidents. By including the new regulation in the plan, the IS auditor can ensure that the organization is aware of the reporting obligation, has a clear workflow for notifying the regulator within 24 hours, and has the necessary documentation and evidence to support the report.
The other options are not as effective as including the requirement in the incident management response plan:
Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) for timely identification of security incidents is a good practice, but it does not guarantee compliance with the regulation. KPIs are metrics that measure the performance of a process or activity, but they do not specify how to perform it. The IS auditor should also provide guidance on how to identify and report security incidents within 24 hours.
Engaging an external security incident response expert for incident handling is a possible option, but it may not be feasible or cost-effective. The organization may not have the budget or time to hire an external expert, or may prefer to handle the incidents internally. The IS auditor should also evaluate the qualifications and trustworthiness of the external expert, and ensure that they comply with the regulation and other contractual or legal obligations.
Enhancing the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS) is a useful measure, but it is not sufficient to comply with the regulation. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. However, an IDS may not detect all types of security incidents, or may generate false positives or negatives. The IS auditor should also consider other sources of incident detection, such as logs, reports, audits, or user feedback.
UESTION NO: 210
An accounting department uses a spreadsheet to calculate sensitive financial transactions. Which of the following is the MOST important control for maintaining the security of data in the spreadsheet?
There Is a reconciliation process between the spreadsheet and the finance system
A separate copy of the spreadsheet is routinely backed up
The spreadsheet is locked down to avoid inadvertent changes
Access to the spreadsheet is given only to those who require access
Access to the spreadsheet is given only to those who require access is the most important control for maintaining the security of data in the spreadsheet. An IS auditor should ensure that the principle of least privilege is applied to limit the access to sensitive financial data and prevent unauthorized disclosure, modification, or deletion. The other options are less important controls that may enhance the accuracy, availability, or integrity of data in the spreadsheet, but not its security. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 210
When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor's BEST recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and:
the organization's web server.
the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
the organization's network.
the Internet
The best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet. An IDS is a device or software that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts the network administrator or takes preventive action. By placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet, the IS auditor can enhance the security of the network perimeter and detect any attack attempts that the firewall was unable to recognize.
The other options are not as effective as placing an IDS between the firewall and the Internet:
Placing an IDS between the firewall and the organization’s web server would not protect the web server from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The web server should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ), which is a separate network segment that isolates public-facing servers from the internal network.
Placing an IDS between the firewall and the demilitarized zone (DMZ) would not protect the DMZ from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The DMZ should be protected by twofirewalls, one facing the Internet and one facing the internal network, with an IDS monitoring both sides of each firewall.
Placing an IDS between the firewall and the organization’s network would not protect the organization’s network from external attacks that bypass the firewall. The organization’s network should be protected by a firewall that blocks unauthorized traffic from entering or leaving the network, with an IDS monitoring both sides of the firewall.
In an online application, which of the following would provide the MOST information about the transaction audit trail?
System/process flowchart
File layouts
Data architecture
Source code documentation
In an online application, data architecture provides the most information about the transaction audit trail, as it describes how data are created, stored, processed, accessed and exchanged among different components of the application. Data architecture includes data models, schemas, dictionaries, metadata, standards and policies that define the structure, quality, integrity, security and governance of data. Data architecture can help the IS auditor to trace the origin, flow, transformation and destination of data in an online transaction, and to identify the key data elements, attributes and relationships that are relevant for audit purposes. A system/process flowchart is a graphical representation of the sequence of steps or activities that are performed by a system or process. A system/process flowchart can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. A system/process flowchart shows the inputs, outputs, decisions and actions of a system or process, but it does not show the data elements, attributes and relationships that are involved in each step or activity. A file layout is a specification of the format and structure of a data file. A file layout can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. A file layout shows the fields, types, lengths and positions of data in a file, but it does not show the origin, flow, transformation and destination of data in an online transaction. Source code documentation is a description of the logic, functionality and purpose of a program or module written in a programming language. Source code documentation can provide some information about the transaction audit trail, but it is not as detailed or comprehensive as data architecture. Source code documentation shows the instructions, variables and parameters that are used to perform calculations and operations on data, but it does not show the data elements, attributes and relationships that are involved in each instruction or operation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2: Data Administration Practices.
During an IT governance audit, an IS auditor notes that IT policies and procedures are not regularly reviewed and updated. The GREATEST concern to the IS auditor is that policies and procedures might not:
reflect current practices.
include new systems and corresponding process changes.
incorporate changes to relevant laws.
be subject to adequate quality assurance (QA).
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated is that policies and procedures might not reflect current practices. Policies are documents that define the goals, objectives, and guidelines for an organization’s information systems and resources. Procedures are documents that describe the steps, tasks, or activities for implementing or executing policies. Policies and procedures should be regularly reviewed and updated to ensure that they are relevant, accurate, consistent, and effective for the organization’s information systems and resources. Policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated might not reflect current practices, as they might be outdated, obsolete, or incompatible with the current state or needs of the organization’s information systems and resources. This can cause confusion, inconsistency, inefficiency, or noncompliance among users or stakeholders who rely on policies and procedures for guidance or direction. Policies and procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing IT policies and procedures that are not regularly reviewed and updated, but it is not the greatest one. Policies and procedures might not include new systems and corresponding process changes, as they might be unaware of or unresponsive to the introduction or modification of information systems or resources within the organization. This can cause gaps, overlaps, or conflicts among policies and procedures that affect different information systems or resources.
What is the Most critical finding when reviewing an organization’s information security management?
No dedicated security officer
No official charier for the information security management system
No periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities
No employee awareness training and education program
The most critical finding when reviewing an organization’s information security management is no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. Periodic assessments are essential for ensuring that the organization’s information security policies, procedures, standards, and controls are aligned with the current and emerging risks and threats that may affect its information assets. Without periodic assessments, the organization may not be aware of its actual security posture, gaps, or weaknesses, and may not be able to take appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent potential security incidents. No dedicated security officer, no official charter for the information security management system, and no employee awareness training and education program are also findings that may indicate some deficiencies in the organization’s information security management, but they are not as critical as no periodic assessments to identify threats and vulnerabilities. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 343.
When planning an audit to assess application controls of a cloud-based system, it is MOST important tor the IS auditor to understand the.
architecture and cloud environment of the system.
business process supported by the system.
policies and procedures of the business area being audited.
availability reports associated with the cloud-based system.
The business process supported by the system is the most important factor for an IS auditor to understand when planning an audit to assess application controls of a cloud-based system. An IS auditor should have a clear understanding of the business objectives, requirements, and risks of the process, as well as the expected outputs and outcomes of the system. This will help the IS auditor to determine the scope, objectives, and criteria of the audit, as well as to identify and evaluate the key application controls that ensure the effectiveness, efficiency, and reliability of the process. The other options are less important factors that may provide additional information or context for the audit, but not its primary focus. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5,Section 5.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 212
Which of the following BEST protects an organization's proprietary code during a joint-development activity involving a third party?
Statement of work (SOW)
Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
Privacy agreement
A nondisclosure agreement (NDA) is the best way to protect an organization’s proprietary code during a joint-development activity involving a third party. An NDA is a legal contract that binds the parties involved in a joint-development activity to keep confidential any information, data or materials that are shared or exchanged during the activity. An NDA specifies what constitutes confidential information, how it can be used, disclosed or protected, how long it remains confidential, what are the exceptions and remedies for breach of confidentiality, and other terms and conditions. An NDA can help to protect an organization’s proprietary code from being copied, modified, distributed or exploited by unauthorized parties without its consent or knowledge. The other options are not as effective as option B, as they do not address confidentiality issues specifically. A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, tasks, roles, responsibilities, timelines and costs of a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the quality, performance and availability standards and metrics for a service provided by one party to another party in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues explicitly. A privacy agreement is a document that defines how personal information collected from customers or users is collected, used, disclosed and protected by one party or both parties in a joint-development activity, but it does not cover confidentiality issues related to proprietary code. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.2: Project Management Practices.
An employee loses a mobile device resulting in loss of sensitive corporate data. Which o( the following would have BEST prevented data leakage?
Data encryption on the mobile device
Complex password policy for mobile devices
The triggering of remote data wipe capabilities
Awareness training for mobile device users
The best way to prevent data leakage from a lost mobile device is data encryption on the mobile device. Data encryption is a technique that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Data encryption protects data from unauthorized access or disclosure in case of loss or theft of a mobile device. Complex password policy for mobile devices, triggering of remote data wipe capabilities, and awareness training for mobile device users are useful measures to enhance data security on mobile devices, but they do not prevent data leakage as effectively as data encryption. A complex password policy can be bypassed by brute force attacks or password cracking tools. Remote data wipe capabilities depend on network connectivity and device power availability. Awareness training for mobile device users can reduce human errors or negligence, but it cannot guarantee compliance or behavior change. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience
Which of the following BEST demonstrates that IT strategy Is aligned with organizational goals and objectives?
IT strategies are communicated to all Business stakeholders
Organizational strategies are communicated to the chief information officer (CIO).
Business stakeholders are Involved In approving the IT strategy.
The chief information officer (CIO) is involved In approving the organizational strategies
Business stakeholders being involved in approving the IT strategy best demonstrates that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives. IT strategy is a plan that defines how IT resources and capabilities will support and enable the achievement of business goals and objectives. Business stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the organization’s activities and outcomes. By involving business stakeholders in approving the IT strategy, the organization can ensure that the IT strategy reflects and supports the business needs, expectations, and priorities. The other options do not necessarily indicate that IT strategy is aligned with organizational goals and objectives, as they do not involve the participation or feedback of business stakeholders. References: CISAReview Manual, 27th Edition, page 97
An IS auditor finds that an organization's data loss prevention (DLP) system is configured to use vendor default settings to identify violations. The auditor's MAIN concern should be that:
violation reports may not be reviewed in a timely manner.
a significant number of false positive violations may be reported.
violations may not be categorized according to the organization's risk profile.
violation reports may not be retained according to the organization's risk profile.
The IS quality assurance (OA) group is responsible for:
ensuring that program changes adhere to established standards.
designing procedures to protect data against accidental disclosure.
ensuring that the output received from system processing is complete.
monitoring the execution of computer processing tasks.
The IS quality assurance (QA) group is responsible for ensuring that program changes adhere to established standards. Program changes are modifications made to software applications or systems to fix errors, improve performance, add functionality, or meet changing requirements. Program changes should follow established standards for documentation, authorization, testing, implementation, and review. The IS QA group is responsible for verifying that program changes comply with these standards and meet the expected quality criteria. Designing procedures to protect dataagainst accidental disclosure; ensuring that the output received from system processing is complete; and monitoring the execution of computer processing tasks are not responsibilities of the IS QA group. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 304.
Which of the following environments is BEST used for copying data and transformation into a compatible data warehouse format?
Testing
Replication
Staging
Development
The best environment for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format is the staging environment. The staging environment is a temporary area where data from various sources are extracted, transformed, and loaded (ETL) before being moved to the data warehouse. The staging environment allows for data cleansing, validation, integration, and standardization without affecting the source or target systems. The testing environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for verifying and validating the functionality and performance of applications or systems. The replication environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating identical copies of data or systems for backup or recovery purposes. The development environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating or modifying applications or systems. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 475-4761
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 2642
In which phase of penetration testing would host detection and domain name system (DNS) interrogation be performed?
Discovery
Attacks
Planning
Reporting
Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. Penetration testing typically consists of four phases: planning, discovery, attacks, and reporting. In the discovery phase, penetration testers gather information about the target system or network, such as host detection, domain name system (DNS) interrogation, port scanning, service identification, operating system fingerprinting, vulnerability scanning, etc. This information can help to identify potential entry points, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities that can be exploited in the subsequent attack phase. Host detection and DNS interrogation are techniques that can be used in the discovery phase to determine the active hosts and their IP addresses and hostnames on the target network. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 368.
Which of the following concerns is BEST addressed by securing production source libraries?
Programs are not approved before production source libraries are updated.
Production source and object libraries may not be synchronized.
Changes are applied to the wrong version of production source libraries.
Unauthorized changes can be moved into production.
Unauthorized changes can be moved into production is the best concern that is addressed by securing production source libraries. Production source libraries contain the source code of programs that are used in the production environment. Securing production source libraries means implementing access controls, change management procedures, and audit trails to prevent unauthorized or improper changes to the source code that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the production programs. The other options are less relevant concerns that may not be directly addressed by securing production source libraries, but rather by other controls such as program approval, version control, or change testing. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3.21
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 213
Which of the following is a social engineering attack method?
An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone.
A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access.
An intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties.
An unauthorized person attempts to gain access to secure premises by following an authorized person through a secure door.
Social engineering is a technique that exploits human weaknesses, such as trust, curiosity, or greed, to obtain information or access from a target. An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone is an example of a social engineering attack method, as it involves manipulating the employee into divulging sensitive information that can be used to compromise the network or system. A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access, an intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties, and an unauthorized person attempts to gain access to secure premises by following an authorized person through a secure door are not examples of social engineering attack methods, as they do not involve human interaction or deception. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 361.
To develop meaningful recommendations 'or findings, which of the following is MOST important 'or an IS auditor to determine and understand?
Root cause
Responsible party
impact
Criteria
Root cause is the most important thing for an IS auditor to determine and understand to develop meaningful recommendations for findings. A root cause is the underlying factor or condition that leads to a problem or issue. A finding is a statement that describes a problem or issue identified during an audit. A recommendation is a suggestion or advice that aims to address or resolve a finding. To develop meaningful recommendations for findings, an IS auditor should determine and understand the root cause of each finding, as this can help to identify the most effective and appropriate actions to prevent or correct the problem or issue. The other options are not as important as determining and understanding the root cause, as they do not directly address or resolve the finding. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 434
Which of the following Is the BEST way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users?
Implementing two-factor authentication
Restricting access to transactions using network security software
implementing role-based access at the application level
Using a single menu tor sensitive application transactions
The best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users is implementing role-based access at the application level. Role-based access is a method of access control that assigns permissions or privileges to users based on their roles or functions within an organization or system. Role-based access can help ensure that payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, by allowing only authorized users who have a legitimate need orpurpose to access or use the payment transaction data, and preventing unauthorized or unnecessary access or use by other users. Implementing two-factor authentication is a possible way to enhance the security and verification of user identities, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not define what permissions or privileges users have on the payment transaction data. Restricting access to transactions using network security software is a possible way to protect the network communication and transmission of payment transaction data, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not specify what actions or operations users can perform on the payment transaction data. Using a single menu for sensitive application transactions is a possible way to simplify the user interface and navigation of payment transaction data, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not limit what users can access or use the payment transaction data.
An IS auditor finds a high-risk vulnerability in a public-facing web server used to process online customer payments. The IS auditor should FIRST
document the exception in an audit report.
review security incident reports.
identify compensating controls.
notify the audit committee.
The first action that an IS auditor should take when finding a high-risk vulnerability in a public-facing web server used to process online customer payments is to identify compensating controls. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that provide reasonable assurance of mitigating the risk of exploiting the vulnerability. The IS auditor should assess the effectiveness of the compensating controls and determine whether they reduce the risk to an acceptable level. If not, the IS auditor should recommend remediation actions to address the vulnerability. Documenting the exception in an audit report is an important action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. Reviewing security incident reports is a useful action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not provide assurance of preventing future incidents. Notifying the audit committee is a necessary action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not involve taking any corrective measures. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 295-2961
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 260
An IS auditor is analyzing a sample of accesses recorded on the system log of an application. The auditor intends to launch an intensive investigation if one exception is found Which sampling method would be appropriate?
Discovery sampling
Judgmental sampling
Variable sampling
Stratified sampling
Discovery sampling is an appropriate sampling method for an IS auditor who intends to launch an intensive investigation if one exception is found. Discovery sampling is a type of attribute sampling that determines the sample size based on an acceptable risk of not finding at least one occurrence of an attribute when a given rate of occurrence exists in a population. Discovery sampling can be used by an IS auditor who wants to detect fraud or errors that have a low probability but high impacton an audit objective. The other options are not appropriate sampling methods for this purpose, as they may involve judgmental sampling, variable sampling, or stratified sampling. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.31
CISA ReviewQuestions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 230
Which of the following are BEST suited for continuous auditing?
Low-value transactions
Real-lime transactions
Irregular transactions
Manual transactions
Continuous auditing is a method of performing audit-related activities on a real-time or near real-time basis. Continuous auditing is best suited for real-time transactions, such as online banking, e-commerce, or electronic funds transfer, that require immediate verification and assurance. Low-value transactions are not necessarily suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not pose significant risks or require frequent monitoring. Irregular transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not occur frequently or consistently enough to justify the use of continuous auditing techniques. Manual transactions are not suitable for continuous auditing, as they may not be captured or processed by automated systems that enable continuous auditing. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 307-3081
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 253
The PRIMARY focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that:
enterprise architecture (EA) has been complied with.
user requirements have been met.
acceptance testing has been properly executed.
user access controls have been adequately designed.
The primary focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that user requirements have been met. User requirements are specifications that define what users need or expect from a system or service, such as functionality, usability, reliability, etc. User requirements are usually gathered and documented at the beginning of a project, and used as a basis for designing, developing, testing, and implementing a system or service. A post-implementation review is an evaluation that assesses whether a system or service meets its objectives and delivers its expected benefits after it has been implemented. The primary focus of a post-implementation review is to verify that user requirements have been met, as this can indicate whether the system or service satisfies the user needs and expectations, provides value and quality to the users, and supports the user goals and tasks. Enterprise architecture (EA) has been complied with is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. EA is a framework that defines how an organization’s business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure are aligned and integrated to support its vision and strategy. EA has been complied with, as this can indicate whether the system or service fits with the organization’s current and future state, and follows the organization’s standards and principles. Acceptance testing has been properly executed is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. Acceptance testing is a process that verifies whether a system or service meets the user requirements and expectations before it is accepted by the users or stakeholders. Acceptance testing has been properly executed, as this can indicate whether the system or service has been tested and validated by the users or stakeholders, and whether any issues or defects have been identified and resolved. User access controls have been adequately designed is a possible focus of a post-implementation review, but it is not the primary one. User access controls are mechanisms that ensure that only authorized users can access or use a system or service, and prevent unauthorized access or use. User access controls have been adequately designed, as this can indicate whether the system or service has appropriate security and privacy measures in place, and whether any risks or threats have been mitigated.
Which of the following business continuity activities prioritizes the recovery of critical functions?
Business continuity plan (BCP) testing
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing
Risk assessment
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects or consequences of disruptions or disasters on an organization’s critical business functions or processes. A BIA can help prioritize the recovery of critical functions by assessing their importance and urgency for the organization’s operations, objectives, and stakeholders, and determining their recovery time objectives (RTOs), which are the maximum acceptable time for restoring a functionafter a disruption. A business continuity plan (BCP) testing is a process that verifies and validates the effectiveness and readiness of a BCP, which is a document that outlines the strategies and procedures for ensuring the continuity of critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP testing does not prioritize the recovery of critical functions, but rather evaluates how well they are recovered according to the BCP. A disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing is a process that verifies and validates the effectiveness and readiness of a DRP, which is a document that outlines the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A DRP testing does not prioritize the recovery of critical functions, but rather evaluates how well they are supported by the IT systems and infrastructure according to the DRP. A risk assessment is a process that identifies and analyzes the potential threats and vulnerabilities that could affect an organization’s critical business functions or processes. A risk assessment does not prioritize the recovery of critical functions, but rather estimates their likelihood and impact of being disrupted by various risk scenarios.
Which of the following activities would allow an IS auditor to maintain independence while facilitating a control sell-assessment (CSA)?
Implementing the remediation plan
Partially completing the CSA
Developing the remediation plan
Developing the CSA questionnaire
Developing the CSA questionnaire is an activity that would allow an IS auditor to maintain independence while facilitating a control self-assessment (CSA). An IS auditor can design and provide a CSA questionnaire to help the business units or process owners to evaluate their own controls and identify any issues or improvement opportunities. This will enable an IS auditor to support and guide the CSA process without compromising their objectivity or independence. The other options are activities that would impair an IS auditor’s independence while facilitating a CSA, as they involve implementing, completing, or developing remediation actions for control issues. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.41
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 215
For an organization that has plans to implement web-based trading, it would be MOST important for an IS auditor to verify the organization's information security plan includes:
attributes for system passwords.
security training prior to implementation.
security requirements for the new application.
the firewall configuration for the web server.
For an organization that has plans to implement web-based trading, it would be most important for an IS auditor to verify that the organization’s information security plan includes security requirements for the new application. Security requirements are statements that define what security features and functions are needed to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web-based trading application and its data. Security requirements should be identified and documented during the planning phase of the application development life cycle, before any design or coding activities take place. Attributes for system passwords, security training prior to implementation, and firewall configuration for the web server are also important aspects of information security, but they are not as essential as security requirements for ensuring that the web-based trading application meets its security objectives.
What is the MAIN reason to use incremental backups?
To improve key availability metrics
To reduce costs associates with backups
To increase backup resiliency and redundancy
To minimize the backup time and resources
Incremental backups are backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or incremental backup. The main reason to use incremental backups is to minimize the backup time and resources, as they require less storage space and network bandwidth than full backups. Incremental backups can also improve key availability metrics, such as recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO), but that is not their primary purpose. Reducing costs associated with backups and increasing backup resiliency and redundancy are possible benefits of incremental backups, but they depend on other factors, such as the backup frequency, retention policy, and media type. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 5 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience
Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the IS auditor m an organization's information classification process?
Securing information assets in accordance with the classification assigned
Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification
Ensuring classification levels align with regulatory guidelines
Defining classification levels for information assets within the organization
Validating that assets are protected according to assigned classification is the primary role of the IS auditor in an organization’s information classification process. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the information security controls are adequate and effective in safeguarding the information assets based on their classification levels. The other options are not the primary role of the IS auditor, but rather the responsibilities of the information owners, custodians, or security managers. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 206
Which of the following observations would an IS auditor consider the GREATEST risk when conducting an audit of a virtual server farm tor potential software vulnerabilities?
Guest operating systems are updated monthly
The hypervisor is updated quarterly.
A variety of guest operating systems operate on one virtual server
Antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only.
Antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only is the observation that an IS auditor would consider the greatest risk when conducting an audit of a virtual server farm for potential software vulnerabilities. A virtual server farm is a collection of servers that run multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical host using a software layer called a hypervisor. A guest operating system is the operating system installed on each VM. Antivirus software is a software program that detects and removes malicious software from a computer system. If antivirus software has been implemented on the guest operating system only, it means that the hypervisor and the host operating system are not protected from malware attacks, which could compromise the security and availability of all VMs running on the same host. Therefore, antivirus software should be implemented on both the guest and host operating systems as well as on the hypervisor. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 378
During the planning stage of a compliance audit, an IS auditor discovers that a bank's inventory of compliance requirements does not include recent regulatory changes related to managing data risk. What should the auditor do FIRST?
Ask management why the regulatory changes have not been Included.
Discuss potential regulatory issues with the legal department
Report the missing regulatory updates to the chief information officer (CIO).
Exclude recent regulatory changes from the audit scope.
Asking management why the regulatory changes have not been included is the first thing that an IS auditor should do during the planning stage of a compliance audit. An IS auditor should inquire about the reasons for not updating the inventory of compliance requirements with recent regulatory changes related to managing data risk. This will help the IS auditor to understand whether there is a gap in awareness, communication, or implementation of compliance obligations within the organization. The other options are not the first things that an IS auditor should do, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on management’s response. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.31
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID 214
Which of the following BEST enables the timely identification of risk exposure?
External audit review
Internal audit review
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Stress testing
Control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that enables business managers and staff to assess and improve the effectiveness of their own controls and risk management processes. CSA can best enable the timely identification of risk exposure, as it allows for continuous monitoring and reporting of risks by those who are closest to the business processes and activities. External audit review, internal audit review, and stress testing are also useful methods for identifying risk exposure, but they are not as timely as CSA, as they are performed periodically or on demand by external or internal parties who may not have as much insight into the business operations and environment. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 95.
Providing security certification for a new system should include which of the following prior to the system's implementation?
End-user authorization to use the system in production
External audit sign-off on financial controls
Testing of the system within the production environment
An evaluation of the configuration management practices
Providing security certification for a new system should include an evaluation of the configuration management practices prior to the system’s implementation. Configuration management is a process that ensures that the system’s components are identified, controlled, and tracked throughout the system’s lifecycle. Configuration management helps to maintain the security and integrity of the system by preventing unauthorized or unintended changes. End-user authorization to use the system in production is not part of security certification, but rather a post-implementation activity that grants access rights to authorized users. External audit sign-off on financial controls is not part of security certification, but rather a verification activity that ensures that the system complies with financial reporting standards. Testing of the system within the production environment is not part of securitycertification, but rather a validation activity that ensures that the system meets the functional and performance requirements. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 449-4501
CISA Review Questions, Answers& Explanations Database, Question ID: 2572
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with storing customer data on a web server?
Data availability
Data confidentiality
Data integrity
Data redundancy
The greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server is data confidentiality. Data confidentiality is the property that ensures that data are accessible only to authorized entities or individuals, and protected from unauthorized disclosure or exposure. Storing customer data on a web server poses a high risk to data confidentiality, as web servers are exposed to the internet and may be vulnerable to various types of attacks or breaches that can compromise the security and privacy of customer data, such as hacking, phishing, malware, denial of service (DoS), etc. Customer data may contain sensitive or personal information that can cause harm or damage to customers or the organization if disclosed or exposed, such as identity theft, fraud, reputation loss, legal liability, etc. Data availability is the property that ensures that data are accessible and usable by authorized entities or individuals when needed. Data availability is a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as web servers may experience failures or disruptions that can affect the accessibility and usability of customer data, such as hardware faults, network issues, power outages, etc. However, data availability is not the greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as it does not affect the security and privacy of customer data. Data integrity is the property that ensures that data are accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Data integrity is a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as web servers may be subject to attacks or errors that can affect the accuracy and consistency of customer data, such as injection attacks, tampering, replication issues, etc. However, data integrity is not the greatest risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, as it does not affect the security and privacy of customer data. Data redundancy is the condition of having duplicate or unnecessary data in a database or system. Data redundancy is not a risk associated with storing customer data on a web server, but rather a result of poor database design or management.
Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk associated with data migration from a legacy human resources (HR) system to a cloud-based system?
Data from the source and target system may be intercepted.
Data from the source and target system may have different data formats.
Records past their retention period may not be migrated to the new system.
System performance may be impacted by the migration
The greatest security risk associated with data migration from a legacy human resources (HR) system to a cloud-based system is data from the source and target system may be intercepted. Data interception is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual captures or accesses data that are being transmitted or stored on an information system or network. Data interception can compromise the confidentiality and integrity of data, and cause harm or damage to data owners or users. Data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system involves transferring data from one system or location to another system or location over a network connection. This poses a high risk of data interception, as data may be exposed or vulnerable during transit or storage on unsecured or untrusted networks or systems. Data from the source and target system may have different data formats is a possible challenge associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. Data formats are specifications that define how data are structured or encoded on an information system or network. Data formats may vary depending on different systems or platforms. Data migration may require converting data from one format to another format to ensure compatibility and interoperability between systems. Records past their retention period may not be migrated to the new system is a possible outcome associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. Retention period is a duration that defines how long data should be kept or stored on an information system or network before being deleted or destroyed. Retention period may depend on various factors such as legal requirements, business needs, storage capacity, etc. Data migration may involve deleting or destroying data that are past their retention period to reduce the volume or complexity of data to be transferred or to comply with regulations or policies. System performance may be impacted by the migration is a possible impact associated with data migration from a legacy HR system to a cloud-based system, but it is not a security risk. System performance is a measure of how well an information system or network functions or operates, such as speed, reliability, availability, etc. System performance may be affected by data migration, as data migration mayconsume significant resources or bandwidth, cause interruptions or delays, or introduce errors or inconsistencies.
An organization is considering allowing users to connect personal devices to the corporate network. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Conduct security awareness training.
Implement an acceptable use policy
Create inventory records of personal devices
Configure users on the mobile device management (MDM) solution
The first thing that should be done before allowing users to connect personal devices to the corporate network is to implement an acceptable use policy. An acceptable use policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using personal devices on the corporate network, such as security requirements, access rights, responsibilities, and consequences. An acceptable use policy can help to protect the organization from potential risks such as data leakage, malware infection, or legal liability. The other options are not as important as implementing an acceptable use policy, as they do not establish the boundaries and expectations for using personal devices on the corporate network. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 318
A data breach has occurred due lo malware. Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?
Notify the cyber insurance company.
Shut down the affected systems.
Quarantine the impacted systems.
Notify customers of the breach.
The first course of action when a data breach has occurred due to malware is to quarantine the impacted systems. This means isolating the infected systems from the rest of the network and preventing any further communication or data transfer with them. This can help contain the spread of the malware, limit the damage and exposure of sensitive data, and facilitate the investigation and remediation of the incident. Quarantining the impacted systems can also help preserve the evidence and logs that may be needed for forensic analysis or legal action.
From an IS auditor's perspective, which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with an incomplete inventory of deployed software in an organization?
Inability to close unused ports on critical servers
Inability to identify unused licenses within the organization
Inability to deploy updated security patches
Inability to determine the cost of deployed software
The greatest risk associated with an incomplete inventory of deployed software in an organization is the inability to deploy updated security patches. Security patches are updates that fix vulnerabilities or bugs in software that could be exploited by attackers. Without an accurate inventory of software versions and configurations, it is difficult to identify and apply the relevant patches in a timely manner, which exposes the organization to increased security risks. Inability to close unused ports on critical servers, inability to identify unused licenses within the organization, and inability to determine the cost of deployed software are not as critical as security risks. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 308
Which of the following attack techniques will succeed because of an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall?
Phishing
Using a dictionary attack of encrypted passwords
Intercepting packets and viewing passwords
Flooding the site with an excessive number of packets
Flooding the site with an excessive number of packets is an attack technique that will succeed because of an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall. This type of attack is also known as a denial-of-service (DoS) attack or a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack if it involves multiple sources. The aim of this attack is to overwhelm the network bandwidth or the processing capacity of the firewall or the target system, rendering it unable to respond to legitimate requests or perform its normal functions. An Internet firewall is a device or software that monitors andcontrols incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block or allow traffic based on various criteria, such as source address, destination address, port number, protocol type, application type, etc. However, a firewall cannot prevent traffic from reaching its interface or distinguish between legitimate and malicious traffic based on its content or behavior. Therefore, a firewall is vulnerable to flooding attacks that exploit its limited resources. Phishing is an attack technique that involves sending fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, online services, etc., in order to trick recipients into revealing their personal or financial information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, bank account details, etc., or into clicking on malicious links or attachments that can infect their systems with malware or ransomware. Phishing does not exploit an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall, but rather exploits human psychology and social engineering techniques. A firewall cannot prevent phishing emails or messages from reaching their intended targets, unless they contain some identifiable features that can be filtered out by the firewall rules. However, a firewall cannot detect or prevent users from responding to phishing emails or messages or from opening malicious links or attachments. Using a dictionary attack of encrypted passwords is an attack technique that involves trying to guess or crack passwords by using a list of common or likely passwords or by using a brute-force method that tries all possible combinations of characters. This type of attack does not exploit an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall, but rather exploits weak or poorly chosen passwords or weak encryption algorithms. A firewall cannot prevent a dictionary attack of encrypted passwords, unless it has some mechanisms to detect and block repeated or suspicious login attempts or to enforce strong password policies. However, a firewall cannot protect passwords from being stolen or intercepted by other means, such as phishing, malware, keylogging, etc. Intercepting packets and viewing passwords is an attack technique that involves capturing and analyzing network traffic that contains sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, bank account details, etc., in order to use them for malicious purposes. This type of attack does not exploit an inherent security weakness in an Internet firewall, but rather exploits insecure or unencrypted network communication protocols or channels. A firewall cannot prevent packets from being intercepted and viewed by unauthorized parties, unless it has some mechanisms to encrypt or obfuscate the network traffic or to authenticate the source and destination of the traffic. However, a firewall cannot protect packets from being modified or tampered with by other means, such as man-in-the-middle attacks, replay attacks, etc. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 300
What is BEST for an IS auditor to review when assessing the effectiveness of changes recently made to processes and tools related to an organization's business continuity plan (BCP)?
Full test results
Completed test plans
Updated inventory of systems
Change management processes
The best way to assess the effectiveness of changes made to processes and tools related to an organization’s BCP is to review the full test results of the BCP. Full test results can provide evidence of whether the changes have improved the BCP’s objectives, such as recovery time objectives (RTOs), recovery point objectives (RPOs), and business impact analysis (BIA). The other options are not as effective as reviewing the full test results, as they do not demonstrate the actual performance of the BCP under simulated disaster scenarios. Completed test plans are only documents that outline the scope, objectives, and procedures of the BCP testing, but they do not show the outcomes or issues encountered during the testing. Updated inventory of systems is a component of the BCP that identifies the critical systems and resources required for business continuity, but it does not measure the effectiveness of the BCP changes. Change management processes are controls that ensure that changes to the BCP are authorized, documented, and communicated, but they do not evaluate the impact or benefit of the changes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3
An IS auditor will be testing accounts payable controls by performing data analytics on the entire population of transactions. Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to confirm when sourcing the population data?
The data is taken directly from the system.
There is no privacy information in the data.
The data can be obtained in a timely manner.
The data analysis tools have been recently updated.
The most important thing for the auditor to confirm when sourcing the population data for testing accounts payable controls by performing data analytics is that the data is taken directly from the system. Taking the data directly from the system can help ensure that the data is authentic, complete, and accurate, and that it has not been manipulated or modified by any intermediary sources or processes. The other options are not as important as taking the data directly from the system, as they do not affect the validity or reliability of the data. There is no privacy information in the data is a privacy concern that can help protect the confidentiality and integrity of personal or sensitive data, but it does not affect the accuracy or completeness of the data. The data can be obtained in a timely manner is a logistical concern that can help facilitate the efficiency and effectiveness of the data analytics process, but it does not affect the authenticity or accuracy of the data. The data analysis tools have been recently updated is a technical concern that can helpenhance the functionality and performance of the data analytics tools, but it does not affect the validity or reliability of the data. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
During an ongoing audit, management requests a briefing on the findings to date. Which of the following is the IS auditor's BEST course of action?
Review working papers with the auditee.
Request the auditee provide management responses.
Request management wait until a final report is ready for discussion.
Present observations for discussion only.
The IS auditor’s best course of action in this situation is to present observations for discussion only. Observations are factual statements or findings that are based on the audit evidence collected and analyzed during the audit. Observations can be presented to management for discussion and feedback, but they should not be considered as final conclusions or recommendations until the audit is completed and the audit report is issued. The other options are not appropriate for presenting the findings to date, as they may compromise the audit quality or integrity. Reviewing working papers with the auditee is not advisable, as working papers are confidential documents that contain the auditor’s notes, calculations, and opinions that may not be relevant or accurate for management’s review. Requesting the auditee provide management responses is premature, as management responses should be obtained after the audit report is issued and the audit findings andrecommendations are finalized. Requesting management wait until a final report is ready for discussion is impractical, as management may have a legitimate interest or need to know the audit progress and results as soon as possible. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.3
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an organization to project against data loss?
Limit employee internet access.
Implement data classification procedures.
Review firewall logs for anomalies.
Conduct periodic security awareness training.
Data loss can occur due to various reasons, such as accidental deletion, hardware failure, malware infection, theft, or unauthorized access. Data classification procedures can help to identify and protect sensitive data, but they are not sufficient to prevent data loss. The most effective way to protect against data loss is to conduct periodic security awareness training for employees, which can educate them on the importance of data security, the best practices for data handling and storage, and the common threats and risks to data.
When reviewing an organization's information security policies, an IS auditor should verify that the policies have been defined PRIMARILY on the basis of:
a risk management process.
an information security framework.
past information security incidents.
industry best practices.
Information security policies are high-level statements that define the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from threats and risks. They should be based primarily on a risk management process, which is a systematic method of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, and monitoring information security risks. A risk management process can help ensure that the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite, business objectives, legal and regulatory requirements, and stakeholder expectations. An information security framework is a set of standards, guidelines, and best practices that provide a structure for implementing information security policies. It can support the risk management process, but it is not the primary basis for defining the policies. Past information security incidents and industry best practices can also provide valuable inputs for defining the policies, but they are not sufficient to address the organization’s specific context and needs. References: Insights and Expertise, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
An IS auditor notes the transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release. Which of the following should the IS auditor review FIRST?
Capacity management plan
Training plans
Database conversion results
Stress testing results
The first thing that an IS auditor should review when finding that transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release is stress testing results. Stress testing is a type of testing that evaluates how a system performs under extreme or abnormal conditions, such as high volume, load, or concurrency of transactions. Stress testing results can help explain why transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release by revealing any bottlenecks, limitations, or errors in the system’s capacity, performance, or functionality under stress. The other options are not as relevant as stress testing results in explaining why transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release, as they do not directly measure how the systemperforms under extreme or abnormal conditions. Capacity management plan is a document that defines and implements the processes and activities for ensuring that the system has adequate resources and capabilities to meet current and future demands. Training plans are documents that define and implement the processes and activities for ensuring that the system users have adequate skills and knowledge to use the system effectively and efficiently. Database conversion results are outcomes or outputs of transforming data from one format or structure to another to suit the system’s requirements or specifications. References: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
What is MOST important to verify during an external assessment of network vulnerability?
Update of security information event management (SIEM) rules
Regular review of the network security policy
Completeness of network asset inventory
Location of intrusion detection systems (IDS)
An external assessment of network vulnerability is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and risks that affect the security and availability of a network froman outsider’s perspective. The most important factor to verify during this process is the completeness of network asset inventory, which is a list of all the devices, systems, and software that are connected to or part of the network. A complete and accurate network asset inventory can help identify the scope and boundaries of the network, the potential attack vectors and entry points, the critical assets and dependencies, and the existing security controls and gaps. Without a complete network asset inventory, an external assessment of network vulnerability may miss some important assets or vulnerabilities, leading to inaccurate or incomplete results and recommendations.
The decision to accept an IT control risk related to data quality should be the responsibility of the:
information security team.
IS audit manager.
chief information officer (CIO).
business owner.
The decision to accept an IT control risk related to data quality should be the responsibility of the business owner. The business owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process that relies on the data quality. The business owner should understand the impact of data quality issues on the business objectives, performance, and compliance. The business owner should also be involved in defining the data quality requirements, assessing the data quality risks, and implementing the data quality controls or mitigation strategies.
Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Projected impact of current business on future business
Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business
Cost of regulatory compliance
Expected costs for recovering the business
The expected costs for recovering the business would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA). A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects ofdisruptions to critical business functions or processes. A BIA helps to determine the recovery priorities, strategies, and resources needed to resume normal operations after a disruption. One of the key outputs of a BIA is an estimate of the financial losses or costs associated with different types of disruptions, such as lost revenue, increased expenses, contractual penalties, or regulatory fines.
When implementing Internet Protocol security (IPsec) architecture, the servers involved in application delivery:
communicate via Transport Layer Security (TLS),
block authorized users from unauthorized activities.
channel access only through the public-facing firewall.
channel access through authentication.
When implementing Internet Protocol security (IPsec) architecture, the servers involved in application delivery communicate via Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. IPsec operates at the network layer and provides security for IP packets, while TLS operates at the transport layer and provides security for TCP connections. Blocking authorized users from unauthorized activities, channeling access only through the public-facing firewall, and channeling access through authentication are not functions of IPsec architecture. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2
An organization's enterprise architecture (EA) department decides to change a legacy system's components while maintaining its original functionality. Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to understand when reviewing this decision?
The current business capabilities delivered by the legacy system
The proposed network topology to be used by the redesigned system
The data flows between the components to be used by the redesigned system
The database entity relationships within the legacy system
When reviewing an enterprise architecture (EA) department’s decision to change a legacy system’s components while maintaining its original functionality, an IS auditor should understand the current business capabilities delivered by the legacy system, as this would help to evaluate whether the change is justified, feasible, and aligned with the business goals and needs. The proposed network topology to be used by the redesigned system, the data flows between the components to be used by the redesigned system, and the database entity relationships within the legacy system are technical details that are less relevant for an IS auditor to understand when reviewing this decision. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
An IS auditor discovers that validation controls m a web application have been moved from the server side into the browser to boost performance This would MOST likely increase the risk of a successful attack by.
phishing.
denial of service (DoS)
structured query language (SQL) injection
buffer overflow
Moving validation controls from the server side into the browser would most likely increase the risk of a successful attack by structured query language (SQL) injection. SQL injection is a technique that exploits a security vulnerability in an application’s database layer by inserting malicious SQL statements into user input fields. Validation controls are used to check and filter user input before sending it to the database. If these controls are moved to the browser, they can be easily bypassed or modified by an attacker, who can then execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 361
When evaluating the design of controls related to network monitoring, which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to review?
Incident monitoring togs
The ISP service level agreement
Reports of network traffic analysis
Network topology diagrams
Network topology diagrams are the most important for an IS auditor to review when evaluating the design of controls related to network monitoring, because they show how the network components are connected and configured, and what security measures are in place to protect the network from unauthorized access or attacks. Incident monitoring logs, the ISP service level agreement, and reports of network traffic analysis are useful for evaluating the effectiveness and performance of network monitoring, but not the design of controls. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.3
Which of the following MOST effectively minimizes downtime during system conversions?
Phased approach
Direct cutover
Pilot study
Parallel run
The most effective way to minimize downtime during system conversions is to use a parallel run. A parallel run is a method of system conversion where both the old and new systems operate simultaneously for a period of time until the new system is verified to be functioning correctly. Thisreduces the risk of errors, data loss, or system failure during conversion and allows for a smooth transition from one system to another. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 467
A new regulation requires organizations to report significant security incidents to the regulator within 24 hours of identification. Which of the following is the IS auditor's BEST recommendation to facilitate compliance with the regulation?
Include the requirement in the incident management response plan.
Establish key performance indicators (KPIs) for timely identification of security incidents.
Enhance the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS).
Engage an external security incident response expert for incident handling.
The best recommendation to facilitate compliance with the regulation that requires organizations to report significant security incidents to the regulator within 24 hours of identification is to include the requirement in the incident management response plan. An incident management response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and tools for managing security incidents effectively and efficiently. Including the requirement in the incident management response plan can help ensure that security incidents are identified, classified, reported, and escalated in accordance with the regulation. The other options are not as effective as including the requirement in the incident management response plan, as they do not address all aspects of incident management or compliance. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) for timely identification of security incidents is a monitoring technique that can help measure and improve the performance of incident management processes, but it does not ensure compliance with the regulation. Enhancing the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS) is a technical control that can help detect and notify security incidents faster, but it does not ensure compliance with the regulation. Engaging an external security incident response expert for incident handling is a contingency measure that can help augment the organization’s internal capabilities and resources for managing security incidents, but it does not ensure compliance with the regulation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2
An organization's security policy mandates that all new employees must receive appropriate security awareness training. Which of the following metrics would BEST assure compliance with this policy?
Percentage of new hires that have completed the training.
Number of new hires who have violated enterprise security policies.
Number of reported incidents by new hires.
Percentage of new hires who report incidents
The best metric to assure compliance with the policy of providing security awareness training to all new employees is the percentage of new hires that have completed the training, as this directly measures the extent to which the policy is implemented and enforced. The number of new hires who have violated enterprise security policies, the number of reported incidents by new hires, and the percentage of new hires who report incidents are not directly related to the policy, as they may depend on other factors such as the nature and frequency of threats, the effectiveness of security controls, and the reporting culture of the organization. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.7
Which of the following is the BEST way to address segregation of duties issues in an organization with budget constraints?
Rotate job duties periodically.
Perform an independent audit.
Hire temporary staff.
Implement compensating controls.
The best way to address segregation of duties issues in an organization with budget constraints is to implement compensating controls, which are alternative controls that reduce or eliminate the risk of errors or fraud due to inadequate segregation of duties. Compensating controls may include independent reviews, reconciliations, approvals, or supervisions. Rotating job duties periodically may reduce the risk of collusion or abuse of privileges, but it may also affect operational efficiency and continuity. Performing an independent audit may detect segregation of duties issues, but it does not prevent them. Hiring temporary staff may increase operational costs and introduce new risks. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4
An IS auditor is evaluating an organization's IT strategy and plans. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?
There is not a defined IT security policy.
The business strategy meeting minutes are not distributed.
IT is not engaged in business strategic planning.
There is inadequate documentation of IT strategic planning.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when evaluating an organization’s IT strategy and plans is that IT is not engaged in business strategic planning, as this indicates a lack of alignment between IT and business objectives, which could result in inefficient and ineffective use of IT resources and capabilities. The absence of a defined IT security policy, the nondistribution of business strategy meeting minutes, and the inadequate documentation of IT strategic planning are also issues that should be addressed by an IS auditor, but they are not as significant as IT’s noninvolvement in business strategic planning. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.1
During the discussion of a draft audit report. IT management provided suitable evidence fiat a process has been implemented for a control that had been concluded by the IS auditor as Ineffective. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST action?
Explain to IT management that the new control will be evaluated during follow-up
Re-perform the audit before changing the conclusion.
Change the conclusion based on evidence provided by IT management.
Add comments about the action taken by IT management in the report.
The auditor’s best action when IT management provides suitable evidence for a control that had been concluded as ineffective is to re-perform the audit before changing the conclusion. This means that the auditor should verify the validity, completeness, and timeliness of the evidence provided by IT management and test the effectiveness of the new control in meeting the audit objectives. The auditor should not change the conclusion based on evidence provided by IT management without re-performing the audit, as this could compromise the auditor’s independence and objectivity. The auditor should also not explain to IT management that the new control will be evaluated during follow-up or add comments about the action taken by IT management in the report, as these actions do not address the original audit finding. References: CISA Review Manual, 27thEdition, page 439
Which of the following is an executive management concern that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard?
Effectiveness of the security program
Security incidents vs. industry benchmarks
Total number of hours budgeted to security
Total number of false positives
The executive management concern that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard is the effectiveness of the security program. A security metrics dashboard is a tool that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs) related to the organization’s information security objectives and activities. A security metrics dashboard can help executive management monitor and evaluate the performance and value delivery of the security program, identify strengths and weaknesses, assess compliance with policies and standards, and support decision making and improvement initiatives. Security incidents vs. industry benchmarks, total number of hours budgeted to security, and total number of false positives are not executive management concerns that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard. These are more operational or technical aspects of information security that could be measured and reported by other means, such as incident reports, budget reports, or log analysis. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 302
When determining whether a project in the design phase will meet organizational objectives, what is BEST to compare against the business case?
Implementation plan
Project budget provisions
Requirements analysis
Project plan
Requirements analysis should be the best thing to compare against the business case when determining whether a project in the design phase will meet organizational objectives, because it defines the functional and non-functional specifications of the project deliverables that should satisfy the business needs and expectations. Requirements analysis can help evaluate whether the project design is aligned with the business case and whether it can achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Implementation plan, project budget provisions, and project plan are also important aspects of a project in the design phase, but they are not as relevant asrequirements analysisfor comparing against the business case. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1
When auditing the security architecture of an online application, an IS auditor should FIRST review the:
firewall standards.
configuration of the firewall
firmware version of the firewall
location of the firewall within the network
The security architecture of an online application is a design that describes how various security components and controls are integrated and configured to protect the application from internal and external threats. When auditing the security architecture of an online application, an IS auditor should first review the location of the firewall within the network, as this determines how effectively the firewall can filter and monitor the traffic between different network segments and zones. The firewall standards, configuration, and firmware version are also important aspects to review, but they are secondary to the location of the firewall.
An organization allows employees to retain confidential data on personal mobile devices. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate the risk of data leakage from lost or stolen devices?
Require employees to attend security awareness training.
Password protect critical data files.
Configure to auto-wipe after multiple failed access attempts.
Enable device auto-lock function.
The best recommendation to mitigate the risk of data leakage from lost or stolen devices that contain confidential data is to configure them to auto-wipe after multiple failed access attempts, as this would prevent unauthorized access and erase sensitive information from the device. Requiring employees to attend security awareness training, password protecting critical data files, or enabling device auto-lockfunction are also good practices, but they may not be sufficient oreffective in preventing data leakage from lost or stolen devices. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to examine when reviewing an organization's privacy policy?
Whether there is explicit permission from regulators to collect personal data
The organization's legitimate purpose for collecting personal data
Whether sharing of personal information with third-party service providers is prohibited
The encryption mechanism selected by the organization for protecting personal data
The most important thing for an IS auditor to examine when reviewing an organization’s privacy policy is its legitimate purpose for collecting personal data. A legitimate purpose is a clear and specific reason for collecting personal data that is necessary for the organization’s business operations or legal obligations, and that respects the rights and interests of the data subjects. A legitimate purpose is the basis for establishing a lawful and fair processing of personal data, and it should be communicated to the data subjects in the privacy policy. The other options are not as important as the legitimate purpose in reviewing the privacy policy. Explicit permission from regulators to collect personal data is not always required, as there may be other lawful bases for data collection, such as consent, contract, or public interest. Sharing of personal information with third-party service providers is not prohibited, as long as there are adequate safeguards and agreements in place to protect the data. The encryption mechanism selected by the organization for protecting personal data is a technical control that can enhance data security, but it does not determine the legality or fairness of data collection. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2
An IS auditor is conducting a post-implementation review of an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. End users indicated concerns with the accuracy of critical automatic calculations made by the system. The auditor's FIRST course of action should be to:
review recent changes to the system.
verify completeness of user acceptance testing (UAT).
verify results to determine validity of user concerns.
review initial business requirements.
The IS auditor’s first course of action should be to verify the results of the critical automatic calculations made by the system to determine the validity of user concerns. This is because the IS auditor needs to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence to support the audit findings and conclusions. By verifying the results, the IS auditor can assess whether there are any errors or discrepancies in the system’s calculations that could affect the accuracy and reliability of the financial data. The IS auditor can use various techniques to verify the results, such as re-performing the calculations, comparing them with expected values, or tracing them to source documents.
An IS auditor is examining a front-end subledger and a main ledger. Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern if there are flaws in the mapping of accounts between the two systems?
Double-posting of a single journal entry
Inability to support new business transactions
Unauthorized alteration of account attributes
Inaccuracy of financial reporting
The greatest concern for an IS auditor if there are flaws in the mapping of accounts between a front-end subledger and a main ledger is the inaccuracy of financial reporting. A subledger is a detailed record of transactions for a specific account, such as accounts receivable, accounts payable, inventory, or fixed assets. A main ledger is a summary record of all transactions for all accounts in an accounting system. The mapping of accounts between a subledger and a main ledger is the process of linking or reconciling the transactions in the subledger with the corresponding entries in the main ledger. If there are flaws in the mapping of accounts, such as missing, duplicated, or incorrect transactions, the main ledger may not reflect the true financial position and performance of the organization. This may lead to inaccurate financial reporting, which may affect decision making, compliance, auditing, taxation, and stakeholder confidence.
Double-posting of a single journal entry, inability to support new business transactions, and unauthorized alteration of account attributes are not the greatest concerns for an IS auditor if there are flaws in the mapping of accounts between a front-end subledger and a main ledger. These are possible consequences or causes of flaws in the mapping of accounts, but they do not have as significant an impact as inaccuracy of financial reporting. Double-posting of a single journal entry may result in errors or discrepancies in the main ledger balances. Inability to support new business transactions may indicate limitations or inefficiencies in the accounting system design or configuration. Unauthorized alteration of account attributes may suggest weaknesses or breaches in access control or segregation of duties.
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT?
Identifying relevant roles for an enterprise IT governance framework
Making decisions regarding risk response and monitoring of residual risk
Verifying that legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements are being met
Providing independent and objective feedback to facilitate improvement of IT processes
The most important benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT is providing independent and objective feedback to facilitate improvement of IT processes.Governance of enterprise IT is the process of ensuring that IT supports the organization’s strategy, goals, and objectives in an effective, efficient, ethical, and compliant manner. IS audit can provide value to governance of enterprise IT by assessing the alignment of IT with business needs, evaluating the performance and value delivery of IT, identifying risks and issues related to IT, recommending corrective actions and best practices, and monitoring the implementation and effectiveness of IT governance activities. IS audit can also provide assurance that IT governance processes are designed and operating in accordance with relevant standards, frameworks, laws, regulations, and contractual obligations. Identifying relevant roles for an enterprise IT governance framework is a benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT, but not the most important one. IS audit can help define and clarify the roles and responsibilities of various stakeholders involved in IT governance, such as board members, senior management, business units, IT function, external parties, etc. IS audit can also help ensure that these roles are aligned with the organization’s strategy, goals, and objectives, and that they have adequate authority, accountability, communication, and reporting mechanisms. However, this benefit is more related to the design phase of IT governance implementation than to the ongoing monitoring and improvement phase. Making decisions regarding risk response and monitoring of residual risk is a benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT, but not the most important one. IS audit can help identify and assess the risks associated with IT activities and processes, such as strategic risks, operational risks, compliance risks, security risks, etc. IS audit can also help evaluate the effectiveness of risk management practices and controls implemented by management to mitigate or reduce these risks. However, this benefit is more related to the assurance function of IS audit than to its advisory function. Verifying that legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements are being met is a benefit of involving IS audit when implementing governance of enterprise IT, but not the most important one. IS audit can help verify that IT activities and processes comply with applicable laws, regulations, and contractual obligations, such as data protection laws, privacy laws, cybersecurity laws, industry standards, service level agreements, etc. IS audit can also help identify and report any instances of noncompliance or violations that could result in legal or reputational consequences for the organization. However, this benefit is more related to the assurance function of IS audit than to its advisory function. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 283
An IS auditor suspects an organization's computer may have been used to commit a crime. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST course of action?
Examine the computer to search for evidence supporting the suspicions.
Advise management of the crime after the investigation.
Contact the incident response team to conduct an investigation.
Notify local law enforcement of the potential crime before further investigation.
The IS auditor’s best course of action if they suspect an organization’s computer may have been used to commit a crime is to contact the incident response team to conduct an investigation. The incident response team is a group of experts who are responsible for responding to security incidents, such as data breaches, ransomware attacks, or cybercrimes. The incident response team can help to preserve and collect digital evidence, determine the scope and impact of the incident, contain and eradicate the threat, and restore normal operations. The IS auditor should not examine the computer themselves, as they may inadvertently alter or destroy potential evidence, or compromise the chain of custody. The IS auditor should also not notify local law enforcement before further investigation, as this may escalate the situation unnecessarily or interfere with the internal investigation process. The IS auditor should advise management of the crime after the investigation, or as soon as possible if there is an imminent risk or legal obligation to do so.
In a 24/7 processing environment, a database contains several privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire. Which of the following recommendations would BEST address the risk with minimal disruption to the business?
Modify applications to no longer require direct access to the database.
Introduce database access monitoring into the environment
Modify the access management policy to make allowances for application accounts.
Schedule downtime to implement password changes.
The best recommendation to address the risk of privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire in a 24/7 processing environment is to introduce database access monitoring into the environment. Database access monitoring is a security control that tracks and records all activities and transactions performed on a database, especially by privileged users or accounts. Database access monitoring can help address the risk of privileged application accounts with passwords set to never expire by detecting and alerting any unauthorized or abnormal access or actions on the database. The other options are not as effective as database access monitoring in addressing the risk, as they may cause disruption to the business or violate the access management policy. Modifying applications to no longer require direct access to the database is a complex and costly solution that may affect the functionality or performance of the applications, and it may not be feasible or practical in a 24/7 processing environment. Modifying the access management policy to make allowances for application accounts is a risky solution that may create exceptions or loopholes in the policy, and it may not comply with the best practices or standards for password management. Scheduling downtime to implement password changes is a disruptive solution that may affect the availability or continuity of the systems or applications, and it may not be acceptable or possible in a 24/7 processing environment. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
A system administrator recently informed the IS auditor about the occurrence of several unsuccessful intrusion attempts from outside the organization. Which of the following is MOST effective in detecting such an intrusion?
Periodically reviewing log files
Configuring the router as a firewall
Using smart cards with one-time passwords
Installing biometrics-based authentication
The most effective way to detect an intrusion attempt is to periodically review log files, which record the activities and events on a system or network. Log files can provide evidence of unauthorized access attempts, malicious activities, or system errors. Configuring the router as a firewall, using smart cards with one-time passwords, and installing biometrics-basedauthentication are preventive controls that can reduce the likelihood of an intrusion, but they do not detect it. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 301
Spreadsheets are used to calculate project cost estimates. Totals for each cost category are then keyed into the job-costing system. What is the BEST control to ensure that data is accurately entered into the system?
Reconciliation of total amounts by project
Validity checks, preventing entry of character data
Reasonableness checks for each cost type
Display the back of the project detail after the entry
Reconciliation of total amounts by project is the best control to ensure that data is accurately entered into the job-costing system from spreadsheets. Reconciliation is a process of comparing two sets of data to identify any differences or discrepancies between them. By reconciling the total amounts by project from spreadsheets with those from the job-costing system, any errors or omissions in data entry can be detected and corrected. Validity checks are controls that verify that data conforms to predefined formats or ranges. They can prevent entry of character data into numeric fields, but they cannot ensure that the numeric data is correct or complete. Reasonableness checks are controls that verify that data is within expected or acceptable limits. They can detect outliers or anomalies in data, but they cannot ensure that the data matches the source. Display back of project detail after entry is a control that allows the user to review and confirm the data entered into the system. It can help reduce human errors, but it cannot guarantee that the data is accurate or consistent with the source. References: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
What is the BEST control to address SQL injection vulnerabilities?
Unicode translation
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption
Input validation
Digital signatures
Input validation is the best control to address SQL injection vulnerabilities, because it can prevent malicious users from entering SQL commands or statements into input fields that are intended for data entry, such as usernames or passwords. SQL injection is a technique that exploits a security vulnerability in an application’s software by inserting SQL code into a query string that can execute commands on a database server. Unicode translation, SSL encryption, and digital signatures are not effectivecontrols against SQL injection, because they do not prevent or detect SQL code injection into input fields. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2
Which of the following is the BEST method to safeguard data on an organization's laptop computers?
Disabled USB ports
Full disk encryption
Biometric access control
Two-factor authentication
The best method to safeguard data on an organization’s laptop computers is full disk encryption. Full disk encryption is a technique that encrypts all the data stored on a harddrive, including the operating system, applications, files, and folders. This means that if the laptop is lost, stolen, or accessed by an unauthorized person, they will not be able to read or modify any data without knowing the encryption key or password. Full disk encryption provides a strong level of protection for data at rest, as it prevents data leakage or exposure in case of physical theft or loss of the device.
An organization's software developers need access to personally identifiable information (Pll) stored in a particular data format. Which of the following is the BEST way to protect this sensitive information while allowing the developers to use it in development and test environments?
Data masking
Data tokenization
Data encryption
Data abstraction
The best way to protect sensitive information such as personally identifiable information (PII) stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments is data masking. Data masking is a technique that replaces or obscures sensitive data elements with fictitious or modified data elements that retain the original format and characteristics of the data. Data masking can help protect sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments by preventing the exposure or disclosure of the real data values without affecting the functionality or performance of the software or application. The other options are not as effective as data masking in protecting sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments, as they have different limitations or drawbacks. Data tokenization is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive tokens that have no intrinsic value or meaning. Data tokenization can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or theft, but it may not retain the original format and characteristics of the data, which may affect the functionality or performance of the software or application. Data encryption is a technique that transforms sensitive data elements into unreadable or unintelligible ciphertext using an algorithm and a key. Data encryption can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or modification, but it requires decryption to restore the original data values, which may introduce additional complexity or overhead to the software development process. Data abstraction is a technique that hides the details or complexity of data structures or operations from users or programmers by providing a simplified representation or interface. Data abstraction can help improve the usability or maintainability of software or applications, but it does not protect sensitive information such as PII from exposure or disclosure. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2
Which of the following demonstrates the use of data analytics for a loan origination process?
Evaluating whether loan records are included in the batch file and are validated by the servicing system
Comparing a population of loans input in the origination system to loans booked on the servicing system
Validating whether reconciliations between the two systems are performed and discrepancies are investigated
Reviewing error handling controls to notify appropriate personnel in the event of a transmission failure
Data analytics can be used to compare data from different sources and identify any discrepancies or anomalies. In this case, comparing a population of loans input in the origination system to loans booked on the servicing system can help detect any errors or frauds in the loan origination process. The other options are not examples of data analytics, but rather controls for data integrity, reconciliation, and error handling. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2
Which of the following documents would be MOST useful in detecting a weakness in segregation of duties?
System flowchart
Data flow diagram
Process flowchart
Entity-relationship diagram
The best document for an IS auditor to use in detecting a weakness in segregation of duties is a process flowchart. A process flowchart is a diagram that illustrates the sequence of steps, activities, tasks, or decisions involved in a business process. A process flowchart can help detect a weakness in segregation of duties by showing who performs what actions or roles in a process, and whether there is any overlap or conflict of interest among them. The other options are not as useful as a process flowchart in detecting a weakness in segregation of duties, as they do not show who performs what actions or roles in a process. A system flowchart is a diagram that illustrates the components, functions, interactions, or logic of an information system. A data flow diagram is a diagram that illustrates how data flows from sources to destinations through processes, stores, or external entities. An entity-relationship diagram is a diagram that illustrates how entities (such as tables) are related to each other through attributes (such as keys) in a database. References: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor's BEST recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and:
the Internet.
the demilitarized zone (DMZ).
the organization's web server.
the organization's network.
When an IS audit reveals that a firewall was unable to recognize a number of attack attempts, the auditor’s best recommendation is to place an intrusion detection system (IDS) between the firewall and the Internet, as this would provide an additional layer of security and alert the organization of any malicious traffic that bypasses or penetrates the firewall. Placing an IDS between the firewall and the demilitarized zone (DMZ), the organization’s web server, or the organization’s network would not be as effective, as it would only monitor the traffic that has already passed through the firewall. References: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.3
During a disaster recovery audit, an IS auditor finds that a business impact analysis (BIA) has not been performed. The auditor should FIRST
perform a business impact analysis (BIA).
issue an intermediate report to management.
evaluate the impact on current disaster recovery capability.
conduct additional compliance testing.
The first step that an IS auditor should take when finding that a business impact analysis (BIA) has not been performed is to evaluate the impact on current disaster recovery capability. A BIA is a process that identifies and analyzes the potential effects of disruptions to critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for the organization. Without a BIA, the disaster recovery plan may not be aligned with the business needs and expectations, and may not provide adequate protection and recovery for the most critical assets and activities. Therefore, an IS auditor should assess how the lack of a BIA affects the current disaster recovery capability and identify any gaps or risks that need to be addressed.
Performing a BIA, issuing an intermediate report to management, and conducting additional compliance testing are not the first steps that an IS auditor should take when finding that a BIA has not been performed. These steps may be done later in the audit process, after evaluating the impact on current disaster recovery capability. Performing a BIA is not the responsibility of the IS auditor, but of the business owners and managers. Issuing an intermediate report to management may be premature without sufficient evidence and analysis. Conducting additional compliance testing may not be relevant ornecessary without a clear understanding of the disaster recovery requirements and objectives.
During an external review, an IS auditor observes an inconsistent approach in classifying system criticality within the organization. Which of the following should be recommended as the PRIMARY factor to determine system criticality?
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Maximum allowable downtime (MAD)
Recovery point objective (RPO)
Mean time to restore (MTTR)
The primary factor to determine system criticality within an organization is the maximum allowable downtime (MAD). MAD is the maximum time frame during which recovery must become effective before an outage compromises the ability of an organization to achieve its business objectives and/or survival. MAD reflects the business impact of a system outage onthe organization’s operations, reputation, compliance, and finances. MAD can help to prioritize system recovery efforts, allocate resources, and establish recovery objectives.
During a review of a production schedule, an IS auditor observes that a staff member is not complying with mandatory operational procedures. The auditor's NEXT step should be to:
note the noncompliance in the audit working papers.
issue an audit memorandum identifying the noncompliance.
include the noncompliance in the audit report.
determine why the procedures were not followed.
Which of the following BEST guards against the risk of attack by hackers?
Tunneling
Encryption
Message validation
Firewalls
The best guard against the risk of attack by hackers is encryption. Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect data in transit and at rest from unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure by hackers. Encryption can also ensure the authenticity and integrity of data by using digital signatures or hashes.
Tunneling, message validation, and firewalls are not the best guards against the risk of attack by hackers. Tunneling is a technique that encapsulates one network protocol within another to create a secure connection between two endpoints. Message validation is a process that verifies the format, content, and origin of a message before accepting it. Firewalls are devices or software that filter network traffic based on predefined rules. These controls may help reduce the exposure or impact of hacker attacks, but they do not provide the same level of protection as encryption.
An online retailer is receiving customer complaints about receiving different items from what they ordered on the organization's website. The root cause has been traced to poor data quality. Despite efforts to clean erroneous data from the system, multiple data quality issues continue to occur. Which of the following recommendations would be the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of future occurrences?
Assign responsibility for improving data quality.
Invest in additional employee training for data entry.
Outsource data cleansing activities to reliable third parties.
Implement business rules to validate employee data entry.
Implementing business rules to validate employee data entry is the best way to reduce the likelihood of future occurrences of poor data quality that cause customer complaints about receiving different items from what they ordered on the organization’s website. Business rules are logical statements that define the conditions and actions for data validation, such as checking for data completeness, accuracy, consistency, and integrity. Assigning responsibility for improving data quality, investing in additional employee training for data entry, and outsourcing data cleansing activities to reliable third parties are also possible ways to improve data quality, but they are not as effective as implementing business rules to validate employee data entry. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1
Which of the following is the MOST effective control for protecting the confidentiality and integrity of data stored unencrypted on virtual machines?
Monitor access to stored images and snapshots of virtual machines.
Restrict access to images and snapshots of virtual machines.
Limit creation of virtual machine images and snapshots.
Review logical access controls on virtual machines regularly.
The most effective control for protecting the confidentiality and integrity of data stored unencrypted on virtual machines is to monitor access to stored images and snapshots of virtual machines. Images and snapshots are copies of virtual machines that can be used for backup, restoration, or cloning purposes. If data stored on virtual machines are unencrypted, they may be exposed or compromised if unauthorized or malicious users access or copy the images or snapshots. Therefore, monitoring access to stored images and snapshots can help detect and prevent any unauthorized or suspicious activities, and provide audit trails for accountability and investigation.
Restricting access to images and snapshots of virtual machines, limiting creation of virtual machine images and snapshots, and reviewing logical access controls on virtual machines regularly are not the most effective controls for protecting the confidentiality and integrity of data stored unencrypted on virtual machines. These controls may help reduce the risk or impact of data exposure or compromise, but they do not provide sufficient visibility or assurance of data protection. Restricting access to images and snapshots may not prevent authorized users from abusing their privileges or credentials. Limiting creation of virtual machine images and snapshots may not address the existing copies that may contain sensitive data. Reviewing logical access controls on virtual machines regularly may not reflect the actual access activities on images and snapshots.
Which of the following would be to MOST concern when determine if information assets are adequately safequately safeguarded during transport and disposal?
Lack of appropriate labelling
Lack of recent awareness training.
Lack of password protection
Lack of appropriate data classification
The most concerning issue when determining if information assets are adequately safeguarded during transport and disposal is lack of appropriate data classification. Data classification is a process that assigns categories or levels of sensitivity to different types of information assets based on their value, criticality, or risk to the organization. Data classification can help safeguard information assets during transport and disposal by providing criteria and guidelines for identifying, labeling, handling, and protecting information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of appropriate data classification can compromise the security and confidentiality of information assets during transport and disposal by exposing them to unauthorized access, disclosure, theft, damage, or destruction. The other options are not as concerning as lack of appropriate data classification in safeguarding information assets during transport and disposal, as they do not affect the identification, labeling, handling, or protection of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of appropriate labeling is a possible factor that may increase the risk of misplacing, losing, or mishandling information assets during transport and disposal, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of recent awareness training is a possible factor that may affect the knowledge or behavior of staff involved in transporting or disposing of information assets, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of password protection is a possible factor that may affect the security or confidentiality of information assets stored on devices during transport and disposal, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2
Which of the following will be the MOST effective method to verify that a service vendor keeps control levels as required by the client?
Conduct periodic on-site assessments using agreed-upon criteria.
Periodically review the service level agreement (SLA) with the vendor.
Conduct an unannounced vulnerability assessment of vendor's IT systems.
Obtain evidence of the vendor's control self-assessment (CSA).
The most effective method to verify that a service vendor keeps control levels as required by the client is to conduct periodic on-site assessments using agreed-upon criteria. On-site assessments can provide direct evidence of whether the vendor’s controls are operating effectively and consistently in accordance with the client’s expectations and requirements. Agreed-upon criteria can ensure that the assessments are objective, relevant, and reliable. The other options are not as effective as on-site assessments in verifying the vendor’s control levels. Periodically reviewing the SLA with the vendor can help monitor whether the vendor meets its contractual obligations and service standards, but it does not provide assurance of whether the vendor’s controls are adequate or sufficient. Conducting an unannounced vulnerability assessment of vendor’s IT systems can help identify any weaknesses or gaps in the vendor’s security controls, but it may violate the terms and conditions of the vendor-client relationship or cause operational disruptions. Obtaining evidence of the vendor’s CSA can provide some indication of whether the vendor’s controls are self-monitored and reported, but it does not verify whether the vendor’s controls are independent or accurate. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4
An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's information asset management process. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to the auditor?
The process does not require specifying the physical locations of assets.
Process ownership has not been established.
The process does not include asset review.
Identification of asset value is not included in the process.
An IS auditor would be most concerned if process ownership has not been established for the information asset management process, as this would indicate a lack of accountability, responsibility, and authority for managing the assets throughout their lifecycle. The process owner should also ensure that the process is aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards. The process should require specifying the physicallocations of assets, include asset review, and identify asset value, but these are less critical than establishing process ownership. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
Which of the following is MOST useful for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization's goals?
Balanced scorecard
Enterprise dashboard
Enterprise architecture (EA)
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
The most useful tool for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization’s goals is a balanced scorecard. A balanced scorecard is a strategic managementsystem that translates an organization’s vision and mission into a set of objectives and measures across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. A balanced scorecard helps align IT goals with organizational goals by linking them to a common strategy map that shows how IT contributes to value creation and performance improvement in each perspective. A balanced scorecard also helps monitor and evaluate IT performance against predefined targets and indicators.
Enterprise dashboard, enterprise architecture (EA), and key performance indicators (KPIs) are not the most useful tools for determining whether the goals of IT are aligned with the organization’s goals. These tools may help communicate, design, or measure IT goals or activities, but they do not provide a comprehensive framework for aligning IT goals with organizational goals across multiple dimensions.
An IS auditor finds the log management system is overwhelmed with false positive alerts. The auditor's BEST recommendation would be to:
establish criteria for reviewing alerts.
recruit more monitoring personnel.
reduce the firewall rules.
fine tune the intrusion detection system (IDS).
Fine tuning the intrusion detection system (IDS) is the best recommendation to reduce the number of false positive alerts that overwhelm the log management system, because it can help adjust the sensitivity and accuracy of the IDS rules and signatures to match the network environment and traffic patterns. Establishing criteria for reviewing alerts, recruiting more monitoring personnel, and reducing thefirewall rules are not effective solutions to address theroot cause of the false positive alerts, but rather ways to cope with the consequences. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section5.4.3
Which audit approach is MOST helpful in optimizing the use of IS audit resources?
Agile auditing
Continuous auditing
Outsourced auditing
Risk-based auditing
Risk-based auditing is an audit approach that focuses on the analysis and management of risk within an organization. Risk-based auditing helps identify and prioritize the areas or processes that pose the highest risk to the organization’s objectives and allocate audit resources accordingly. Risk-based auditing also helps provide assurance and advisory services related to the organization’s risk management processes and controls. By using risk-based auditing, internal auditors can optimize the use of their audit resources and add value to the organization.
Agile auditing, continuous auditing, and outsourced auditing are not audit approaches that are most helpful in optimizing the use of IS audit resources. Agile auditing is a flexible and iterative audit methodology that adapts to changing circumstances and stakeholder needs. Continuous auditing is a method of performing audit activities on a real-time or near-real-time basis using automated tools and techniques. Outsourced auditing is a practice of contracting external auditors to perform some or all of the internal audit functions. These audit methods may have some advantages or disadvantages depending on the context and objectives of the audit, but they do not necessarily optimize the use of IS audit resources.
Prior to a follow-up engagement, an IS auditor learns that management has decided to accept a level of residual risk related to an audit finding without remediation. The IS auditor is concerned about management's decision. Which of the following should be the IS auditor's NEXT course of action?
Accept management's decision and continue the follow-up.
Report the issue to IS audit management.
Report the disagreement to the board.
Present the issue to executive management.
Prior to a follow-up engagement, if an IS auditor learns that management has decided to accept a level of residual risk related to an audit finding without remediation, the IS auditor should report the issue to IS audit management. This is because IS audit management is responsible for ensuring that audit findings are properly communicated and resolved. Accepting management’s decision and continuing the follow-up would not address the IS auditor’s concern. Reporting the disagreement to the board or executive management would be premature and inappropriate without consulting IS audit management first. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.6
Which of the following BEST ensures the quality and integrity of test procedures used in audit analytics?
Developing and communicating test procedure best practices to audit teams
Developing and implementing an audit data repository
Decentralizing procedures and Implementing periodic peer review
Centralizing procedures and implementing change control
The best way to ensure the quality and integrity of test procedures used in audit analytics is to centralize procedures and implement change control. Centralizing procedures means storing themin a common repository that can be accessed and updated by authorized users. Change control means implementing a process for tracking, reviewing, approving, and documenting any changes made to the procedures. This ensures that the procedures are consistent, accurate, reliable, and secure. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 401
Which of the following is the BEST detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission?
Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management.
Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP).
Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review.
Job failure alerts are automatically generated and routed to support personnel.
The best detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission is job failure alerts that are automatically generated and routed to support personnel. Job failure alerts are notifications that indicate when a scheduled job or task fails to execute or complete successfully, such as due to errors, interruptions, or delays. Job failure alerts can help detect and correct any issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission by informing and alerting the support personnel who can investigate and resolve the problem. The other options are not as effective as job failure alerts in detecting issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission, as they do not provide timely or specific information or feedback. Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management is a reporting technique that can help measure and improve the performance and reliability of the job scheduling process, but it does not provide immediate or detailed information on individual job failures. Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a preventive control that can help ensure the timeliness and security of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not detect any issues or anomalies that may occur during the process. Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review is a logging technique that can help record and track the status and results of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not provide real-time or proactive information on job failures. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
Which of the following is an audit reviewer's PRIMARY role with regard to evidence?
Ensuring unauthorized individuals do not tamper with evidence after it has been captured
Ensuring evidence is sufficient to support audit conclusions
Ensuring appropriate statistical sampling methods were used
Ensuring evidence is labeled to show it was obtained from an approved source
The primary role of an audit reviewer with regard to evidence is to ensure that evidence is sufficient to support audit conclusions. Evidence is the information obtained by the auditor to provide a reasonable basis for the audit opinion or findings. Evidence should be sufficient, reliable, relevant, and useful to support the audit objectives and criteria. The audit reviewer should evaluate the quality and quantity of evidence collected by the auditor and determine if it is adequate to draw valid conclusions and recommendations. Ensuring unauthorized individuals do not tamper with evidence after it has been captured is a role of the auditor, not the audit reviewer. The auditor is responsible for safeguarding the evidence from loss, damage, or alteration during the audit process. The auditor should also document the source, date, and method of obtaining the evidence, as well as any limitations or restrictions on its use or disclosure. Ensuring appropriate statistical sampling methods were used is a role of the auditor, not the audit reviewer. The auditor is responsible for selecting an appropriate sampling method and technique that can provide sufficient evidence to achieve the audit objectives and criteria. The auditor should also document the sampling plan, population, sample size, selection method, evaluation method, and results. Ensuring evidence is labeled to show it was obtained from an approved source is a role of the auditor, not the audit reviewer. The auditor is responsible for labeling the evidence to indicate its origin, nature, and ownership. The auditor should also ensure that the evidence is obtained from reliable and credible sources that can be verified and corroborated. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 295
An IS auditor has found that an organization is unable to add new servers on demand in a cost-efficient manner. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST recommendation?
Increase the capacity of existing systems.
Upgrade hardware to newer technology.
Hire temporary contract workers for the IT function.
Build a virtual environment.
The best recommendation for an organization that is unable to add new servers on demand in a cost-efficient manner is to build a virtual environment. A virtual environment is a technology that allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical server, sharing its resources and capabilities. A virtual environment can help the organization add new servers on demand in a cost-efficient manner by reducing the need for hardware acquisition, maintenance, and power consumption. The other options are not as effective as building a virtual environment, as they do not address the root cause of the problem or provide the same benefits. Increasing the capacity of existing systems is a short-term solution that can help improve the performance and availability of the current servers, but it does not enable the organization to add new servers on demand in a cost-efficient manner. Upgrading hardware to newer technology is a costly solution that can help enhance the functionality and reliability of the servers, but it does not enable the organization to add new servers on demand in a cost-efficient manner. Hiring temporary contract workers for the IT function is an irrelevant solution that can help supplement the IT staff’s skills and knowledge, but it does not enable the organization to add new servers on demand in a cost-efficient manner. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1
Which of the following would be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing the early stages of a software development project?
The lack of technical documentation to support the program code
The lack of completion of all requirements at the end of each sprint
The lack of acceptance criteria behind user requirements.
The lack of a detailed unit and system test plan
User requirements are statements that describe what the users expect from the software system in terms of functionality, quality, and usability. They are essential inputs for the software development process, as they guide the design, implementation, testing, and deployment of the system. Therefore, an IS auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing the early stages of a software development project would be the lack of acceptance criteria behind user requirements. Acceptance criteria are measurable conditions that define when a user requirement is met or satisfied. They help ensure that the user requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and verifiable. Without acceptance criteria, it would be difficult to evaluate whether the system meets the user expectations and delivers value to the organization. Technical documentation, such as program code, is usually produced in later stages of the software development process. Completion of all requirements at the end of each sprint is not mandatory in agile software development methods, as long as there is a prioritized backlog of requirements that can be delivered incrementally. A detailed unit and system test plan is also important for ensuring software quality, but it depends on well-defined user requirements andacceptance criteria. References: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version)
Which of the following should an IS auditor be MOST concerned with during a post-implementation review?
The system does not have a maintenance plan.
The system contains several minor defects.
The system deployment was delayed by three weeks.
The system was over budget by 15%.
A post-implementation review (PIR) is an assessment conducted at the end of a project cycle to determine if the project was indeed successful and to identify any existing flaws in the project1. One of the main objectives of a PIR isto evaluate the outcome and functional value of a project1. Therefore, an IS auditor should be most concerned with whether the system meets the intended requirements and delivers the expected benefits to the stakeholders. A system that does not have a maintenance plan is a major risk, as it may not be able to cope with changing needs, fix errors, or prevent security breaches. A maintenance planis essential for ensuring the system’s reliability, availability, and performance in the long term2.
The other options are less critical for a PIR, as they are more related to the project management aspects than the system quality aspects. The system may contain several minor defects that do not affect its functionality or usability, and these can be resolved in future updates. The system deployment may be delayed by three weeks due to unforeseen circumstances or dependencies, but this does not necessarily mean that the system is faulty or ineffective. The system may be over budget by 15% due to various factors such as scope creep, resource constraints, or market fluctuations, but this does not imply that the system is not valuable or beneficial.
Malicious program code was found in an application and corrected prior to release into production. After the release, the same issue was reported. Which of the following is the IS auditor's BEST recommendation?
Ensure corrected program code is compiled in a dedicated server.
Ensure change management reports are independently reviewed.
Ensure programmers cannot access code after the completion of program edits.
Ensure the business signs off on end-to-end user acceptance test (UAT) results.
The IS auditor’s best recommendation is to ensure that programmers cannot access code after the completion of program edits. This is because programmers who have access to code after editing may introduce unauthorized or malicious changes that could compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. By restricting access to code after editing, the organization can ensure that only authorized and tested code is released into production, and prevent any tampering or reoccurrence of the same issue.
Which of the following BEST minimizes performance degradation of servers used to authenticate users of an e-commerce website?
Configure a single server as a primary authentication server and a second server as a secondary authentication server.
Configure each authentication server as belonging to a cluster of authentication servers.
Configure each authentication server and ensure that each disk of its RAID is attached to the primary controller.
Configure each authentication server and ensure that the disks of each server form part of a duplex.
Configuring each authentication server as belonging to a cluster of authentication servers is the best way to minimize performance degradation of servers used to authenticate users of an e-commerce website. A cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, load balancing, and fault tolerance. If one server fails or becomes overloaded, another server in the cluster can take over its workload without disrupting the service. A single server as a primary authentication server and a second server as a secondary authentication server is not as effective as a cluster, because the secondary server is only used when the primary server fails, which means it is idle most of the time and does not improve performance. Configuring each authentication server and ensuring that each disk of its RAID is attached to the primary controller does not address the issue of performance degradation, but rather the issue of data redundancy and reliability. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technology that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that can tolerate disk failures and improve data access speed. Configuring each authentication server and ensuring that the disks of each server form part of a duplex does not address the issue of performance degradation, but rather the issue of data backup and recovery. A duplex is a pair of disks that store identical copies of data, so that if one disk fails, the other disk can be used to restore the data. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 310
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by accounts payable employees?
Periodic vendor reviews
Dual control
Independent reconciliation
Re-keying of monetary amounts
Engage an external security incident response expert for incident handling.
The best recommendation to prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by accounts payable employees is dual control. Dual control is a segregation of duties control that requires two or more individuals to perform or authorize a transaction or activity. Dual control can prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by requiring independent verification and approval of payment requests, amounts, and recipients by different accounts payable employees. The other options are not as effective as dual control in preventing fraudulent electronic funds transfers, as they do not involve independent checks or approvals. Periodic vendor reviews are detective controls that can help identify any irregularities or anomalies in vendor payments, but they do not prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers from occurring. Independent reconciliation is a detective control that can help compare and confirm payment records with bank statements, but it does not prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers from occurring. Re-keying of monetary amounts is an input control that can help detect any errors or discrepancies in payment amounts, but it does not prevent fraudulentelectronic funds transfers from occurring. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
Which of the following would BEST determine whether a post-implementation review (PIR) performed by the project management office (PMO) was effective?
Lessons learned were implemented.
Management approved the PIR report.
The review was performed by an external provider.
Project outcomes have been realized.
The best indicator of whether a PIR performed by the PMO was effective is whether project outcomes have been realized. Project outcomes are the benefits or value that a project delivers to its stakeholders, such as improved efficiency, quality, customer satisfaction, or revenue. A PIR should evaluate whether project outcomes have been achieved in accordance with project objectives, scope, budget, and schedule. The other options are not as good as project outcomes in determining the effectiveness of a PIR. Lessons learned are valuable inputs for improving future projects, but they do not measure whether project outcomes have been realized. Management approval of the PIR report is a sign of acceptance and support for the PIR findings and recommendations, but it does not reflect whether project outcomes have been achieved. The review performed by an external provider is a way of ensuring objectivity and independence for the PIR, but it does not guarantee whether project outcomes have been realized. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3
Which of the following would be a result of utilizing a top-down maturity model process?
A means of benchmarking the effectiveness of similar processes with peers
A means of comparing the effectiveness of other processes within the enterprise
Identification of older, more established processes to ensure timely review
Identification of processes with the most improvement opportunities
A top-down maturity model process is a method of assessing and improving the maturity level of a process or a set of processes within an organization. A maturity level is a measure of how well-defined, controlled, measured, and optimized a process is. A top-down maturity model process starts with defining the desired maturity level and then identifying the gaps and improvement opportunities for each process. This helps prioritize the processes that need the most attention and improvement. Therefore, a result of utilizing a top-down maturity model process is identification of processes with the most improvement opportunities.
A means of benchmarking the effectiveness of similar processes with peers, a means of comparing the effectiveness of other processes within the enterprise, and identification of older, more established processes to ensure timely review are not results of utilizing a top-down maturity model process. These are possible benefits or objectives of using other types of maturity models or assessment methods, but they are not specific to a top-down approach.
The implementation of an IT governance framework requires that the board of directors of an organization:
Address technical IT issues.
Be informed of all IT initiatives.
Have an IT strategy committee.
Approve the IT strategy.
IT governance is a framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for aligning IT strategy with business strategy. The board of directors of an organization is ultimately accountable for IT governance and has the authority to approve the IT strategy. The board of directors does not need to address technical IT issues, be informed of all IT initiatives, or have an IT strategy committee, as these tasks can be delegated to other stakeholders or committees within the organization.
During an incident management audit, an IS auditor finds that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period. Which of the following is the auditor's MOST important course of action?
Document the finding and present it to management.
Determine if a root cause analysis was conducted.
Confirm the resolution time of the incidents.
Validate whether all incidents have been actioned.
The IS auditor’s most important course of action after finding that several similar incidents were logged during the audit period is to determine if a root cause analysis was conducted. A root cause analysis is a systematic process that identifies the underlying causes of system failures or incidents. A root cause analysis can help to prevent recurrence of similar incidents, improve system performance and reliability, and enhance incident management processes. The IS auditor should evaluate whether a root cause analysis was performed for each incident, whether it was timely and thorough, and whether it resulted in effective corrective actions.
A proper audit trail of changes to server start-up procedures would include evidence of:
subsystem structure.
program execution.
security control options.
operator overrides.
A proper audit trail of changes to server start-up procedures would include evidence of operator overrides, which are actions taken by the system operator to bypass or modify the normal execution of the server start-up process. Operator overrides may indicate unauthorized or improper changes that could affect the security, availability, or performance of the server. Therefore, an audit trail should capture and document any operator overrides that occur during the server start-up process.
Evidence of subsystem structure, program execution, and security control options are not directly related to changes to server start-up procedures. Subsystem structure refers to the components and relationships of a subsystem within a larger system. Program execution refers to the process of running a software program on a computer. Security control options refer to the settings and parameters that define the security level and access rights for a system or application. These are all important aspects of auditing a server, but they do not provide evidence of changes to server start-up procedures.
Due to limited storage capacity, an organization has decided to reduce the actual retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions. Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to ensure?
The policy includes a strong risk-based approach.
The retention period allows for review during the year-end audit.
The total transaction amount has no impact on financial reporting.
The retention period complies with data owner responsibilities.
The most important thing for the organization to ensure when reducing the actual retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions is that the retention period complies with data owner responsibilities. Data owners are accountable for the quality, security, and availability of the data under their control. They are also responsible for defining and enforcing data retention policies that comply with legal, regulatory, contractual, and business requirements. Data owners should be consulted and involved in any decision that affects the retention period of their data, as they are ultimately liable for any consequences of data loss or breach.
The policy includes a strong risk-based approach, the retention period allows for review during the year-end audit, and the total transaction amount has no impact on financial reporting are not the most important things for the organization to ensure when reducing the actual retention period for media containing completed low-value transactions. These are possible factors or benefits that may influence or justify the decision, but they do not override or replace the data owner responsibilities.
Which of the following is a social engineering attack method?
An unauthorized person attempts to gam access to secure premises by following an authonzed person through a secure door.
An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone.
A hacker walks around an office building using scanning tools to search for a wireless network to gain access.
An intruder eavesdrops and collects sensitive information flowing through the network and sells it to third parties.
An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone. This is a social engineering attack method that exploits the trust or curiosity of the employee to obtain sensitive information that can be used to access or compromise the network. According to the web search results, social engineering is a technique that uses psychological manipulationto trick users into making security mistakes or giving away sensitive information1. Phishing, whaling, baiting, and pretexting are some of the common forms of social engineering attacks2. Social engineering attacks are often more effective and profitable than purely technical attacks, as they rely on human error rather than system vulnerabilities
Which of the following is the BEST control to mitigate the malware risk associated with an instant messaging (IM) system?
Blocking attachments in IM
Blocking external IM traffic
Allowing only corporate IM solutions
Encrypting IM traffic
Allowing only corporate IM solutions is the best control to mitigate the malware risk associated with an IM system, because it can prevent unauthorized or malicious IM applications from accessing the network and infecting the system with malware. Corporate IM solutions can also enforce security policies and standards, such as encryption, authentication, and logging, to protect the IM system from malware attacks. Blocking attachments in IM, blocking external IMtraffic, and encrypting IM traffic are also possible controls to mitigate the malware risk, but they are not as effective as allowing only corporate IM solutions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.4
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern when negotiating a contract for a hot site?
Availability of the site in the event of multiple disaster declarations
Coordination with the site staff in the event of multiple disaster declarations
Reciprocal agreements with other organizations
Complete testing of the recovery plan
The primary concern when negotiating a contract for a hot site is the availability of the site in the event of multiple disaster declarations. A hot site is a fully equipped alternative facility that can be used to resume business operations in the event of a disaster. However, if multiple clients of the hot site provider declare a disaster at the same time, there may be a shortage of resources or capacity to accommodate all of them. Therefore, the contract should specify the terms and conditions for ensuring the availability and priority of the hot site for the organization. The other options are not as important as availability, as they do not affect the ability to use the hot site in a disaster situation. Coordination with the site staff in the event of multiple disaster declarations is a logistical issue that can be resolved by communication and planning. Reciprocal agreements with other organizations are alternative arrangements that can be used to share resources or facilities in a disaster, but they may not be as reliable or suitable as a hot site. Complete testing of the recovery plan is a good practice that can help validate and improve the effectiveness of the recovery plan, but it is not a concern for negotiating a contract for a hot site. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3
Which of the following indicates that an internal audit organization is structured to support the independence and clarity of the reporting process?
Auditors are responsible for performing operational duties or activities.
The internal audit manager reports functionally to a senior management official.
The internal audit manager has a reporting line to the audit committee.
Auditors are responsible for assessing and operating a system of internal controls.
The internal audit manager should have a reporting line to the audit committee, which is an independent body that oversees the internal audit function and ensures its objectivity and accountability. Reporting functionally to a senior management official may compromise the independence and clarity of the internal audit reporting process, as senior management may have a vested interest in the audit results or influence the audit scope and priorities. *References: According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 1002 Independence, “The chief audit executive (CAE)should report functionally to the board or its equivalent (e.g., audit committee) and administratively to executive management.” 1
When classifying information, it is MOST important to align the classification to:
business risk
security policy
data retention requirements
industry standards
Whenclassifying information, it is most important to align the classification to business risk, because it ensures that the information is protected according to its value andimpact to the organization34. Business risk considers factors such as legal, regulatory, contractual, operational, reputational, and financial implications of information disclosure or compromise34. Aligning information classification to business risk also helps to prioritize and allocate resources for information security measures. Security policy, data retention requirements, and industry standards are important considerations for information classification, but not as important as business risk. References: 3: CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4
An IS auditor discovers that due to resource constraints a database administrator (DBA) is responsible for developing and executing changes into the production environment Which ot the following should the auditor do FIRSTS
Determine whether another DBA could make the changes
Report a potential segregation of duties violation
identify whether any compensating controls exist
Ensure a change management process is followed prior to implementation
A database administrator (DBA) is responsible for maintaining the integrity, security and performance of the database systems. A DBA who is also responsible for developing and executing changes into the production environment may have a conflict of interest and pose a risk to the data quality and availability. Therefore, the IS auditor should first identify whether any compensating controls exist to mitigate this risk, such as independent reviews, approvals, audits or monitoring of the changes. Determining whether another DBA could make the changes, reporting a potential segregation of duties violation and ensuring a change management process is followed prior to implementation are possible actions that the auditor could take after identifying the compensating controls or the lack thereof. References:
: DatabaseAdministrator (DBA) Definition
: Segregation of Duties | ISACA
: [Compensating Control Definition]
Which of the following should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the information systems acquisition, development, and implementation process?
Data owners are not trained on the use of data conversion tools.
A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise was not conducted.
There is no system documentation available for review.
System deployment is routinely performed by contractors.
An IS auditor engaged in developing the annual internal audit plan learns that the chief information officer (CIO) has requested there be no IS audits in the upcoming year as more time is needed to address a large number of recommendations from the previous year. Which of the following should the auditor do FIRST
Escalate to audit management to discuss the audit plan
Notify the chief operating officer (COO) and discuss the audit plan risks
Exclude IS audits from the upcoming year's plan
Increase the number of IS audits in the clan
The auditor should first escalate to audit management to discuss the audit plan. This is because the audit plan should be based on a risk assessment and aligned with the organization’s objectives and strategies. The auditor should not accept the CIO’s request without proper justification and approval from the audit management, who are responsible for ensuring the audit plan’s quality and independence. The auditor should also communicate the potential risks and implications of not conducting IS audits in the upcoming year, such as missing new or emerging threats, vulnerabilities, or compliance issues. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.11
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 1, Lesson 22
A bank has a combination of corporate customer accounts (higher monetary value) and small business accounts (lower monetary value) as part of online banking. Which of the following is the BEST sampling approach for an IS auditor to use for these accounts?
Difference estimation sampling
Stratified mean per unit sampling
Customer unit sampling
Unstratified mean per unit sampling
Stratified mean per unit sampling is a method of audit sampling that divides the population into subgroups (strata) based on some characteristic, such as monetary value, and then selects a sample from each stratum using mean per unit sampling. Mean per unit sampling is a method of audit sampling that estimates the total value of a population by multiplying the average value of the sample items by the number of items in the population. Stratified mean per unit sampling is suitable for populations that have a high variability or a skewed distribution, such as the bank accounts in this question. By stratifying the population, the auditor can reduce the sampling error and increase the precision of the estimate.
Difference estimation sampling (option A) is not the best sampling approach for these accounts. Difference estimation sampling is a method of audit sampling that estimates the total error or misstatement in a population by multiplying the average difference between the book value and the audited value of the sample items by the number of items in the population. Difference estimation sampling is suitable for populations that have a low variability and a symmetrical distribution, which is not the case for the bank accounts in this question.
Customer unit sampling (option C) is not a sampling approach, but a type of monetary unit sampling. Monetary unit sampling is a method of audit sampling that selects sample items based on their monetary value, rather than their physical units. Customer unit sampling is a variation of monetary unit sampling that treats each customer account as a single unit, regardless of how many transactions or balances it contains. Customer unit sampling may be appropriate for testing existence or occurrence assertions, but not for estimating total values.
Unstratified mean per unit sampling (option D) is not the best sampling approach for these accounts. Unstratified mean per unit sampling is a method of audit sampling that applies mean per unit sampling to the entire population without dividing it into subgroups. Unstratified mean per unit sampling may result in a larger sample size and a lower precision than stratified mean per unit sampling, especially for populations that have a high variability or a skewed distribution, such as the bank accounts in this question.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
The charging method that effectively encourages the MOST efficient use of IS resources is:
specific charges that can be tied back to specific usage.
total utilization to achieve full operating capacity.
residual income in excess of actual incurred costs.
allocations based on the ability to absorb charges.
The charging method for IS resources is the way that the IS function allocates its costs to the users or business units that consume its services. The charging method can affect the behavior and incentives of the users and the IS function, as well as the efficiency and effectiveness of the IS resources. Therefore, choosing an appropriate charging method is an important decision for the IS function and its stakeholders.
One of the possible charging methods is to charge specific costs that can be tied back to specific usage. This means that the IS function tracks and measures the actual consumption of each user or business unit for each IS service, and charges them accordingly. For example, if a user uses 10 GB of storage space, 5 hours of CPU time, and 100 MB of network bandwidth, the IS function will charge them based on the unit costs of these resources. This charging method has the advantage of encouraging the most efficient use of IS resources, as it provides clear and accurate feedback to the users about their consumption and costs, and motivates them to optimize their usage and avoid waste or overuse. This charging method also aligns the interests of the IS function and the users, as both parties benefit from reducing costs and improving efficiency.
The other possible charging methods are:
Total utilization to achieve full operating capacity: This means that the IS function charges a fixed amount to each user or business unit based on their proportion of the total operating capacity of the IS resources. For example, if a user or business unit has 10% of the total computing power allocated to them, they will pay 10% of the total IS costs. This charging method has the disadvantage of discouraging efficient use of IS resources, as it does not reflect the actual consumption or usage of each user or business unit, and does not provide any incentive to reduce costs or improve efficiency. This charging method also creates a mismatch between the interests of the IS function and the users, as the IS function benefits from increasing costs and capacity, while the users bear the burden of paying for them.
Residual income in excess of actual incurred costs: This means that the IS function charges a markup or profit margin on top of its actual incurred costs to each user or business unit.For example, if a user or business unit consumes $100 worth of IS resources, the IS function will charge them $120, where $20 is the residual income for the IS function. This charging method has the disadvantage of discouraging efficient use of IS resources, as it increases the costs for the users and reduces their value for money. This charging method also creates a conflict between the interests of the IS function and the users, as the IS function benefits from increasing costs and profits, while the users suffer from paying more than they should.
Allocations based on the ability to absorb charges: This means that the IS function charges different amounts to different users or business units based on their ability to pay or their profitability. For example, if a user or business unit is more profitable or has a higher budget than another user or business unit, they will pay more for the same amount of IS resources. This charging method has the disadvantage of discouraging efficient use of IS resources, as it does not reflect the actual consumption or usage of each user or business unit, and does not provide any incentive to reduce costs or improve efficiency. This charging method also creates an unfair and arbitrary distribution of costs among the users or business units, as some paymore than others for no valid reason. References: 1: Charging Methods for IT Services - IT Process Wiki 2: IT Chargeback Methods - CIO Wiki 3: IT Chargeback - Wikipedia
An organization has recently moved to an agile model for deploying custom code to its in-house accounting software system. When reviewing the procedures in place for production code deployment, which of the following is the MOST significant security concern to address?
Software vulnerability scanning is done on an ad hoc basis.
Change control does not include testing and approval from quality assurance (QA).
Production code deployment is not automated.
Current DevSecOps processes have not been independently verified.
Change control is the process of managing and documenting changes to an information system or its components. Change control aims to ensure that changes are authorized, tested, approved, implemented, and reviewed in a controlled and consistent manner. Change control is an essential part of ensuring the security, reliability, and quality of an information system.
One of the key elements of change control is testing and approval from quality assurance (QA). QA is the function that verifies that the changes meet the requirements and specifications, comply with the standards and policies, and do not introduce any errors or vulnerabilities. QA testing and approval provide assurance that the changes are fit for purpose, function as expected, and do not compromise the security or performance of the system.
An organization that has recently moved to an agile model for deploying custom code to its in-house accounting software system should still follow change control procedures, including QA testing and approval. Agile development methods emphasize flexibility, speed, and collaboration, but they do not eliminate the need for quality and security checks. In fact, agile methods can facilitate change control by enabling frequent and iterative testing and feedback throughout the development cycle.
However, if change control does not include testing and approval from QA, this poses a significant security concern for the organization. Without QA testing and approval, the changes may not be properly validated, verified, or evaluated before being deployed to production. This could result in introducing bugs, defects, or vulnerabilities that could affect the functionality, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the accounting software system. For example, a change could cause data corruption, performance degradation, unauthorized access, or data leakage. These risks could have serious consequences for the organization’s financial operations, compliance obligations, reputation, or legal liabilities.
Therefore, change control that does not include testing and approval from QA is the most significant security concern to address when reviewing the procedures in place for production code deployment in an agile model.
Which of the following should be the FIRST step when conducting an IT risk assessment?
Identify potential threats.
Assess vulnerabilities.
Identify assets to be protected.
Evaluate controls in place.
The first step when conducting an IT risk assessment is to identify assets to be protected, which include hardware, software, data, processes, people, and facilities that support the business objectives and operations of an organization. Identifying assets to be protected helps to establish the scope and boundaries of the risk assessment, as well as the value and criticality of each asset. Identifying potential threats, assessing vulnerabilities, and evaluating controls in place are subsequent steps in the risk assessment process that depend on the identification of assets to be protected. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance & Management of IT, Section 2.3: IT Risk Management
An IS auditor identifies that a legacy application to be decommissioned in three months cannot meet the security requirements established by the current policy. What is the BEST way (or the auditor to address this issue?
Recommend the application be patched to meet requirements.
Inform the IT director of the policy noncompliance.
Verify management has approved a policy exception to accept the risk.
Take no action since the application will be decommissioned in three months.
The best way for the auditor to address this issue is to verify management has approved a policy exception to accept the risk. A policy exception is a formal authorization that allows a deviation from the established policy requirements for a specific situation or period of time. A policy exception should be based on a risk assessment that evaluates the impact and likelihood of the potential threats and vulnerabilities, as well as the cost and benefit of the alternative controls. A policy exception should also be documented, approved, and monitored by management.
Recommending the application be patched to meet requirements is not the best way for the auditor to address this issue. Patching the application may not be feasible, cost-effective, or timely, given that the application will be decommissioned in three months. Patching the application may also introduce new risks or errors that could affect the functionality or performance of the application.
Informing the IT director of the policy noncompliance is not the best way for the auditor to address this issue. Informing the IT director of the policy noncompliance may not resolve the issue or mitigate the risk, especially if the IT director is already aware of the situation and has decided to accept it. Informing the IT director of the policy noncompliance may also create unnecessary conflict or tension between the auditor and the auditee.
Taking no action since the application will be decommissioned in three months is not the best way for the auditor to address this issue. Taking no action may expose the organization to significant risks or consequences, such as data breaches, regulatory fines, or reputational damage, if the application is compromised or exploited by malicious actors. Taking no action may also violate the auditor’s professional standards and responsibilities, such as due care, objectivity, and reporting.
Demonstrated support from which of the following roles in an organization has the MOST influence over information security governance?
Chief information security officer (CISO)
Information security steering committee
Board of directors
Chief information officer (CIO)
Information security governance is the subset of enterprise governance that provides strategic direction, ensures that objectives are achieved, manages risk appropriately, uses organizational resources responsibly, and monitors the success or failure of the enterprise security program. Information security governance is essential for ensuring that an organization’s information assets are protected from internal and external threats, and that the organization complies with relevant laws and standards.
Demonstrated support from which of the following roles in an organization has the most influence over information security governance? The answer is C, the board of directors. The board of directors is the highest governing body of an organization, responsible for overseeing its strategic direction, performance, and accountability. The board of directors sets the tone at the top for information security governance by:
Establishing a clear vision, mission, and values for information security
Approving and reviewing information security policies and standards
Allocating sufficient resources and budget for information security
Appointing and empowering a chief information security officer (CISO) or equivalent role
Holding management accountable for information security performance and compliance
Communicating and promoting information security awareness and culture
The board of directors has the most influence over information security governance because it has the ultimate authority and responsibility for ensuring that information security is aligned with the organization’s business objectives, risks, and stakeholder expectations.
When is it MOST important for an IS auditor to apply the concept of materiality in an audit?
When planning an audit engagement
When gathering information for the fieldwork
When a violation of a regulatory requirement has been identified
When evaluating representations from the auditee
The concept of materiality is most important for an IS auditor to apply when planning an audit engagement, because it helps the auditor to determine the scope, objectives, procedures and resources of the audit. Materiality is the degree to which an omission or misstatement of information could affect the users’ decisions or the achievement of the audit objectives. By applying the concept of materiality, the auditor can focus on the most significant and relevant areas of the audit and avoid wasting time and effort on trivial or immaterial matters. The other options are not as important as planning an audit engagement, because they are either based on or affected by the materiality assessment done during the planning phase. References:
ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, chapter 1, section 1.31
ISACA, IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques forIS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 12022
A finance department has a multi-year project to upgrade the enterprise resource planning (ERP) system hosting the general ledger. and in year one, the system version upgrade will be applied. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of the IS auditor reviewing the first year of the project?
unit testing
Network performance
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Regression testing
The primary focus of the IS auditor reviewing the first year of the project should be regression testing. Regression testing is a type of testing that ensures that the existing functionality of the system is not affected by the changes or upgrades made to the system. Since the project involves upgrading the ERP system hosting the general ledger, which is a critical and complex component of the finance department, it is important to verify that the upgrade does not introduce any errors or defects that could compromise the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of the financial data and reports. Regression testing can help identify and resolve any issues before they affect the users and the business processes.
Unit testing, network performance, and user acceptance testing (UAT) are also important aspects of the project, but they are not the primary focus of the IS auditor in the first year. Unit testing is a type of testing that verifies that each individual module or component of the system works as expected. Network performance is a measure of how well the system can communicate and exchange data with other systems and devices over a network. User acceptance testing (UAT) is a type of testing that validates that the system meets the user requirements and expectations. These aspects are more relevant in later stages of the project, when the system is more developed and ready for deployment.
The PRIMARY purpose of a configuration management system is to:
track software updates.
define baselines for software.
support the release procedure.
standardize change approval.
A configuration management system is a process that establishes and maintains the consistency of a product’s attributes throughout its life cycle. It helps to identify and control the functional and physical characteristics of a product, and to record and report any changes to those characteristics. A configuration management system also supports the audit of the product to verify its conformance to requirements.
One of the key activities of a configuration management system is to define baselines for software. A baseline is a fixed reference point that serves as a basis for comparison and measurement. A baseline can be established for any configuration item, such as a requirement, a design document, a test plan, or a software component. A baseline helps to ensure that the software product meets its intended purpose and quality standards, and that any changes to the software are controlled and documented.
A configuration management system also supports other activities, such as tracking software updates, supporting the release procedure, and standardizing change approval, but these are not its primary purpose. Therefore, the other options are incorrect.
What is the BEST way to reduce the risk of inaccurate or misleading data proliferating through business intelligence systems?
Establish rules for converting data from one format to another
Implement data entry controls for new and existing applications
Implement a consistent database indexing strategy
Develop a metadata repository to store and access metadata
The best way to reduce the risk of inaccurate or misleading data proliferating through business intelligence systems is to establish rules for converting data from one format to another, because this ensures that the data quality and integrity are maintained throughout the data transformation process. Data conversion rules define the standards, procedures, and methods for transforming data from different sources and formats into a common format andstructure that can be used by the business intelligence systems12. Implementing data entry controlsfor new and existing applications, implementing a consistent database indexing strategy, and developing a metadata repository to store and access metadata are not the best ways to reduce the risk of inaccurate or misleading dataproliferating through business intelligence systems, becausethey do not address the issue of dataconversion, which is a critical step in the data integration process for business intelligence systems. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 4, Lesson 3
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information regarding an organization's risk appetite and tolerance?
Gap analysis
Audit reports
Risk profile
Risk register
The most useful information regarding an organization’s risk appetite and tolerance is provided by its risk profile, as this is a document that summarizes the key risks that the organization faces, the potential impacts and likelihoods of those risks, and the acceptable levels of risk exposure for different objectives and activities. A gap analysis is a tool that compares the current state and the desired state of a process or a system, and identifies the gaps that need to be addressed. Audit reports are documents that present the findings, conclusions, and recommendations of an audit engagement. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, their consequences,and their mitigation actions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.1: IT Governance
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor assessing the effectiveness of an organization's vulnerability scanning program''
Steps taken to address identified vulnerabilities are not formally documented
Results are not reported to individuals with authority to ensure resolution
Scans are performed less frequently than required by the organization's vulnerability scanning schedule
Results are not approved by senior management
The finding that should be of greatest concern to an IS auditor assessing the effectiveness of an organization’s vulnerability scanning program is that results are not reported to individuals with authority to ensure resolution. This indicates a lack of accountability and communication for vulnerability management, which may result in unresolved or delayed remediation of identified vulnerabilities. This may expose the organization to increased risk of cyberattacks or breaches. The other findings are also concerning, but not as much as this one, because they may affect the completeness, accuracy or timeliness of the vulnerability scanning process, but not necessarily its effectiveness. References:
ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, chapter 4, section 4.41
ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology, section 3.2
The PRIMARY purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:
comply with vendor management policy
convert source code to new executable code.
satisfy regulatory requirements.
ensure the source code is available.
The primary purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to ensure the source code is available. Source code escrow is a service that involves depositing the source code of a software or system with a third-party agent or escrow provider, who can release it to a designated beneficiary under specific conditions, such as bankruptcy, termination, or breach of contract by the software vendor or developer. Source code escrow can help to protect the interests and rights of the software user or licensee, who may need access to the source code for maintenance, modification, enhancement, or troubleshooting purposes. The IS auditor should verify that the contractual agreement specifies the terms and conditions for source code escrow, such as the escrow agent,the escrow fees, the deposit frequency and format,the release events and procedures, and the verification and audit requirements. References: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2
Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an IT strategy corrections effectiveness?
The minutes from the IT strategy committee meetings
Synchronization of IT activities with corporate objectives
The IT strategy committee charier
Business unit satisfaction survey results
The best evidence of an IT strategy correction’s effectiveness is the synchronization of IT activities with corporate objectives. The IT strategy correction is a process of reviewing and adjusting the IT strategy to ensure that it aligns with and supports the corporate strategy and objectives. The synchronization of IT activities with corporate objectives means that the IT activities are consistent with and contribute to the achievement of the corporate goals and vision. The IS auditor can measure and evaluate the IT strategy correction’s effectiveness by comparing the IT activities with the corporate objectives, and assessing whether they are aligned, integrated, and coordinated. The other options are not as good evidence of an IT strategy correction’s effectiveness, because they either do not reflect the alignment of IT and business, or they are inputs or outputs of the IT strategycorrection process rather than outcomes or results. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1
Users are complaining that a newly released enterprise resource planning (ERP) system is functioning too slowly. Which of the following tests during the quality assurance (QA) phase would have identified this concern?
Stress
Regression
Interface
Integration
Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates how a system behaves under extreme load conditions, such as high user traffic, large data volumes, or limited resources. It is useful for identifying potential bottlenecks, errors, or failures that may affect the system’s functionality or availability. Stress testing during the quality assurance (QA) phase would have identified the concern of users complaining that a newly released ERP system is functioning too slowly. The other options are not as relevant for this concern, as they relate to different aspects of testing, such as regression testing (verifying that existing functionality is not affected by new changes), interface testing (verifying that the system interacts correctly with other systems or components), or integration testing (verifying that the system works as a whole after combining different modules or units). References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.4 Testing Techniques1
Which of the following should be the FIRST step m managing the impact of a recently discovered zero-day attack?
Evaluating the likelihood of attack
Estimating potential damage
Identifying vulnerable assets
Assessing the Impact of vulnerabilities
The first step in managing the impact of a recently discovered zero-day attack is to identify vulnerable assets. A zero-day attack is a cyberattack that exploits a previously unknown or unpatched vulnerability in a software or system, before the vendor or developer has had time to fix it. Identifying vulnerable assets is crucial for managing the impact of a zero-day attack, because it helps to determine the scope and severity of the attack, prioritize the protection and mitigation measures, and isolate or quarantine the affected assets from further damage or compromise. The other options are not the first steps in managing the impact of a zero-day attack, because they either require more informationabout the vulnerable assets, or they are part of the subsequentsteps of assessing, responding, or recovering from the attack. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
During which phase of the software development life cycle is it BEST to initiate the discussion of application controls?
Business case development phase when stakeholders are identified
Application design phase process functionalities are finalized
User acceptance testing (UAT) phase when test scenarios are designed
Application coding phase when algorithms are developed to solve business problems
The best phase of the software development life cycle to initiate the discussion of application controls is the application design phase when process functionalities are finalized. Application controls are the policies, procedures, and techniques that ensure the completeness, accuracy, validity, and authorization of data input, processing, output, and storage in an application. Application controls help prevent, detect, or correct errors and fraud in software applications. Examples of application controls include input validation, edit checks, reconciliation, encryption, access control, audit trails, etc.
The application design phase is when the software requirements are translated into a logical and physical design that specifies how the application will look and work. This phase is the best time to discuss application controls because it allows the developers to incorporate them into the design specifications and ensure that they are aligned with the business objectives and user needs. By discussing application controls early in the design phase, the developers can also avoid costly rework or changes later in the development process.
The other phases are not as optimal as the application design phase to initiate the discussion of application controls. A. Business case development phase when stakeholders are identified. The business case development phase is when the feasibility, scope, objectives, benefits, risks, and costs of a software project are defined and evaluated. This phase is important for obtaining stakeholder approval and support for the project, but it is too early to discuss application controls in detail because the software requirements and functionalities are not yet clear or finalized. B. User acceptance testing (UAT) phase when test scenarios are designed. The user acceptance testing phase is when the software is tested by the end-users or stakeholders to verify that it meets their expectations and requirements. This phase is too late to discuss application controls because it is near the end of the development process and any changes or additions to the application controls would require retesting and revalidation of the software. C. Application coding phase when algorithms are developed to solve business problems. The application coding phase is when the software design is translated into executable code using programming languages and tools. This phase is not ideal to discuss application controls because it is after the design phase and any changes or additions to the application controls would require redesigning and recoding of the software.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a third-party service provider's information security controls
are effective?
An audit report of the controls by the service provider's external auditor
Documentation of the service provider's security configuration controls
An interview with the service provider's information security officer
A review of the service provider's policies and procedures
An audit report of the controls by the service provider’s external auditor provides the best evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective. An external auditor is an independent and objective party that can assess the design and operating effectiveness of the service provider’s information security controls based on established standards and criteria. An external auditor can also provide an opinion on the adequacy and compliance of the service provider’s information security controls, as well as recommendations for improvement.
Documentation of the service provider’s security configuration controls is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. Documentation of the security configuration controls can show the settings and parameters of the service provider’s information systems and networks, but it may not reflect the actual implementation and operation of the controls. Documentation of the security configuration controls may also be outdated, incomplete, or inaccurate.
An interview with the service provider’s information security officer is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. An interview with the information security officer can provide insights into the service provider’s information security strategy, policies, and procedures, but it may not verify the actual performance and compliance of the information security controls. An interview with the information security officer may also be biased, subjective, or misleading.
A review of the service provider’s policies and procedures is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. A review of the policies and procedures can show the service provider’s information security objectives, requirements, and guidelines, but it may not demonstrate the actual execution and enforcement of the information security controls. A review of the policies and procedures may also be insufficient, inconsistent, or outdated.
Which of the following BEST protects evidence in a forensic investigation?
imaging the affected system
Powering down the affected system
Protecting the hardware of the affected system
Rebooting the affected system
Imaging the affected system is the best way to protect evidence in a forensic investigation, because it creates a bit-by-bit copy of the original data that can be analyzed without altering or compromising the original source. Imaging preserves the integrity and authenticity of the evidence and allows for verification and validation of the results34. Powering down or rebooting the affected system can cause data loss or corruption, while protecting the hardware does not prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the software or data. References: 3: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.4.1 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 6, Lesson 4
Audit frameworks cart assist the IS audit function by:
defining the authority and responsibility of the IS audit function.
providing details on how to execute the audit program.
providing direction and information regarding the performance of audits.
outlining the specific steps needed to complete audits
Audit frameworks can assist the IS audit function by providing direction and information regarding the performance of audits. Audit frameworks are sets of standards, guidelines, and best practices that help IS auditors plan, conduct, and report on their audit engagements. Audit frameworks can help IS auditors ensure the quality, consistency, and professionalism of their audit work, as well as comply with the expectations and requirements of the stakeholders and regulators. Audit frameworks can also help IS auditors address the specific challenges and risks of auditing information systems and technology.
Defining the authority and responsibility of the IS audit function is not a way that audit frameworks can assist the IS audit function, but rather a way that the IS audit charter can assist the IS audit function. The IS audit charter is a document that defines the purpose, scope, objectives, and authority of the IS audit function within the organization. The IS audit charter can help IS auditors establish their role and position in relation to other functions and departments, as well as clarify their rights and obligations.
Providing details on how to execute the audit program is not a way that audit frameworks can assist the IS audit function, but rather a way that the audit methodology can assist the IS audit function. The audit methodology is a set of procedures and techniques that guide IS auditors in performing their audit tasks and activities. The audit methodology can help IS auditors apply a systematic and structured approach to their audit work, as well as use appropriate tools and methods to collect and analyze evidence.
Outlining the specific steps needed to complete audits is not a way that audit frameworks can assist the IS audit function, but rather a way that the audit plan can assist the IS audit function. The audit plan is a document that describes the scope, objectives, timeline, resources, and deliverables of a specific audit engagement. The audit plan can help IS auditors organize and manage their audit work, as well as communicate their expectations and responsibilities to the auditees.
Which of the following should be the FIRST step when planning an IS audit of a third-party service provider that monitors network activities?
Review the third party's monitoring logs and incident handling
Review the roles and responsibilities of the third-party provider
Evaluate the organization's third-party monitoring process
Determine if the organization has a secure connection to the provider
The first step when planning an IS audit of a third-party service provider that monitors network activities is to review the roles and responsibilities of the third-party provider. This will help to establish the scope, objectives, and expectations of the audit, as well as to identify any potential risks, issues, or gaps in the service level agreement (SLA) between the organization and the provider. Reviewing the third party’s monitoring logs and incident handling, evaluating the organization’s third-party monitoring process, and determining if the organization has a secure connection to the provider are important steps, but they should be performed after reviewing the roles and responsibilities of the provider. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, page 269.
Which of the following would protect the confidentiality of information sent in email messages?
Secure Hash Algorithm 1(SHA-1)
Digital signatures
Encryption
Digital certificates
Encryption is the process of transforming information into an unreadable form using a secret key, so that only authorized parties can access it. Encryption would protect the confidentiality of information sent in email messages, as it would prevent unauthorized parties from intercepting and reading the messages. Secure Hash Algorithm 1 (SHA-1) is a cryptographic hash function that produces a fixed-length output from an input. SHA-1 does not encrypt information, but rather verifies its integrity by detecting any changes or modifications. Digital signatures are electronic signatures that use encryption and hash functions to authenticate the identity of the sender and the integrity of the message. Digital signatures do not protect the confidentiality of information, but rather ensure its authenticity and non-repudiation. Digital certificates are electronic documents that contain the public key and identity information of an entity, such as a person, organization or device. Digital certificates are issued by trusted third parties called certificate authorities (CAs). Digital certificates do not protect the confidentiality of information, but rather enable secure communication and encryption by verifying the identity and public key of an entity. References:
: [Encryption Definition]
: [Secure Hash Algorithm 1 (SHA-1) Definition]
: [Digital Signature Definition]
: [Digital Certificate Definition]
Management has learned the implementation of a new IT system will not be completed on time and has requested an audit. Which of the following audit findings should be of GREATEST concern?
The actual start times of some activities were later than originally scheduled.
Tasks defined on the critical path do not have resources allocated.
The project manager lacks formal certification.
Milestones have not been defined for all project products.
The audit finding that should be of greatest concern is that tasks defined on the critical path do not have resources allocated, as this means that the project is likely to face significant delays and cost overruns, since the critical path is the sequence of activities that determines the minimum time required to complete the project. The actual start times of some activities being later than originally scheduled may indicate some minor deviations from the project plan, but they may not necessarily affect the overall project completion time if they are not on the critical path. The project manager lacking formal certification may affect the quality and efficiency of the project management process, but it does not necessarily imply that the project manager is incompetent or unqualified. Milestones have been defined for all project products, but they may not be realistic or achievable if they do not take into account the resource constraints and dependencies of the critical path tasks. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.3: IT Project Management
An organization is migrating its HR application to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model in a private cloud. Who is PRIMARILY responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application's operating system?
The cloud provider's external auditor
The cloud provider
The operating system vendor
The organization
The organization is primarily responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application’s operating system when migrating its HR application to an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model in a private cloud. This is because in an IaaS model, the cloud provider is responsible for the security of the underlying infrastructure that they lease to their customers, such as servers, storage, and networks, while the customer is responsible for the security of the areas of the cloud infrastructure over which they have control, such as operating systems, middleware, and applications. Therefore, the organization needs to ensure that the operating system is properly configured, patched, hardened, and monitored to protect the HR application from unauthorized access or malicious attacks.
The other options are not primarily responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application’s operating system. The cloud provider’s external auditor is not responsible for any security configurations, but rather for verifying and reporting on the cloud provider’s compliance with relevant standards and regulations. The cloud provider is responsible for the security of the underlying infrastructure, but not for the operating system or any software installed on it by the customer. The operating system vendor is responsible for providing updates and patches for the operating system, but not for configuring or securing it according to the customer’s needs.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective IT investment management?
IT investments are implemented and monitored following a system development life cycle (SDLC)
IT investments are mapped to specific business objectives
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined for each business requiring IT Investment
The IT Investment budget is significantly below industry benchmarks
This means that the IT investments are aligned with the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, and that they deliver value and benefits to the business. Mapping IT investments to specific business objectives can help ensure that the IT investments are relevant, justified, and measurable, and that they support the organization’s mission and vision.
IT investments are implemented and monitored following a system development life cycle (SDLC) is an indication of effective IT project management, but not necessarily of effective IT investment management. The SDLC is a framework that guides the development and implementation of IT systemsand applications, but it does not address the alignment, justification, or measurement of the IT investments.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined for each business requiring IT investment is an indication of effective IT performance management, but not necessarily of effective IT investment management. KPIs are metrics that measure the outcomes and results of IT activities and processes, but they do not address the alignment, justification, or value of the IT investments.
The IT investment budget is significantly below industry benchmarks is not an indication of effective IT investment management, but rather of low IT spending. The IT investment budget should be based on the organization’s needs and capabilities, and not on external comparisons. A low IT investment budget may indicate that the organization is underinvesting in IT, which could limit its potential for growth and innovation.
Which of the following is me GREATE ST impact as a result of the ongoing deterioration of a detective control?
Increased number of false negatives in security logs
Decreased effectiveness of roof cause analysis
Decreased overall recovery time
Increased demand for storage space for logs
The greatest impact as a result of the ongoing deterioration of a detective control is an increased number of false negatives in security logs. A detective control is a control that monitors and identifies any deviations or anomalies from the expected or normal behavior or performance of a system or process. A security log is a record of events or activities that occur within a system or network, such as user access, file changes, system errors, or security incidents. A false negative is a situation where a security log fails to detect or report an actual deviation or anomaly that has occurred, such as an unauthorized access, a malicious modification, or a security breach. An increased number of false negatives in security logs can have a significant impact on the organization’s security posture and risk management, because it can prevent timely detection and response to security threats, compromise the accuracy and reliability of security monitoring and reporting, and undermine the accountability and auditability of user actions and transactions. The other options are not as impactful as anincreased number of false negatives in security logs, because they either do not affect the detection capability of a detective control, or they have less severe consequences for security management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1
Which of the following is an IS auditor's BEST approach when prepanng to evaluate whether the IT strategy supports the organization's vision and mission?
Review strategic projects tor return on investments (ROls)
Solicit feedback from other departments to gauge the organization's maturity
Meet with senior management to understand business goals
Review the organization's key performance indicators (KPls)
The best approach for an IS auditor to evaluate whether the IT strategy supports the organization’s vision and mission is to meet with senior management to understand the business goals and how IT can enable them. This will help the IS auditor to assess the alignment and integration of IT with the business strategy and to identify any gaps or opportunities for improvement. Reviewing ROIs, KPIs, or feedback from other departments may provide some insights, but they are not sufficient to evaluate the IT strategy. References: IS Audit and Assurance Standards, section “Standard 1201: Engagement Planning”
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor conducting an audit of an organization that recently experienced a ransomware attack?
Antivirus software was unable to prevent the attack even though it was properly updated
The most recent security patches were not tested prior to implementation
Backups were only performed within the local network
Employees were not trained on cybersecurity policies and procedures
The greatest concern to an IS auditor conducting an audit of an organization that recently experienced a ransomware attack is that backups were only performed within the local network. This means that the backups could have been encrypted or deleted by the ransomware, making it impossible to restore the data and systems without paying the ransom or losing the data. Backups are a critical part of the recovery process from a ransomware attack, and they should be performed frequently, securely, and off-site or in the cloud to ensure their availability and integrity.
The other options are not as concerning as option C, although they may also indicate some security weaknesses. Antivirus software was unable to prevent the attack even though it was properly updated, but this is not surprising given that ransomware variants are constantly evolving and antivirus software may not be able to detect them all. The most recent security patches were not tested prior to implementation, but this is a trade-off between security and availability that may be justified depending on the severity and urgency of the patches. Employees were not trained on cybersecurity policies and procedures, but this is a preventive measure that may not have prevented the attack if it was initiated by other means such as phishing or exploiting vulnerabilities.
As part of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to assess when conducting a business impact analysis (B1A)?
Risk appetite
Critical applications m the cloud
Completeness of critical asset inventory
Recovery scenarios
The most important thing to assess when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is the completeness of critical asset inventory. This is because the critical asset inventory is the basis for identifying and prioritizing the business processes, functions, and resources that are essential for thecontinuity of operations. The critical asset inventory should include both tangible and intangible assets, such as hardware, software, data, personnel, facilities, contracts, and reputation. The critical asset inventory should also be updated regularly to reflect any changes in the business environment or needs. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.41
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 3, Module 3, Lesson 12
An organization outsourced its IS functions to meet its responsibility for disaster recovery, the organization should:
discontinue maintenance of the disaster recovery plan (DRP>
coordinate disaster recovery administration with the outsourcing vendor
delegate evaluation of disaster recovery to a third party
delegate evaluation of disaster recovery to internal audit
An organization outsourced its IS functions. To meet its responsibility for disaster recovery, the organization should coordinate disaster recovery administration with the outsourcing vendor. This is because the organization remains accountable for ensuring the continuity and availability of its IS functions, even if they are outsourced to a third party. The organization should establish clear roles and responsibilities, communication channels, testing procedures, and escalation processes with the outsourcing vendor for disaster recovery purposes. The organization should not discontinue maintenance of the disaster recovery plan (DRP), as it still needs to have a documented and updated plan for restoring its IS functions in case of a disaster. The organization should not delegate evaluation of disaster recovery to a third party or internal audit, as it still needs to monitor and review the performance and compliance of the outsourcing vendor with respect to disaster recovery objectives and standards. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Auditing Standards]
Which type of device sits on the perimeter of a corporate of home network, where it obtains a public IP address and then generates private IP addresses internally?
Switch
Intrusion prevention system (IPS)
Gateway
Router
A router is a type of device that sits on the perimeter of a corporate or home network, where it obtains a public IP address and then generates private IP addresses internally. A router connects two or more networks and forwards packets between them based on routing rules. A router can also provide network address translation (NAT) functionality, which allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address and access the internet. A switch is a type of device that connects multiple devices within a network and forwards packets based on MAC addresses. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a type of device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules. A gateway is a type of device that acts as an interface between different networks or protocols, such as a modem or a firewall. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Glossary of Terms]
An organization has implemented a distributed security administration system to replace the previous centralized one. Which of the following presents the GREATEST potential concern?
Security procedures may be inadequate to support the change
A distributed security system is inherently a weak security system
End-user acceptance of the new system may be difficult to obtain
The new system will require additional resources
A distributed security administration system is a system that allows different administrators to manage the security of different parts of the network or organization. This can provide more flexibility, scalability, and efficiency than a centralized system, where one administrator is responsible for the entire security. However, a distributed security administration system also presents some potential challenges and risks, such as:
Inconsistency and conflict among different security policies and standards
Lack of coordination and communication among different administrators
Difficulty in monitoring and auditing the overall security status and performance
Increased complexity and cost of security management and maintenance
Therefore, the greatest potential concern for implementing a distributed security administration system is that the security procedures may be inadequate to support the change. Security procedures are the rules and guidelines that define how security is implemented and enforced in an organization. They include policies, standards, processes, roles, responsibilities, controls, and metrics. Security procedures should be aligned with the business objectives, risks, and requirements of the organization, as well as the best practices and regulations in the industry. Security procedures should also be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the changes in the environment, technology, and threats.
If the security procedures are not adequate to support the change from a centralized to a distributed security administration system, the organization may face increased security risks, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, compliance violations, reputation damage, and financial losses. Therefore, it is essential to ensure that the security procedures are revised and adapted to suit the new system, and that they are communicated and enforced effectively across the organization.
An IS auditor is asked to review an organization's technology relationships, interfaces, and data. Which of the following enterprise architecture (EA) areas is MOST appropriate this review? (Choose Correct answer and give explanation from CISA Certification - Information Systems Auditor official book)
Reference architecture
Infrastructure architecture
Information security architecture
Application architecture
The lack of system documentation should be of most concern to an IS auditor reviewing the information systems acquisition, development, and implementation process. This is because system documentation is a vital source of information that describes the system’s purpose, functionality, design, architecture, testing, deployment, operation, and maintenance. System documentation helps the IS auditor to understand and evaluate the system’s quality, performance, security, compliance, and alignment with the business requirements and objectives. Without system documentation, the IS auditor may not be able to perform a thorough and effective audit of the system, aswell as identify any issues or risks that may affect the system’s reliability or integrity12.
Data owners are not trained on the use of data conversion tools is not the most concerning issue, although it may indicate a lack of user readiness or competence for the system implementation. Data conversion tools are software applications that help users to transform data from one format or structure to another, such as from legacy systems to new systems. Data owners are users who have the responsibility and authority to manage and control the data within their domain. Data owners should be trained on how to use data conversion tools to ensure that the data is accurately and securely transferred to the new system, as well as to avoid any data loss, corruption, or inconsistency. However, data owners are not the only users who need training for the system implementation, and data conversion tools are not the only tools that need training34.
A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise was not conducted is not the most concerning issue, although it may indicate a lack of continuous improvement or learning culture for the system development and implementation process. A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise is a meeting or a session that takes place after the completion of a system implementation project, where the project team and stakeholders discuss and document the successes and failures of the project, as well as identify any best practices or areas for improvement for future projects. Apost-implementation lessons-learned exercise can help to enhance the project management skills, knowledge, and performance of the project team and stakeholders, as well as to avoid repeating the same mistakes or problems in future projects56.
System deployment is routinely performed by contractors is not the most concerning issue, although it may pose some challenges or risks for the system implementation process. System deployment is the final stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC), where the system is installed and configured on the target environment and made available for use by end-users. System deployment can be performed by internal staff or external contractors, depending on the availability, expertise, and cost of resources. System deployment by contractors may offer some benefits such as faster delivery, lower cost, or higher quality than internal staff. However, system deployment by contractors mayalso introduce some risks such as loss of control, dependency, or security breaches over the system implementation process
Which of the following is the BEST way to minimize sampling risk?
Use a larger sample size
Perform statistical sampling
Perform judgmental sampling
Enhance audit testing procedures
Sampling risk is the risk that the auditor’s conclusion based on a sample may be different from the conclusion that would be reached if the entire population was tested using the same audit procedure. Sampling risk can lead to either incorrect rejection or incorrect acceptance of the audit objective. The best way to minimize sampling risk is to perform statistical sampling. Statistical sampling is a method of selecting and evaluating a sample using probability theory and mathematical calculations. Statistical sampling allows auditors to measure and control the sampling risk by determining the appropriate sample size and selection method, and evaluating the results using confidence levels and precision intervals. Statistical sampling can also provide more objective and consistent results than judgmental sampling, which relies on the auditor’s professional judgment and experience.
Afire alarm system has been installed in the computer room The MOST effective location for the fire alarm control panel would be inside the
computer room closest to the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) module
computer room closest to the server computers
system administrators’ office
booth used by the building security personnel
A fire alarm system is a device that detects and alerts people of the presence of fire or smoke in a building. A fire alarm control panel is the central unit that monitors and controls the fire alarm system. The most effective location for the fire alarm control panel would be inside the booth used by the building security personnel. This is because:
The security personnel can quickly and easily access the fire alarm control panel in case of an emergency, and take appropriate actions such as notifying the fire department, evacuating the building, or resetting the system.
The fire alarm control panel can be protected from unauthorized access, tampering, or damage by the security personnel, who can also monitor its status and performance regularly.
The fire alarm control panel can be isolated from the computer room, which may be exposed to higher risks of fire or smoke due to the presence of electrical equipment, such as uninterruptible power supply (UPS) modules or server computers.
The fire alarm control panel can be connected to the computer room through a dedicated communication line, which can ensure reliable and timely transmission of signals and information between the two locations.
Which of the following is the BEST way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse to ensure the organization's information cannot be accessed?
Re-partitioning
Degaussing
Formatting
Data wiping
The best way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse to ensure the organization’s information cannot be accessed is data wiping. Data wiping is a process that overwrites the data on the hard disk with random or meaningless patterns, making it unrecoverable by any software or hardware methods. Data wiping can provide a high level of security and assurance that the organization’s information is permanently erased from the hard disk, and that it cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties or malicious actors.
Re-partitioning is not a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but rather a way to organize the hard disk into different logical sections or volumes. Re-partitioning does not erase the data on the hard disk, but only changes the structure and allocation of the disk space. Re-partitioning may make the data inaccessible to the operating system, but not to other tools or methods that can scan or recover the data from the disk sectors.
Degaussing is a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but only for magnetic hard disks, not solid state drives (SSDs). Degaussing is a process that exposes the hard disk to a strong magnetic field, which disrupts and destroys the magnetic alignment of the data on the disk platters. Degaussing can effectively erase the data on magnetic hard disks, but it can also damage or render unusable the electronic components of the hard disk, such as the read/write heads or circuit boards. Degaussing also does not work on SSDs, which store data using flash memory cells, not magnetic media.
Formatting is not a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but rather a way to prepare the hard disk for use by an operating system. Formatting is a process that creates a file system on the hard disk, which defines how the data is stored and accessed on the disk. Formatting does not erase the dataon the hard disk, but only deletes the file system metadata and marks the disk space as available for new data. Formatting may make the data invisible to the operating system, but not to other tools or methods that can restore or recover the data from the disk sectors.
To mitigate the risk of exposing data through application programming interface (API) queries. which of the following design considerations is MOST important?
Data retention
Data minimization
Data quality
Data integrity
The answer B is correct because data minimization is the most important design consideration to mitigate the risk of exposing data through application programming interface (API) queries. An API is a set of rules and protocols that allows different software components or systems to communicate and exchange data. API queries are requests sent by users or applications to an API to retrieve or manipulate data. For example, a user may query an API to get information about a product, a service, or a location.
Data minimization is the principle of collecting, processing, and storing only the minimum amount of data that are necessary for a specific purpose. Data minimization can help to reduce the risk of exposing data through API queries by limiting the amount and type of data that are available or accessible through the API. Data minimization can also help to protect the privacy and security of the data subjects and the data providers, as well as to comply with the relevant laws and regulations.
Some of the benefits of data minimization for API design are:
Privacy: Data minimization can enhance the privacy of the data subjects by ensuring that only the data that are relevant and essential for the API purpose are collected and processed. This can prevent unnecessary or excessive collection or disclosure of personal or sensitive data, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc. Data minimization can also help to comply with the privacy laws and regulations that require data protection by design and by default, such as GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) or CCPA (California Consumer Privacy Act).
Security: Data minimization can improve the security of the data providers by reducing the attack surface and the potential damage of a data breach. If less data are stored or transmitted through the API, there are fewer opportunities for attackers to access or compromise the data. Data minimization can also help to implement security controls such as encryption, access control, or logging more efficiently and effectively.
Performance: Data minimization can increase the performance of the API by optimizing the use of resources and bandwidth. If less data are stored or transmitted through the API, there are less storage space and network traffic required. Data minimization can also help to improve the speed and reliability of the API responses.
Some of the techniques for data minimization in API design are:
Define clear and specific purposes for the API and document them in the API specification or documentation.
Identify and classify the data that are needed for each purpose and assign them appropriate labels or levels, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted.
Implement filters or parameters in the API queries that allow users or applications to specify or limit the data fields or attributes they want to retrieve or manipulate.
Use pagination or throttling in the API responses that limit the number or size of data items returned per request.
Use anonymization or pseudonymization techniques that remove or replace any identifying information from the data before sending them through the API.
Some examples of web resources that discuss data minimization in API design are:
Data Minimization in Web APIs - World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
Adding Privacy by Design in Secure Application Development
Chung-ju/Data-Minimization: A repository of related papers. - GitHub
A web proxy server for corporate connections to external resources reduces organizational risk by:
anonymizing users through changed IP addresses.
providing multi-factor authentication for additional security.
providing faster response than direct access.
load balancing traffic to optimize data pathways.
A web proxy server for corporate connections to external resources reduces organizational risk by anonymizing users through changed IP addresses. A web proxy server is an intermediarybetween the web and client devices, that can provide proxy services to a client or a group of clients1. One of the main benefits of using a web proxy server is that it allows users to change their IP address andlocation, circumventing geoblocking and hiding their identity from the target website2.
Anonymizing internal IP addresses is important for online security, as it helps protect the organization from several threats. If an attacker controls a server that employees connect to, the outgoing IP address of the organization’s router is logged on the server. This IP address can be used by the attacker to launch a denial-of-service (DoS) attack or to create more targeted attacks such as phishing2. With a web proxy server, the IP shown in web logs is the web proxy’s, which means an attacker would not have access to theorganization’s router outgoing IP address2.
Anonymizing outgoing IP addresses is also important when carrying out sensitive actions online, such as law enforcement investigations or competitive intelligence. A web proxy server can help users avoid exposing their internal IP address that leads back to their organization, and instead use a third-party web proxy that provides more anonymity2.
The other options are not directly related to reducing organizational risk by using a web proxy server. Providing multi-factor authentication for additional security (option B) is a benefit of some web proxy servers, but it is not the main purpose of using a web proxy server3. Providing faster response than direct access(option C) is a benefit of some web proxy servers that cache content forbetter data transfer speeds and less bandwidth usage, but it is not directly related to reducing organizational risk1. Load balancing traffic to optimize data pathways (option D) is a benefit of some web proxy servers that distribute traffic across multiple servers, but it is not directly related to reducing organizational risk4.
Which of the following is the MAJOR advantage of automating internal controls?
To enable the review of large value transactions
To efficiently test large volumes of data
To help identity transactions with no segregation of duties
To assist in performing analytical reviews
The major advantage of automating internal controls is to efficiently test large volumes of data, because automated controls can perform repetitive tasks faster, more accurately, and more consistently than manual controls. Automated controls can also provide audit trails and exception reports that facilitate the monitoring and evaluationof the control effectiveness12. Reviewing large value transactions, identifying transactions with no segregation of duties, and performing analytical reviews are possible benefits of automating internal controls, but not the major advantage. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 2
When assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center, the IS auditor should ensure that:
database conflicts are managed during replication.
end users are trained in the replication process.
the source database is backed up on both sites.
user rights are identical on both databases.
A database conflict occurs when the same data is modified at two separate servers, such as a customer database and a remote call center database, and the changes are not consistent with each other. For example, if a customer updates their phone number at the customer database, and a call center agent updates the same customer’s address at the remote call center database, there is a conflict between the two updates. Database conflicts can cause data inconsistency, corruption, or loss if they are not detected and resolved properly.
Two-way replication is a process of synchronizing data between two databases, so that any changes made in one database are reflected in the other database, and vice versa. Two-way replication can improve data availability, performance, and scalability, but it also increases the risk of database conflicts. Therefore, when assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center, the IS auditor should ensure that database conflicts are managed during replication. This means that the project should have a clear and effective strategy for:
Preventing or minimizing database conflicts by using techniques such as locking, timestamping, or partitioning.
Detecting or identifying database conflicts by using tools such as triggers, logs, or alerts.
Resolving or handling database conflicts by using methods such as priority-based, rule-based, or user-based resolution.
The other possible options are:
B. end users are trained in the replication process: This is not a relevant or important factor for the IS auditor to ensure when assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center. End users are not directly involved in the replication process, and they do not need to have detailed knowledge or skills about how replication works. The replication process should be transparent and seamless to the end users, and they should only interact with the data through their applications or interfaces.
C. the source database is backed up on both sites: This is not a sufficient or necessary factor for the IS auditor to ensure when assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center. Backing up the source database on both sites can provide some level of data protection and recovery, but it does not address the issue of database conflicts that can occur during replication. Moreover, backing up the source database on both sites may not be feasible or efficient, as it may consume more storage space and network bandwidth, and introduce more complexity and overhead to the replication process.
D. user rights are identical on both databases: This is not a critical or relevant factor for the IS auditor to ensure when assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center. User rights are the permissions or privileges that users have to access or modify data in a database. User rights do not directly affect the occurrence or resolution of database conflicts during replication. User rights may vary depending on the role or function of the users in different databases, and they should be defined and enforced according to the security policies and requirements of each database.
The BEST way to prevent fraudulent payments is to implement segregation of duties between the vendor setup and:
payment processing.
payroll processing.
procurement.
product registration.
Segregation of duties is a key internal control that aims to prevent fraud and errors by ensuring that no single individual has the authority to execute two or more conflicting sensitive transactions or functions. In the accounts payable vendor payment cycle, segregation of duties involves separating the tasks of vendor setup, procurement, invoice approval, and payment processing1. This way, an employee cannot create a fictitious vendor and issue a payment to themselves or their accomplices without being detected by another person. Therefore, the best way to prevent fraudulent payments is to implement segregation of duties between the vendorsetup and payment processing. References: 1: Segregation of Duties in the Accounts Payable Vendor Payment Cycle for SMBs - Now With a Podcast! - Debra R Richardson : What is Separation of duties - University of California, Berkeley
Which of the following should an IS auditor recommend be done FIRST when an organization is made aware of a new regulation that is likely to impact IT security requirements?
Update security policies based on the new regulation.
Determine which systems and IT-related processes may be impacted.
Evaluate how security awareness and training content may be impacted.
Review the design and effectiveness of existing IT controls.
The first thing that an IS auditor should recommend when an organization is made aware of a new regulation that is likely to impact IT security requirements is to determine which systems and IT-related processes may be impacted. This is because the impact assessment is a crucial step to understand the scope and magnitude of the changes that the new regulation may entail, as well as the potential risks and gaps that need to be addressed. The impact assessment can help the organization to prioritize and plan the necessary actions and resourcesto comply with the new regulation in a timely and effective manner12.
Updating security policies based on the new regulation is not the first thing to do, because it requires a clear understanding of the impact and implications of the new regulation, which can only be obtained after conducting an impact assessment. Updating security policies without an impact assessment may result in incomplete, inconsistent, or ineffective policies that may not meet the regulatory requirements or the organizational needs12.
Evaluating how security awareness and training content may be impacted is not the first thing to do, because it is a secondary or supporting activity that depends on the results of the impact assessment and the policy updates. Evaluating security awareness and training content without an impact assessment or policy updates may result in inaccurate, outdated, or irrelevant content that may not reflect the regulatory requirements or the organizational expectations34.
Reviewing the design and effectiveness of existing IT controls is not the first thing to do, because it is a monitoring or assurance activity that follows the implementation of the changes based on the impact assessment and the policy updates. Reviewing IT controls without an impact assessment or policy updates may result in misleading, incomplete, or invalidfindings that may not capture the regulatory requirements or the organizational performance
A firewall between internal network segments improves security and reduces risk by:
Jogging all packets passing through network segments
inspecting all traffic flowing between network segments and applying security policies
monitoring and reporting on sessions between network participants
ensuring all connecting systems have appropriate security controls enabled.
A firewall between internal network segments improves security and reduces risk by inspecting all traffic flowing between network segments and applying security policies. This will prevent unauthorized or malicious access, data leakage, or network attacks from compromising the network resources or data. Logging all packets passing through network segments may provide audit trails and evidence, but not prevent or mitigate security incidents. Monitoring and reporting on sessions between network participants may help to identify anomalous or suspicious activities, but not block or filter them. Ensuring all connecting systems have appropriate security controls enabled may enhance the overall network security posture, but not isolate or segregate different network segments. References: Info Technology & Systems Resources | COBIT, Risk, Governance … - ISACA, section “Book COBIT 2019 Design Guide: Designing an Information and Technology Governance Solution | Digital | English”
An IT balanced scorecard is PRIMARILY used for:
evaluating the IT project portfolio
measuring IT strategic performance
allocating IT budget and resources
monitoring risk in lT-related processes
An IT balanced scorecard is primarily used for measuring IT strategic performance. An IT balanced scorecard is a framework that translates the IT strategy into measurable objectives, indicators, targets, and initiatives across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. An IT balanced scorecard helps to monitor and evaluate how well the IT function is delivering value to the organization, achieving its strategic goals, and improving its capabilities and competencies. The otheroptions are not the primary uses of an IT balanced scorecard, because they either focus on specific aspects of IT rather than the overall performance, or they are not directly related to the IT strategy. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.3
Capacity management tools are PRIMARILY used to ensure that:
available resources are used efficiently and effectively
computer systems are used to their maximum capacity most of the time
concurrent use by a large number of users is enabled
proposed hardware acquisitions meet capacity requirements
Capacity management tools are primarily used to ensure that available resources are used efficiently and effectively to meet the current and future demands of the business. Capacity management tools can help monitor, analyze and optimize the performance and utilization of IT resources such as CPU, memory, disk, network, etc. The other options are not the primary purpose of capacity management tools, although they may be related or derived from them. References:
ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition,chapter 4, section 4.32
ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology, section 3.2
Which of the following is a method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer?
Using passwords to allow authorized users to send documents to the printer
Requiring a key code to be entered on the printer to produce hard copy
Encrypting the data stream between the user's computer and the printer
Producing a header page with classification level for printed documents
Requiring a key code to be entered on the printer to produce hard copy is a method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because requiring a key code adds an extra layer of security and authentication to the printing process, ensuring that only authorized users can access and retrieve the printed documents. Requiring a key code also prevents unauthorized users from viewingor tampering with the documents while they are in the printer’s queue or output tray1.
Using passwords to allow authorized users to send documents to the printer is not a sufficient method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because passwords only protect the transmission of the documents from the user’s computer to the printer, but they do not protect the documents once they are printed. Passwords can also be compromised or forgotten by users, making them vulnerable to unauthorized access or denial of service2.
Encrypting the data stream between the user’s computer and the printer is not a sufficient method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because encryption only protects the confidentiality and integrity of the documents while they are in transit, but they do not protect the documents once they are printed. Encryption can also introduce performance issues or compatibility problems with different printers or devices2.
Producing a header page with classification level for printed documents is not a method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because producing a header page only informs the users about the sensitivity and handling of the documents, but it does not prevent unauthorized users from accessing or viewing them. Producing a header page can also waste paper and ink, as well asincrease the risk of misplacing or mixing up the documents
The use of which of the following is an inherent risk in the application container infrastructure?
Shared registries
Host operating system
Shared data
Shared kernel
Application containers are a form of operating system virtualization that share the same kernel as the host operating system. This means that any vulnerability or compromise in the kernel can affect all the containers running on the same host, as well as the host itself. Additionally, containers may have privileged access to the kernel resources and functions, which can pose a risk of unauthorized or malicious actions by the container processes. Therefore, securing the kernel is a critical aspect of application container security.
Shared registries (option A) are not an inherent risk in the application container infrastructure, but they are a potential risk that depends on how they are configured and managed. Shared registries are repositories that store and distribute container images. They can be public or private, and they can have different levels of security and access controls. Shared registries can pose a risk of exposing sensitive data, distributing malicious or vulnerable images, or allowing unauthorized access to images. However, these risks can be mitigated by using secure connections, authentication and authorization mechanisms, image signing and scanning, and encryption.
Host operating system (option B) is not an inherent risk in the application container infrastructure, but it is a potential risk that depends on how it is configured and maintained. Host operating system is the underlying platform that runs the application containers and provides them with the necessary resources and services. Host operating system can pose a risk of exposing vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, or malware that can affect the containers or the host itself. However, these risks can be mitigated by using minimal and hardened operating systems, applying patches and updates, enforcing security policies and controls, and isolating and monitoring the host.
Shared data (option C) is not an inherent risk in the application container infrastructure, but it is a potential risk that depends on how it is stored and accessed. Shared data is the information that is used or generated by the application containers and that may be shared among them or with external entities. Shared data can pose a risk of leaking confidential or sensitive data, corrupting or losing data integrity, or violating data privacy or compliance requirements. However, these risks can be mitigated by using secure storage solutions, encryption and decryption mechanisms, access control and auditing policies, and backup and recovery procedures.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
An IS auditor is reviewing the perimeter security design of a network. Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance outgoing Internet traffic is controlled?
Intrusion detection system (IDS)
Security information and event management (SIEM) system
Stateful firewall
Load balancer
A stateful firewall provides the greatest assurance that outgoing Internet traffic is controlled, as it monitors and filters packets based on their source, destination and connection state. A stateful firewall can prevent unauthorized or malicious traffic from leaving the network, as well as block incoming traffic that does not match an established connection. An intrusion detection system (IDS) can detect and alert on suspicious or anomalous traffic, but it does not block or control it. A security information and event management (SIEM) system can collect and analyze logs and events from various sources, but it does not directly control traffic. A load balancer can distribute traffic among multiple servers, but it does not filter or monitor it. References: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2
Which of the following is the BEST method to delete sensitive information from storage media that will be reused?
Crypto-shredding
Multiple overwriting
Reformatting
Re-partitioning
The best method to delete sensitive information from storage media that will be reused is multiple overwriting. This is because multiple overwriting ensures that the data is practically unrecoverable by any software or hardware means. Multiple overwriting involves writing 0s, 1s, or random patterns onto all sectors of the storage media several times, making the original data unreadable or inaccessible. There arevarious software programs available that can securely delete files from storage media using multiple overwriting techniques1.
Crypto-shredding is not the best method because it only works for encrypted data. Crypto-shredding involves deleting the encryption key used to encrypt the data, making the data unreadable and unrecoverable. However, if the data is not encrypted, crypto-shredding will not erase it2.
Reformatting and re-partitioning are not the best methods because they do not erase the data completely. Reformatting and re-partitioning only delete the file system structures and pointers that make the data accessible, but thedata itself remains on the storage media and can be recovered using data recovery software
Which of the following is an advantage of using agile software development methodology over the waterfall methodology?
Less funding required overall
Quicker deliverables
Quicker end user acceptance
Clearly defined business expectations
The advantage of using agile software development methodology over the waterfall methodology is that it allows for quicker deliverables. Agile software development is an iterative and incremental approach that emphasizes customer feedback, collaboration, and adaptation. Agile software development delivers working software in short cycles, called sprints, that typically last from two to four weeks. This enables the development team to respond to changing requirements, deliver value faster, and improve quality. Waterfall software development is a linear and sequential approach that follows a predefined set of phases, such as planning, analysis, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance. Waterfall software development requires a clear and stable definition of the project scope, deliverables, and expectations before starting the development process. Waterfall software development can be slow, rigid, and costly, especially if changes occur during the later stages of the project. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.1: Project Management Practices
A senior auditor is reviewing work papers prepared by a junior auditor indicating that a finding was removed after the auditee said they corrected the problem. Which of the following is the senior auditor s MOST appropriate course of action?
Ask the auditee to retest
Approve the work papers as written
Have the finding reinstated
Refer the issue to the audit director
The senior auditor’s most appropriate course of action is to have the finding reinstated, because the auditee’s claim of correcting the problem is not sufficient evidence to support the removal of the finding. The auditor should verify that the corrective action has been implemented effectively and that it has resolved the underlying issue or risk. The auditor should also document the evidence andresults of the verification in the work papers. The other options are not appropriate, because they either accept the auditee’s claim without verification, delegate the responsibility to the auditee or escalate the issue unnecessarily. References:
ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, chapter 1, section 1.51
ISACA, IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals,section12062
An IS auditor finds a segregation of duties issue in an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the misconfiguration from recurring?
Monitoring access rights on a regular basis
Referencing a standard user-access matrix
Granting user access using a role-based model
Correcting the segregation of duties conflicts
The best way to prevent the misconfiguration from recurring is to grant user access using a role-based model. A role-based access control (RBAC) model is an access control method that assigns permissions to end-users based on their role within the organization1. RBAC provides fine-grained control, offering a simple, manageable approach to access management that is less error-prone than individually assigning permissions1. RBAC also enforces the principle of least privilege, which means that users only have the minimum access required to perform their tasks2.
A role-based model can help prevent segregation of duties (SoD) issues in an ERP system by restricting user access to conflicting activities within the application. SoD is a central issue for enterprises to ensure compliance with laws and regulations, and to reduce the risk of fraud and unauthorized transactions3. SoD requires that no single individual or group of individuals should havecontrol over two or more parts of a process or an asset3. For example, a user who can create and approve purchase orders should not be able to process payments or modify vendor records.
By using a role-based model, user access provisioning is based on the needs ofa group (e.g., accountingdepartment) based on common responsibilities and needs1. This means each role has a given set of permissions, and individuals can be assigned to one or more roles. For example, you may designate a user as an accounts payable clerk, an accounts receivable clerk, or a financial manager, and limit access to specific resources or tasks. The user-role and role-permissions relationships make it easy to perform role assignment because individual users no longer have unique access rights, rather they have privileges that conform to the permissions assigned to their specific role or job function1.
The other options are not the best way to prevent the misconfiguration from recurring. Monitoring access rights on a regular basis (option A) is a detective control that can help identify SoD issues after they occur, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place. Referencing a standard user-access matrix (option B) is a tool that can help document and analyze user access rights, but it does not ensure that the user access rights are configured correctly or consistently. Correcting the segregation of duties conflicts (option D) is a corrective action that can resolve SoD issues once they are detected, but it does not prevent them from happening again.
An incident response team has been notified of a virus outbreak in a network subnet. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?
Verify that the compromised systems are fully functional
Focus on limiting the damage
Document the incident
Remove and restore the affected systems
An incident response team has been notified of a virus outbreak in a network subnet. The next step should be to focus on limiting the damage by containing the virus and preventing it from spreading further. This may involve isolating the affected systems, disconnecting them from the network, blocking malicious traffic or applying patches or antivirus updates. Verifying that the compromised systems are fully functional, documenting the incident and removing and restoring the affected systems are possible steps that could be taken after limiting the damage. References:
: [Incident Response Definition]
: [Incident Response Process | ISACA]
: [Virus Definition]
Which of the following is the BEST way to address potential data privacy concerns associated with inadvertent disclosure of machine identifier information contained within security logs?
Unit the use of logs to only those purposes for which they were collected
Restrict the transfer of log files from host machine to online storage
Only collect logs from servers classified as business critical
Limit log collection to only periods of increased security activity
Limiting the use of logs to only those purposes for which they were collected is the best way to address potential data privacy concerns associated with inadvertent disclosure of machine identifier information contained within security logs, because it minimizes the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or leakage of personal data that may be embedded in the logs. Logs should be collected and processed in accordance with the data protection principles and regulations, such as theGeneral Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)12. Restricting the transfer of log files from host machine to online storage, only collecting logs from servers classified as business critical, and limiting log collection toonly periods of increased security activity are not effective ways to address data privacy concerns, because they do not prevent or mitigate the potential disclosure of personal datain the logs. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.4 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4
Which of the following is the BEST indication that there are potential problems within an organization's IT service desk function?
Undocumented operating procedures
Lack of segregation of duties
An excessive backlog of user requests
Lack of key performance indicators (KPIs)
An IT service desk is a function that provides technical support and assistance to the users of an organization’s IT systems and services. An IT service desk typically handles issues such as software installation, hardware troubleshooting, network connectivity, password reset, system configuration,and user training. An IT service desk aims to ensure that the IT systems and services are available, reliable, secure, and efficient for the users.
One of the best indications that there are potential problems within an organization’s IT service desk function is an excessive backlog of user requests. A backlog is a list of user requests that have not been resolved or completed by the IT service desk within a specified time frame. An excessive backlog means that the IT service desk is unable to meet the demand or expectations of the users, and that the users are experiencing delays, dissatisfaction, or frustration with the IT service desk.
An excessive backlog of user requests can indicate various problems within the IT service desk function, such as:
Insufficient staff, resources, or capacity to handle the volume or complexity of user requests
Ineffective processes, procedures, or tools for managing, prioritizing, or resolving user requests
Lack of skills, knowledge, or training among the IT service desk staff to deal with different types of user requests
Poor communication, collaboration, or coordination among the IT service desk staff or with other IT functions or stakeholders
Low quality, performance, or security of the IT systems or services that cause frequent or recurring user issues
Therefore, an excessive backlog of user requests is the best indication that there are potential problems within an organization’s IT service desk function.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to include in an organization's bring your own device (BYOD)
policy to help prevent data leakage?
Require employees to waive privacy rights related to data on BYOD devices.
Require multi-factor authentication on BYOD devices,
Specify employee responsibilities for reporting lost or stolen BYOD devices.
Allow only registered BYOD devices to access the network.
The best recommendation to include in an organization’s bring your own device (BYOD) policy to help prevent data leakage is to require multi-factor authentication on BYOD devices. BYOD is a practice that allows employees to use their own personal devices, such as smartphones, tablets, or laptops, to access the organization’s network, data, and systems. Data leakage is a risk that involves the unauthorized or accidental disclosure or transfer of sensitive or confidential data from the organization to external parties or devices. Multi-factor authentication is a security measure that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity and access rights, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, or codes. Multi-factor authentication can help prevent data leakage by reducing the likelihood of unauthorized access to the organization’s data and systems throughBYOD devices, especially if they are lost, stolen, or compromised. The other options are not as effective as requiring multi-factor authentication on BYOD devices, because they either do not prevent data leakage directly, or they are reactive rather than proactive measures. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3
During a database management evaluation an IS auditor discovers that some accounts with database administrator (DBA) privileges have been assigned a default password with an unlimited number of failed login attempts Which of the following is the auditor's BEST course of action?
Identify accounts that have had excessive failed login attempts and request they be disabled
Request the IT manager to change administrator security parameters and update the finding
Document the finding and explain the risk of having administrator accounts with inappropriate security settings
The auditor’s best course of action is to document the finding and explain the risk of having administrator accounts with inappropriate security settings. This is because the auditor’s role is to identify and report the issues, not to fix them or request others to fix them. The auditor should also communicate the impact of the finding, such as the possibility of unauthorized access, data tampering, or denial of service attacks. The auditor should not assume the responsibility of the IT manager or the DBA, who are in charge of changing the security parameters or disabling the accounts. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.21
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 3, Lesson 32
Which of the following is the BEST performance indicator for the effectiveness of an incident management program?
Average time between incidents
Incident alert meantime
Number of incidents reported
Incident resolution meantime
The best performance indicator for the effectiveness of an incident management program is the incident resolution meantime. This is the average time it takes to resolve an incident from the moment it is reported to the moment it is closed. The incident resolution meantime reflects how quickly and efficiently the incident management team can restore normal service and minimize the impact of incidents on the business operations and customer satisfaction.
The average time between incidents (option A) is not a good performance indicator for the effectiveness of an incident management program, as it does not measure how well the incidents are handled or resolved. It only shows how frequently the incidents occur, which may depend on various factors beyond the control of the incident management team, such as the complexity and reliability of the systems, the security threats and vulnerabilities, and the user behavior and expectations.
The incident alert meantime (option B) is the average time it takes to detect and report an incident. While this is an important metric for measuring the responsiveness and awareness of the incident management team, it does not indicate how effective the incident management program is in resolving the incidents and restoring normal service.
The number of incidents reported (option C) is also not a good performance indicator for the effectiveness of an incident management program, as it does not reflect how well the incidents are handled or resolved. It only shows how many incidents are identified and recorded, which may vary depending on the reporting channels, tools, and procedures used by the incident management team and the users.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following should be considered when examining fire suppression systems as part of a data center environmental controls review?
Installation manuals
Onsite replacement availability
Insurance coverage
Maintenance procedures
The correct answer is D. Maintenance procedures should be considered when examining fire suppression systems as part of a data center environmental controls review. Fire suppression systems are critical for protecting the data center equipment and personnel from fire hazards. Therefore, they should be regularly maintained and tested to ensure their proper functioning and compliance with safety standards. Maintenance procedures should include inspection, cleaning, replacement, and repair of the fire suppression system components, as well as documentation of the maintenance activities and results. Installation manuals, onsite replacement availability, and insurance coverage are notdirectly related to the fire suppression system performance and effectiveness, and therefore are not relevant for the audit review. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, page 403.
An organization is concerned with meeting new regulations for protecting data confidentiality and asks an IS auditor to evaluate their procedures for transporting data. Which of the
following would BEST support the organization's objectives?
Cryptographic hashes
Virtual local area network (VLAN)
Encryption
Dedicated lines
The best option to support the organization’s objectives of protecting data confidentiality while transporting data is encryption. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm, so that only authorized parties can access the original data. Encryption protects the confidentiality of data in transit by preventing unauthorized interception,modification, or disclosure of the data. Encryption can also help comply with data privacy and security regulations, such as the GDPR and HIPAA.
The other options are not as effective as encryption in protecting data confidentiality while transporting data. Cryptographic hashes are mathematical functions that generate a fixed-length output from an input, but they do not encrypt the data. Hashes are used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data, but they do not prevent unauthorized access to the data. Virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain, but they do not encrypt the data. VLANs can improve network performance and security by isolating traffic, but they do not protect the data from being intercepted or modified by external attackers. Dedicated lines are physical connections that provide exclusive access to a network or service, but they do not encrypt the data. Dedicated lines can offer higher bandwidth and reliability, but they do not guarantee the confidentiality of the data from being compromised by physical tampering or eavesdropping.
Which of the following analytical methods would be MOST useful when trying to identify groups with similar behavior or characteristics in a large population?
Deviation detection
Cluster sampling
Random sampling
Classification
The most useful analytical method when trying to identify groups with similar behavior or characteristics in a large population is classification. Classification is a technique that assigns data points to predefined categories or classes based on their features or attributes. Classification can help to discover patterns, trends, and relationships among the data and reveal the similarities or differences among the groups. Classification can also help to support decision making, prediction, or recommendation based on the data analysis. References:
CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.4.21
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 2, Module 3, Lesson 12
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform a risk assessment?
To determine the current risk profile
To ensure alignment with the business impact analysis (BIA)
To achieve compliance with regulatory requirements
To help allocate budget for risk mitigation controls
The primary reason to perform a risk assessment is to determine the current risk profile of the organization, which is the level of risk exposure and the likelihood and impact of potential threats. This will help the organization to identify and prioritize the risks that need to be addressed and to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives. A risk assessment may also help to achieve compliance, support the BIA, and allocate budget, but these are not the primary reasons. References: ISACA Glossary of Terms, section “risk assessment”
Which of the following is MOST important during software license audits?
Judgmental sampling
Substantive testing
Compliance testing
Stop-or-go sampling
Substantive testing is the most important type of testing during software license audits, as it provides evidence of the accuracy and completeness of the software inventory and licensing records. Substantive testing involves examiningtransactions, balances, and other data to verify their validity, existence, accuracy, and valuation. Compliance testing, on the other hand, is more focused on assessing the adequacy and effectiveness of internal controls over software licensing, such as policies, procedures,and monitoring mechanisms. Compliance testing alone cannot provide sufficient assurance that the software license audit objectives are met, as itdoes notverify the actual software usage and compliance status. Judgmental sampling and stop-or-go sampling are methods of selecting samples for testing, not types of testing themselves. *References: According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 1206 Testing, “The IS audit and assurance professional should perform sufficient testing to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to support conclusions reached.” 1 The section also defines substantive testing as “testing performed to obtain audit evidence to detect material misstatements in transactions orbalances” and compliance testing as “testing performed to obtain audit evidence on theoperating effectiveness of controls.” 1 According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Guideline G15 Software License Management, “The objective of a software license auditis to provide management with an independent assessment relating to compliance with software license agreements.” 2 The guideline also states that “substantive tests should be performed on a sample basis to verify that all software installed on devices within scope has been appropriately licensed.” 2
What would be an IS auditor's BEST course of action when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit?
Ensure the open issues are retained in the audit results.
Terminate the follow-up because open issues are not resolved
Recommend compensating controls for open issues.
Evaluate the residual risk due to open issues.
The best course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit is to evaluate the residual risk due to open issues. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or mitigating actions. Evaluating the residual risk due to open issues can help the IS auditor assess the impact and likelihood of the potential threats and vulnerabilities that have not been addressed by the auditee, as well as the adequacy and effectiveness of the existing controls or mitigating actions. Evaluating the residual risk due to open issues can also help the IS auditor prioritize and communicate the open issues to the auditee and other stakeholders, such as senior management or audit committee, and recommend appropriate actions or escalation procedures.
Ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results is a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but it is not the best one. Ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results can help the IS auditor document and report the status and progress of the audit recommendations, as well as provide a basis for future follow-up audits. However, ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results does not provide an analysis or evaluation of the residual risk due to open issues, which is more important for informing decision-making and action-taking.
Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved is not a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but rather a consequence or outcome of it. Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved may indicate that the auditee has failed to comply with the agreed-upon actions or deadlines, or that the IS auditor has encountered significant obstacles or resistance from the auditee. Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved may also trigger further actions or sanctions from the IS auditor or other authorities, such as issuing a qualified or adverse opinion, withholding certification, or imposing penalties.
Recommending compensating controls for open issues is not a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but rather a possible outcome or result of it. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that are implemented to reduce or eliminate the risk associated with a weakness or deficiency in another control. Recommending compensating controls for open issues may be appropriate when the auditee is unable to implement the original audit recommendations due to technical, operational,financial, or other constraints, and when the compensating controls can provide a similar or equivalent level of assurance. However, recommending compensating controls for open issues requires a prior evaluation of the residual risk due to open issues, which is more important for determining whether compensating controls are necessary and feasible.
An IS auditor is assigned to review the IS department s quality procedures. Upon contacting the IS manager, the auditor finds that there is an informal unwritten set of standards Which of the following should be the auditor's NEXT action1?
Make recommendations to IS management as to appropriate quality standards
Postpone the audit until IS management implements written standards
Document and lest compliance with the informal standards
Finalize the audit and report the finding
The auditor’s next action after finding that there is an informal unwritten set of standards in the IS department is to document and test compliance with the informal standards. This is because the auditor’s role is to evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the existing controls, regardless of whether they are formal or informal, written or unwritten. The auditor should also assess the risks and implications of having informal standards, such as lack of consistency, accountability, or traceability. The auditor should not make recommendations, postpone the audit, or finalize the audit without performing the audit procedures. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.21
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 1, Lesson 12
Which of the following is the BEST methodology to use for estimating the complexity of developing a large business application?
Function point analysis
Work breakdown structure
Critical path analysts
Software cost estimation
Function point analysis (FPA) is the best methodology to use for estimating the complexity of developing a large business application. FPA is a technique that measures the functionality of a software system based on the user requirements and the business processes that the system supports. FPA assigns a numerical value to each function or feature of the system, based on its type, complexity, and relative size. The total number of function points represents the size and complexity of the system, which can be used to estimate the development effort, cost, and time.
FPA has several advantages over other estimation methods, such as:
It is independent of the technology, programming language, or development methodology used for the system. Therefore, it can be applied consistently across different platforms and environments.
It is based on the user perspective and the business value of the system, rather than the technical details or implementation aspects. Therefore, it can be performed early in the project life cycle, before the design or coding phases.
It is objective and standardized, as it follows a set of rules and guidelines defined by the International Function Point Users Group (IFPUG). Therefore, it can reduce ambiguity and improve accuracy and reliability of the estimates.
It is adaptable and scalable, as it can handle changes in the user requirements or the system scope. Therefore, it can support agile and iterative development approaches.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be a project deliverable of an agile software development methodology?
Strictly managed software requirements baselines
Extensive project documentation
Automated software programming routines
Rapidly created working prototypes
A project deliverable is a tangible or intangible product or service that is produced as a result of a project and delivered to the customer or stakeholder. A project deliverable can be either an intermediate deliverable that is part of the project process or a final deliverable that is the outcome of the project.
An agile software development methodology is a project management approach that involves breaking the project into phases and emphasizes continuous collaboration and improvement. Teams follow a cycle of planning, executing, and evaluating. Agile software development methodologies value working software over comprehensive documentation and respond to change over following a plan.
Rapidly created working prototypes are most likely to be a project deliverable of an agile software development methodology because they:
Provide early and frequent feedback from customers and stakeholders on the functionality and usability of the software product
Allow for rapid validation and verification of the software requirements and design
Enable continuous improvement and adaptation of the software product based on changing customer needs and expectations
Reduce the risk of delivering a software product that does not meet customer needs or expectations
Increase customer satisfaction and trust by delivering working software products frequently and consistently
Some examples of agile software development methodologies that use rapidly created working prototypes as project deliverables are:
Scrum - a framework that organizes the work into fixed-length sprints (usually 2-4 weeks) and delivers potentially shippable increments of the software product at the end of each sprint1
Extreme Programming (XP) - a methodology that focuses on delivering high-quality software products through practices such as test-driven development, pair programming, continuous integration, and frequent releases2
Rapid Application Development (RAD) - a methodology that emphasizes rapid prototyping and user involvement throughout the software development process3
The other options are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology.
Strictly managed software requirements baselines are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. A software requirements baseline is a set of agreed-upon and approved software requirements that serve as the basis for the software design, development, testing, and delivery. A strictly managed software requirements baseline is a software requirements baseline that is controlled and changed only through a formalchange management process. Strictly managed software requirements baselines are more suitable for traditional or waterfall software development methodologies that follow a linear and sequential process of defining, designing, developing, testing, and delivering software products. Strictly managed software requirements baselines are not compatible with agile software development methodologies that embrace change and flexibility in the software requirements based on customer feedback and evolving needs.
Extensive project documentation is not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. Project documentation is any written or electronic information that describes or records the activities, processes, results, or decisions of a project. Extensive project documentation is project documentation that covers every aspect of the project in detail and requires significant time and effort to produce and maintain. Extensive project documentation is more suitable for traditional or waterfall software development methodologies that rely on comprehensive documentation to communicate and document the project scope, requirements, design, testing, and delivery. Extensive project documentation is not compatible with agile software development methodologies that value working software over comprehensive documentation and use minimal documentation to support the communication and collaboration among the project team members.
Automated software programming routines are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. Automated software programming routines are programs or scripts that perform repetitive or complex tasks in the software development process without human intervention. Automated software programming routines can improve the efficiency, quality, and consistency of the software development process by reducing human errors, saving time, and enforcing standards. Automated software programming routines can be used in any software development methodology, but they are not specific to agile software development methodologies. Automated software programming routines are not considered as project deliverables because they are not part of the final product that is delivered to the customer.
Which of the following should be the FIRST step when developing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution for a large organization?
Conduct a data inventory and classification exercise.
Identify approved data workflows across the enterprise_
Conduct a threat analysis against sensitive data usage.
Create the DLP policies and templates
The first step when developing a DLP solution for a large organization is to conduct a data inventory and classification exercise. This step involves identifying and locating all the data assets that the organization owns, generates, or handles, and assigning them to different categories based on their sensitivity, value, and regulatory requirements1. Data inventory and classification is essential for DLP because it helps to determine the scope and objectives of the DLP solution, as well as the appropriate level of protection and monitoring for each data category2. Data inventory and classification also enables the organization to prioritize its DLP efforts based on the risk and impact of data loss or leakage3.
Option B is not correct because identifying approved data workflows across the enterprise is a subsequent step after conducting data inventory and classification. Data workflows are the processes and channels through which data are created, stored, accessed, shared, or transmitted within or outside the organization4. Identifying approved data workflows helps to define the normal and legitimate use of data, as well as to detect and prevent unauthorized or anomalous data activities5. However, before identifying approved data workflows, the organization needs to know what data it has and how it should be classified.
Option C is not correct because conducting a threat analysis against sensitive data usage is another subsequent step after conducting data inventory and classification. Threat analysis is the process of identifying and assessing the potential sources, methods, and impacts of data loss or leakage incidents. Threat analysis helps to design and implement effective DLP controls and countermeasures based on the risk profile of each data category. However, before conducting threat analysis, the organization needs to know what data it has and how it should be classified.
Option D is not correct because creating the DLP policies and templates is the final step after conducting data inventory and classification, identifying approved data workflows, and conducting threat analysis. DLP policies and templates are the rules and configurations that specify how the DLP solution should monitor, detect, report, and respond to data loss or leakage events. DLP policies and templates should be aligned with the organization’s business needs, regulatory obligations, and risk appetite. However, before creating the DLP policies and templates, the organization needs to know what data it has, how it should be classified, how it should be used, and what threats it faces.
An IS auditor is evaluating an enterprise resource planning (ERP) migration from local systems to the cloud. Who should be responsible for the data
classification in this project?
Information security officer
Database administrator (DBA)
Information owner
Data architect
The best option for the question is C, information owner. This is because:
The information owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for the business processes and functions that collect, use, store, and dispose of data1.
The information owner is accountable for ensuring that the data is handled in compliance with the applicable laws, regulations, policies, and standards, such as the GDPR and the PIPEDA1234.
The information owner is in the best position to determine the purpose and necessity of collecting and retaining data, as well as the risks and benefits associated with it1.
The information owner should consult with other stakeholders, such as the risk manager, the database administrator (DBA), and the privacy manager, to establish and implement appropriate data classification policies and procedures2.
Data classification is the process of organizing data in groups based on their attributes and characteristics, and then assigning class labels that describe a set of attributes that hold true for the corresponding data sets345.
Data classification helps organizations to identify, manage, protect, and understand their data, as well as to comply with modern data privacy regulations345.
Data classification also helps to determine appropriate user access levels, which means defining who can access, modify, share, or delete data based on their roles, responsibilities, and needs345.
Therefore, the information owner should be responsible for the data classification in an ERP migration project from local systems to the cloud (option C), as they have the authority and accountability for the data and its protection.
The other options are not correct because:
The information security officer (option A) is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the security policies and practices of the organization that involve data6. The information security officer should advise and assist the information owner on the best practices and standards for data security, but not determine the data classification.
The database administrator (DBA) (option B) is responsible for installing, configuring, monitoring, maintaining, and improving the performance of databases and data stores that contain data5. The DBA should support the information owner in implementing and enforcing the data classification policies and procedures, but not determine them.
The data architect (option D) is responsible for designing, modeling, and documenting the logical and physical structures of databases and data stores that contain data7. The data architect should collaborate with the information owner in creating and maintaining the data classification schema and metadata, but not determine them.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason an IS auditor should discuss observations with management before delivering a final report?
Validate the audit observations_
Identify business risks associated with the observations.
Assist the management with control enhancements.
Record the proposed course of corrective action.
The primary reason an IS auditor should discuss observations with management before delivering a final report is A. Validate the audit observations. This is because discussing the observations with management can help the auditor to ensure that the findings are accurate, complete, and supported by sufficient evidence1. It can also help the auditor to obtain management’s perspective and feedback on the issues and risks identified, and to avoid any misunderstandings or surprises when the final report is issued2.
During an audit, the IS auditor finds that in many cases excessive rights were not removed from a system. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST recommendation?
System administrators should ensure consistency of assigned rights.
IT security should regularly revoke excessive system rights.
Human resources (HR) should delete access rights of terminated employees.
Line management should regularly review and request modification of access rights
The best recommendation for the auditor to make is D. Line management should regularly review and request modification of access rights. Access rights are the permissions and privileges granted to users to access, view, modify, or delete data or resources on a system or network1. Excessive rights are access rights that are not necessary or appropriate for a user’s role or function, and may pose a risk of unauthorized or inappropriate use of data or resources2. Therefore, it is important to ensure that access rights are alignedwith the principle of least privilege, which means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their duties2.
Line management is responsible for overseeing and supervising the activities and performance of their staff, and ensuring that they comply with the organization’s policies and standards3. Therefore, line management should regularly review and request modification of access rights for their staff, as they are in the best position to:
Understand the roles and functions of their staff, and determine the appropriate level of access rights needed for them to perform their duties effectively and efficiently.
Monitor and evaluate the usage and behavior of their staff, and identify any changes or anomalies that may indicate excessive or inappropriate access rights.
Communicate and collaborate with IT security or system administrators, who are responsible for granting, revoking, or modifying access rights, and request any necessary adjustments or corrections.
An IS auditor is providing input to an RFP to acquire a financial application system. Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to recommend?
The application should meet the organization's requirements.
Audit trails should be included in the design.
Potential suppliers should have experience in the relevant area.
Vendor employee background checks should be conducted regularly.
This is because audit trails are records of system activity and user actions that can provide evidence of the validity and integrity of transactions and data in a financial application system. Audit trails can help to ensure compliance with laws, regulations, policies, and standards, as well as to detect and prevent fraud, errors, or misuse of information. Audit trails can also facilitate auditing, monitoring, and evaluation of the financial application system’s performance and controls1.
The application should meet the organization’s requirements (A) is not the best answer, because it is a general and obvious criterion that applies to any application system acquisition, not a specific and important recommendation for a financial application system. The organization’s requirementsshould be clearly defined and documented in the RFP, but they may not necessarily include audit trails as a design feature.
Potential suppliers should have experience in the relevant area © is not the best answer, because it is a factor that affects the selection of the supplier, not the design of the financial application system. The experience and reputation of potential suppliers should be evaluated and verified during the RFP process, but they may not guarantee that the supplier will include audit trails in the design.
Vendor employee background checks should be conducted regularly (D) is not the best answer, because it is a measure that affects the security and trustworthiness of the vendor, not the design of the financial application system. Vendor employee background checks should be performed as part of the vendor management and due diligence process, but they may not ensure that the vendor will include audit trails in the design.
Which of the following should be the FIRST step in a data migration project?
Reviewing decisions on how business processes should be conducted in the new system
Completing data cleanup in the current database to eliminate inconsistencies
Understanding the new system's data structure
Creating data conversion scripts
Data migration is the process of moving data from one system to another, which may involve changes in storage, database, or application. To perform a successful data migration, it is essential to understand the data structure of the new system, which defines how the data is organized, stored, and accessed. Understanding the new system’s data structure will help determine the following aspects of the data migration project:
The scope and requirements of the data migration, such as what data needs to be migrated, how much data needs to be migrated, and what are the quality and performance expectations.
The data mapping and transformation rules, such as how the data elements from the source system correspond to the data elements in the target system, and what transformations or conversions are needed to ensure compatibility and consistency.
The data validation and testing methods, such as how to verify that the migrated data is accurate, complete, and functional in the new system, and how to identify and resolve any errors or issues.
Therefore, understanding the new system’s data structure is a crucial first step in a data migration project, as it lays the foundation for the subsequent steps of data extraction, transformation, loading, validation, and testing.
Which of the following is BEST used for detailed testing of a business application's data and configuration files?
Version control software
Audit hooks
Utility software
Audit analytics tool
The best tool for detailed testing of a business application’s data and configuration files is an audit analytics tool. An audit analytics tool is a software that helps auditors to analyze large sets of data and identify anomalies, trends, and patterns that are relevant to the audit objectives. An audit analytics tool can also provide audit evidence and support the auditor’s professional judgment and conclusions.
Some of the benefits of using an audit analytics tool are:
It can improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the audit by reducing the time and effort required to perform manual tests and procedures.
It can enhance the quality and reliability of the audit by increasing the coverage and accuracy of the data analysis and testing.
It can enable the auditor to perform more complex and sophisticated tests and procedures that may not be possible or feasible with traditional methods.
It can help the auditor to discover new insights and risks that may not be apparent or detectable with traditional methods.
Some examples of audit analytics tools are:
IDEA: A data analysis software that allows auditors to import, analyze, and visualize data from various sources and formats. It also offers features such as sampling, stratification, gap analysis, duplicate detection, Benford’s law, and regression analysis.1
ACL: A data analysis software that helps auditors to access, analyze, and report on data from various sources and formats. It also offers features such as sampling, stratification, gap analysis, duplicate detection, Benford’s law, regression analysis, and scripting.2
TeamMate Analytics: A data analysis software that integrates with Microsoft Excel and provides auditors with a range of tools and functions to perform data analysis and testing. It also offers features such as sampling, stratification, gap analysis, duplicate detection, Benford’s law, regression analysis, and scripting.3
An IS auditor reviewing incident response management processes notices that resolution times for reoccurring incidents have not shown improvement. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST recommendation?
Harden IT system and application components based on best practices.
Incorporate a security information and event management (SIEM) system into incident response
Implement a survey to determine future incident response training needs.
Introduce problem management into incident response.
The auditor’s best recommendation is D. Introduce problem management into incident response. Problem management is a practice that aims to identify, analyze, and resolve the root causes of recurring incidents, and prevent or reduce their impact in the future1. Problem management can help improve the resolution times for recurring incidents by eliminating or mitigating the underlying problems that cause them, and by providing permanent solutions that can be reused or automated2. Problem management can also help improve the quality and efficiency of incident response by reducing the workload and complexity of dealing with repetitive issues2.
Which of the following would be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing the organization's business continuity plan (BCP)?
The recovery plan does not contain the process and application dependencies.
The duration of tabletop exercises is longer than the recovery point objective (RPO).
The duration of tabletop exercises is longer than the recovery time objective (RTO).
The recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (R TO) are not the same.
A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its critical functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include the following elements1:
Business impact analysis: This is the process of identifying and prioritizing the key business processes and assets that are essential for the organization’s survival and recovery.
Risk assessment: This is the process of identifying and evaluating the potential threats and vulnerabilities that could affect the organization’s business continuity.
Recovery strategies: These are the actions and procedures that the organization will implement to restore its normal operations as quickly and effectively as possible after a disruption or disaster.
Recovery objectives: These are the metrics that define the acceptable level of recovery for the organization’s business processes and assets. The two main recovery objectives are:
Recovery point objective (RPO): This is the maximum amount of data loss that the organization can tolerate in terms of time. For example, an RPO of one hour means that the organization can afford to lose up to one hour’s worth of data after a disruption or disaster.
Recovery time objective (RTO): This is the maximum amount of time that the organization can tolerate to restore its normal operations after a disruption or disaster. For example, an RTO of four hours means that the organization must resume its normal operations within four hours after a disruption or disaster.
Testing and validation: This is the process of verifying and evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the BCP and its components. Testing and validation can include various methods, such as:
Tabletop exercises: These are discussion-based sessions where team members meet in an informal setting to review and discuss their roles and responsibilities during a disruption or disaster scenario. A facilitator guides participants through a discussion of one or more scenarios2.
Simulation exercises: These are more realistic and interactive sessions where team members perform their roles and responsibilities during a simulated disruption or disaster scenario. A facilitator controls and monitors the simulation and injects events and challenges3.
Full-scale exercises: These are the most complex and realistic sessions where team members perform their roles and responsibilities during a real-life disruption or disaster scenario. A facilitator coordinates and evaluates the exercise with external stakeholders, such as emergency services, media, or customers4.
As an IS auditor, your greatest concern when reviewing the organization’s BCP would be A. The recovery plan does not contain the process and application dependencies.
Which of the following would be an auditor's GREATEST concern when reviewing data inputs from spreadsheets into the core finance system?
Undocumented code formats data and transmits directly to the database.
There is not a complete inventory of spreadsheets, and file naming is inconsistent.
The department data protection policy has not been reviewed or updated for two years.
Spreadsheets are accessible by all members of the finance department.
The auditor’s greatest concern when reviewing data inputs from spreadsheets into the core finance system would be undocumented code that formats data and transmits directly to the database. This is because undocumented code can introduce errors, inconsistencies, and security risks in the data processing and reporting. Undocumented code can also make it difficult to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data inputs and outputs, as well as to trace the source and destination of the data. Undocumented code can also violate the principles of segregation of duties, as the same person who creates the code may also have access to the data and the database.
The other options are not as concerning as undocumented code, although they may also pose some risks. A lack of complete inventory of spreadsheets and inconsistent file naming may make it challenging to identify and locate the relevant spreadsheets, but they do not directly affect the quality or integrity of the data inputs. The department data protection policy not being reviewed or updated for two years may indicate a lack of awareness or compliance with the current data protection regulations, but it does not necessarily imply that the data inputs are compromised or inaccurate. Spreadsheets being accessible by all members of the finance department may increase the risk of unauthorized or accidental changes to the data, but it can be mitigated by implementing access controls, password protection, and audit trails.
Which of the following is MOST important to include in security awareness training?
How to respond to various types of suspicious activity
The importance of complex passwords
Descriptions of the organization's security infrastructure
Contact information for the organization's security team
The most important thing to include in security awareness training is how to respond to various types of suspicious activity. Security awareness training is a program that educates employees about the importance of security and how to avoid common threats and risks. One of the main objectives of security awareness training is to enable employees to recognize and report any signs of malicious or unauthorized activity, such as phishing emails, malware infections, data breaches, or social engineering attempts. By teaching employees how to respond to various types of suspicious activity, security awareness training can help to prevent or mitigate the impact of security incidents, protect the organization’s assets and reputation, and comply with legal and regulatory requirements.
The other options are not as important as option A. The importance of complex passwords is a useful topic, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Complex passwords are passwords that are hard to guess or crack by using a combination of letters, numbers, symbols, and cases. Complex passwords can help to protect user accounts and data from unauthorized access, but they are not sufficient to prevent all types of security incidents. Moreover, complex passwords may be difficult to remember or manage by users, and may require additional measures such as password managers or multi-factor authentication. Descriptions of the organization’s security infrastructure is a technical topic, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Security infrastructure is the set of hardware, software, policies, and procedures that provide the foundation for the organization’s security posture and capabilities. Security infrastructure may include firewalls, antivirus software, encryption tools, access control systems, backup systems, etc. Descriptions of the organization’s security infrastructure may be relevant for some employees who are involved in security operations or administration, but they may not be necessary or understandable for all employees who need security awareness training. Contact information for the organization’s security team is a practical detail, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Security team is the group of people who are responsible for planning, implementing, monitoring, and improving the organization’s security strategy and activities. Contact information for the organization’s security team may be useful for employees who need to report or escalate a security issue or request a security service or support. However, contact information for the organization’s security team is not enough to ensure that employees know how to respond to various types of suspicious activity. References: Security Awareness Training | SANS Security Awareness, Security AwarenessTraining | KnowBe4, SecurityAwareness Training Course (ISC)² | Coursera
In a large organization, IT deadlines on important projects have been missed because IT resources are not prioritized properly. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this problem?
Revisit the IT strategic plan.
Implement project portfolio management.
Implement an integrated resource management system.
Implement a comprehensive project scorecard.
The best recommendation to address the problem of missing IT deadlines on important projects because IT resources are not prioritized properly is to implement project portfolio management (PPM). PPM is the process of analyzing and optimizing the costs, resources, technologies, and processes for all the projects and programs within a portfolio. A portfolio is a collection of projects, programs, and processes that are managed together and aligned with the strategic goals and objectives of the organization. PPM can help the organization to:
Prioritize the most valuable and relevant projects and programs based on their alignment with the organizational strategy, vision, and mission.
Balance the portfolio to ensure that the projects and programs are diversified, feasible, and sustainable, and that they meet the needs and expectations of the stakeholders.
Optimize the allocation, utilization, and coordination of IT resources across the portfolio, such as staff, budget, time, equipment, and software.
Monitor and control the performance and progress of the projects and programs within the portfolio, and evaluate their outcomes and benefits.
By implementing PPM, the organization can improve its IT project delivery and avoid missing deadlines. PPM can also help the organization to increase its efficiency, effectiveness, quality, and value. For more information about PPM, you can refer to the following web search results:
Project Portfolio Management (PPM): The Ultimate Guide - ProjectManager1
A Complete Overview of Project Portfolio Management - Smartsheet2
PPM 101: What Is Project Portfolio Management?3
The PRIMARY objective of a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:
educate functional areas on risks and controls.
ensure appropriate access controls are implemented.
eliminate the audit risk by leveraging management's analysis.
gain assurance for business functions that cannot be audited.
The primary objective of a control self-assessment (CSA) is to educate functional areas on risks and controls. CSA is a technique that allows managers and work teams directly involved in business units, functions or processes to participate in assessing the organization’s risk management and control processes1. CSA can help functional areas to obtain a clear and shared understanding of their major activities and objectives, to foster an improved awareness of risk and controls among management and staff, to enhance responsibility and accountability for risks and controls, and to highlight best practices and opportunities to improve business performance2.
The other options are not the primary objective of a CSA. Ensuring appropriate access controls are implemented is a specific type of control that may be assessed by a CSA, but it is not the main goal of the technique. Eliminating the audit risk by leveraging management’s analysis is not a realistic or desirable outcome of a CSA, as audit risk can never be completely eliminated, and management’s analysis may not be sufficient or reliable without independent verification. Gaining assurance for business functions that cannot be audited is not a valid reason for conducting a CSA, as all business functions should be subject to audit, and a CSA is not a substitute for an audit.
A transaction processing system interfaces with the general ledger. Data analytics has identified that some transactions are being recorded twice in the general ledger. While management states a system fix has been implemented, what should the IS auditor recommend to validate the interface is working in the future?
Perform periodic reconciliations.
Ensure system owner sign-off for the system fix.
Conduct functional testing.
Improve user acceptance testing (UAT).
A transaction processing system (TPS) is a system that captures, processes, and stores data related to business transactions1. A general ledger is a system that records the financial transactions of an organization in different accounts2. An interface is a connection point between two systems that allows data exchange3. A system fix is a change or update to a system that resolves a problem or improves its functionality4.
The IS auditor should recommend to perform periodic reconciliations to validate the interface between the TPS and the general ledger is working in the future. A reconciliation is a process of comparing and verifying the data in two systems to ensure accuracy and consistency1. By performing periodic reconciliations, the IS auditor can detect and correct any errors or discrepancies in the data, such as duplicate transactions, missing transactions, or incorrect amounts. This way, the IS auditor can ensure the reliability and integrity of the financial data in both systems.
The other options are not as effective as periodic reconciliations to validate the interface. System owner sign-off for the system fix is a form of approval that indicates the system owner agrees with the change and its expected outcome4. However, this does not guarantee that the system fix will work as intended or prevent future errors. Conducting functional testing is a process of verifying that the system performs its intended functions correctly and meets its requirements4. However, this is usually done before or after the system fix is implemented, not on an ongoing basis. Improving user acceptance testing (UAT) is a process of evaluating whether the system meets the needs and expectations of the end users4. However, this is also done before or after the system fix is implemented, not on an ongoing basis. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
In which of the following sampling methods is the entire sample considered to be irregular if a single error is found?
Discovery sampling
Variable sampling
Stop-or-go sampling
Judgmental sampling
The sampling method in which the entire sample is considered to be irregular if a single error is found is discovery sampling. Discovery sampling is a type of statistical sampling that is used to test for the existence of at least one occurrence of a specific characteristic or condition in a population. Discovery sampling is often used when the auditor expects the characteristic or condition to be very rare or nonexistent, and when any occurrence would have a significant impact on the audit objective. For example, discovery sampling can be used to test for fraud, noncompliance, or material misstatement.
Discovery sampling works by setting a very low tolerable error rate (the maximum rate of occurrence of the characteristic or condition that the auditor is willing to accept) and a high confidence level (the degree of assurance that the auditor wants to obtain). The auditor then selects a sample from the population using a random or systematic method, and examines each item in the sample for the presence or absence of the characteristic or condition. If no error is found in the sample, the auditor can conclude with a high level of confidence that the characteristic or condition does not exist or is very rare in the population. However, if one or more errors are found in the sample, the auditor cannot draw any conclusion about the population and must either expand the sample size or perform alternative procedures.
Discovery sampling differs from other sampling methods in that it does not allow for any errors in the sample. Other sampling methods, such as variable sampling, stop-or-go sampling, or judgmental sampling, can tolerate some errors in the sample and use them to estimate the error rate or amount in the population. However, discovery sampling is designed to test for zero-tolerance situations, where any error would be unacceptable or material. Therefore, discovery sampling considers the entire sample to be irregular if a single error is found.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for patching mission critical business application servers against known vulnerabilities?
Patches are implemented in a test environment prior to rollout into production.
Network vulnerability scans are conducted after patches are implemented.
Vulnerability assessments are periodically conducted according to defined schedules.
Roles and responsibilities for implementing patches are defined
The most important consideration for patching mission critical business application servers against known vulnerabilities is A. Patches are implemented in a test environment prior to rollout into production. This is because patching mission critical business application servers involves a high level of risk and complexity, and requires careful planning and testing before applying the patches to the live environment. Patches may introduce new bugs, errors, or conflicts that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the application servers, and cause system downtime, data loss, or business disruption1. Therefore, it is essential to implement patches in atest environment first, where the patches can be verified and validated for their effectiveness and compatibility, and any issues or defects can be identified and resolved before they impact the production environment2.
A business has requested an audit to determine whether information stored in an application is adequately protected. Which of the following is the MOST important action before the audit work begins?
Review remediation reports
Establish control objectives.
Assess the threat landscape.
Perform penetration testing.
The most important action before the audit work begins is to establish control objectives. Control objectives are the specific goals or outcomes that the audit intends to achieve or verify in relation to the information protection in the application1. Control objectives provide the basis for designing and performing the audit procedures, evaluating the audit evidence, and reporting the audit findings and recommendations2. Control objectives also help to align the audit scope and criteria with the business needs and expectations, and to ensure that the audit is relevant, reliable, and efficient3.
Some examples of control objectives for an information protection audit are:
To ensure that the information stored in the application is classified according to its sensitivity, value, and regulatory requirements
To ensure that the information stored in the application is encrypted, masked, or anonymized as appropriate
To ensure that the information stored in the application is accessible only by authorized users and processes
To ensure that the information stored in the application is backed up, restored, and retained according to the business continuity and retention policies
To ensure that the information stored in the application is monitored, logged, and audited for any unauthorized or anomalous activities
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Option A is not correct because reviewing remediation reports is not the most important action before the audit work begins. Remediation reports are documents that describe how previous audit findings or issues have been resolved or addressed by the auditee4. While reviewing remediation reports may be useful for understanding the current state of information protection in the application, it is not a prerequisite for defining the control objectives of the audit.
Option C is not correct because assessing the threat landscape is not the most important action before the audit work begins. The threat landscape is the set of potential sources, methods, and impacts of cyberattacks or data breaches that may affect the information stored in the application5. While assessing the threat landscape may be helpful for identifying and prioritizing the risks and vulnerabilities of information protection in the application, it is not a prerequisite for defining the control objectives of the audit.
Option D is not correct because performing penetration testing is not the most important action before the audit work begins. Penetration testing is a technique that simulates real-world cyberattacks or data breaches to test the security and resilience of information systems or applications.
Which type of risk would MOST influence the selection of a sampling methodology?
Inherent
Residual
Control
Detection
The type of risk that would most influence the selection of a sampling methodology is detection risk (option D). This is because:
Detection risk is the risk that the auditor will not detect a material misstatement that exists in an assertion1. Detection risk depends on the effectiveness of the audit procedures and how well they are applied by the auditor1.
The selection of a sampling methodology is part of the design of audit procedures, which aims to reduce detection risk to an acceptable level1. The auditor should consider the following factors when selecting a sampling methodology23:
The objectives of the audit procedure and the related assertions.
The characteristics of the population from which the sample will be drawn, such as its size, homogeneity, and structure.
The sampling technique to be used, such as random, systematic, haphazard, or judgmental.
The sample size and the method of selecting sample items.
The evaluation of the sample results and the projection of errors to the population.
The auditor should also consider the advantages and disadvantages of different sampling methodologies, such as statistical and non-statistical sampling23. Statistical sampling is a sampling technique that uses random selection and probability theory to evaluate sample results. Non-statistical sampling is a sampling technique that does not use random selection or probability theory to evaluate sample results. Some of the advantages and disadvantages are as follows23:
Statistical sampling allows the auditor to measure and control sampling risk, which is the risk that the sample is not representative of the population. Statistical sampling also allows the auditor to quantify the precision and reliability of the sample results. However, statistical sampling requires more technical knowledge and skills, as well as more time and cost, than non-statistical sampling.
Non-statistical sampling relies on the auditor’s professional judgment and experience to select and evaluate sample items. Non-statistical sampling is more flexible and less complex than statistical sampling. However, non-statistical sampling does not provide an objective basis for measuring and controlling sampling risk, nor does it allow the auditor to quantify the precision and reliability of the sample results.
Therefore, the type of risk that would most influence the selection of a sampling methodology is detection risk (option D), as it determines how effective and efficient the audit procedures should be in order to provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
An organization that operates an e-commerce website wants to provide continuous service to its customers and is planning to invest in a hot site due to service criticality. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when making this decision?
Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)
Recovery time objective (RTO)
Recovery point objective (RPO)
Mean time to repair (MTTR)
The recovery time objective (RTO) is the most important consideration when making a decision to invest in a hot site due to service criticality. The RTO is the maximum acceptable time that an IT service or process can be unavailable or disrupted before it causes significant damage to the business operations and objectives. A hot site is a fully equipped and operational backup facility that can be activated immediately in the event of a disaster or disruption. A hot site can help an organization achieve a very low RTO, as it can resume the service with minimal or no downtime. The maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) is the maximum acceptable time that an IT service or process can be unavailable or disrupted before it causes intolerable damage to the business operations and objectives. The MTD is usually longer than the RTO, as it represents the worst-case scenario. The recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that an IT service or process can tolerate in the event of a disaster or disruption. The RPO is measured in terms of time, such as hours or minutes, and indicates how frequently the data should be backed up or replicated. The mean time to repair (MTTR) is the average time that it takes to restore an IT service or process after a failure or disruption. The MTTR is a measure of the efficiency and effectiveness of the recovery process, but it does not reflect the service criticality or the business impact. References: IS Audit and Assurance Tools and Techniques, CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA
Audit observations should be FIRST communicated with the auditee:
when drafting the report.
during fieldwork.
at the end of fieldwork.
within the audit report
Audit observations are the findings and recommendations that result from an audit engagement. Audit observations should be first communicated with the auditee during fieldwork, which is the stage of the audit process where the auditor collects and analyzes evidence to evaluate the audit objectives1. Communicating audit observations during fieldwork has several benefits, such as2:
It allows the auditor to verify the accuracy and completeness of the observations, and to obtain additional information or clarification from the auditee if needed.
It enables the auditor to discuss the root causes, impacts, and risks of the observations, and to solicit the auditee’s input on possible corrective actions and implementation timelines.
It helps to build rapport and trust between the auditor and the auditee, and to avoid surprises or disagreements at the end of the audit.
It facilitates timely resolution of audit observations, and reduces the risk of audit delays or disputes.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Option A is not correct because communicating audit observations when drafting the report is too late, as it may lead to misunderstandings, conflicts, or revisions that could have been avoided if the observations were communicated earlier. Option C is not correct because communicating audit observations at the end of fieldwork is also not ideal, as it may not leave enough time for the auditor and the auditee to discuss and agree on the observations and recommendations. Option D is not correct because communicating audit observations within the audit report is the final step of the audit process, not the first.
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing an effective security awareness program?
Training personnel are information security professionals.
Outcome metrics for the program are established.
Security threat scenarios are included in the program content.
Phishing exercises are conducted post-training
The most important factor to ensure when developing an effective security awareness program is B. Outcome metrics for the program are established. This is because outcome metrics are measures that evaluate the impact and results of the security awareness program on the behavior and performance of the users, and the security posture and objectives of the organization1. Outcome metrics can help ensure the effectiveness of the security awareness program by:
Providing feedback and evidence on whether the security awareness program is achieving its goals and expectations, such as reducing the number of incidents, improving the compliance rate, or increasing the reporting rate1.
Identifying and quantifying the strengths and weaknesses of the security awareness program, and enabling continuous improvement and optimization of the program content, delivery, and frequency1.
Demonstrating and communicating the value and return on investment of the security awareness program to the stakeholders and management, and securing their support and commitment for the program1.
Which of the following controls is MOST important for ensuring the integrity of system interfaces?
Periodic audits
File counts
File checksums
IT operator monitoring
File checksums are values that are calculated from the contents of a file and can detect any changes or corruption in the file. They are used to verify that the files that are transferred or processed through system interfaces are not altered in any way. File checksums are more effective than periodic audits, file counts, or IT operator monitoring, which are other types of controls that can help ensure the integrity of system interfaces, but they are not as reliable or timely as file checksums.
Which of the following is MOST helpful for an IS auditor to review when evaluating an organizations business process that are supported by applications and IT systems?
Configuration management database (CMDB)
Enterprise architecture (EA)
IT portfolio management
IT service management
The most helpful thing for an IS auditor to review when evaluating an organization’s business processes that are supported by applications and IT systems is the enterprise architecture (EA). EA is the practice of designing a business with a holistic view, considering all of its parts and how they interact. EA defines the overall goals, the strategies that support those goals, and the tactics that are needed to execute those strategies. EA also outlines the ways various components of IT projects interact with one another and with the business processes. By reviewing the EA, an IS auditor can gain a comprehensive understanding of how the organization aligns its IT efforts with its overall mission, business strategy, and priorities. An IS auditor can also assess the effectiveness, efficiency, agility, and continuity of complex business operations.
The other options are not as helpful as option B. A configuration management database (CMDB) is a database that stores and manages information about the components that make up an IT system. A CMDB tracks individual configuration items (CIs), such as hardware, software, or data assets, and their attributes, dependencies, and changes over time. A CMDB can help an IS auditor to monitor the performance, availability, and configuration of IT assets, but it does not provide a holistic view of how they support the business processes. IT portfolio management is the practice of managing IT investments, projects, and activities as a portfolio. IT portfolio management aims to optimize the value, risk, and cost of IT initiatives and align them with the business objectives. IT portfolio management can help an IS auditor to evaluate the return on IT investments and the alignment of IT projects with the business strategy, but it does not provide a detailed view of how they support the business processes. IT service management (ITSM) is the practice of planning, implementing, managing, and optimizing IT services to meet the needs of end users and customers. ITSM focuses on delivering IT as a service using standardized processes and best practices. ITSM can help an IS auditor to review the quality, efficiency, and effectiveness of IT service delivery and support, but it does not provide a comprehensive view of how they support the business processes. References: What is enterprise architecture (EA)? - RingCentral, What is a configuration management database (CMDB)? - Red Hat, IT Portfolio Management Strategies | Smartsheet, What is IT service management (ITSM)? | IBM
Which of the following is the MOST effective control over visitor access to highly secured areas?
Visitors are required to be escorted by authorized personnel.
Visitors are required to use biometric authentication.
Visitors are monitored online by security cameras
Visitors are required to enter through dead-man doors.
The most effective control over visitor access to highly secured areas is to require visitors to be escorted by authorized personnel. This control ensures that visitors are supervised at all times and do not enter any restricted or sensitive areas without permission. It also allows authorized personnel to verify the identity, purpose, and clearance of the visitors, and to monitor their behavior and activities. Escorting visitors also reduces the risk of tailgating, piggybacking, or unauthorized duplication of access credentials.
Requiring visitors to use biometric authentication, monitoring visitors online by security cameras, and requiring visitors to enter through dead-man doors are all examples of technical controls that can enhance visitor access control, but they are not as effective as escorting visitors. Biometric authentication can provide a high level of identity verification, but it does not prevent visitors from accessing unauthorized areas or compromising security in other ways. Security cameras can provide a record of visitor movements and actions, but they may not deter or detect security breaches in real time. Dead-man doors can prevent unauthorized entry by requiring two-factor authentication, but they do not ensure that visitors are accompanied by authorized personnel.
An IS auditor has identified deficiencies within the organization's software development life cycle policies. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
Document the findings in the audit report.
Identify who approved the policies.
Escalate the situation to the lead auditor.
Communicate the observation to the auditee.
An IS auditor has identified deficiencies within the organization’s software development life cycle (SDLC) policies. The SDLC is the process of planning, developing, testing, and deploying software applications1. SDLC policies are the guidelines and standards that govern the SDLC process and ensure its quality, security, and compliance2. Deficiencies in SDLC policies can lead to various risks, such as:
Software errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities that can affect the functionality, reliability, or security of the applications3
Software failures, delays, or overruns that can affect the delivery, performance, or customer satisfaction of the applications3
Software non-compliance that can result in legal, regulatory, or contractual violations or penalties3
The next step that the IS auditor should do after identifying deficiencies in SDLC policies is to communicate the observation to the auditee. The auditee is the person or entity that is subject to the audit and is responsible for the area being audited4. In this case, the auditee could be the software development manager, the project manager, or the senior management of the organization. Communicating the observation to the auditee is important for several reasons:
It allows the IS auditor to verify the accuracy and validity of the observation and gather additional evidence or information from the auditee4
It gives the auditee an opportunity to respond to the observation and provide their perspective, explanation, or justification for the deficiencies4
It enables the IS auditor to discuss with the auditee the potential impact, root cause, and remediation plan for the deficiencies4
It fosters a collaborative and constructive relationship between the IS auditor and the auditee and promotes transparency and accountability in the audit process4
The other options are not as appropriate as communicating the observation to the auditee. Documenting the findings in the audit report is a later stepthat should be done after communicating with the auditee and finalizing the observation. Identifying who approved the policies is not relevant for addressing the deficiencies and may imply blame or fault on a specific person or group. Escalating the situation to the lead auditor is not necessary unless there is a serious disagreement or conflict with the auditee that cannot be resolved by normal communication. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
The PRIMARY responsibility of a project steering committee is to:
sign off on the final build document.
ensure that each project deadline is met.
ensure that developed systems meet business needs.
provide regular project updates and oversight.
The primary responsibility of a project steering committee is to provide regular project updates and oversight. A project steering committee is an advisory group that consists of senior stakeholders and experts who offer guidance and support to a project manager and their team. The steering committee is mainly concerned with the direction, scope, budget, timeline, and methods used to realize a given project1.
One of the key roles of a steering committee is to monitor the progress and performance of the project and ensure that it aligns with the business objectives and stakeholder expectations. The steering committee also provides feedback, advice, and recommendations to the project manager and helps them resolve any issues or challenges that may arise during the project lifecycle. The steering committee communicates regularly with the project manager and other stakeholders through meetings, reports, and presentations23.
Therefore, providing regular project updates and oversight is the primary responsibility of a project steering committee.
The BEST way to evaluate the effectiveness of a newly developed application is to:
perform a post-implementation review-
analyze load testing results.
perform a secure code review.
review acceptance testing results.
The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a newly developed application is to review acceptance testing results. Acceptance testing is a process of verifying that the application meets the specified requirements and expectations of the users and stakeholders. Acceptance testing results can provide evidence of the functionality, usability, reliability, performance, security and quality of the application. Performing a post-implementation review, analyzing load testing results, and performing a secure code review are also important activities for evaluating an application, but they are not as comprehensive or conclusive as acceptance testing results.
An IS audit reveals an IT application is experiencing poor performance including data inconsistency and integrity issues. What is the MOST likely cause?
Database clustering
Data caching
Reindexing of the database table
Load balancing
Data caching is the most likely cause of poor performance, data inconsistency and integrity issues in an IT application, because it involves storing frequently accessed data in a temporary memory location (cache) to reduce the latency and bandwidth consumption of retrieving data from the original source. However, data caching can also introduce problems such as stale data (when the cache is not updated with changes made to the original source), cache coherence (when multiple caches store copies of the same data and need to be synchronized), and cache corruption (when the cache is damaged or tampered with).
Database clustering is not a likely cause of poor performance, data inconsistency and integrity issues, because it involves distributing data across multiple servers or nodes to improve availability, scalability and load balancing of database operations. Database clustering can also enhance data consistency and integrity by using replication and synchronization mechanisms to ensure that all nodes have the same view of the data.
Reindexing of the database table is not a likely cause of poor performance, data inconsistency and integrity issues, because it involves rebuilding or reorganizing indexes on tables or views to improve query performance and reduce fragmentation of index pages. Reindexing can also improve data consistency and integrity by ensuring that indexes reflect the current state of the data in the tables or views.
Load balancing is not a likely cause of poor performance, data inconsistency and integrity issues, because it involves distributing workloads across multiple servers or resources to optimize resource utilization, throughput and response time of applications. Load balancing can also enhance data consistency and integrity by using algorithms and protocols to route requests to the most appropriate server or resource based on availability, capacity and performance.
Which of the following should an IS auditor use when verifying a three-way match has occurred in an enterprise resource planning (ERR) system?
Bank confirmation
Goods delivery notification
Purchase requisition
Purchase order
A three-way match is a process of verifying that a purchase order, a goods receipt and an invoice are consistent before making a payment1. A three-way match ensures that the organization only pays for the goods or services that it ordered and received, and that the prices and quantities are accurate. A three-way match can prevent errors, fraud and overpayments in the accounts payable process.
An IS auditor should use a purchase order when verifying a three-way match has occurred in an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. A purchase order is a document that authorizes a purchase transaction and specifies the items, quantities, prices and terms of the order2. A purchase order is the first document in the three-way match process, and it serves as the basis for comparing the goods receipt and the invoice. An IS auditor can use a purchase order to check if the ERP system has correctly recorded, matched and approved the three documents before making a payment.
The other options are not as useful for verifying a three-way match. A bank confirmation is a document that verifies the balance and activity of a bank account3. A bank confirmation can be used to confirm that a payment has been made or received, but it does not provide information about the details of the purchase transaction or the three-way match process. A goods delivery notification is a document that informs the buyer that the goods have been shipped or delivered by the seller4. A goods delivery notification can be used to track the status of the delivery, but it does not provide information about the quantity or quality of the goods or the invoice amount. A purchase requisition is a document that requests authorization to purchase goods or services from a specific supplier2. A purchase requisition can be used to initiate the purchasing process, but it does not provide information about the actual purchase order, goods receipt or invoice.
The FIRST step in an incident response plan is to:
validate the incident.
notify the head of the IT department.
isolate systems impacted by the incident.
initiate root cause analysis.
The first step in an incident response plan is typically preparation12. However, among the options provided, validating the incident would be the first step. This involves confirming that a security event is actually an incident3. It’s important to verify the event to avoid wasting resources on false positives.
Which of the following provides the MOST protection against emerging threats?
Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
Heuristic intrusion detection system (IDS)
Real-time updating of antivirus software
Signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS)
A heuristic intrusion detection system (IDS) provides the most protection against emerging threats, as it uses behavioral analysis and anomaly detection to identify unknown or zero-day attacks. A heuristic IDS can adapt to changing patterns and learn from previous incidents, making it more effective than a signature-based IDS, which relies on predefined rules and signatures to detect known attacks. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a network segment that separates the internal network from the external network, and it can provide some protection against external threats, but not against internal or emerging threats. Real-time updating of antivirus software is important to protect against malware, but it may not be sufficient to prevent new or sophisticated attacks that exploit unknown vulnerabilities. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 452-453.
The use of control totals reduces the risk of:
posting to the wrong record.
incomplete processing.
improper backup.
improper authorization.
Control totals are a method of verifying the accuracy and completeness of data processing by comparing the totals of key fields in input and output records1. Control totals can be used to reduce the risk of incomplete processing, which is the failure to process all the data or transactions that are expected or required2.
Incomplete processing can result in data loss, inconsistency, or incompleteness, which can affect the quality and reliability of the information system and its outputs. Incomplete processing can be caused by various factors, such as:
Hardware or software failures that interrupt the processing or transmission of data2
Human errors or omissions that skip or miss some data or transactions2
Malicious attacks or unauthorized access that delete or modify some data or transactions2
Environmental hazards or disasters that damage or destroy some data or transactions2
Control totals can help detect and prevent incomplete processing by:
Providing a benchmark or reference point to compare the input and output data or transactions1
Identifying any discrepancies or deviations from the expected or required totals1
Alerting the users or operators to investigate and resolve the causes of incomplete processing1
Ensuring that all the data or transactions are properly transmitted, converted, and processed1
The other options are not as relevant as control totals for reducing the risk of incomplete processing. Posting to the wrong record is the error of assigning or transferring data or transactions to an incorrect account, file, or record3. Improper backup is the failure to create, store, or restore copies of data or transactions in case of loss, corruption, or damage4. Improper authorization is the lack of proper permission or approval to access, modify,or process data or transactions. Control totals may not be able to prevent or detect these errors or failures, as they are not related to the completeness of data processing. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements appearing in an organization's acceptable use policy BEST demonstrates alignment with data classification standards related to the protection of information assets?
Any information assets transmitted over a public network must be approved by executive management.
All information assets must be encrypted when stored on the organization's systems.
Information assets should only be accessed by persons with a justified need.
All information assets will be assigned a clearly defined level to facilitate proper employee handling.
The statement that BEST demonstrates alignment with data classification standards related to the protection of information assets is D. All information assets will be assigned a clearly defined level to facilitate proper employee handling. Data classification involves categorizing information assets based on their sensitivity, importance, and usage. Assigning clearly defined levels (such as public, internal, confidential, etc.) to information assets ensures that appropriate security controls are applied based on their classification. By doing so, organizations can manage access, encryption, and other protective measures effectively12.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable way for an IS auditor to evaluate the operational effectiveness of an organization's data loss prevention (DLP) controls?
Review data classification levels based on industry best practice
Verify that current DLP software is installed on all computer systems.
Conduct interviews to identify possible data protection vulnerabilities.
Verify that confidential files cannot be transmitted to a personal USB device.
The most reliable way for an IS auditor to evaluate the operational effectiveness of an organization’s data loss prevention (DLP) controls is to verify that confidential files cannot be transmitted to a personal USB device. This is because DLP controls are designed to prevent the loss, leakage or misuse of sensitive data through breaches, ex-filtration transmissions and unauthorized use1. A personal USB device is a common way for data to be stolen or compromised, as it can bypass network security measures and allow unauthorized access to confidential files. Therefore, testing the DLP controls by attempting to copy or transfer confidential files to a personal USB device can provide a direct and objective evidence of whether the DLP controls are working as intended or not.
The other options are less reliable ways for an IS auditor to evaluate the operational effectiveness of an organization’s DLP controls. Reviewing data classification levels based on industry best practice is a way to assess the adequacy of the organization’s data protection policies, but it does not measure how well the DLP controls are implemented or enforced in practice. Verifying that current DLP software is installed on all computer systems is a way to check the technical configuration of the DLP solution, but it does not test how well the DLP software detects and prevents data loss incidents in real scenarios. Conducting interviews to identify possible data protection vulnerabilities is a way to gather qualitative information from stakeholders, but it does not provide quantitative or empirical data on the actual performance of the DLP controls.
A national tax administration agency with a distributed network experiences service disruptions due to a large influx of traffic to a regional office near the end of each year. Which of the following would BEST enable the agency to improve the performance of its servers during the busy period?
Virtual firewall
Proxy server
Load balancer
Virtual private network (VPN)
A load balancer is a tool or application that distributes incoming network traffic among multiple servers in a server farm, so that no server is overwhelmed and the performance of the system is optimized1. A load balancer can help the agency to handle the large influx of traffic to a regional office by balancing the workload among the available servers and preventing service disruptions. A load balancer can also provide high availability and fault tolerance by rerouting traffic to online servers if a server becomes unavailable2.
A virtual firewall is a software-based firewall that protects a virtual network or environment from unauthorized access and malicious attacks. A virtualfirewall can enhance the security of the agency’s network, but it does not improve the performance of its servers.
A proxy server is an intermediary server that acts as a gateway between the client and the destination server, hiding the client’s IP address and providing caching and filtering functions. A proxy server can improve the security and privacy of the agency’s network, but it does not improve the performance of its servers.
A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure connection between two or more devices over a public network, such as the internet. A VPN can encrypt and protect the data transmitted over the network, but it does not improve the performance of the agency’s servers.
Which of the following BEST describes a digital signature?
It is under control of the receiver.
It is capable of authorization.
It dynamically validates modifications of data.
It is unique to the sender using it.
A digital signature is a type of electronic signature that uses cryptographic techniques to provide authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation of digital documents. A digital signature is created by applying a mathematical function (called a hash function) to the document and then encrypting the result with the sender’s private key. The encrypted hash, along with the sender’s public key and other information, forms the digital signature. The receiver can verify the digital signature by decrypting it with the sender’s public key and comparing the hash with the one computed from the document. If they match, it means that the document has not been altered and that it was signed by the owner of the private key.
Option D is correct because a digital signature is unique to the sender using it, as it depends on the sender’s private key, which only the sender knows and controls. No one else can create a valid digital signature with the same private key, and no one can forge or modify a digital signature without being detected.
Option A is incorrect because a digital signature is not under control of the receiver, but rather under control of the sender. The receiver can only verify the digital signature, but cannot create or modify it.
Option B is incorrect because a digital signature is not capable of authorization, but rather capable of authentication. Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on predefined rules or policies. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity or legitimacy of a person or entity. A digital signature can authenticate the sender of a document, but it cannot authorize what actions the receiver can perform on the document.
Option C is incorrect because a digital signature does not dynamically validate modifications of data, but rather statically validates the integrity of data. A digital signature is based on a snapshot of the document at the time of signing, and any subsequent changes to the document will invalidate the digital signature. A digital signature does not monitor or update itself based on data modifications.
A security administrator is called in the middle of the night by the on-call programmer A number of programs have failed, and the programmer has asked for access to the live system. What IS the BEST course of action?
Require that a change request be completed and approved
Give the programmer an emergency ID for temporary access and review the activity
Give the programmer read-only access to investigate the problem
Review activity logs the following day and investigate any suspicious activity
The best course of action for a security administrator who is called in the middle of the night by the on-call programmer who needs access to the live system is to give the programmer an emergency ID for temporary access and review the activity. This is because:
Requiring that a change request be completed and approved may delay the resolution of the problem and cause further damage or disruption to the system or business operations. A change request is a formal document that describes the proposed change, its rationale, impact, benefits, risks, costs, and approval process. A change request is usually required for planned or scheduled changes, not for emergency or urgent changes.
Giving the programmer read-only access to investigate the problem may not be sufficient or effective, as the programmer may need to perform actions or tests that require write or execute permissions. Read-only access means that the user can only view or copy data or files, but cannot modify or delete them.
Reviewing activity logs the following day and investigating any suspicious activity may not prevent or detect any unauthorized or malicious actions by the programmer in real time. Activity logs are records of events and actions that occur within a system or network. Activity logs can provide evidence and accountability for system activities, but they are not proactive or preventive controls.
Therefore, giving the programmer an emergency ID for temporary access and reviewing the activity is the best course of action, as it allows the programmer to access the live system and resolve the problem quickly, while also ensuring that the security administrator can monitor and verify the programmer’s activity and revoke the access when it is no longer needed. An emergency ID is a temporary account that grants a user elevated privileges or access to a system or resource for a specific purpose and duration. An emergency ID should be:
Created and authorized by a security administrator or manager
Assigned to a specific user and purpose
Limited in scope and time
Logged and audited
Revoked and deleted after use
Some of the best practices for emergency access to live systems are12:
Establish clear policies and procedures for requesting, approving, granting, monitoring, reviewing, and revoking emergency access
Define criteria and scenarios for emergency access, such as severity, impact, urgency, and risk
Implement controls to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary use of emergency access, such as multifactor authentication, approval workflows, alerts, notifications, and time restrictions
Implement controls to track and audit emergency access activities, such as logging, reporting, analysis, and investigation
Implement controls to ensure accountability and responsibility for emergency access users, such as attestation, justification, documentation, and feedback
The PRIMARY purpose of an incident response plan is to:
reduce the impact of an adverse event on information assets.
increase the effectiveness of preventive controls.
reduce the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of impacted systems.
increase awareness of impacts from adverse events to IT systems.
The primary purpose of an incident response plan is to reduce the impact of an adverse event on information assets. An incident response plan is a set of instructions and procedures that guide the organization’s actions in the event of a security breach, cyberattack, or other disruption that affects its information systems and data. An incident response plan aims to:
Detect and identify the incident as soon as possible.
Contain and isolate the incident to prevent further damage or spread.
Analyze and investigate the incident to determine its cause, scope, and impact.
Eradicate and eliminate the incident and its root causes from the affected systems and data.
Recover and restore the normal operations and functionality of the systems and data.
Learn and improve from the incident by documenting the lessons learned, best practices, and recommendations for future prevention and mitigation.
By following an incident response plan, the organization can minimize the negative consequences of an adverse event on its information assets, such as:
Loss or corruption of data or information.
Disclosure or theft of confidential or sensitive data or information.
Interruption or degradation of system or service availability or performance.
Legal or regulatory noncompliance or liability.
Financial or reputational loss or damage.
An incident response plan also helps the organization to demonstrate its due diligence and accountability in protecting its information assets and complying with its legal and contractual obligations.
The other options are not the primary purpose of an incident response plan, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of having one.
Increasing the effectiveness of preventive controls is not the primary purpose of an incident response plan. Preventive controls are controls that aim to prevent or deter incidents from occurring in the first place, such as firewalls, antivirus software, encryption, authentication, etc. An incident response plan is a reactive control that deals with incidents after they have occurred. However, an incident response plan may help to improve the effectiveness of preventive controls by identifying and addressing their weaknesses or gaps.
Reducing the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of impacted systems is not the primary purpose of an incident response plan. MTD is a measure of how long an organization can tolerate a system or service outage before it causes unacceptable harm or loss to its business operations or objectives. An incident response plan may help to reduce the MTD of impacted systems by facilitating a faster and smoother recovery process. However, reducing the MTD is not the main goal of an incident response plan, but rather a desired outcome.
Increasing awareness of impacts from adverse events to IT systems is not the primary purpose of an incident response plan. Awareness is a state of being informed or conscious of something. An incident response plan may help to increase awareness of impacts from adverse events to IT systems by providing information and communication channels for stakeholders, such as management, employees, customers, regulators, etc. However, increasing awareness is not the main objective of an incident response plan, but rather a means to achieve other objectives, such as reducing impact, ensuring compliance, or maintaining trust.
The record-locking option of a database management system (DBMS) serves to.
eliminate the risk of concurrent updates to a record
allow database administrators (DBAs) to record the activities of users.
restrict users from changing certain values within records.
allow users to lock others out of their files.
The record-locking option of a database management system (DBMS) serves to eliminate the risk of concurrent updates to a record by different users or transactions. Record locking is a technique of preventing simultaneous access to data in a database, to prevent inconsistent results1. For example, if two bank clerks try to update the same bank account for two different transactions, record locking can ensure that only one clerk can modify the record at a time, while the other has to wait until the lock is released. This way, the record will reflect both transactions correctly and avoid data corruption.
Record locking does not serve to allow database administrators (DBAs) to record the activities of users. This is a function of auditing or logging, which can track the actions performed by users on the database2. Record locking does not affect the ability of DBAs to monitor or audit user activities.
Record locking does not serve to restrict users from changing certain values within records. This is a function of access control or authorization, which can enforce rules or policies on what data users can view or modify2. Record locking does not affect the permissions or privileges of users on the database.
Record locking does not serve to allow users to lock others out of their files. This is a function of encryption or password protection, which can secure files from unauthorized access or modification3. Record locking does not affect the security or confidentiality of files on the database.
Which of the following BEST describes the role of a document owner when implementing a data classification policy in an organization?
Classifies documents to correctly reflect the level of sensitivity of information they contain
Defines the conditions under which documents containing sensitive information may be transmitted
Classifies documents in accordance with industry standards and best practices
Ensures documents are handled in accordance With the sensitivity of information they contain
The role of a document owner when implementing a data classification policy in an organization is to classify documents to correctly reflect the level of sensitivity of information they contain. A document owner is the person who is ultimately responsible for the creation, maintenance, and protection of a document, usually a member of senior management or a business unit1. A data classification policy is a plan that defines how the organization categorizesits data based on its value, risk, and regulatory requirements, and how it handles and secures each data category2.
According to the data classification policy template by Netwrix3, one of the roles and responsibilities of the document owner is to assign data classification labels based on the data’s potential impact level. Data classification labels are tags or markings that indicate the sensitivity level of the data, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted. The document owner should apply the data classification labels to the documents that contain the data, either manually or automatically, using tools and methods such as metadata, watermarks, headers, footers, or encryption. The document owner should also review and update the data classification labels periodically or whenever there is a change in the data’s sensitivity level.
By classifying documents to correctly reflect the level of sensitivity of information they contain, the document owner can help to ensure that the documents are handled in accordance with the data classification policy. This means that the documents are stored, accessed, shared, transmitted, and disposed of in a secure and appropriate manner, based on the rules and controls defined for each data category. This can also help to prevent data loss, leakage, or breach incidents that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its stakeholders.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
An organization is concerned about duplicate vendor payments on a complex system with a high volume of transactions. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an IS auditor to determine whether duplicate vendor payments exist?
Computer-assisted technique
Stratified sampling
Statistical sampling
Process walk-through
A computer-assisted technique is the most helpful method for an IS auditor to determine whether duplicate vendor payments exist on a complex system with a high volume of transactions. A computer-assisted technique is a tool or procedure that can be used to perform audit tests or procedures on data stored in electronic form. Examples of computer-assisted techniques include data analysis software, query tools, scripting languages, and specialized audit software. A computer-assisted techniquecan help an IS auditor to identify and extract duplicate payments from a large data set, perform calculations and comparisons, and generate reports and summaries. A computer-assisted technique can also provide more accuracy, efficiency, and coverage than manual methods.
Stratified sampling, statistical sampling, and process walk-through are not as helpful as a computer-assisted technique for this purpose. Stratified sampling is a sampling method that divides the population into subgroups based on certain characteristics and selects samples from each subgroup. Statistical sampling is a sampling method that uses probability theory to determine the sample size and selection criteria. Process walk-through is a review technique that involves following a transaction or process from start to finish and observing the inputs, outputs, controls, and documentation. These methods may be useful for other audit objectives, but they are not as effective as a computer-assisted technique for detecting duplicate payments in a complex and high-volume system. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, [ISACA Glossary of Terms]
During audit planning, the IS audit manager is considering whether to budget for audits of entities regarded by the business as having low risk. Which of the following is the BEST course of action in this situation?
Outsource low-risk audits to external audit service providers.
Conduct limited-scope audits of low-risk business entities.
Validate the low-risk entity ratings and apply professional judgment.
Challenge the risk rating and include the low-risk entities in the plan.
Audit planning is the process of developing an overall strategy and approach for conducting an audit. Audit planning involves identifying the objectives, scope, criteria, and methodology of the audit, as well as the resources, schedule, and reporting requirements. Audit planning also involves performing a risk assessment to identify and prioritize the areas of highest risk and significance for the audit1.
Risk assessment is a systematic process of evaluating the potential risks that may be involved in a projected activity or undertaking. Risk assessment involves identifying the sources and causes of risk, analyzing the likelihood and impact of risk, and determining the level of risk and the appropriate response2.
During audit planning, the IS audit manager is considering whether to budget for audits of entities regarded by the business as having low risk. The best course of action in this situation is C. Validate the low-risk entity ratings and apply professional judgment.
This is because validating the low-risk entity ratings can help to ensure that the risk assessment is accurate, reliable, and consistent with the business objectives and expectations. Validating the low-risk entity ratings can also help to identify any changes or developments that may affect the risk profile of the entities since the last assessment. Applying professional judgment can help to determine whether the low-risk entities should be included or excluded from the audit plan, based on factors such as materiality, relevance, significance, and assurance needs3.
An IS audit manager is reviewing workpapers for a recently completed audit of the corporate disaster recovery test. Which of the following should the IS audit manager specifically review to substantiate the conclusions?
Overviews of interviews between data center personnel and the auditor
Prior audit reports involving other corporate disaster recovery audits
Summary memos reflecting audit opinions regarding noted weaknesses
Detailed evidence of the successes and weaknesses of all contingency testing
The IS audit manager should specifically review the detailed evidence of the successes and weaknesses of all contingency testing to substantiate the conclusions of the audit of the corporate disaster recovery test. This is because the detailed evidence can provide the audit manager with a clear and objective picture of how well the disaster recovery plan was executed, what issues or gaps were encountered, and what recommendations or actions were taken to address them. The detailed evidence can also help the audit manager to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the audit findings, as well as to evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the disaster recovery controls.
The other options are not as specific or relevant as the detailed evidence of all contingency testing. Overviews of interviews between data center personnel and the auditor may provide some useful information, but they are not sufficient to substantiate the conclusions without supporting evidence from the actual testing. Prior audit reports involving other corporate disaster recovery audits may provide some benchmarking or comparison data, but they are not directly related to the current audit scope and objectives. Summary memos reflecting audit opinions regarding noted weaknesses may provide some high-level insights, but they are not enough to substantiate the conclusions without detailed evidence to back them up.
Which of the following should be given GREATEST consideration when implementing the use of an open-source product?
Support
Performance
Confidentiality
Usability
Support should be given the greatest consideration when implementing the use of an open-source product, as open-source software may not have the same level of technical support, maintenance, and updates as proprietary software1. Open-source software users may have to rely on the community of developers and users, online forums, or third-party vendors for support, which may not be timely, reliable, or consistent2. Therefore, before implementing an open-source product, users should evaluate the availability and quality of support options, such as documentation, forums, mailing lists, bug trackers, chat channels, etc.3
What should an IS auditor evaluate FIRST when reviewing an organization's response to new privacy legislation?
Implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information
Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements
Operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation
Analysis of systems that contain privacy components
The first thing that an IS auditor should evaluate when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation is the analysis of systems that contain privacy components. Privacy components are elements of a system that collect, process, store, or transmit personal information that is subject to privacy legislation. An analysis of systems that contain privacy components should identify what types of personal information are involved, where they are located, how they are used, who has access to them, and what risks or threats they face. An analysis of systems that contain privacy components is essential for determining the scope and impact of the new privacy legislation on the organization’s systems and processes.
The other options are not as important as option D. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information is a possible action, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information is a document that outlines how an organization will comply with the principle of data minimization, which states that personal information should be collected only for specific and legitimate purposes and only to the extent necessary for those purposes. An implementation plan for restricting the collection of personal information should be based on an analysis of systems that contain privacy components. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements is a possible source of reference, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements is a set of laws or regulations that governs the protection of personal information in other jurisdictions that may have comparable or compatible standards or expectations as the new privacy legislation. Privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements may provide guidance or best practices for complying with the new privacy legislation. However, privacy legislation in other countries that may contain similar requirements should not be used as a substitute foran analysis of systems that contain privacy components. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation is a possible deliverable, but not the first thing to evaluate, when reviewing an organization’s response to new privacy legislation. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation is a document that describes how an organization will implement and maintain the necessary policies, procedures, controls, and measures to comply with the new privacy legislation. An operational plan for achieving compliance with the legislation should be derived from an analysis of systems that contain privacy components. References: Privacy law - Wikipedia, Data Protection and Privacy Legislation Worldwide | UNCTAD, Data minimization - Wikipedia
Which of the following is the MOST important control for virtualized environments?
Regular updates of policies for the operation of the virtualized environment
Hardening for the hypervisor and guest machines
Redundancy of hardware resources and network components
Monitoring utilization of resources at the guest operating system level
The most important control for virtualized environments is hardening for the hypervisor and guest machines. Hardening is the process of applying security measures and configurations to reduce the vulnerabilities and risks of a system or device. Hardening for the hypervisor and guest machines is essential for protecting the virtualized environments from attacks, as they are exposed to various threats from both the physical and virtual layers. Hardening for the hypervisor and guest machines involves the following steps:
Applying the latest patches and updates for the hypervisor and guest operating systems, as well as the applications and drivers running on them.
Configuring the firewall and network settings for the hypervisor and guest machines, to restrict and monitor the network traffic and prevent unauthorized access or communication.
Disabling or removing any unnecessary or unused features, services, accounts, or ports on the hypervisor and guest machines, to minimize the attack surface and reduce the potential entry points for attackers.
Enforcing strong authentication and authorization policies for the hypervisor and guest machines, to ensure that only authorized users or administrators can access or manage them.
Encrypting the data and communication for the hypervisor and guest machines, to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the information stored or transmitted on them.
Implementing logging and auditing mechanisms for the hypervisor and guest machines, to record and track any activities or events that occur on them, and enable detection and investigation of any incidents or anomalies.
Hardening for the hypervisor and guest machines can help prevent or mitigate common attacks on virtualized environments, such as:
Hypervisor escape: An attack where a malicious guest machine breaks out of its isolated environment and gains access to the hypervisor or other guest machines.
Hypervisor compromise: An attack where an attacker exploits a vulnerability or misconfiguration in the hypervisor to gain control over it or its resources.
Guest compromise: An attack where an attacker exploits a vulnerability or misconfiguration in a guest machine to gain access to its data or applications.
Guest impersonation: An attack where an attacker creates a fake or cloned guest machine to trick other guests or users into interacting with it.
Guest denial-of-service: An attack where an attacker consumes or exhausts the resources of a guest machine to disrupt its availability or performance.
Therefore, hardening for the hypervisor and guest machines is the most important control for virtualized environments, as it can enhance their security, reliability, and performance. For more information about hardening for virtualized environments, you can refer to some of these web sources:
Hypervisor security on the Azure fleet
Chapter 2: Hardening the Hyper-V host
Plan for Hyper-V security in Windows Server
Following the sale of a business division, employees will be transferred to a new organization, but they will retain access to IT equipment from the previous employer. An IS auditor has recommended that both organizations agree to and document an acceptable use policy for the equipment. What type of control has been recommended?
Detective control
Preventive control
Directive control
Corrective control
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a preventive control that sets out rules and guidelines for using an organization’s IT resources, including networks, devices, and software1. It defines acceptable and prohibited behaviors, aiming to protect assets, ensure security, and maintain a productive work environment1. By agreeing to and documenting an AUP for the equipment, both organizations can prevent potential misuse of IT resources2345.
Which of the following is the MOST important prerequisite for implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) tool?
Requiring users to save files in secured folders instead of a company-wide shared drive
Reviewing data transfer logs to determine historical patterns of data flow
Developing a DLP policy and requiring signed acknowledgment by users
Identifying where existing data resides and establishing a data classification matrix
A data loss prevention (DLP) tool is a software application that detects and prevents data breaches by monitoring and protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access, transfer, or use1. A DLP tool can help your organization comply with regulations, prevent insider threats, and protect your intellectual property.
Before implementing a DLP tool, the most important prerequisite is to identify where existing data resides and establish a data classification matrix. This is because you need to know what data you have, where it is stored, how sensitive it is, and who can access it. A data classification matrix is a framework that defines the categories and levels of data sensitivity, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted2. By identifying and classifying your data, you can determine the appropriate DLP policies and controls to apply to each type of data and prevent data loss or leakage.
An organization has an acceptable use policy in place, but users do not formally acknowledge the policy. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk from this finding?
Lack of data for measuring compliance
Violation of industry standards
Noncompliance with documentation requirements
Lack of user accountability
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using an organization’s IT resources, such as networks, devices, and software. It aims to protect the organization’s assets, security, and productivity. An AUP should be formally acknowledged by users to ensure that they are aware of their responsibilities and obligations when using the IT resources. Without formal acknowledgment, users may not be held accountable for violating the AUP or may claim ignorance of the policy. This can expose the organization to legal, regulatory, reputational, or operational risks. Lack of data for measuring compliance, violation of industry standards, and noncompliance with documentation requirements are also possible risks from not having users acknowledge the AUP, but they are less significant than lack of user accountability. References: Workable: Acceptable use policy template, Wikipedia: Acceptable use policy
During planning for a cloud service audit, audit management becomes aware that the assigned IS auditor is unfamiliar with the technologies in use and their associated risks to the business. To ensure audit quality, which of the following actions should audit management consider FIRST?
Conduct a follow-up audit after a suitable period has elapsed.
Reschedule the audit assignment for the next financial year.
Reassign the audit to an internal audit subject matter expert.
Extend the duration of the audit to give the auditor more time.
The best action that audit management should consider first is to reassign the audit to an internal audit subject matter expert. This is because cloud service audits require specialized knowledge and skills to assess the risks and controls associated with the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer. An IS auditor who is unfamiliar with the technologies in use and their associated risks to the business may not be able to perform an effective and efficient audit, and may miss important issues or provide inaccurate recommendations. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the IS auditor assigned to the cloud service audit has the appropriate competence and experience.
The other options are not as good as reassigning the audit to an internal audit subject matter expert. Conducting a follow-up audit after a suitable period has elapsed may not address the quality issues of the initial audit, and may also delay the identification and remediation of any problems. Rescheduling the audit assignment for the next financial year may expose the organization to unnecessary risks and may not meet the audit objectives or expectations. Extending the duration of the audit to give the auditor more time may not be feasible or cost-effective, and may not guarantee that the auditor will acquire the necessary knowledge and skills in time.
Which of the following responsibilities of an organization's quality assurance (QA) function should raise concern for an IS auditor?
Ensuring standards are adhered to within the development process
Ensuring the test work supports observations
Updating development methodology
Implementing solutions to correct defects
Implementing solutions to correct defects is a responsibility of the development function, not the quality assurance (QA) function. The QA function should ensure that the development process follows the established standards and methodologies, and that the defects are identified and reported. The QA function should not be involved in fixing the defects, as this would compromise its independence and objectivity. The other options are valid responsibilities of the QA function, and they should not raise concern for an IS auditor. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 300.
Which of the following biometric access controls has the HIGHEST rate of false negatives?
Iris recognition
Fingerprint scanning
Face recognition
Retina scanning
Among the options provided, fingerprint scanning has the highest rate of false negatives. False negatives occur when a biometric system fails to recognize an authentic individual. Factors such as skin conditions (wet, dry, greasy), finger injuries, and inadequate scanning can contribute to false negatives in fingerprint scanning1. In comparison, iris recognition23, face recognition45, and retina scanning67 generally have lower rates of false negatives.
Which type of control is being implemented when a biometric access device is installed at the entrance to a facility?
Preventive
Deterrent
Corrective
Detective
A biometric access device installed at the entrance to a facility is a type of preventive control. Preventive controls are designed to deter or prevent undesirable events from occurring12. They are proactive measures that aim to inhibit incidents before they happen12. In this case, the biometric access device prevents unauthorized individuals from gaining access to the facility by requiring unique biological characteristics for authentication12.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a contingency facility?
The contingency facility has the same badge access controls as the primary site.
Both the contingency facility and the primary site have the same number of business assets in their inventory.
The contingency facility is located a sufficient distance away from the primary site.
Both the contingency facility and the primary site are easily identifiable.
A contingency facility is a backup site that can be used to resume business operations in the event of a disaster or disruption at the primary site. The most important consideration for a contingency facility is that it is located a sufficient distance away from the primary site, so that it is not affected by the same event that caused the disruption. For example, if the primary site is damaged by a fire, flood, earthquake, or terrorist attack, the contingency facility should be in a different geographic area that is unlikely to experience the same hazard. This way, the organization can continue to provide its services and products to its customers and stakeholders without interruption.
The other options are not as important as the location of the contingency facility. The badge access controls, the number of business assets, and the identifiability of the sites are secondary factors that may affect the security and efficiency of the contingency facility, but they are not essential for its functionality. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
An IS auditor reviewing the database controls for a new e-commerce system discovers a security weakness in the database configuration. Which of the following should be the IS auditor's NEXT course of action?
Identify existing mitigating controls.
Disclose the findings to senior management.
Assist in drafting corrective actions.
Attempt to exploit the weakness.
When an IS auditor discovers a security weakness in the database configuration, the next course of action should be to identify existing mitigating controls. This involves assessing whether any controls are already in place to address the weakness and mitigate the risk. Understanding the current state of controls helps the auditor determine the severity of the issue and whether additional corrective actions are necessary1. References: 1(https://www.isaca.org/resources/insights-and-expertise/audit-programs-and-tools)
An organization has assigned two new IS auditors to audit a new system implementation. One of the auditors has an IT-related degree, and one has a business degree. Which of the following is MOST important to meet the IS audit standard for proficiency?
Team member assignments must be based on individual competencies
Technical co-sourcing must be used to help the new staff
The standard is met as long as one member has a globally recognized audit certification.
The standard is met as long as a supervisor reviews the new auditors' work
The IS audit standard for proficiency states that the IS auditor must have the knowledge, skills and experience needed to perform the audit work. This implies that the IS auditor must be competent in both the technical and business aspects of the audit subject matter. Therefore, team member assignments must be based on individual competencies, so that each auditor can perform the tasks that match their qualifications and expertise. This will also ensure that the audit objectives are met and the audit quality is maintained.
Option B is incorrect because technical co-sourcing is not a requirement to meet the IS audit standard for proficiency. Co-sourcing is an option that may be used when the internal audit function lacks the necessary resources or skills to perform the audit work. However, co-sourcing does not guarantee that the new staff will acquire the proficiency needed for the audit. Moreover, co-sourcing may introduce additional risks and challenges, such as confidentiality, independence, communication and coordination issues.
Option C is incorrect because having a globally recognized audit certification does not necessarily mean that the standard for proficiency is met. A certification is an indication of the auditor’s knowledge and competence in a specific domain, but it does not cover all aspects of IS auditing. The auditor must also have relevant experience and continuous learning to maintain and enhance their proficiency. Furthermore, having one certified member does not ensure that the other members are also proficient.
Option D is incorrect because having a supervisor review the new auditors’ work is not sufficient to meet the IS audit standard for proficiency. A supervisor review is a quality assurance measure that helps to ensure that the audit work is performed in accordance with the standards and policies. However, a supervisor review does not substitute for the proficiency of the auditors who perform the work. The auditors must still have the necessary knowledge, skills and experience to conduct the audit tasks effectively and efficiently.
When developing customer-facing IT applications, in which stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is it MOST beneficial to consider data privacy principles?
Systems design and architecture
Software selection and acquisition
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Requirements definition
The most beneficial stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC) to consider data privacy principles is D. Requirements definition. This is because data privacy principles should be integrated into the design and development of customer-facing IT applications from the very beginning, not as an afterthought or a retrofit1. By considering data privacy principles in the requirements definition stage, the developers can identify the personal data that will be collected, processed, stored, and shared by the application, and ensure that they comply with the relevant laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)2. They can also apply the principles of data minimization, purpose limitation, transparency, consent, and security to protect the privacy rights and interests of the customers3.
An organization's senior management thinks current security controls may be excessive and requests an IS auditor's advice on how to assess the adequacy of current measures. What is the auditor's BEST recommendation to management?
Perform correlation analysis between incidents and investments.
Downgrade security controls on low-risk systems.
Introduce automated security monitoring tools.
Re-evaluate the organization's risk and control framework.
A risk and control framework is a set of principles, processes, and tools that guide an organization in identifying, assessing, managing, and monitoring the risks and controls that affect its objectives and performance. A risk and control framework helps an organization to align its risk appetite and tolerance with its strategy, culture, and values, and to ensure that its security controls are appropriate, effective, and efficient1.
Re-evaluating the organization’s risk and control framework is the best recommendation to management because it can help them to:
Review the current risk environment and the sources, causes, and impacts of potential threats and vulnerabilities.
Update the risk assessment and analysis methods and criteria, such as likelihood, impact, severity, and priority.
Reconsider the risk response and treatment options, such as avoidance, reduction, transfer, or acceptance.
Realign the security controls with the risk profile and the business needs and expectations.
Evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the security controls using key indicators and metrics.
Identify the gaps, weaknesses, or inefficiencies in the security controls and implement corrective or improvement actions.
Communicate and report the risk and control status and results to relevant stakeholders.
Re-evaluating the organization’s risk and control framework can help management to determine whether the current security controls are excessive or not, and to make informed and rational decisions on how to adjust them accordingly.
In an organization's feasibility study to acquire hardware to support a new web server, omission of which of the following would be of MOST concern?
Alternatives for financing the acquisition
Financial stability of potential vendors
Reputation of potential vendors
Cost-benefit analysis of available products
The most important part of a feasibility study is the economics1. A cost-benefit analysis of available products is crucial as it helps to understand the economic viability of the project1. It compares the costs of the project with the benefits it is expected to deliver, which is essential for making informed decisions1. Omitting this could lead to investments in hardware that may not provide the expected returns or meet the organization’s needs.
Which of the following is the BEST security control to validate the integrity of data communicated between production databases and a big data analytics
system?
Hashing in-scope data sets
Encrypting in-scope data sets
Running and comparing the count function within the in-scope data sets
Hosting a digital certificate for in-scope data sets
Hashing is a technique that transforms data into a fixed-length value, called a hash or a digest, that uniquely represents the original data. Hashing can be used to validate the integrity of data communicated between production databases and a big data analytics system by comparing the hash values of the data before and after the communication. If the hash values match, the data has not been altered; if they differ, the data has been tampered with or corrupted. Hashing is a better security control than encrypting, running and comparing the count function, or hosting a digital certificate for this purpose because:
Encrypting in-scope data sets can protect the confidentiality of the data, but not necessarily the integrity. Encryption algorithms can be broken or bypassed by malicious actors, or encryption keys can be compromised or lost. Moreover, encryption adds overhead to the communication process and may affect the performance of the big data analytics system.
Running and comparing the count function within the in-scope data sets can only verify the number of records or elements in the data sets, but not the content or quality of the data. The count function cannot detect any changes or errors in the data values, such as missing, duplicated, corrupted, or manipulated data.
Hosting a digital certificate for in-scope data sets can provide authentication and non-repudiation for the data sources, but not integrity for the data itself. A digital certificate is a document that contains information about the identity and public key of an entity, such as a person, organization, or device. A digital certificate does not contain or verify the actual data that is communicated between production databases and a big data analytics system.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective governance over IT infrastructure?
The ability to deliver continuous, reliable performance
A requirement for annual security awareness programs
An increase in the number of IT infrastructure servers
A decrease in the number of information security incidents
Effective governance over IT infrastructure is indicated by the ability to deliver continuous, reliable performance12. This is because good governance ensures that IT investments support business objectives and produce measurable results towards achieving their strategies2. It involves implementing management and internal controls, strengthening security, financial controls, risk mitigation, and inspection and compliance obligations3. While security awareness programs, the number of servers, and the number of security incidents can be aspects of IT governance, they are not the best indicators of its effectiveness.
An IS auditor is verifying the adequacy of an organization's internal controls and is concerned about potential circumvention of regulations. Which of the following is the BEST sampling method to use?
Variable sampling
Random sampling
Cluster sampling
Attribute sampling
The best sampling method to use for verifying the adequacy of an organization’s internal controls and being concerned about potential circumvention of regulations is B. Random sampling. Random sampling is a method of selecting a sample from a population in which each item has an equal and independent chance of being selected1. Random sampling reduces the risk of bias or manipulation in the sample selection, and ensures that the sample is representative of the population. Random sampling can be used for both attribute and variable sampling, which are two types of audit sampling that test for the occurrence rate or the monetary value of errors, respectively2.
An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's business intelligence infrastructure. The BEST recommendation to help the organization achieve a reasonable level of data quality would be to:
review data against data classification standards.
outsource data cleansing to skilled service providers.
consolidate data stored across separate databases into a warehouse.
analyze the data against predefined specifications.
This is because analyzing the data against predefined specifications is a method of data quality assessment that can help the organization achieve a reasonable level of data quality. Data quality assessment is the process of measuring and evaluating the accuracy, completeness, consistency, timeliness, validity, and usability of the data. Predefined specifications are the criteria or standards that define the expected or desired quality of the data. By comparing the actual data with the predefined specifications, the organization can identify and quantify any gaps, errors, or deviations in the data quality, and take corrective actions accordingly12.
Reviewing data against data classification standards (A) is not the best answer, because it is not a method of data quality assessment, but rather a method of data security management. Data classification standards are the rules or guidelines that define the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the data, and determine the appropriate security and access controls for the data. For example, data can be classified into public, internal, confidential, or restricted categories. Reviewing data against data classification standards can help the organization protect the data from unauthorized or inappropriate use or disclosure, but it does not directly improve the data quality3.
Outsourcing data cleansing to skilled service providers (B) is not the best answer, because it is not a recommendation to help the organization achieve a reasonable level of data quality, but rather a decision to delegate or transfer the responsibility of data quality management to external parties. Data cleansing is the process of detecting and correcting any errors, inconsistencies, or anomalies in the data. Skilled service providers are third-partyvendors or contractors that have the expertise and resources to perform data cleansing tasks. Outsourcing data cleansing to skilled service providers may have some benefits, such as cost savings, efficiency, or scalability, but it also has some risks, such as loss of control, dependency, or liability4.
Consolidating data stored across separate databases into a warehouse © is not the best answer, because it is not a method of data quality assessment, but rather a method of data integration and storage. Data integration is the process of combining and transforming data from different sources and formats into a unified and consistent view. Data warehouse is a centralized repository that stores integrated and historical data for analytical purposes. Consolidating data stored across separate databases into a warehouse can help the organization improve the availability and accessibility of the data, but it does not necessarily improve the data quality.
An organization relies on an external vendor that uses a cloud-based Software as a Service (SaaS) model to back up its data. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the organization related to data backup and retrieval?
The organization may be locked into an unfavorable contract with the vendor.
The vendor may be unable to restore critical data.
The vendor may be unable to restore data by recovery time objective (RTO) requirements.
The organization may not be allowed to inspect the vendor's data center.
An organization relies on an external vendor that uses a cloud-based Software as a Service (SaaS) model to back up its data. SaaS is a model in which the software is centrally hosted and accessed by the user via a web browser using the internet1. The vendor owns and maintains the software and the data, and the organization pays for the use of the service on a subscription or usage basis1. The greatest risk to the organization related to data backup and retrieval is that the vendor may be unable to restore critical data.
Data backup and retrieval are essential processes for ensuring the availability, integrity, and security of data in case of loss, corruption, or damage2. Data backup is the process of creating and storing copies of data in a separate location from the original data2. Data retrieval is the process of accessing and restoring the backed-up data when needed2. Critical data are data that are vital for the operation, continuity, and recovery of the organization3.
If the vendor is unable to restore critical data, the organization may face severe consequences, such as:
Business disruption: The organization may not be able to perform its core functions, deliver its products or services, or meet its customer or stakeholder expectations3.
Revenue loss: The organization may lose income, market share, or competitive advantage due to reduced sales, customer dissatisfaction, or reputation damage3.
Legal liability: The organization may face lawsuits, fines, or penalties for breaching contractual, regulatory, or statutory obligations related to data protection, privacy, or security3.
Recovery cost: The organization may incur additional expenses for repairing or replacing the lost or corrupted data, restoring the system functionality, or compensating the affected parties3.
The other options are not as great as the vendor’s inability to restore critical data. The organization may be locked into an unfavorable contract with the vendor, which may limit its flexibility, control, or choice over the service quality, cost, or duration4. However, this risk can be mitigated by negotiating better terms and conditions, reviewing the contract periodically, or switching to another vendor if possible4. The vendor may be unable to restore data by recovery time objective (RTO) requirements, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring data after a disruption5. However, this risk can be reduced by setting realistic and achievable RTOs, monitoring the vendor’s performance, or implementing alternative recovery strategies if needed5. The organization may not be allowed to inspect the vendor’s data center, which may limit its visibility, transparency, or assurance over the service provider’s infrastructure, security, or compliance. However, this risk can be overcome by requesting third-party audits, certifications, or reports from the vendor that demonstrate their adherence to industry standards and best practices. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
What should an IS auditor recommend to management as the MOST important action before selecting a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?
Determine service level requirements.
Complete a risk assessment.
Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)
Conduct a vendor audit.
Before selecting a SaaS vendor, the most important action is to complete a risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the potential risks associated with outsourcing software and IT infrastructure to a third-party provider. A risk assessment helps to determine the impact and likelihood of various threats, such as data breaches, service disruptions, vendor lock-in, compliance issues, and legal disputes. A risk assessment also helps to identify the mitigation strategies and controls that can reduce or eliminate the risks.
A risk assessment is more important than determining service level requirements, performing a business impact analysis (BIA), or conducting a vendor audit because it provides the basis for these other actions. Service level requirements are the expectations and obligations that define the quality and quantity of service that the vendor must provide to the customer. A BIA is a process of assessing the potential effects of an interruption or disruption of critical business functions or processes due to an incident or disaster. A vendor audit is a process of verifying the vendor’s compliance with the contract terms, service levels, security policies, and best practices.
Service level requirements, BIA, and vendor audit are all important actions for selecting a SaaS vendor, but they depend on the results of the risk assessment. For example, service level requirements should reflect the risk appetite and tolerance of the customer, which are determined by the risk assessment. A BIA should prioritize the recovery of the most critical and vulnerable business functions or processes, which are identified by the risk assessment. A vendor audit should focus on the areas of highest risk and concern, which are highlighted by the risk assessment.
Therefore, an IS auditor should recommend to management that completing a risk assessment is the most important action before selecting a SaaS vendor.
Which of the following BEST facilitates strategic program management?
Implementing stage gates
Establishing a quality assurance (QA) process
Aligning projects with business portfolios
Tracking key project milestones
The best option that facilitates strategic program management is aligning projects with business portfolios (option C). This is because:
Strategic program management is the coordinated planning, management, and execution of multiple related projects that are directed toward the same strategic goals12.
Aligning projects with business portfolios means ensuring that the projects within a program are aligned with the organization’s strategic objectives, vision, and mission .
Aligning projects with business portfolios helps to prioritize the most valuable and impactful projects, optimize the allocation of resources, monitor the progress and performance of the program, and deliver the expected benefits and outcomes .
Implementing stage gates (option A) is a process of reviewing and approving projects at predefined points in their lifecycle to ensure that they meet the quality, scope, time, and cost criteria. While this can help to control and improve the project management process, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.
Establishing a quality assurance (QA) process (option B) is a process of ensuring that the project deliverables meet the quality standards and requirements of the stakeholders. While this can help to enhance the quality and satisfaction of the project outcomes, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.
Tracking key project milestones (option D) is a process of monitoring and reporting the completion of significant events or deliverables in a project. While this can help to measure and communicate the progress and status of the project, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.
Therefore, the best option that facilitates strategic program management is aligning projects with business portfolios (option C), as this ensures that the projects within a program are consistent with the organization’s strategic goals and objectives.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an IS auditor to examine the results of a post-incident review performed after a security incident?
To evaluate the effectiveness of continuous improvement efforts
To compare incident response metrics with industry benchmarks
To re-analyze the incident to identify any hidden backdoors planted by the attacker
To evaluate the effectiveness of the network firewall against future security breaches
A post-incident review (PIR) is a process to review the incident information from occurrence to closure and to identify potential findings and recommendations for improvement1. The most important reason for an IS auditor to examine the results of a PIR is to evaluate the effectiveness of continuous improvement efforts and to ensure that the lessons learned from the incident are implemented and followed up2. A PIR can help an organization to eliminate or reduce the risk of the incident to re-occur, improve the initial incident detection time, identify improvements needed to diagnose and repair the incident, and update the incident management best practices1. Therefore, a PIR is a valuable source of information for an IS auditor to assess the maturity and performance of the organization’s incident management process.
Which of the following would present the GREATEST concern during a review of internal audit quality assurance (QA) and continuous improvement processes?
The audit program does not involve periodic engagement with external assessors.
Quarterly reports are not distributed to the audit committee.
Results of corrective actions are not tracked consistently.
Substantive testing is not performed during the assessment phase of some audits.
According to the ISACA CISA documentation, one of the requirements for internal audit quality assurance (QA) and continuous improvement processes is to have an external assessment at least once every five years by a qualified, independent reviewer or review team from outside the organization1. This is to ensure that the internal audit activity conforms to the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (the Standards) and the Code of Ethics, and to identify opportunities for improvement2. Therefore, the lack of periodic engagement with external assessors would present the greatest concern during a review of internal audit QA and continuous improvement processes.
Which of the following is MOST critical to the success of an information security program?
Management's commitment to information security
User accountability for information security
Alignment of information security with IT objectives
Integration of business and information security
The most critical factor for the success of an information security program is management’s commitment to information security. Management’s commitment to information security means that the senior management supports, sponsors, funds, monitors and enforces the information security program within the organization. Management’s commitment to information security also demonstrates leadership, sets the tone and culture, and establishes the strategic direction and objectives for information security. User accountability for information security, alignment of information security with IT objectives, and integration of business and information security are also important factors for the success of an information security program, but they are not as critical as management’s commitment to information security, as they depend on or derive from it. References: Info Technology & Systems Resources | COBIT, Risk, Governance … - ISACA, IT Governance and Process Maturity
An organization has recently become aware of a pervasive chip-level security vulnerability that affects all of its processors. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent this vulnerability from being exploited?
Implement security awareness training.
Install vendor patches
Review hardware vendor contracts.
Review security log incidents.
The best way to prevent a chip-level security vulnerability from being exploited is to install vendor patches. A chip-level security vulnerability is a flaw in the design or implementation of a processor that allows an attacker to bypass the normal security mechanisms and access privileged information or execute malicious code. A vendor patch is a software update provided by the manufacturer of the processor that fixes or mitigates the vulnerability. Installing vendor patches can help to protect the system from known exploits and reduce the risk of data leakage or compromise.
Security awareness training, reviewing hardware vendor contracts, and reviewing security log incidents are not as effective as installing vendor patches for preventing a chip-level security vulnerability from being exploited. Security awareness training is an educational program that teaches users about the importance of security and how to avoid common threats. Reviewing hardware vendor contracts is a legal process that evaluates the terms and conditions of the agreement between the organization and the processor supplier. Reviewing security log incidents is an analytical process that examines the records of security events and activities on the system. These methods may be useful for other security purposes, but they do not directly address the root cause of the chip-level vulnerability or prevent its exploitation. References: Protecting your device against chip-related security vulnerabilities, New ‘Downfall’ Flaw Exposes Valuable Data in Generations of Intel Chips
Which of the following features of a library control software package would protect against unauthorized updating of source code?
Required approvals at each life cycle step
Date and time stamping of source and object code
Access controls for source libraries
Release-to-release comparison of source code
Access controls for source libraries are the features of a library control software package that would protect against unauthorized updating of source code. Access controls are the mechanisms that regulate who can access, modify, or delete the source code stored in the source libraries. Source libraries are the repositories that contain the source code files and their versions. By implementing access controls for source libraries, the library controlsoftware package can prevent unauthorized or malicious users from tampering with the source code and compromising its integrity, security, or functionality1.
The other options are not as effective as access controls for source libraries in protecting against unauthorized updating of source code. Option A, required approvals at each life cycle step, is a good practice but may not be sufficient to prevent unauthorized updates if the approval process is bypassed or compromised. Option B, date and time stamping of source and object code, is a useful feature but may not prevent unauthorized updates if the date and time stamps are altered or ignored. Option D, release-to-release comparison of source code, is a helpful feature but may not prevent unauthorized updates if the comparison results are not reviewed or acted upon.
An IS auditor plans to review all access attempts to a video-monitored and proximity card-controlled communications room. Which of the following would be MOST useful to the auditor?
Alarm system with CCTV
Access control log
Security incident log
Access card allocation records
A system electronic log is the most useful source of information for an IS auditor to review all access attempts to a video-monitored and proximity card-controlled communications room. A system electronic log can provide accurate and detailed records of the date, time, card number, and status (success or failure) of each access attempt. A system electronic log can also be easily searched, filtered, and analyzed by the auditor to identify any unauthorized or suspicious access attempts.
A manual sign-in and sign-out log is not as reliable or useful as a system electronic log, because it depends on the honesty and compliance of the users. A manual log can be easily manipulated, forged, or omitted by the users or intruders. A manual log also does not capture the status of each access attempt, and it can be difficult to verify the identity of the users based on their signatures.
An alarm system with CCTV is not as useful as a system electronic log, because it only captures the events that trigger the alarm, such as unauthorized or forced entry. An alarm system with CCTV does not provide a complete record of all access attempts, and it can be affected by factors such as camera angle, lighting, and resolution. An alarm system with CCTV also requires more time and effort to review the video footage by the auditor.
A security incident log is not as useful as a system electronic log, because it only records the incidents that are reported by the users or detected by the security staff. A security incident log does not provide a comprehensive record of all access attempts, and it can be incomplete or inaccurate depending on the reporting and detection mechanisms. A security incident log also does not capture the details of each access attempt, such as the card number and status.
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization's business continuity plan (BCP)?
The BCP's contact information needs to be updated
The BCP is not version controlled.
The BCP has not been approved by senior management.
The BCP has not been tested since it was first issued.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s business continuity plan (BCP) is that the BCP has not been tested since it was first issued. A BCP is a document that describes how an organization will continue its critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include information such as roles and responsibilities, recovery strategies, resources,procedures, communication plans, and backup arrangements3. Testing the BCP is a vital step in ensuring its validity, effectiveness, and readiness. Testing the BCP involves simulating various scenarios and executing the BCP to verify whether it meets its objectives and requirements. Testing the BCP can also help to identify and correct any gaps, errors, or weaknesses in the BCP before they become issues during a real incident4. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned if the BCP has not been tested since it was first issued, as it may indicate that the BCP is outdated, inaccurate, incomplete, or ineffective. The other options are less concerning or incorrect because:
A. The BCP’s contact information needs to be updated is not a great concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s BCP, as it is a minor issue that can be easily fixed. Contact information refers to the names, phone numbers, email addresses, or other details of the people involved in the BCP execution or communication. Contact information needs to be updated regularly to reflect any changes in personnel or roles. While having outdated contact information may cause some delays or confusion during a BCP activation, it does not affect the overall validity or effectiveness of the BCP.
B. The BCP is not version controlled is not a great concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s BCP, as it is a moderate issue that can be improved. Version control refers to the process of tracking and managing changes made to the BCP over time. Version control helps to ensure that only authorized changes are made to the BCP and that there is a clear record of who made what changes when and why. Version control also helps to avoid conflicts or inconsistencies among different versions of the BCP. While having no version control may cause some difficulties or risks in maintaining and updating the BCP, it does not affect the overall validity or effectiveness of the BCP.
C. The BCP has not been approved by senior management is not a great concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s BCP, as it is a high-level issue that can be resolved. Approval by senior management refers to the formal endorsement and support of the BCP by the top executives or leaders of the organization. Approval by senior management helps to ensure that the BCP is aligned with the organization’s strategy, objectives, and priorities, and that it has sufficient resources and authority to be implemented. Approval by senior management also helps to increase the awareness and commitment of the organization’s stakeholders to the BCP. While having no approval by senior management may affect the credibilityand acceptance of the BCP, it does not affect the overall validity or effectiveness of the BCP. References: Working Toward a Managed, Mature Business Continuity Plan - ISACA, ISACA Introduces New Audit Programs for Business Continuity/Disaster …, Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Preparedness for Cloud-based …
Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement a data retention policy?
To limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information
To document business objectives for processing data within the organization
To assign responsibility and ownership for data protection outside IT
To establish a recovery point detective (RPO) for (toaster recovery procedures
The best reason to implement a data retention policy is to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information. A data retention policy is a document that defines how long data should be kept by an organization and how they should be disposed of when they are no longer needed. A data retention policy should comply with the applicable laws and regulations that govern the data retention requirements and obligations of organizations, such as tax laws, privacy laws, or industry standards4. Implementing a data retention policy can help to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information by reducing the amount of data that need to be stored and secured, minimizing the risk of data breaches or leaks, ensuringcompliance with legal or contractual obligations, and avoiding potential fines or penalties for non-compliance5. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
B. Documenting business objectives for processing data within the organization is not a reason to implement a data retention policy, as it is more related to data governance than data retention. Data governance refers to the policies, procedures, and controls that define how data are collected, used, managed, and shared within an organization. Data governance helps to ensure that data are aligned with business objectives and support decision making6.
C. Assigning responsibility and ownership for data protection outside IT is not a reason to implement a data retention policy, as it is more related to data accountability than data retention. Data accountability refers to the identification and assignment of roles and responsibilities for data protection among different stakeholders within an organization. Data accountability helps to ensure that data are handled appropriately and securely by authorized parties7.
D. Establishing a recovery point objective (RPO) for disaster recovery procedures is not a reason to implement a data retention policy, as it is more related to data backup than data retention. Data backup refers to the process of creating copies of data that can be restored in case of data loss or corruption. Data backup helps to ensure that data are available and recoverable in case of disaster8. RPO is a measure of the maximum amount of data that canbe lost or acceptable in case of disaster9. References: Data Retention Policy - ISACA, Data Retention - ISACA, Data Governance - ISACA, Data Accountability - ISACA, Data Backup - ISACA, Recovery Point Objective - ISACA
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of using visualization technology for corporate applications?
Improved disaster recovery
Better utilization of resources
Stronger data security
Increased application performance
Visualization technology is the use of software and hardware to create graphical representations of data, such as charts, graphs, maps, images, etc. Visualization technology can help users to understand, analyze, and communicate complex and large amounts of data in an intuitive and engaging way1.
One of the primary advantages of using visualization technology for corporate applications is that it can improve the utilization of resources, such as time, money, human capital, and physical assets. Some of the ways that visualization technology can achieve this are:
Visualization technology can help users to quickly and easily explore, filter, and interact with data, reducing the need for manual data processing and analysis1. This can save time and effort for both data producers and consumers, and allow them to focus on more value-added tasks.
Visualization technology can help users to discover patterns, trends, outliers, correlations, and causations in data that may otherwise be hidden or overlooked in traditional reports or tables1. This can enable users to make better and faster decisions based on data-driven insights, and optimize their strategies and actions accordingly.
Visualization technology can help users to communicate and share data more effectively and persuasively with different audiences, such as customers, partners,investors, regulators, etc1. This can enhance the reputation and credibility of the organization, and foster collaboration and innovation among stakeholders.
Visualization technology can help users to monitor and measure the performance and impact of their activities, products, services, or processes1. This can help users to identify problems or opportunities for improvement, and adjust their plans or actions accordingly.
Visualization technology can help users to create engaging and interactive experiences for their customers or end-users1. This can increase customer satisfaction and loyalty, and generate more revenue or value for the organization.
Therefore, using visualization technology for corporate applications can help organizations to better utilize their resources and achieve their goals.
An externally facing system containing sensitive data is configured such that users have either read-only or administrator rights. Most users of the system have administrator access. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with this situation?
Users can export application logs.
Users can view sensitive data.
Users can make unauthorized changes.
Users can install open-licensed software.
The greatest risk associated with having most users with administrator access to an externally facing system containing sensitive data is that users can make unauthorized changes to the system or the data, which could compromise the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of the system and the data. Users can export application logs, view sensitive data, and install open-licensed software are also risks, but they are not as severe as unauthorized changes. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition Chapter 4
During an audit of an organization's risk management practices, an IS auditor finds several documented IT risk acceptances have not been renewed in a timely manner after the assigned expiration date When assessing the seventy of this finding, which mitigating factor would MOST significantly minimize the associated impact?
There are documented compensating controls over the business processes.
The risk acceptances were previously reviewed and approved by appropriate senior management
The business environment has not significantly changed since the risk acceptances were approved.
The risk acceptances with issues reflect a small percentage of the total population
The mitigating factor that would most significantly minimize the impact of not renewing IT risk acceptances in a timely manner is having documented compensating controls over the business processes. Compensating controls are alternative controls that reduce or eliminate the risk when the primary control is not feasible or cost-effective. The other factors, such as previous approval by senior management, unchanged business environment, and small percentage of issues, do not mitigate the risk as effectively as compensating controls. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition Chapter 1
in a controlled application development environment, the MOST important segregation of duties should be between the person who implements changes into the production environment and the:
application programmer
systems programmer
computer operator
quality assurance (QA) personnel
In a controlled application development environment, the most important segregation of duties should be between the person who implements changes into the production environment and the application programmer. This segregation of duties ensures that no one person can create and deploy code without proper review, testing, and approval. This reduces the risk of errors, fraud, or malicious code being introduced into the production environment.
The other options are not as important as the segregation between the application programmer and the person who implements changes into production, but they are still relevant for achieving a secure and reliable application development environment. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the systems programmer is important to prevent unauthorized or untested changes to system software or configuration. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the computer operator is important to prevent unauthorized or uncontrolled access to production data or resources. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the quality assurance (QA) personnel is important to ensure independent verification and validation of code quality and functionality.
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with unintentional modifications of complex calculations in end-user computing (EUC)?
Have an independent party review the source calculations
Execute copies of EUC programs out of a secure library
implement complex password controls
Verify EUC results through manual calculations
The best way to mitigate the risk associated with unintentional modifications of complex calculations in end-user computing (EUC) is to execute copies of EUC programs out of a secure library. This will ensure that the original EUC programs are protected from unauthorized changes and that thecopies are run in a controlled environment. A secure library is a repository of EUC programs that have been tested, validated, and approved by the appropriate authority. Executing copies of EUC programs out of a secure library can also help with version control, backup, and recovery of EUC programs. Having an independent party review the source calculations, implementing complex password controls, and verifying EUC results through manual calculations are not as effective as executing copies of EUC programs out of a secure library, as they do not prevent or detect unintentional modifications of complex calculations in EUC. References: End-User Computing (EUC) Risks: A Comprehensive Guide, End User Computing (EUC) Risk Management
Which of the following would BEST detect that a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is occurring?
Customer service complaints
Automated monitoring of logs
Server crashes
Penetration testing
The best way to detect that a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is occurring is to use automated monitoring of logs. A DDoS attack disrupts the operations of a server, service, or network byflooding it with unwanted Internet traffic2. Automated monitoring of logs can help pinpoint potentialDDoS attacks by analyzing network traffic patterns, monitoring traffic spikes or other unusual activity, and alertingadministrators or security teams of any anomalies or malicious requests, protocols, or IP blocks3. Automated monitoring of logs can also help identify the source, type, and impact of the DDoS attack, and provide evidence for further investigation or mitigation.
The other options are not as effective as automated monitoring of logs for detecting DDoS attacks. Customer service complaints are an indirect and delayed indicator of a DDoS attack, as they rely onusers reporting problems with accessing a website or service. Customer service complaints may also be caused by other factors unrelated to DDoS attacks, such as server errors or network issues. Server crashes are an extreme and undesirable indicator of a DDoS attack, as they indicate that the server has already been overwhelmed by the attack and has stopped functioning. Server crashes may also result in data loss or corruption, service disruption, or reputational damage. Penetration testing is a proactive and preventive measure for assessing the security posture of a system or network, but it does not detect ongoing DDoS attacks. Penetration testing may involve simulating DDoS attacks to test the resilience or vulnerability of a system or network, but it does not monitor real-time traffic or identify actual attackers.
An audit has identified that business units have purchased cloud-based applications without IPs support. What is the GREATEST risk associated with this situation?
The applications are not included in business continuity plans (BCFs)
The applications may not reasonably protect data.
The application purchases did not follow procurement policy.
The applications could be modified without advanced notice.
The greatest risk associated with the situation of business units purchasing cloud-based applications without IT support is that the applications may not reasonably protect data. Cloud-based applications are software applications that run on the internet, rather than on a local device or network. Cloud-based applications offer manybenefits, such as scalability, accessibility, and cost-effectiveness, but they also pose many challenges and risks, especially for data security1.
Data security is the process of protecting data from unauthorized access, use, modification, disclosure, or destruction. Data security is essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data, as well as complying with legal and regulatory requirements. Data security is especially important for cloud-based applications, as data are stored and processed on remote servers that are owned and managed by third-party cloud service providers (CSPs)2.
When business units purchase cloud-based applications without IT support, they may not be aware of or follow the best practices and standards for data security in the cloud. They may not performadequate risk assessments, vendor evaluations, contract reviews, or audits to ensure that the CSPs and the applications meet the organization’s data security policies and expectations. They may not implement appropriate data encryption, backup, recovery, or disposal methods to protect the data in transit and at rest. They may not monitor or control the access and usage of the data by internal or external users. They may not report or respond to any data breaches or incidents that may occur3.
These actions or inactions may expose the organization’s data to various threats and vulnerabilities in the cloud, such as cyberattacks, human errors, malicious insiders, misconfigurations, or legal disputes. These threats and vulnerabilities may result in data loss, leakage, corruption, or compromise, which may have serious consequences for theorganization’s reputation, operations, performance, compliance, and liability4.
Therefore, it is essential that business units consult and collaborate with IT support before purchasing any cloud-based applications, and follow the organization’s guidelines and procedures for cloud security. IT support can help business units to select and use cloud-based applications that are suitable and secure for their needs and objectives.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an organization to help ensure agreed-upon action plans from an IS audit will be implemented?
Ensure sufficient audit resources are allocated,
Communicate audit results organization-wide.
Ensure ownership is assigned.
Test corrective actions upon completion.
The most effective way for an organization to help ensure agreed-upon action plans from an IS audit will be implemented is to ensure ownership is assigned. This means that the management of the audited area should accept responsibility for implementing the action plans and report on their progress and completion to the audit committee or senior management. This will ensure accountability, commitment, and follow-up for the audit recommendations34. References: 3: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.6: Reporting, page 41 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Lesson 1.6: Reporting
Which of the following would provide an IS auditor with the GREATEST assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives?
Media recycling policy
Media sanitization policy
Media labeling policy
Media shredding policy
Data disposal controls are the measures that ensure that data are securely and permanently erased or destroyed when they are no longer needed or authorized to be retained. Data disposal controls support business strategic objectives by reducing the risk of data breaches, complying with dataprivacy regulations, optimizing the use of storage resources, and enhancing the reputation and trust of the organization1.
A media sanitization policy is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and standards for sanitizing different types of media that contain sensitive or confidential data. Media sanitization is the process of removing or modifying data on a media device to make it unreadable or unrecoverable by any means. Media sanitization can be achieved by various methods, such as overwriting, degaussing, encryption, or physical destruction2.
A media sanitization policy would provide an IS auditor with the greatest assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives because it demonstrates that the organization has a clear and consistent approach to protect its data from unauthorized access or disclosure throughout the data life cycle. Amedia sanitization policy also helps the organization to comply with various data privacy regulations, such as the EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the US Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), or the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), that require proper disposal of personal or sensitive data3.
The other options are not as effective as a media sanitization policy in providing assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives. A media recycling policy is a document that defines the criteria and procedures for reusing media devices that have been sanitized or erased. A media recycling policy can help the organization to save costsand reduce environmental impact, but it does not address how the data are disposed of in the first place4. A media labeling policy is a document that defines the rules and standards for labeling media devices that contain sensitive or confidential data. A media labeling policy can help the organization to identify and classify its data assets, but it does not specify how the data are sanitized or destroyed when they are no longer needed. A media shredding policy is a document that defines the methods and procedures for physically destroying media devices that contain sensitive or confidential data. A media shredding policy can be a part of a media sanitization policy, but it is not sufficient to cover all types of media devices or data disposal scenarios.
An IS auditor discovers that an IT organization serving several business units assigns equal priority to all initiatives, creating a risk of delays in securing project funding Which of the following would be MOST helpful in matching demand for projects and services with available resources in a way that supports business objectives?
Project management
Risk assessment results
IT governance framework
Portfolio management
The most helpful tool in matching demand for projects and services with available resources in a way that supports business objectives is portfolio management. Portfolio management is the process of selecting, prioritizing, balancing and aligning IT projects and services with the strategic goals and value proposition of the organization3. Portfolio management helps the IT organization to allocate resources efficiently and effectively, to deliver value to the business units, and to align IT initiatives with business strategies. Project management, risk assessment results and IT governance framework are also important tools, but they are not as helpful as portfolio management in matching demand and supply of IT projects and services. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 721
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A company has implemented an IT segregation of duties policy. In a role-based environment, which of the following roles may be assigned to an application developer?
IT operator
System administration
Emergency support
Database administration
Segregation of duties (SOD) is a core internal control and an essential component of an effective risk management strategy. SOD emphasizes sharing the responsibilities of key business processesby distributing the discrete functions of these processes to multiple people and departments, helping to reduce the risk of possible errors and fraud1.
SOD is especially important in IT security, where granting excessive system access to one person or group can lead to harmful consequences, such as data breaches, identity theft, or bypassing security controls2. SOD breaks IT-related tasks into four separate function categories: authorization, custody, recordkeeping, and reconciliation1. Ideally, no one person or department holds responsibility in multiple categories.
In a role-based environment, where access privileges are granted based on predefined roles, it is important to ensure that the roles are designed and assigned in a way that supports SOD. For example, the person who develops an application should not also be the one who tests it, deploys it, or maintains it.
Therefore, an application developer should not be assigned the roles of IT operator, system administration, or database administration, as these roles may conflict with their development role and create opportunities for misuse or abuse of the system. The only role that may be assigned to an application developer without violating SOD is emergency support, which is a temporary role that allows the developer to access the system in case of a critical issue that requires immediate resolution3. However, even this role should be granted with caution and monitored closely to ensure compliance with SOD policies.
An IS auditor is reviewing logical access controls for an organization's financial business application Which of the following findings should be of GREATEST concern to the auditor?
Users are not required to change their passwords on a regular basis
Management does not review application user activity logs
User accounts are shared between users
Password length is set to eight characters
The finding that should be of greatest concern to the IS auditor is that user accounts are shared between users. User accounts are unique identifiers that grant access to an organization’s financial business application based on the roles and responsibilities of the users. User accounts should be individualized and personalized to ensure accountability, traceability, and auditability of user actions and transactions. User accounts should not be shared between users, because this can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the financial data and systems, and can enable unauthorized or fraudulent activities. If user accounts are shared between users, the IS auditor may not be able to determine who performed what action or transaction, or whether the user had the appropriate authorization or approval. The other findings are also concerning, but not as much as user account sharing, because they either affect the password strength or frequency rather than the useridentity, or they relate to monitoring rather than controlling user access. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2
What Is the BEST method to determine if IT resource spending is aligned with planned project spending?
Earned value analysis (EVA)
Return on investment (ROI) analysis
Gantt chart
Critical path analysis
The best method to determine if IT resource spending is aligned with planned project spending is earned value analysis (EVA). EVA is a technique that compares the actual cost, schedule, and scope of a project with the planned or budgeted values. EVA can help to measure the project progress and performance, and identify any variances or deviations from the baseline plan1.
EVA uses three basic values to calculate the project status: planned value (PV), earned value (EV), and actual cost (AC). PV is the amount of work that was expected to be completed by a certain date, according to the project plan. EV is the amount of work that was actually completed by that date,measured in terms of the budgeted cost. AC is the amount of money that was actually spent to complete the work by that date1.
By comparing these values, EVA can determine if the project is on track, ahead, or behind schedule and budget. EVA can also calculate various indicators, such as cost variance (CV), schedule variance (SV), cost performance index (CPI), and schedule performance index (SPI), to quantify the magnitude and direction of the variances. EVA can also forecast the future performanceand completion of the project, based on the current trends and assumptions1.
The other options are not as effective as EVA in determining if IT resource spending is aligned with planned project spending. Option B, return on investment (ROI) analysis, is a technique that evaluates the profitability or efficiency of an investment, by comparing the benefits or revenues with the costs. ROI analysis can help to justify or prioritize a project, but it does not measure the actual progress or performance of the project against the plan2. Option C, Gantt chart, is a tool that displays the tasks, durations, dependencies, and milestones of a project in a graphical format. Gantt chart can help to plan and monitor a project schedule, but it does not show the actual cost or scope of the project3. Option D, critical path analysis, is a technique that identifies the longest sequence of tasks or activities that must be completed on time for the project to finish on schedule. Critical path analysis can help to optimize and control a project schedule, but it does not account for the actual cost or scope of the project4.
A post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor?
The survey results were not presented in detail lo management.
The survey questions did not address the scope of the business case.
The survey form template did not allow additional feedback to be provided.
The survey was issued to employees a month after implementation.
The greatest concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users is that the survey questions did not address the scope of the business case. A post-implementation review is a process of evaluating the outcomes and benefits of a project after it has been completed and implemented. A post-implementation review can help to assess whether the project met its objectives, delivered its expected value, and satisfied its stakeholders1. A survey is a method of collecting feedback and opinions from users or other stakeholders about their experience and satisfaction with the project. Asurvey can help to measure the user acceptance, usability, and functionality of the project deliverables2. A business case is a document that justifies the need for a project based on its expected benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. A business case defines the scope,objectives, and requirements of the project and provides a basis for its approval and initiation3. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned if the survey questions did not address the scope of the business case, as it may indicate that the post-implementation review was not comprehensive, relevant, or aligned with the project goals. The other options are less concerning or incorrect because:
A. The survey results were not presented in detail to management is not a great concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users, as it is more of a communication or reporting issue than an audit issue. While presenting the survey results in detail to management may help to inform them about the project performance and outcomes, it does not affect the validity or quality of the post-implementation review itself.
C. The survey form template did not allow additional feedback to be provided is not a great concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users, as it is more of a design or format issue than an audit issue. While allowing additional feedback to be provided may help to capture more insights or suggestions from users, it does not affect the validity or quality of the post-implementation review itself.
D. The survey was issued to employees a month after implementation is not a great concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users, as it is more of a timing or scheduling issue than an audit issue. While issuing the survey to employees sooner after implementation may help to collect more accurate and timely feedback from users, it does not affect the validity or quality of the post-implementation review itself. References: Post ImplementationReview - ISACA, Survey - ISACA, Business Case - ISACA
Which of the following would BEST ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster''
Use an electronic vault for incremental backups
Deploy a fully automated backup maintenance system.
Periodically test backups stored in a remote location
Use both tape and disk backup systems
The best way to ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster is to periodically test backups stored in a remote location. Testing backups is essential to verify that the backup copies are valid, complete, and recoverable. Testing backups also helps to identify any issues or errors that may affect the backup process or the restoration of data. Storing backups in a remote location is important to protect the backup copies from physical damage, theft, or unauthorized access that may occur at the primary site. Using an electronic vault for incremental backups, deploying a fully automated backup maintenance system, or using both tape and disk backup systems are not sufficient to ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster, as they do not address the need for testing backups or storing them in a remote location. References: Backup and Recovery of Data: The Essential Guide | Veritas, The Truth About Data Backup for Mission-Critical Environments - DATAVERSITY.
An IS auditor assessing the controls within a newly implemented call center would First
gather information from the customers regarding response times and quality of service.
review the manual and automated controls in the call center.
test the technical infrastructure at the call center.
evaluate the operational risk associated with the call center.
The first step in assessing the controls within a newly implemented call center is to evaluate the operational risk associated with the call center. This will help the IS auditor to identify the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect the call center’s objectives, performance, and availability. The evaluation of operational risk will also provide a basis for determining the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit. The other options are possible audit procedures, but they are not the first step in the audit process. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion)
Which of the following should be the IS auditor's PRIMARY focus, when evaluating an organization's offsite storage facility?
Shared facilities
Adequacy of physical and environmental controls
Results of business continuity plan (BCP) test
Retention policy and period
The IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating an organization’s offsite storage facility should be the adequacy of physical and environmental controls. Physical and environmental controls are essential to protect the offsite storage facility from unauthorized access, theft, fire, water damage, pests or other hazards that could compromise the integrity and availability of backup media. Shared facilities is something that the IS auditor should consider when evaluating the offsite storage facility, but it is not the primary focus. Results of business continuity plan (BCP) test or retention policy and period are things that the IS auditor should review when evaluating the organization’s BCP or backup strategy, not the offsite storage facility itself. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 388
During audit framework. an IS auditor teams that employees are allowed to connect their personal devices to company-owned computers. How can the auditor BEST validate that appropriate security controls are in place to prevent data loss?
Conduct a walk-through to view results of an employee plugging in a device to transfer confidential data.
Review compliance with data loss and applicable mobile device user acceptance policies.
Verify the data loss prevention (DLP) tool is properly configured by the organization.
Verify employees have received appropriate mobile device security awareness training.
The best way to validate that appropriate security controls are in place to prevent data loss is to review compliance with data loss and applicable mobile device user acceptance policies. This will ensure that the organization has established clear rules and guidelines for employees to follow when connecting their personal devices to company-owned computers. A walk-through, a DLP tool configuration, and a security awareness training are not sufficient to validate the effectiveness of the controls, as they may not cover all possible scenarios and risks. References: IT Audit Fundamentals Certificate Resources
The PRIMARY benefit of information asset classification is that it:
prevents loss of assets.
helps to align organizational objectives.
facilitates budgeting accuracy.
enables risk management decisions.
The primary benefit of information asset classification is that it enables risk management decisions. Information asset classification helps to identify the value, sensitivity and criticality of information assets, and to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls required for them. This facilitates risk assessment and risk treatment processes, and ensures that information assets are aligned with business objectives and regulatory requirements. Preventing loss of assets, helping to align organizational objectives or facilitating budgeting accuracy are secondary benefits of information asset classification, but not the main purpose. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 300
A review of Internet security disclosed that users have individual user accounts with Internet service providers (ISPs) and use these accounts for downloading business data. The organization wants to ensure that only the corporate network is used. The organization should FIRST:
use a proxy server to filter out Internet sites that should not be accessed.
keep a manual log of Internet access.
monitor remote access activities.
include a statement in its security policy about Internet use.
The first step that the organization should take to ensure that only the corporate network is used for downloading business data is to include a statement in its security policy about Internet use. A security policy is a document that defines the rules, expectations, and overall approach that an organization uses to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of its data1. A security policy should clearly state the acceptable and unacceptable use of Internet resources, such as personalaccounts with ISPs, and the consequences of violating the policy. A security policy also helps to guide the implementation of technical controls, such as proxy servers, firewalls, or monitoring tools, that can enforce the policy and prevent or detect unauthorized Internet access.
The other options are not the first step that the organization should take, but rather subsequent or complementary steps that depend on the security policy. Using a proxy server to filter out Internet sites that should not be accessed is a technical control that can help implement the security policy, but it does not address the root cause of why users are using personal accounts with ISPs. Keeping a manual log of Internet access is a monitoring technique that can help audit the compliance with the security policy, but it does not prevent or deter users from using personal accounts with ISPs. Monitoring remote access activities is another monitoring technique that can help detect unauthorized Internet access, but it does not specify what constitutes unauthorized access or how to respond to it.
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to determine during the detailed design phase of a system development project?
Program coding standards have been followed
Acceptance test criteria have been developed
Data conversion procedures have been established.
The design has been approved by senior management.
The most important thing for an IS auditor to determine during the detailed design phase of a system development project is that acceptance test criteria have been developed. Acceptance test criteria define the expected functionality, performance and quality of the system, and are used to verify that the system meets the user requirements and specifications. The IS auditor should ensure that the acceptance test criteria are clear, measurable and agreed upon by all stakeholders. Program coding standards have been followed is something that the IS auditor should check during the coding or testing phase, not the detailed design phase. Data conversion procedures have been established or the design has been approved by senior management are things that the IS auditor should verify during the implementation phase, not the detailed design phase. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 323
An IS auditor has found that a vendor has gone out of business and the escrow has an older version of the source code. What is the auditor's BEST recommendation for the organization?
Analyze a new application that moots the current re
Perform an analysis to determine the business risk
Bring the escrow version up to date.
Develop a maintenance plan to support the application using the existing code
This means that the organization should obtain the source code from the escrow agent and compare it with the current version of the application that they are using. The organization should then identify and apply any changes or updates that are missing or different in the escrow version, so that it matches the current version. This way, the organization can ensure that they have a complete and accurate copy of the source code that reflects their current needs and requirements.
Bringing the escrow version up to date can help the organization to avoid or reduce the risks and costs associated with using an outdated or incompatible version of the source code. For example, an older version of the source code may have bugs, errors, or vulnerabilities that could affect the functionality, security, or performance of the application. An older version of the source code mayalso lack some features, enhancements, or integrations that could improve the usability, efficiency, or value of the application. An older version of the source code may also not comply with some standards, regulations, or contracts that could affect the quality, reliability, or legality of the application1.
The other options are not as good as bringing the escrow version up to date for the organization. Option A, analyzing a new application that meets the current requirements, is a possible option but it may be more time-consuming, expensive, and risky than updating the existing application. The organization may have to go through a complex and lengthy process of selecting, acquiring, implementing, testing, and migrating to a new application, which could disrupt their operations and performance. The organization may also have to deal with compatibility, interoperability, or data quality issues when switching to a new application2. Option B, performing an analysis to determine the business risk, is a necessary step but not a recommendation for the organization. The organization should already be aware of the business risk of using an application whose vendor has gone out of business and whose escrow has an older version of the source code. The organization should focus on finding and implementing a solution to mitigate or eliminate this risk3. Option D, developing a maintenance plan to support the application using the existing code, is not a feasible option because it assumes that the organization has access to the existing code. However, this is not the case because the vendor has gone out of business and the escrow has an older version of the source code. The organization cannot support or maintain an application without having a complete and accurate copy of its source code.
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that an organization's IT strategy is aligned lo its business objectives?
The IT strategy is modified in response to organizational change.
The IT strategy is approved by executive management.
The IT strategy is based on IT operational best practices.
The IT strategy has significant impact on the business strategy
The best evidence that an organization’s IT strategy is aligned to its business objectives is that the IT strategy is approved by executive management. This implies that the IT strategy has been reviewed and validated by the senior leaders of the organization, who are responsible for setting and overseeing the business objectives. The IT strategy may be modified inresponse to organizational change, based on IT operational best practices, or have significant impact on the business strategy, but these are not sufficient indicators of alignment without executive approval. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1
Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that potential security issues are considered by the development team as part of incremental changes to agile-developed software?
Assign the security risk analysis to a specially trained member of the project management office.
Deploy changes in a controlled environment and observe for security defects.
Include a mandatory step to analyze the security impact when making changes.
Mandate that the change analyses are documented in a standard format.
The best way to ensure that potential security issues are considered by the development team as part of incremental changes to agile-developed software is to include a mandatory step to analyze the security impact when making changes. This will help to identify and mitigate any security risks or vulnerabilities that may arise from the changes, and to ensure that the software meets the security requirements and standards. The other options are not as effective, because they either delegate the security analysis to someone outside the development team, rely on post-deployment testing, or focus on documentation rather than analysis. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.5
Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?
Apply single sign-on for access control
Implement segregation of duties.
Enforce an internal data access policy.
Enforce the use of digital signatures.
The most appropriate control to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system is to enforce an internal data access policy. A data access policy defines who can access what data, under what conditions and for what purposes. It also specifies the roles and responsibilities of data owners, custodians and users, as well as the security measures and controls to protect data confidentiality, integrity and availability. By enforcing a data access policy, the organization can ensure that only authorized personnel can retrieve confidential informationfrom the business application system. Applying single sign-on for access control, implementing segregation of duties and enforcing the use of digital signatures are also useful controls, but they are not sufficient to prevent unauthorized data retrieval without a clear and comprehensive data access policy. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 2301
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Which of the following should be the FIRST step in the incident response process for a suspected breach?
Inform potentially affected customers of the security breach
Notify business management of the security breach.
Research the validity of the alerted breach
Engage a third party to independently evaluate the alerted breach.
The first step in the incident response process for a suspected breach is to research the validity of the alerted breach. An incident response process is a set of procedures that defines how to handle security incidents in a timely and effective manner. The first step in this process is to research the validity of the alerted breach, which means to verify whether the alert is genuine or false positive, to determine the scope and impact of the incident, and to gather relevant information for further analysis and action. Informing potentially affected customers of the security breach, notifying business management of the security breach, and engaging a third party to independently evaluate the alerted breach are also steps in the incident response process, but they are not the first step. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 4251
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Which of the following is MOST important when planning a network audit?
Determination of IP range in use
Analysis of traffic content
Isolation of rogue access points
Identification of existing nodes
The most important factor when planning a network audit is to identify the existing nodes on the network. Nodes are devices or systems that are connected to the network and can communicate with each other. Nodes can include servers, workstations, routers, switches, firewalls, printers, scanners, cameras, etc. Identifying the existing nodes on the network will help the auditor to determine the scope, objectives, and methodology of the audit. It will also help the auditor to assess the network topology, architecture, performance, security, and compliance. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
Which of the following should be performed FIRST before key performance indicators (KPIs) can be implemented?
Analysis of industry benchmarks
Identification of organizational goals
Analysis of quantitative benefits
Implementation of a balanced scorecard
The first thing that should be performed before key performance indicators (KPIs) can be implemented is the identification of organizational goals. This is because KPIs are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving its key business objectives4. Therefore, it is necessary that the organization defines its goals clearly and aligns them with its vision, mission, and strategy. By identifying its goals, the organization can then determine what KPIs are relevant and meaningful to measure its progress and performance . References: 4: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.3: Benefits Realization, page 77 : CISA Online Review Course, Module 2: Governance and Management of IT, Lesson 2.3: Benefits Realization : ISACA Journal Volume 1, 2020, Article: How to Measure Anything in IT Governance
An IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment tor a data center would be MOST concerned if:
some of the identified throats are unlikely to occur.
all identified throats relate to external entities.
the exercise was completed by local management.
neighboring organizations operations have been included.
An IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment for a data center would be most concerned if the exercise was completed by local management, because this could introduce bias, conflict of interest, or lack of expertise in the assessment process. A threat assessment is a systematic method of identifying and evaluating the potential threats that could affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the data center and its assets. A threat assessmentshould be conducted by an independent and qualified team that has the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience to perform a comprehensive and objective analysis of the data center’s environment, vulnerabilities, and risks1.
The other options are not as concerning as option C for an IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment for a data center. Option A, some of the identified threats are unlikely to occur, is not a problem as long as the likelihood and impact of each threat are properly estimated and prioritized. A threat assessment should consider all possible scenarios, even if they have a low probability of occurrence, to ensure that the data center is prepared for any eventuality2. Option B, all identified threats relate to external entities, is not a flaw as long as the assessment also considers internal threats, such as human errors, malicious insiders, or equipment failures. External threats are often more visible and severe than internal threats, butthey are not the only source of risk for a data center3. Option D, neighboring organizations’ operations have been included, is not a mistake as long as the assessment also focuses on the data center’s own operations. Neighboring organizations’ operations may have an impact on the data center’s security and availability, especially if they share physical or network infrastructure or resources. A threat assessmentshould take into account the interdependencies and interactions between the data center and its external environment4.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization's information security policy?
IT steering committee minutes
Business objectives
Alignment with the IT tactical plan
Compliance with industry best practice
The most important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization’s information security policy is the business objectives. An information security policy is a document that defines the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from internal and external threats. It should align with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and goals, and support its business processes and functions1. An informationsecurity policy should also be focused on the business needs and requirements of the organization, rather than on technical details orspecific solutions2.
The other options are not as important as the business objectives, because they do not directly reflect the organization’s purpose and direction. IT steering committee minutes are records of the discussions and decisions made by a group of senior executives who oversee the IT strategy and governance of the organization. They may provide some insights into the information security policy, but they are not sufficientto evaluate its adequacy3. Alignment with the IT tactical plan is a measure of how well the information security policy supports the short-term actions and projects that implement the IT strategy. However, the IT tactical plan itself shouldbe aligned with the business objectives, and not vice versa4. Compliance with industry best practice is a desirable quality of an information security policy, but it is not a guarantee of its effectiveness or suitability for the organization. Industry best practices are general guidelines or recommendations that may not apply to every organization or situation. An information security policy should be customized and tailored to the specific context and needs of the organization. References:
The 12 Elements of an Information Security Policy | Exabeam1
11 Key Elements of an Information Security Policy | Egnyte2
What is an IT steering committee? Definition, roles & responsibilities …3
What is IT Strategy? Definition, Components & Best Practices | BMC …4
IT Security Policy: Key Components & Best Practices for Every Business
Which of the following should an IS auditor expect to see in a network vulnerability assessment?
Misconfiguration and missing updates
Malicious software and spyware
Zero-day vulnerabilities
Security design flaws
A network vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and exposures in a network that could be exploited by attackers to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the network or its resources. A network vulnerability assessment typically involves scanning the network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, and workstations, using automated tools that compare the device configurations, software versions, and patch levels against a database of known vulnerabilities. A network vulnerability assessment can also include manual testing and verification of the network architecture, design, policies, and procedures. One of the main objectives of a network vulnerability assessment is to detect and report any misconfiguration and missing updates in the network devices that could pose a security risk1. Misconfiguration refers to any deviation from the recommended or best practice settings for the network devices, such as weak passwords, open ports, unnecessary services, default accounts, or incorrect permissions. Missing updates refer toany outdated or unsupported software or firmware that has not been patched with the latest security fixes or enhancements from the vendors2. Misconfiguration and missing updates are common sources of network vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, executemalicious code, causedenial of service, or escalate privileges on the network devices3. Therefore, an IS auditor should expect to see misconfiguration and missing updates in a network vulnerability assessment. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
B. Malicious software and spyware are not usually detected by a network vulnerability assessment, as they are more related to the content and behavior of the network traffic rather than the configuration and patch level of the network devices. Malicious software and spyware are programs that infect or monitor the network devices or their users for malicious purposes, such as stealing data, displaying ads, or performing remote commands. Malicious software and spyware can be detected by other security tools, such as antivirus software, firewalls, or intrusion detection systems4.
C. Zero-day vulnerabilities are not usually detected by a network vulnerability assessment, as they are unknown or undisclosed vulnerabilities that have not been reported or patched by the vendors or the security community. Zero-day vulnerabilities are rare and difficult to discover, as they require advanced techniques and skills to exploit them. Zero-day vulnerabilities can be detected by other security tools, such as intrusion prevention systems, anomaly detection systems, or artificial intelligence systems5.
D. Security design flaws are not usually detected by a network vulnerability assessment, as they are more related to the logic and functionality of the network rather than the configuration and patch level of the network devices. Security design flaws are errors or weaknesses in the network architecture, design, policies, or procedures that could compromise the security objectives of the network. Securitydesign flaws can be detected by other security methods, such as security reviews, audits, or assessments6. References: Network VulnerabilityAssessment - ISACA, Network Vulnerability Scanning - NIST, Network Vulnerabilities - SANS, Malware - ISACA, Zero-Day Attacks - ISACA, Security Design Principles - NIST
Which of the following is a corrective control?
Separating equipment development testing and production
Verifying duplicate calculations in data processing
Reviewing user access rights for segregation
Executing emergency response plans
A corrective control is a control that aims to restore normal operations after a disruption or incident has occurred. Executing emergency response plans is an example of a corrective control, as it helps to mitigate the impact of an incident and resume business functions. Separating equipment development testing and production is a preventive control, as it helps to avoid errors or unauthorized changes in production systems. Verifying duplicate calculations in data processing is a detective control, as it helps to identify errors or anomalies in data processing. Reviewing user access rights for segregation is also a detective control, as it helps to detect any violations of segregation of duties principles. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 64
Which of the following would be MOST effective to protect information assets in a data center from theft by a vendor?
Monitor and restrict vendor activities
Issues an access card to the vendor.
Conceal data devices and information labels
Restrict use of portable and wireless devices.
The most effective control to protect information assets in a data center from theft by a vendor is to monitor and restrict vendor activities. A vendor may have legitimate access to the data center for maintenance or support purposes, but they may also have malicious intentions or be compromised by an attacker. By monitoring and restricting vendor activities, the organization can ensure that the vendor only performs authorized tasks and does not access or tamper with sensitive data or equipment. Issuing an access card to the vendor, concealing data devices and information labels, and restricting use of portable and wireless devices are also useful controls, but they are not as effective as monitoring and restricting vendor activities in preventing theft by a vendor. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 3381
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An IS auditor finds that one employee has unauthorized access to confidential data. The IS auditor's BEST recommendation should be to:
reclassify the data to a lower level of confidentiality
require the business owner to conduct regular access reviews.
implement a strong password schema for users.
recommend corrective actions to be taken by the security administrator.
The best recommendation for an IS auditor who finds that one employee has unauthorized access to confidential data is to require the business owner to conduct regular access reviews. Access reviews are periodic assessments of user access rights and permissions to ensure that they are appropriate, necessary, and aligned with the business needs and objectives. Access reviews help to identify and remediate any unauthorized, excessive, or obsolete access that could pose a security risk or violate compliance requirements. The business owner is responsible for defining and approving the access requirements for their data and ensuring that they are enforced and monitored. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that business continuity plans (BCPs) will work effectively in the event of a major disaster?
Prepare detailed plans for each business function.
Involve staff at all levels in periodic paper walk-through exercises.
Regularly update business impact assessments.
Make senior managers responsible for their plan sections.
The best way to ensure that business continuity plans (BCPs) will work effectively in the event of a major disaster is to involve staff at all levels in periodic paper walk-through exercises. This means that the BCPs are tested and validated by the people who will execute them in a real situation, and any gaps, errors, or inconsistencies can be identified and corrected. Paper walk-through exercises are also a good way to raise awareness and train staff on their roles and responsibilities in a BCP scenario, as well as to evaluate the feasibility and effectiveness of the recovery strategies1.
The other options are not the best ways to ensure that BCPs will work effectively, because they do not involve testing or validating the plans. Preparing detailed plans for each business function is important, but it does not guarantee that the plans are realistic, practical, or aligned with the overall business objectives and priorities2. Regularly updating business impact assessments is also essential, but it does not ensure that the BCPs are aligned with the current business environment and risks2. Making senior managers responsible for their plan sections is a good way to assign accountability and authority, but it does not ensure that the plansections are coordinated and integrated with each other2. References:
Best Practice Guide: Business Continuity Planning (BCP)3
Best Practices for Creating a Business Continuity Plan1
Business Continuity Plan Best Practices
Which of the following would be an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program?
Analyzing risks posed by new regulations
Developing procedures to monitor the use of personal data
Defining roles within the organization related to privacy
Designing controls to protect personal data
An appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program is analyzing risks posed by new regulations. A privacy program is a set of policies, procedures, and controls that aim to protect the personal data of individuals from unauthorized or unlawful collection, use, disclosure, or disposal. A privacy program should comply with the applicable laws and regulations that govern the privacy rights and obligations of individuals and organizations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). New regulations may introduce new requirements or changes that affect the organization’s privacy program and expose it to potential compliance risks or penalties. Therefore, internal audit can help to establish an organization’s privacy program by analyzing the risks posed by new regulations and providingassurance, advice, or recommendations on how to address them1. The other options are less appropriate or incorrect because:
B. Developing procedures to monitor the use of personal data is not an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program, as it is more of a management or operational role. Internal audit should not be involved in designing or implementing the organization’s privacy program, as it would compromise its independence and objectivity. Internal audit should provide assurance on the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s privacy program, but not create or execute it2.
C. Defining roles within the organization related to privacy is not an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program, as it is more of a governance or strategic role. Internal audit should not be involved in setting or approving the organization’s privacy strategy, objectives, or policies, as it would compromise its independence and objectivity. Internal audit should provide assurance on the alignment and compliance ofthe organization’s privacy program with its strategy, objectives, and policies, but not define or approve them2.
D. Designing controls to protect personal data is not an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program, as it is more of a management or operational role. Internal audit should not be involved in designing or implementing the organization’s privacy program, as it would compromise its independence and objectivity. Internal audit should provide assurance on the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s privacy program, but not design or implement it2. References: ISACA Introduces New Audit Programs for Business Continuity/Disaster …, Best Practices for Privacy Audits - ISACA, ISACA Produces New Audit and Assurance Programs for Data Privacy and …
An IS auditor finds that capacity management for a key system is being performed by IT with no input from the business The auditor's PRIMARY concern would be:
failure to maximize the use of equipment
unanticipated increase in business s capacity needs.
cost of excessive data center storage capacity
impact to future business project funding.
The auditor’s primary concern when capacity management for a key system is being performed by IT with no input from the business would be an unanticipated increase in business’s capacity needs. This could result in performance degradation, service disruption or customer dissatisfaction if IT is not able to provide sufficient capacity to meet the business demand. Failure to maximize the use of equipment, cost of excessive data center storage capacity or impact to future business project funding are secondary concerns that relate to resource optimization or budget allocation, but not to service delivery or customer satisfaction. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 374
An IS auditor has been asked to advise on measures to improve IT governance within the organization. Which at the following is the BEST recommendation?
Implement key performance indicators (KPIs)
Implement annual third-party audits.
Benchmark organizational performance against industry peers.
Require executive management to draft IT strategy
The best recommendation for improving IT governance within the organization is to implement key performance indicators (KPIs). KPIs are measurable values that show how effectively the organization is achieving its key business objectives. KPIs can help the organization tomonitor and evaluate the performance, efficiency, and alignment of its IT processes and resources with its business goals and strategies1.
The other options are not as effective as implementing KPIs for improving IT governance. Option B, implementing annual third-party audits, is a good practice but may not be sufficient or timely to identify and address the issues or gaps in IT governance. Option C, benchmarking organizational performance against industry peers, is a useful technique but may not reflect the specific needs and expectations of the organization’s stakeholders. Option D, requiring executive management to draft IT strategy, is a necessary step but not enough to ensure that IT governance is implemented and monitored throughout the organization.
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure that electronic evidence collected during a forensic investigation will be admissible in future legal proceedings?
Restricting evidence access to professionally certified forensic investigators
Documenting evidence handling by personnel throughout the forensic investigation
Performing investigative procedures on the original hard drives rather than images of the hard drives
Engaging an independent third party to perform the forensic investigation
The most important factor to ensure that electronic evidence collected during a forensic investigation will be admissible in future legal proceedings is to document evidence handling by personnel throughout the forensic investigation. Documentation is essential to establish the chain of custody, prove the integrity and authenticity of the evidence, and demonstrate compliance with legal and ethical standards. Documentation should include information such as the date, time, location, source, destination, method, purpose, result, and authorization of each action performed on the evidence. Documentation should also include any observations, findings, assumptions, limitations, or exceptions encountered during the investigation. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
When verifying the accuracy and completeness of migrated data for a new application system replacing a legacy system. It is MOST effective for an IS auditor to review;
data analytics findings.
audit trails
acceptance lasting results
rollback plans
When verifying the accuracy and completeness of migrated data for a new application system replacing a legacy system, it is most effective for an IS auditor to review data analytics findings. Data analytics is a technique that uses software tools and statistical methods to analyze large volumes of data and identify patterns, anomalies, errors or inconsistencies. Data analytics can help to compare the source and target data sets, validate the data quality and integrity, and detect any data loss or corruption during the migration process. The other options are not as effective, because audit trails only record the actions performed on the data, acceptance testingresults only verify the functionality of the new system, and rollback plans only provide contingency measures in case of migration failure. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.6
An IS auditor finds that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation by the IS auditor?
Improve the change management process
Establish security metrics.
Perform a penetration test
Perform a configuration review
The best recommendation by the IS auditor for finding that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities is to perform a configuration review. A configuration review is an audit procedure that involves examining and verifying the security settings and parameters of application servers against predefined standards or best practices. A configuration review can help to identify and remediate any deviations, inconsistencies, or misconfigurations thatmay expose the application servers to unauthorized access, exploitation, or compromise6. A configuration review can also help to ensure compliance with security policies and regulations, as well as enhance the performance and availability of application servers. The other options are less effective or incorrect because:
A. Improving the change management process is not the best recommendation by the IS auditor for finding that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities, as it does not address the root cause of the problem or provide a specific solution. While improving the change management process may help to prevent future inconsistencies or misconfigurations in application server settings, it does not ensure that the existing ones are detected and corrected.
B. Establishing security metrics is not the best recommendation by the IS auditor for finding that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities, as it does not address the root cause of the problem or provide a specific solution. While establishing security metrics may help to measure and monitor the security performance and posture of application servers, it does not ensure that the existing inconsistencies or misconfigurations in application server settings are detected and corrected.
C. Performing a penetration test is not the best recommendation by the IS auditor for finding that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities, as it does not address the root cause of the problem or provide a specific solution. While performing a penetration test may help to simulate and evaluate the impact of an attack on application servers, it does not ensure that the existing inconsistencies or misconfigurations in application server settings are detected and corrected. References: Configuring system to useapplication server security - IBM, Application Security Risk: Assessment and Modeling - ISACA, Five Key Components of an Application SecurityProgram - ISACA, ISACA Practitioner Guidelines for Auditors - SSH, SCADA Cybersecurity Framework - ISACA
Which of the following will BEST ensure that a proper cutoff has been established to reinstate transactions and records to their condition just prior to a computer system failure?
Rotating backup copies of transaction files offsite
Using a database management system (DBMS) to dynamically back-out partially processed transactions
Maintaining system console logs in electronic formal
Ensuring bisynchronous capabilities on all transmission lines
The best way to ensure that a proper cutoff has been established to reinstate transactions and records to their condition just prior to a computer system failure is to use a database management system (DBMS) to dynamically back-out partially processed transactions. A DBMS is a software system that manages the creation, manipulation, retrieval, and security of data stored in a database. A DBMS can provide features such as transaction management, concurrency control, recovery management, and integrity management. A DBMS can dynamically back-out partially processed transactions by using mechanisms such as rollback segments, undo logs, or write-ahead logs. These mechanisms allow the DBMS to restore the database to a consistent state before the failure occurred. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers &Explanations Database
An audit identified that a computer system is not assigning sequential purchase order numbers to order requests. The IS auditor is conducting an audit follow-up to determine if management has reserved this finding. Which of two following is the MOST reliable follow-up procedure?
Review the documentation of recant changes to implement sequential order numbering.
Inquire with management if the system has been configured and tested to generate sequential order numbers.
Inspect the system settings and transaction logs to determine if sequential order numbers are generated.
Examine a sample of system generated purchase orders obtained from management
The most reliable follow-up procedure to determine if management has resolved the finding of non-sequential purchase order numbers is to inspect the system settings and transaction logs to determine if sequential order numbers are generated. This will provide direct evidence of the system’s functionality and compliance with the audit recommendation. The other options are less reliable because they rely on indirect evidence or information obtained from management, which may not be accurate or complete. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Standards, Guidelines, Tools and Techniques
Which of the following BEST enables the effectiveness of an agile project for the rapid development of a new software application?
Project segments are established.
The work is separated into phases.
The work is separated into sprints.
Project milestones are created.
The best way to enable the effectiveness of an agile project for the rapid development of a new software application is to separate the work into sprints. Sprints are short, time-boxed iterations that deliver a potentially releasable product increment at the end of each sprint. Sprints allow agile teams to work in a flexible and adaptive manner, respond quickly to changing customer needs and feedback, and deliver value faster and more frequently. Sprints also help teams to plan, execute, review, and improve their work in a collaborative and transparent way. Project segments, phases, and milestones are not specific to agile projects and do not necessarily enable the effectiveness of an agile project. References: Agile Project Management [Whatis it & How to Start] - Atlassian, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version).
An IS auditor reviewing security incident processes realizes incidents are resolved and closed, but root causes are not investigated. Which of the following should be the MAJOR concern with this situation?
Abuses by employees have not been reported.
Lessons learned have not been properly documented
vulnerabilities have not been properly addressed
Security incident policies are out of date.
The major concern with the situation where security incidents are resolved and closed, but root causes are not investigated, is that vulnerabilities have not been properly addressed. Vulnerabilities are weaknesses or gaps in the security posture of an organization that can be exploited by threat actors to compromise its systems, data, or operations. If root causes are not investigated, vulnerabilities may remain undetected or unresolved, allowing attackers to exploit them again or use them asentry points for further attacks. This can result in repeated or escalated security incidents that can cause more damage or disruption to the organization.
The other options are not as major as the concern about vulnerabilities, but rather secondary or related issues that may arise from the lack of root cause analysis. Abuses by employees have not been reported is a concern that may indicate a lack of awareness, accountability, or monitoring of insider threats. Lessons learned have not been properly documented is a concern that may indicate a lack of improvement, learning, or feedback from security incidents. Security incident policies are out of date is a concern that may indicate a lack of alignment, review, or update of security incident processes.
Which of the following would be MOST useful when analyzing computer performance?
Statistical metrics measuring capacity utilization
Operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time
Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage
Report of off-peak utilization and response time
Computer performance is the measure of how well a computer system can execute tasks and applications within a given time frame. Computer performance can be affected by various factors, such as hardware specifications, software configuration, network conditions, and user behavior. To analyze computer performance, it is important to use statistical metrics that can quantify the capacity utilization of the system resources, such as CPU, memory, disk, and network. These metrics can help identify the bottlenecks, inefficiencies, and anomalies that may degrade the performance of the system. Examples of such metrics include CPU utilization, memory usage, disk throughput, network bandwidth, and response time.
The other options are not as useful as statistical metrics when analyzing computer performance. An operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time is a subjective measure that may not reflect the actual performance of the system. Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage is a corrective action that can improve performance, but it is not a method of analysis. A report of off-peak utilization and response time is a limited snapshot that may not capture the peak performance or the average performance of the system.
Which of the following application input controls would MOST likely detect data input errors in the customer account number field during the processing of an accounts receivable transaction?
Limit check
Parity check
Reasonableness check
Validity check
The most likely application input control that would detect data input errors in the customer account number field during the processing of an accounts receivable transaction is a validity check. A validity check is a type of application control that verifieswhether the data entered in an application matches a predefined set of values or criteria1. For example, a validity check can compare the customer account number entered by the user with a list of existing customer account numbers stored in a database, and reject any input that does not match any of the valid values2.
The other options are not as likely to detect data input errors in the customer account number field, because they do not compare the input with a predefined set of values or criteria. A limit check is a type of application control that verifies whether the data entered in an application falls within a specified range or limit1. For example, a limitcheck can ensure that the amount entered for an invoice does not exceed a certainmaximum value2. A parity check is a type of application control that verifies whether the data entered in an application has an even or odd number of bits1. For example, a parity check can detect transmission errors in binary data by adding an extra bit to the data and checking whether the number of bits is consistent3. A reasonableness check is a type of applicationcontrol that verifies whether the data entered in anapplication is logical or sensible based on other related data or information1. Forexample, a reasonableness check can ensure that the date entered for an order is not in the future or before the date of creation of the customer account2. References:
What are application controls? Definition, examples & best practices1
General Control Vs Application Control: Key Differences and Example …4
Parity Check - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
Which of the following would be the MOST useful metric for management to consider when reviewing a project portfolio?
Cost of projects divided by total IT cost
Expected return divided by total project cost
Net present value (NPV) of the portfolio
Total cost of each project
The most useful metric for management to consider when reviewing a project portfolio is the net present value (NPV) of the portfolio. NPV is a measure of the profitability and value of a project or a portfolio of projects, taking into account the time value of money and the expected cash flows. NPV compares the present value of the future cash inflows with the present value of the initial investment and shows how much value is created or lost by undertaking a project or a portfolio of projects1. A positive NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth more than its cost and will generate a positive return on investment. A negative NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth less than its cost and will result in a loss. Therefore, NPV helps management to prioritize andselect the most profitable and valuable projects or portfolios that align with the organizational strategy and objectives2. The other options are less useful or incorrect because:
A. Cost of projects divided by total IT cost is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not reflect the benefits, value, or return of the projects. It only shows the proportion of IT budget allocated to the projects, which may not be indicative oftheir strategic importance or alignment3.
B. Expected return divided by total project cost is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not account for the time value of money and the timing of cash flows. It only shows the average return per unit of cost, which may not be comparable across different projects or portfolios with differentdurations, risks, and cash flow patterns4.
D. Total cost of each project is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not reflect the benefits, value, or return of the projects. It only shows theinitial investment required for eachproject, which may not be indicative of their profitability or viability5. References: Portfolio, Program and Project Management Using COBIT 5 - ISACA, Project PortfolioManagement - ISACA, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Standards, Guidelines, Tools and Techniques
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of using a reciprocal site for disaster recovery?
Inability to utilize the site when required
Inability to test the recovery plans onsite
Equipment compatibility issues at the site
Mismatched organizational security policies
The greatest risk of using a reciprocal site for disaster recovery is the inability to utilize the site when required. A reciprocal site is an agreement between two organizations to provide backup facilities for each other in case of a disaster. However, this arrangement may not be reliable or enforceable, especially if both organizations are affected by the same disaster or have conflicting priorities. Therefore,the IS auditor should recommend that management consider alternative options for disaster recovery, such as dedicated sites or cloud services12. References:
CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition,page 3381
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription
Which of the following would MOST effectively help to reduce the number of repealed incidents in an organization?
Testing incident response plans with a wide range of scenarios
Prioritizing incidents after impact assessment.
Linking incidents to problem management activities
Training incident management teams on current incident trends
Linking incidents to problem management activities would most effectively help to reduce the number of repeated incidents in an organization, because problem management aims to identify and eliminate the root causes of incidents and prevent their recurrence. Testing incident response plans, prioritizing incidents, and training incident management teams are all good practices, but they do not directly address the issue of repeated incidents. References: ISACA ITAF 3rd Edition Section 3600
Which of the following security measures will reduce the risk of propagation when a cyberattack occurs?
Perimeter firewall
Data loss prevention (DLP) system
Web application firewall
Network segmentation
Network segmentation is the best security measure to reduce the risk of propagation when a cyberattack occurs, because it divides the network into smaller subnetworks that are isolated from each other and have different access controls and security policies. This limits the spread of malicious traffic and prevents attackers from accessing sensitive data or systems in other segments. Aperimeter firewall, a data loss prevention (DLP) system, and a web application firewall are also useful security measures, but they do not prevent propagation within the network as effectively as network segmentation does. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3
A review of an organization’s IT portfolio revealed several applications that are not in use. The BEST way to prevent this situation from recurring would be to implement.
A formal request for proposal (RFP) process
Business case development procedures
An information asset acquisition policy
Asset life cycle management.
Asset life cycle management is a technique of asset management where facility managers maximize the usable life of assets throughplanning, purchasing, using, maintaining, and disposing of assets1. The mainaim of assetlife cycle management is to reduce costs and increase productivity by optimizing the performance, reliability, and lifespan of assets2. Asset life cycle management can help prevent the situation of having unused applications by ensuring that the applications are aligned with the business needs, objectives, and strategies, and that they are regularly reviewed, updated, or retired as necessary3.
The other options are not as effective as asset life cycle management for preventing unused applications. A formal request for proposal (RFP) process is a method of soliciting bids from potential vendors or suppliers for a project or service. A RFP process can help select the best application for a specific requirement, but it does not ensure that the application will be used or maintained throughout its lifecycle. Business case development procedures are a set of steps that involve defining the problem, analyzing the alternatives, and proposing a solution for a project or initiative. Business case development procedures can help justify the need and value of an application, but they do not guarantee that the application will be utilized or supported after its implementation. An information asset acquisition policy is a document that outlines the rules and standards for acquiring information assets such as applications. An information asset acquisition policy can help ensure that the applications are acquired in a consistent and compliant manner, but it does not address how the applications will be managed or disposed of after their acquisition.
An IS auditor is reviewing processes for importing market price data from external data providers. Which of the following findings should the auditor consider MOST critical?
The quality of the data is not monitored.
Imported data is not disposed frequently.
The transfer protocol is not encrypted.
The transfer protocol does not require authentication.
The most critical finding that the IS auditor should consider when reviewing processes for importing market price data from external data providers is that the quality of the data is not monitored. This is because market price data is essential for financial transactions, risk management, valuation and reporting, and any errors or inaccuracies in the data can have significant impact on the organization’s performance, reputation and compliance. The IS auditor should ensure that the organization has established quality criteria and controls for the imported data, such as validity, completeness, timeliness, consistency and accuracy, and that the data is regularly checked and verified against these criteria. The other findings are also important, but not as critical as data quality. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.7
An IS auditor has completed the fieldwork phase of a network security review and is preparing the initial following findings should be ranked as the HIGHEST risk?
Network penetration tests are not performed
The network firewall policy has not been approved by the information security officer.
Network firewall rules have not been documented.
The network device inventory is incomplete.
The finding that should be ranked as the highest risk is that network penetration tests are not performed. Network penetration tests are simulated cyberattacks that aim to identify and exploit the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of the network security controls, such as firewalls, routers, switches, servers, and devices. Network penetration tests are essential for assessing the effectiveness and resilience of the network security posture, and for providing recommendations for improvement and remediation. If network penetration tests are not performed, the organization may not be aware of the existing or potential threats and risks to its network, and may not be able to prevent or respond to real cyberattacks, which can result in data breaches, service disruptions, financial losses, reputational damage, and legal or regulatory penalties. The other findings are also important, butnot as risky as the lack of network penetration tests, because they either do not directly affect the networksecurity controls, or they can be addressed by documentation or approval processes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4
An IS auditor is reviewing the installation of a new server. The IS auditor's PRIMARY objective is to ensure that
security parameters are set in accordance with the manufacturer s standards.
a detailed business case was formally approved prior to the purchase.
security parameters are set in accordance with the organization's policies.
the procurement project invited lenders from at least three different suppliers.
The primary objective of an IS auditor when reviewing the installation of a new server is to ensure that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies. Security parameters are settingsor options that control the security level and behavior of the server, such as authentication methods, encryption algorithms, access rights, audit logs, firewall rules, or password policies7. The organization’s policies are documents that define the security goals, requirements, standards, and guidelines for the organization’s information systems. An IS auditor should verify that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies to ensure that the new server complies with the organization’s security expectations and regulations. The other options are less important or incorrect because:
A. Security parameters should not be set in accordance with the manufacturer’s standards alone, as they may not reflect the organization’s specific security needs and environment. The manufacturer’s standards are general recommendations or best practices for configuring the server’s security parameters based on common scenarios and threats. An IS auditor should compare the manufacturer’s standards with the organization’s policies and identify any gaps or conflicts that need to be resolved.
B. A detailed business case should have been formally approved prior to the purchase of a new server rather than during its installation. A business case is a document that justifies the need for a new server based on its expected benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. A business case should be approved by senior management before initiating a project to acquire a new server.
D. The procurement project should have invited tenders from at least three different suppliers before purchasing a new server rather than during its installation. A tender is a formal offer or proposal to provide a product or service at a specified price and quality. Inviting tenders from multiple suppliers helps to ensure a fair and competitive procurement process that can result in the best value for money and quality for the organization. References: Server Security - ISACA, [Information Security Policy - ISACA], [Server Hardening - ISACA], [Business Case - ISACA], [Tender - ISACA], [Procurement Management - ISACA]
Which of the following is the MOST efficient way to identify segregation of duties violations in a new system?
Review a report of security rights in the system.
Observe the performance of business processes.
Develop a process to identify authorization conflicts.
Examine recent system access rights violations.
The most efficient way to identify segregation of duties violations in a new system is to review a report of security rights in the system. Segregation of duties is a control principle that aims to prevent or detect errors, fraud, or abuse by ensuring that no single individual has the ability to perform incompatible or conflicting functions or activities within a system or process. A report of security rights in the system can provide a comprehensive and accurate overview of the roles, responsibilities, and access levels assigned to different users or groups in the system, and can help to identify any potential segregation of duties violations or risks. The other options are not as efficient as reviewing a report of security rights in the system, because they either rely on observation or testing rather than analysis, or they focus on existing rather than potential violations. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk that IS auditors are required to consider for each engagement?
Process and resource inefficiencies
Irregularities and illegal acts
Noncompliance with organizational policies
Misalignment with business objectives
The most significant risk that IS auditors are required to consider for each engagement is the misalignment with business objectives. This is because IS audit engagements are intended to provide assurance that the IT systems and processes support the achievement of the business objectives and strategies. If there is a misalignment,it could result in wasted resources, missed opportunities, inefficiencies, errors, or failures that could adversely affect the organization’s performance and reputation12. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.3: Audit Risk, page 28 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Lesson 1.3: Audit Risk
An IS auditor finds that the process for removing access for terminated employees is not documented What is the MOST significant risk from this observation?
Procedures may not align with best practices
Human resources (HR) records may not match system access.
Unauthorized access cannot he identified.
Access rights may not be removed in a timely manner.
The most significant risk from this observation is that access rights may not be removed in a timely manner. If the process for removing access for terminated employees is not documented, there is no clear guidance or accountability for who, how, when, and what actions should be taken to revoke the access rights of the employees who leave the organization. This could result in delays, inconsistencies, or omissions in removing access rights, which could allow terminated employees to retain unauthorized access to the organization’s systems and data. This could compromise the security, confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
An organization has outsourced the development of a core application. However, the organization plans to bring the support and future maintenance of the application back in-house. Which of the following findings should be the IS auditor's GREATEST concern?
The cost of outsourcing is lower than in-house development.
The vendor development team is located overseas.
A training plan for business users has not been developed.
The data model is not clearly documented.
The finding that should be the IS auditor’s greatest concern is that the data model is not clearly documented. A data model is a representation of the structure, relationships, and constraints of the data used by an application. It is a vital component of the software development process, as it helps to ensure the accuracy, consistency, and quality of the data1. A clear and comprehensive documentation of the data model is essential for the maintenance and support of the application, as it facilitates the understanding, modification, and troubleshooting of the data and the application logic2.
If the organization plans to bring the support and future maintenance of the application back in-house, it will need to have access to the data model documentation from the vendor. Without it, the organization may face difficulties in transferring the knowledge and skills from the vendor to the in-house team, as well as in adapting and enhancing the application to meet changing businessneeds and requirements3. The lack of data model documentation may also increase therisk of errors, inconsistencies, and inefficiencies in the data and the application performance2.
The other findings are not as concerning as the lack of data model documentation, because they do not directly affect the quality and maintainability of the application. The cost of outsourcing is lowerthan in-house development is a benefit rather than a risk for the organization, as it implies that outsourcing has helped to save time and money for the organization4. The vendor development team is located overseas is a common practice in outsourcing, and it does not necessarily imply a lower quality or a higher risk of the application. However, it may pose some challenges in terms of communication, coordination, and cultural differences, which can bemanaged by establishing clear expectations, roles, and responsibilities, as well as using effective tools and methods for communication and collaboration5. A training plan for business users has not been developed is a gap that should be addressed by the organization before deploying the application, as it may affect the user acceptance and satisfaction of the application. However, it does not directly impact the quality or maintainability of the application itself. References:
What is Data Modeling? Definition & Types | Informatica1
Data Modeling Best Practices: Documentation | erwin2
Data Model Documentation - an overview |ScienceDirect Topics3
Outsourcing App Development Pros and Cons – Droids On Roids4
8 Risks of Software Development Outsourcing & Their Solutions - Acropolium5
Software Training Plan: How to Create One for Your Business - Elinext
During an IT general controls audit of a high-risk area where both internal and external audit teams are reviewing the same approach to optimize resources?
Leverage the work performed by external audit for the internal audit testing.
Ensure both the internal and external auditors perform the work simultaneously.
Request that the external audit team leverage the internal audit work.
Roll forward the general controls audit to the subsequent audit year.
The best approach to optimize resources when both internal and external audit teams are reviewing the same IT general controls area is to leverage the work performed by external audit for the internal audit testing. This can avoid duplication of efforts, reduce audit costs and enhance coordination between the audit teams. The internal audit team should evaluate the quality and reliability of the external audit work before relying on it. Ensuring both the internal and external auditors perform the work simultaneously is not an efficient use of resources, as it would create redundancy and possible interference. Requesting that the external audit team leverage the internal audit work may not be feasible or acceptable, as the external audit team may have different objectives, standards and independence requirements. Rolling forward the general controls audit to the subsequent audit year is not a good practice, as it would delay the identification and remediation of any control weaknesses in a high-risk area. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 247
The PRIMARY objective of value delivery in reference to IT governance is to:
promote best practices
increase efficiency.
optimize investments.
ensure compliance.
The primary objective of value delivery in reference to IT governance is to optimize investments. Value delivery is one of the five focus areas of IT governance that aims to ensure that IT delivers expected benefits to stakeholders and enables business value creation. Value delivery involves aligning IT investments with business objectives and strategies, managing IT performance and benefits realization, optimizing IT costs and risks, and enhancing IT innovation and agility. Value delivery helps to maximize the return on investment (ROI) and value for money (VFM) of IT resources and capabilities. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
Which of the following is the BEST way to enforce the principle of least privilege on a server containing data with different security classifications?
Limiting access to the data files based on frequency of use
Obtaining formal agreement by users to comply with the data classification policy
Applying access controls determined by the data owner
Using scripted access control lists to prevent unauthorized access to the server
The best way to enforce the principle of least privilege on a server containing data with different security classifications is to apply access controls determined by the data owner. The principle of least privilege states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. The data owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility to classify, label, and protect the data according to its sensitivity and value. The data owner can define the access rightsand permissions for each user or role based on the data classification policy and the business needs. This will ensure that only authorized and appropriate users can access the data and prevent unauthorized or excessive access that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the data. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
During a security audit, an IS auditor is tasked with reviewing log entries obtained from an enterprise intrusion prevention system (IPS). Which type of risk would be associated with the potential for the auditor to miss a sequence of logged events that could indicate an error in the IPS configuration?
Sampling risk
Detection risk
Control risk
Inherent risk
The type of risk associated with the potential for the auditor to miss a sequence of logged events that could indicate an error in the IPS configuration is detection risk. Detection risk is the risk that the auditor’s procedures will not detect a material misstatement or error that exists in an assertion or a control. Detection risk can be affected by factors such as the nature, timing, and extent of the audit procedures, the quality and sufficiency of the audit evidence, and the auditor’s professional judgment and competence. Detection risk can be reduced by applying appropriate audit techniques, such as sampling, testing, observation, inquiry, and analysis. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
An IS auditor notes that the previous year's disaster recovery test was not completed within the scheduled time frame due to insufficient hardware allocated by a third-party vendor. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that adequate resources are now allocated to successfully recover the systems?
Service level agreement (SLA)
Hardware change management policy
Vendor memo indicating problem correction
An up-to-date RACI chart
The best evidence that adequate resources are now allocated to successfully recover the systems is a service level agreement (SLA). An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the scope, quality, and terms of the service delivery. An SLA should include measurable and verifiable indicators of the service performance, such as availability, reliability, capacity, security, and recovery. An SLA should also specify the roles, responsibilities, and expectations of both parties, as well as the remedies and penalties for non-compliance. An SLA can help to ensure that the third-party vendor has allocated sufficient hardware and other resources to meet the recovery objectives and requirements of the organization. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
What would be an IS auditor's BEST recommendation upon finding that a third-party IT service provider hosts the organization's human resources (HR) system in a foreign country?
Perform background verification checks.
Review third-party audit reports.
Implement change management review.
Conduct a privacy impact analysis.
The best recommendation for an IS auditor when finding that a third-party IT service provider hosts the organization’s HR system in a foreign country is to conduct a privacy impact analysis. A privacy impact analysis is a systematic process that identifies and evaluates the potential risks and impacts of collecting, using, disclosing, and storing personal information. A privacy impact analysis will help the IS auditor to assess the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations of the organization and the service provider regarding the protection of personal information. A privacy impact analysis will also help to identify and mitigate any privacy risks and gaps in the service level agreement. References:
CISA Certification | CertifiedInformation Systems Auditor | ISACA
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database
Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the planning phase of a cloud-based messaging and collaboration platform acquisition?
Role-based access control policies
Types of data that can be uploaded to the platform
Processes for on-boarding and off-boarding users to the platform
Processes for reviewing administrator activity
The most important thing to determine during the planning phase of a cloud-based messaging and collaboration platform acquisition is the types of data that can be uploaded to the platform. This is because different types of data may have different security, privacy, and compliance requirements, depending on the nature, sensitivity, and value of the data. For example, personal data, financial data, health data, or intellectual property data may be subject to various laws and regulations thatgovern how they can be collected, stored, processed, and shared in the cloud. Therefore, it is essential to identify and classify the types of data that will be uploadedto the platform, and ensure that the platform meets the organization’s policies and standards for data protection1.
The other options are not as important as the types of data that can be uploaded to the platform during the planning phase of a cloud-based messaging and collaboration platform acquisition. Option A, role-based access control policies, is a mechanism that defines who can access what data and resources on the platform based on their roles and responsibilities. Role-based access control policies are important for ensuring data security and accountability, but they can be designed and implemented after the platform is acquired2. Option C, processes for on-boarding and off-boarding users to the platform, are procedures that enable or disable user accounts and access rights on the platform. Processes for on-boarding and off-boarding users are important for managing user identities and lifecycles, but they can be developed and executed after the platform is acquired3. Option D, processes for reviewing administrator activity, are methods that monitor and audit the actions and events performed by administrators on the platform. Processes for reviewing administrator activity are important for detecting and preventing unauthorized or malicious activities, but they can be established and performed after the platform is acquired4.
An organization has made a strategic decision to split into separate operating entities to improve profitability. However, the IT infrastructure remains shared between the entities. Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that IS audit still covers key risk areas within the IT environment as part of its annual plan?
Increasing the frequency of risk-based IS audits for each business entity
Developing a risk-based plan considering each entity's business processes
Conducting an audit of newly introduced IT policies and procedures
Revising IS audit plans to focus on IT changes introduced after the split
Developing a risk-based plan considering each entity’s business processes would best help to ensure that IS audit still covers key risk areas within the IT environment as part of its annual plan. A risk-based plan is a plan that prioritizes the audit activities based on the level of risk associated with each area or process. A risk-based plan can help to allocate the audit resources more efficiently and effectively, and provide more assurance and value to the stakeholders1.
By considering each entity’s business processes, the IS audit can identify and assess the specific risks and controls that affect the IT environment of each entity, and tailor the audit objectives, scope,and procedures accordingly. This can help to address the unique needs and expectations of eachentity, and ensure that the IS audit covers the key risk areas that are relevant and significant to each entity’s operations, performance, and compliance2.
The other options are not as effective as developing a risk-based plan considering each entity’s business processes in ensuring that IS audit still covers key risk areas within the IT environment as part of its annual plan. Option A, increasing the frequency of risk-based IS audits for each business entity, is not a feasible or efficient solution, as it may increase the audit costs and workload, and create duplication or overlap of audit efforts. Option C, conducting an audit of newly introduced IT policies and procedures, is a limited and narrow approach, as it may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of the IT environment that may have changed or been affected by the split. Option D, revising IS audit plans to focus on IT changes introduced after the split, is a reactive and short-term approach, as it may not reflect the current or future state of the IT environment or the business objectives of each entity.
Which of the following is the BEST approach to validate whether a streaming site can continue to provide service during a period of live streaming with an anticipated high volume of viewers?
Fuzzing
Usability test
Fault grading
Load test
An IS auditor wants to verify alignment of the organization's business continuity plan (BCP) with the business strategy. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to review?
Disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing results
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Corporate risk management policy
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
To ensure that theBCP aligns with business strategy, aBusiness Impact Analysis (BIA)is the most valuable resource.
Option A (Incorrect):DRP testing resultsshow how wellsystems recover, but they do notestablish strategic alignmentwith business priorities.
Option B (Correct):ABIA identifies critical processes, financial impact, and business priorities, ensuring that theBCP is alignedwith strategic goals.
Option C (Incorrect):Thecorporate risk management policyis broader and does not focus onbusiness continuity priorities.
Option D (Incorrect):KPIs measure performance, but they do notdefine business continuity needs.
An organization's business continuity plan (BCP) should be:
updated before an independent audit review.
tested after an intrusion attempt into the organization's hot site.
tested whenever new applications are implemented.
updated based on changes to personnel and environments.
A BCP must stay current with organizational changes to ensure its effectiveness during a disruption. Personnel changes and environmental updates are directly relevant to how the BCP would be executed.
References
ISACA CISA Review Manual (Current Edition) - Chapter on Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
Industry Standards (e.g., ISO 22301, NIST SP 800-34) - Guidelines for maintaining and updating a Business Continuity Plan
Which of the following BEST indicates that an incident management process is effective?
Decreased number of calls to the help desk
Decreased time for incident resolution
Increased number of incidents reviewed by IT management
Increased number of reported critical incidents
A hearth care organization utilizes Internet of Things (loT) devices to improve patient outcomes through real-time patient monitoring and advanced diagnostics. Which of the following would BEST assist in isolating these devices from corporate network traffic?
Internal firewalls
Blockchain technology
Content filtering proxy
Zero Trust architecture
Internal firewalls are highly effective for isolating Internet of Things (IoT) devices from corporate network traffic. By segmenting the network and restricting communication between devices and the main corporate infrastructure, internal firewalls help mitigate the risk of lateral movement and data breaches caused by compromised IoT devices.
Blockchain Technology (Option B):This is useful for ensuring data integrity but not for network isolation.
Content Filtering Proxy (Option C):This is designed to manage web traffic and does not provide network segmentation.
Zero Trust Architecture (Option D):While Zero Trust provides robust access controls, internal firewalls are more directly suited for traffic isolation.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of using an automated security log monitoring tool instead of conducting a manual review to monitor the use of privileged access?
Reduced costs associated with automating the review
Increased likelihood of detecting suspicious activity
Ease of storing and maintaining log file
Ease of log retrieval for audit purposes
Which of the following is PRIMARILY used in blockchain technology to create a distributed immutable ledger?
Artificial intelligence (Al)
Application hardening
Edge computing
Encryption
Which of the following should an IS auditor recommend be done FIRST when an organization is planning to implement an IT compliance program?
Identify staff training needs related to compliance requirements.
Analyze historical compliance-related audit findings.
Research and purchase an industry-recognized IT compliance tool
Identify applicable laws, regulations, and standards.
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization's patch management program?
Patches are deployed from multiple deployment servers.
There is no process in place to scan the network to identify missing patches.
Patches for medium- and low-risk vulnerabilities are omitted.
There is no process in place to quarantine servers that have not been patched.
In reviewing the IT strategic plan, the IS auditor should consider whether it identifies the:
allocation of IT staff.
project management methodologies used.
major IT initiatives.
links to operational tactical plans.
In reviewing the IT strategic plan, the IS auditor should consider whether it identifies the major IT initiatives that are aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and objectives, and that support the business strategy and priorities12. The major IT initiatives should also be realistic, measurable, and achievable, and should have clear timelines, budgets, and responsibilities34.
References
1: IT Strategy Template for a Successful Strategic Plan | Gartner2 2: IT Strategy Template for a Successful Strategic Plan | Gartner4 3: Conduct a Strategic Plan Review & Assessment - Governance3 4: Time To Conduct A Strategy Review? Here’s How To Get Started1
Which of the following is an example of shadow IT?
An employee using a cloud based order management tool without approval from IT
An employee using a company provided laptop to access personal banking information
An employee using personal email to communicate with clients without approval from IT
An employee using a company-provided tablet to access social media during work hours
Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems, devices, software, or services without explicit organizational approval. This often occurs when employees or departments adopt tools that bypass official IT governance structures.
Using a Cloud-Based Order Management Tool Without Approval (Option A)is a clear example of shadow IT because the employee is circumventing established IT policies to implement a solution independently.
Accessing Personal Banking Information on a Company-Provided Laptop (Option B)is a potential misuse of resources but does not qualify as shadow IT since it does not involve unauthorized technology.
Using Personal Email for Client Communication (Option C)may violate communication policies but is not related to the adoption of unapproved IT systems.
Accessing Social Media on a Company-Provided Tablet (Option D)is improper use of a company asset but does not involve unauthorized IT tools.
Shadow IT introduces risks such as data breaches, lack of compliance, and inefficiencies due to lack of integration with official systems. Organizations should have clear policies and monitoring mechanisms to address such risks.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be reduced when implementing optimal risk management strategies?
Sampling risk
Residual risk
Detection risk
Inherent risk
An organization plans to centrally decommission end-of-life databases and migrate the data to the latest model of hardware. Which of the following BEST ensures data integrity is preserved during the migration?
Reconciling sample data to most recent backups
Obfuscating confidential data
Encrypting the data
Comparing checksums
An IS auditor determines elevated administrator accounts for servers that are not properly checked out and then back in after each use. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate sampling technique to determine the scope of the problem?
Haphazard sampling
Random sampling
Statistical sampling
Stratified sampling
An organization has alternative links in its wide area network (WAN) to provide redundancy. However, each time there is a problem with a link, network administrators have to update the configuration to divert traffic to the other link. Which of the following would be an IS auditor's BEST recommendation?
Reduce the number of alternative links.
Implement a load-balancing mechanism.
Configure a non-proprietary routing protocol.
Implement an exterior routing protocol.
Which of the following would an IS auditor find to be the GREATEST risk associated with the server room in a remote office location?
The server room is secured by a key lock instead of an electronic lock.
The server room's location is known by people who work in the area.
The server room does not have temperature controls.
The server room does not have biometric controls.
Which of the following network communication protocols is used by network devices such as routers to send error messages and operational information indicating success or failure when communicating with another IP address?
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
Internet Control Message Protocol
Multipurpose Transaction Protocol
Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol
An organization is permanently transitioning from onsite to fully remote business operations. When should the existing business impact analysis (BIA) be reviewed?
During the next scheduled review
At least one year after the transition
As soon as the decision about the transition is announced
As soon as the new operating model is in place
An IS auditor found that operations personnel failed to run a script contributing to year-end financial statements. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?
Retrain operations personnel.
Implement a closing checklist.
Update the operations manual.
Bring staff with financial experience into operations.
The best recommendation for the IS auditor to make is to implement a closing checklist, as this will help to ensure that all the required tasks and scripts are performed and verified during the year-end closing process12. A closing checklist can also help to prevent errors, omissions, and delays that could affect the accuracy and timeliness of the financial statements3 .
References
1: Year-end closing procedures for GL - Dynamics GP | Microsoft Learn1 2: Year-end activities FAQ - Finance | Dynamics 365 | Microsoft Learn2 3: Year-End Closing Checklist: 10 Steps to Close Your Books3 : Year End Closing Checklist: 7 Steps to Make it Easy
An IS auditor finds that a new network connection allows communication between the Internet and the internal enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. Which of the following is the PRIMARY business impact to include when presenting this observation to management?
An increase to the threat landscape
A decrease in data quality in the ERP system
A decrease in network performance
An increase in potential fines from regulators
What is the purpose of hashing a document?
To prevent unauthorized disclosure of the contents
To validate the integrity of the file contents
To classify the file for internal use only
To compress the size of the file
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when evaluating an organization's ability to recover from system failures?
Data backups being stored onsite
Lack of documentation for data backup procedures
Inadequate backup job monitoring
Lack of periodic data backup restoration testing
An IS auditor learns that a business owner violated the organization's security policy by creating a web page with access to production data. The auditor's NEXT step should be to:
determine if sufficient access controls exist.
assess the sensitivity of the production data.
shut down the web page.
escalate to senior management.
The PRIMARY reason to perform internal quality assurance (QA) for an internal audit function is to ensure:
Internal audit activity conforms with audit standards and methodology.
The audit function is adequately governed and meets performance metrics.
Inherent risk in audits is minimized.
Audit resources are used most effectively.
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Internalquality assurance (QA) reviewsare conducted toensure conformancewith professionalaudit standards and methodology.
Option A (Correct):The primary purpose of QA reviews is toconfirm that the internal audit function adheres to industry standards, such asISACA’s IT audit frameworkand theInternational Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (IPPF).
Option B (Incorrect):Whilegovernance and performance metricsare important,conformance to standardsis theprimary goalof QA reviews.
Option C (Incorrect):Risk management is part of audits, butQA reviews focus on adherence to methodologyrather than reducing audit risk.
Option D (Incorrect):Efficient resource usageis a goal butnot the main objectiveof an audit QA program.
When selecting a new data loss prevention (DLP) solution, the MOST important consideration is that the solution:
is cost effective and meets proposed return on investment (ROI) criteria.
provides comprehensive reporting and alerting features with detailed insights on data movements.
is compatible with legacy IT infrastructure and integrates with other security tools.
identifies and safeguards confidential information from unauthorized transmission.
An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's incident management processes and procedures. Which of the following observations should be the auditor's GREATEST concern?
Ineffective post-incident review
Ineffective incident prioritization
Ineffective incident detection
Ineffective incident classification
During the planning phase of a data loss prevention (DLP) audit, management expresses a concern about mobile computing. Which of the following should the IS auditor identify as the
associated risk?
Increased vulnerability due to anytime, anywhere accessibility
Increased need for user awareness training
The use of the cloud negatively impacting IT availability
Lack of governance and oversight for IT infrastructure and applications
Which of the following is the MOST reliable way for an IS auditor to evaluate the operational effectiveness of an organization's data loss prevention (DLP) controls?
Verify that confidential files cannot be transmitted to a personal USB device.
Conduct interviews to identify possible data protection vulnerabilities.
Review data classification levels based on industry best practice.
Verify that current DLP software is installed on all computer systems.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of smoke detectors installed in a data processing facility?
Detectors trigger audible alarms when activated.
Detectors have the correct industry certification.
Detectors are linked to dry pipe fire suppression systems.
Detectors are linked to wet pipe fire suppression systems.
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when assessing an IT service configuration database?
The database is read-accessible for all users.
The database is write-accessible for all users.
The database is not encrypted at rest.
The database is executable for all users.
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's PRIMARY focus when auditing the implementation of a new IT operations performance monitoring system?
Reviewing whether all changes have been implemented
Validating whether baselines have been established
Confirming whether multi-factor authentication (MFA) is deployed as part of the operational enhancements
Determining whether there is a process for annual review of the maintenance manual
Which of the following is the MOST efficient control to reduce the risk associated with a systems administrator having network administrator responsibilities?
The administrator must obtain temporary access to make critical changes.
The administrator will need to request additional approval for critical changes.
The administrator must sign a due diligence agreement.
The administrator will be subject to unannounced audits.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing tabletop exercises within a cybersecurity incident response plan?
Ensure participants are selected from all cross-functional units in the organization.
Create exercises that are challenging enough to prove inadequacies in the current incident response plan.
Ensure the incident response team will have enough distractions to simulate real-life situations.
Identify the scope and scenarios that are relevant to current threats faced by the organization.
The most important consideration when developing tabletop exercises within a cybersecurity incident response plan is to identify the scope and scenarios that are relevant to current threats faced by the organization, as this will ensure that the exercises are realistic, meaningful, and effective in testing and improving the incident response capabilities12. The scope and scenarios should reflect the organization’s risk profile, business objectives, and operational environment, and should cover a variety of potential incidents that could impact the organization’s assets, operations, and reputation34.
References
1: Cybersecurity Incident Response Exercise Guidance - ISACA 2: Cybersecurity Tabletop Exercises: Everything You Ever Wanted to Know 3: CISA Tabletop Exercise Package 4: Boost Your Incident Response Plan with Tabletop Exercises
An organization has both an IT strategy committee and an IT steering committee. When reviewing the minutes of the IT steering committee, an IS auditor would expect to find that the
committee:
assessed the contribution of IT to the business.
acquired and assigned appropriate resources for projects.
compared the risk and return of IT investments.
reviewed the achievement of the strategic IT objective.
An IS auditor noted a recent production incident in which a teller transaction system incorrectly charged fees to customers due to a defect from a recent release. Which of the following should be the auditor's NEXT step?
Evaluate developer training.
Evaluate the incident management process.
Evaluate the change management process.
Evaluate secure code practices.
The change management process is the set of procedures and activities that ensure that changes to the information system are authorized, tested, documented, and implemented in a controlled manner12. A defect in a recent release indicates that there may be issues with the quality assurance, testing, or approval of the changes, which could affect the reliability, security, and performance of the system3 . Therefore, the auditor’s next step should be to evaluate the change management process and identify the root cause of the defect, as well as the impact and remediation of the incident.
References
1: Change Management - CISA
2: What is Change Management? - Definition from Techopedia
3: How to Audit Change Management - ISACA Journal
The Business Case for Security | CISA
An IS auditor discovers that backups of critical systems are not being performed in accordance with the recovery point objective (RPO) established in the business continuity plan (BCP). What should the auditor do NEXT?
Request an immediate backup be performed.
Expand the audit scope.
Identify the root cause.
Include the observation in the report.
Answer: B
Which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to determine when reviewing the design and implementation of controls?
Whether there is a proper balance between the magnitude of the risk and the control measures implemented
Whether the implemented controls closely align with domestic and international industry best practices
Whether identified risks are being completely mitigated through the proper application of control mechanisms
Whether adequate resources are available for frequent and stringent control monitoring
When drafting a disaster recovery strategy, what should be the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Establishing recovery point objectives (RPOs)
Determining recovery priorities
Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Determining recovery costs
Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY responsible for mitigating the risk of benefits not being realized in an IT project?
Project sponsor
Project manager
Quality assurance (QA) manager
Chief risk officer (CRO)
An IS auditor is assessing the adequacy of management's remediation action plan. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration?
Plan approval by the audit committee
Impacts on future audit work
Criticality of audit findings
Potential cost savings
The most important consideration when assessing the adequacy of management’s remediation action plan is the criticality of the audit findings, as this reflects the level of risk and impact that the findings pose to the organization’s objectives, performance, and value. The IS auditor should evaluate whether the remediation action plan addresses the root causes, mitigates the risks, and resolves the issues of the audit findings in a timely and effective manner. The IS auditor should also consider the feasibility, reasonableness, and measurability of the remediation actions.
References
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 256
How to Write an Audit Finding - Dallas Chapter of the IIA
How to Write an Audit Report: 14 Steps (with Pictures) - wikiHow
An organization has introduced a capability maturity model to the system development life cycle (SDLC) to measure improvements. Which of the following is the BEST indication of successful process improvement?
Evaluation results align with defined business goals
Process maturity reaches the highest state of process optimization.
Evaluation results exceed process maturity benchmarks against competitors.
Processes demonstrate the mitigation of inherent business risk.
Which of the following is MOST helpful for evaluating benefits realized by IT projects?
Benchmarking IT project management practices with industry peers
Evaluating compliance with key security controls
Comparing planned versus actual return on investment (ROI)
Reviewing system development life cycle (SDLC) processes
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern related to an organization's data classification processes?
Users responsible for managing records are unaware of the data classification processes.
Systems used to manage the data classification processes are not synchronized.
The data classification processes have not been updated in the last year.
The data classification processes are not aligned with industry standards.
How does a continuous integration/continuous development (CI/CD) process help to reduce software failure risk?
Easy software version rollback
Smaller incremental changes
Fewer manual milestones
Automated software testing
A continuous integration/continuous development (CI/CD) process helps to reduce software failure risk by enabling smaller incremental changes to the software code, rather than large and infrequent updates12. Smaller incremental changes allow developers to detect and fix errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities more quickly and easily, and to ensure that the software is always in a working state34. Smaller incremental changes also reduce the complexity and uncertainty of the software development process, and improve the quality and reliability of the software product5.
References
1: What is CI/CD? Continuous integration and continuous delivery explained1 2: 5 CI/CD challenges—and how to solve them | TechBeacon4 3: Continuous Integration vs Continuous Delivery vs Continuous Deployment2 4: 7 CI/CD Challenges & their Must-Know Solutions | BrowserStack3 5: 5 common pitfalls of CI/CD—and how to avoid them | InfoWorld5
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's PRIMARY consideration when determining which issues to include in an audit report?
Professional skepticism
Management's agreement
Materiality
Inherent risk
Materiality is the primary consideration when determining which issues to include in an audit report, as it reflects the significance or importance of the issues to the users of the report. Materiality is a relative concept that depends on the nature, context, and amount of the issues, as well as the expectations and needs of the users. Materiality helps the auditor to prioritize the issues and communicate them clearly and concisely.
References
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 256
Materiality in Auditing - AICPA
Materiality in Planning and Performing an Audit - IAASB
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing an IT-related customer service project?
The project risk exceeds the organization's risk appetite.
Executing the project will require additional investments.
Expected business value is expressed in qualitative terms.
The organization will be the first to offer the proposed services.
An IS auditor has validated that an organization's IT department runs several low-priority automated tasks Which of the following is the BEST recommendation for an automated job schedule?
Low-priority jobs should be avoided.
Low-priority jobs should include the major functions.
Low-priority jobs should be provided with optimal resources.
Low-priority jobs should be scheduled subject to resource availability.
Low-priority jobs typically involve non-critical processes or tasks that do not immediately impact business operations. The best approach to handling such jobs is to schedule them subject to resource availability. This ensures that high-priority tasks can access resources when needed without being affected by the execution of low-priority tasks.
Avoiding Low-Priority Jobs (Option A)is not feasible because even low-priority tasks may be necessary for maintenance or support activities.
Including Major Functions in Low-Priority Jobs (Option B)contradicts the classification of "low-priority" because major functions are usually critical.
Allocating Optimal Resources to Low-Priority Jobs (Option C)is inefficient as resources should primarily be allocated to high-priority tasks.
Scheduling based on resource availability optimizes the use of resources, avoids unnecessary delays in high-priority activities, and ensures that low-priority tasks are executed without disrupting overall operations. This aligns with best practices in IT resource management and scheduling.
An IS auditor is reviewing a machine learning algorithm-based system for loan approvals and is preparing a data set to test the algorithm for bias. Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor’s test data set to include?
Applicants of all ages
Applicants from a range of geographic areas and income levels
Incomplete records and incorrectly formatted data
Duplicate records
A new regulation has been enacted that mandates specific information security practices for the protection of customer data. Which of the following is MOST useful for an IS auditor to review when auditing against the regulation?
Compliance gap analysis
Customer data protection roles and responsibilities
Customer data flow diagram
Benchmarking studies of adaptation to the new regulation
A compliance gap analysis is a detailed review of an organization’s current state of compliance against a specific regulation or standard. It helps identify the areas and controls that are not meeting the requirements, assess their risk levels, and determine the corrective actions that can be taken to achieve compliance12. A compliance gap analysis is the most useful tool for an IS auditor to review when auditing against a new regulation, as it provides a clear and comprehensive picture of the compliance status, gaps, and remediation plan of the organization.
References
1: Information Security Architecture: Gap Assessment and Prioritization - ISACA
2: How to perform Compliance Gap Analysis? - Sprinto
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with hypervisors in virtual environments?
Availability issues
Virtual sprawl
Single point of failure
Lack of patches
A single point of failure is a component or system that, if it fails, will cause the entire system to stop functioning. In virtual environments, the hypervisor is the software layer that enables multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical host. If the hypervisor is compromised, corrupted, or unavailable, all the virtual machines running on that host will be affected. This can result in data loss, downtime, or security breaches.
References
ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 254
Virtualization: What are the security risks?
What Is a Hypervisor? (Definition, Types, Risks)
Which of the following responsibilities associated with a disaster recovery plan (DRP) can be outsourced to a Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) provider?
System recovery procedures
Stakeholder communications during a disaster
Validation of recovered data
Processes for maintaining currency of data
A Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) provider is responsible for system recovery procedures, including restoring systems and services in a disaster scenario. This is the core functionality of DRaaS.
Stakeholder Communications (Option B):This is typically managed internally by the organization to ensure alignment with its crisis management plan.
Validation of Recovered Data (Option C):The organization must verify data integrity to meet business requirements.
Maintaining Currency of Data (Option D):While DRaaS may handle data backups, the organization retains responsibility for ensuring the relevance of the data being backed up.
An organization has replaced its call center with Al chatbots that autonomously learn new responses through internet queries and customer conversation history. Which of the following would an IS auditor tasked with verifying IT controls consider to be the GREATEST risk?
The model may not result in expected efficiencies.
The model's operations may be difficult for the IT team to document.
The model may not generate accurate responses due to overfitting.
It may be difficult to audit the model due to the lack of a suitable framework.
Which of the following techniques BEST mitigates the risk of pervasive network attacks?
Segmentation
Configuration assessment
Encryption
Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
A sample for testing must include the 80 largest client balances and a random sample of the rest. What should the IS auditor recommend?
Query the database.
Develop an integrated test facility (ITF).
Use generalized audit software.
Leverage a random number generator.
Generalized audit software is a type of computer-assisted audit technique (CAAT) that allows the IS auditor to perform various audit tasks on the data stored in different file formats and databases1. Generalized audit software can help the IS auditor to select a sample for testing that includes the 80 largest client balances and a random sample of the rest, by using functions such as sorting, filtering, stratifying, and randomizing the data23. Generalized audit software can also help the IS auditor to perform other audit procedures on the sample, such as verifying the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data4.
References
1: Generalized Audit Software (GAS) - ISACA 2: Audit Sampling - ISACA 3: How to use generalized audit software to perform audit sampling 4: Generalized Audit Software: A Review of Five Packages
An IS auditor learns that an organization did not conduct any penetration testing over one internet-facing webpage prior to of the following is the auditor's BEST course of action?
Revise IT security procedures to require penetration tests for internally developed services prior to deployment.
Report a control deficiency, as no penetration test has been conducted and documented.
Confirm whether vulnerability scanning was conducted after the webpage was deployed.
Meet with IT and the information security team to determine why testing was not completed.
Which of the following is the BEST disposal method for flash drives that previously stored confidential data?
Destruction
Degaussing
Cryptographic erasure
Overwriting
An IS auditor is preparing for a review of controls associated with a manufacturing plant's implementation of industrial Internet of Things (loT) infrastructure Which of the following vulnerabilities would present the GREATEST security risk to the organization?
Insufficient physical security around the lo I devices for theft prevention
Use of open-source software components within the loT devices
Constraints in loT device firmware storage space for code upgrades
loT devices that are not using wireless network connectivity
The use of open-source software components in IoT devices presents the greatest security risk due to potential vulnerabilities that may exist within the software. These vulnerabilities can be exploited if patches are not applied promptly, and the organization might not have direct control over the software's maintenance and security updates. This risk is amplified in critical manufacturing environments where compromised IoT devices can lead to operational disruptions.
Physical Security (Option A):While important, theft of IoT devices generally poses less risk compared to a system-wide compromise due to software vulnerabilities.
Firmware Storage Constraints (Option C):While a limitation, this is a secondary concern compared to exploitable software.
Devices Not Using Wireless Connectivity (Option D):Wired devices are generally more secure, reducing this as a significant concern.
An IS auditor has been asked to review the integrity of data transfer between two business-critical systems that have not been tested since implementation. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to plan an audit?
Quality assurance (QA) testing
System change logs
IT testing policies and procedures
Previous system interface testing records
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to standardize its IT infrastructure to align with business goals?
Enterprise architecture (EA)
Operational technologies
Data architecture
Robotic process automation (RPA)
Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent social engineering incidents?
Ensure user workstations are running the most recent version of antivirus software.
Maintain an onboarding and annual security awareness program.
Include security responsibilities in job descriptions and require signed acknowledgment.
Enforce strict email security gateway controls.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to drive accountability for achieving the desired outcomes specified in a benefits realization plan for an IT project?
Document the dependencies between the project and other projects within the same program.
Ensure that IT takes ownership for the delivery and tracking of all aspects of the benefits realization plan.
Ensure that the project manager has formal authority for managing the benefits realization plan.
Assign responsibilities, measures, and timelines for each identified benefit within the plan.
Which of the following metrics is MOST helpful for evaluating the effectiveness of problem management practices?
The number of recurring incidents that cause downtime
The percentage of incidents resolved within a service level agreement (SLA)
The number of incidents investigated and diagnosed
The average time to detect and prioritize an incident
A business application's database is copied to a replication server within minutes. Which of the following processes taking place during business hours will MOST benefit from this architecture?
Rolling forward of transactions when a production server fails
Ad hoc batch reporting jobs from the replication server
Analysis of application performance degradation
Hardware replacement work involving databases
An IS auditor is performing a follow-up audit and notes that some critical deficiencies have not been addressed. The auditor's BEST course of action is to:
document management's reasons for not addressing deficiencies.
postpone the audit until the deficiencies are addressed.
assess the impact of not addressing deficiencies.
provide new recommendations.
An IS auditor wants to gain a better understanding of an organization’s selected IT operating system software. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to review?
Service level agreements (SLAs)
Project steering committee charter
IT audit reports
Enterprise architecture (EA)
The PRIMARY advantage of using open-source-based solutions is that they:
Have well-defined support levels.
Are easily implemented.
Reduce dependence on vendors.
Offer better security features.
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Open-source solutions provide flexibility and reduce vendor lock-in, allowing organizations to modify, enhance, and support software independently.
Option A (Incorrect):Open-source software often lacksformalizedsupport levels compared to proprietary solutions, which provide structured SLAs (Service Level Agreements).
Option B (Incorrect):While some open-source solutions are user-friendly, implementation complexity depends on the software and required customization.
Option C (Correct):A key benefit of open-source solutions is thefreedom from vendor dependence. Organizations can customize the software, hire independent developers, or switch providers without being locked into a specific vendor's ecosystem.
Option D (Incorrect):Security in open-source software depends on the community and organization managing the solution. Some open-source tools have excellent security, while others may require additional hardening.
An IS auditor has been tasked with analyzing an organization's capital expenditures against its repair and maintenance costs. Which of the following is the BEST reason to use a data analytics tool for this purpose?
It reduces the error rate.
It improves the reliability of the data.
It enables the auditor to work with 100% of the transactions.
It reduces the sample size required to perform the audit.