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Transparent data encryption is used for:
data across communication channels.
data currently being processed.
data in random access memory (RAM).
data and log files at rest
Transparent data encryption (TDE) is used for data and log files at rest. This means that TDE encrypts the database files on the disk and decrypts them when they are read into memory. TDE protects the data from unauthorized access or theft if the physical media, such as drives or backup tapes, are stolen or lost. TDE does not encrypt data across communication channels, data currently being processed, or data in random access memory (RAM). These types of data require different encryption methods, such as SSL/TLS, column encryption, or memory encryption12.
References:
Which of the following is MOST useful for an auditor to review when seeking visibility into the cloud supply chain for a newly acquired Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?
SaaS provider contract
Payments made by the service owner
SaaS vendor white papers
Cloud compliance obligations register
The most useful document for an auditor to review when seeking visibility into the cloud supply chain for a newly acquired Software as a Service (SaaS) solution is the SaaS provider contract. The contract is the legal agreement that defines the terms and conditions of the cloud service, including the roles, responsibilities, and obligations of the parties involved1. The contract should also specify the service level agreements (SLAs), security and privacy requirements, data ownership and governance, incident response and reporting, audit rights and access, and subcontracting or outsourcing arrangements of the SaaS provider2. By reviewing the contract, the auditor can gain insight into the cloud supply chain and assess the risks, controls, and compliance of the SaaS solution.
The other options are not as useful as the SaaS provider contract. Payments made by the service owner are the financial transactions that reflect the fees or charges incurred by using the SaaS solution. They may indicate the usage or consumption of the cloud service, but they do not provide much information about the cloud supply chain or its security and compliance aspects3. SaaS vendor white papers are the marketing or educational materials that describe the features, benefits, or best practices of the SaaS solution. They may provide some general or technical information about the cloud service, but they are not legally binding or verifiable4. Cloud compliance obligations register is a tool that helps customers identify and track their compliance requirements and obligations for using cloud services. It may help customers understand their own responsibilities and risks in relation to the cloud service, but it does not necessarily reflect the compliance status or performance of the SaaS provider5.
References:
In the context of Infrastructure as a Service (laaS), a vulnerability assessment will scan virtual machines to identify vulnerabilities in:
both operating system and application infrastructure contained within the cloud service
provider’s instances.
both operating system and application infrastructure contained within the customer’s
instances.
only application infrastructure contained within the cloud service provider’s instances.
only application infrastructure contained within the customer's instance
In the context of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), a vulnerability assessment will scan virtual machines to identify vulnerabilities in both operating system and application infrastructure contained within the customer’s instances. IaaS is a cloud service model that provides customers with access to virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks, hosted by a cloud service provider (CSP). The customer is responsible for installing, configuring, and maintaining the operating system and application software on the virtual machines, while the CSP is responsible for managing the underlying physical infrastructure. Therefore, a vulnerability assessment will scan the customer’s instances to detect any weaknesses or misconfigurations in the operating system and application layers that may expose them to potential threats. A vulnerability assessment can help the customer to prioritize and remediate the identified vulnerabilities, and to comply with relevant security standards and regulations12.
References:
Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is MOST important for the auditor to be aware that the:
client organization does not need to worry about the provider's suppliers, as this is the
provider's responsibility.
suppliers are accountable for the provider's service that they are providing.
client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider's suppliers.
client organization has a clear understanding of the provider's suppliers.
It is most important for the auditor to be aware that the client organization has a clear understanding of the provider’s suppliers. The provider’s suppliers are the third-party entities that provide services or products to the provider, such as infrastructure, software, hardware, or support. The provider’s suppliers may have a significant impact on the quality, security, reliability, and performance of the cloud services that the provider delivers to the client organization. Therefore, the auditor should ensure that the client organization knows who the provider’s suppliers are, what services or products they provide, what risks they pose, and what contractual or regulatory obligations they have123.
The other options are not correct. Option A, the client organization does not need to worry about the provider’s suppliers, as this is the provider’s responsibility, is incorrect because the client organization cannot rely solely on the provider to manage its suppliers. The client organization has to perform due diligence and oversight on the provider’s suppliers, as they may affect the client organization’s own security, compliance, and business objectives12. Option B, the suppliers are accountable for the provider’s service that they are providing, is incorrect because the suppliers are not directly accountable to the client organization, but to the provider. The provider is ultimately accountable to the client organization for its service delivery and performance12. Option C, the client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider’s suppliers, is incorrect because the responsibility for the provider’s suppliers depends on the shared responsibility model, which defines how the security and compliance tasks and obligations are divided between the provider and the client organization. The shared responsibility model may vary depending on the type and level of cloud service that the provider offers12. References :=
Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is MOST important for the auditor to be aware that the:
client organization has a clear understanding of the provider s suppliers.
suppliers are accountable for the provider's service that they are providing.
client organization does not need to worry about the provider's suppliers, as this is the
provider's responsibility.
client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider's suppliers.
Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is most important for the auditor to be aware that the client organization has a clear understanding of the provider’s suppliers. This is because cloud services often involve multiple parties in the supply chain, such as cloud providers, sub-providers, brokers, carriers, and auditors. Each party may have different roles and responsibilities in delivering the cloud services and ensuring their quality, security, and compliance. Therefore, it is essential for the client organization to have visibility and assurance of the performance and compliance of the provider’s suppliers and to establish clear and transparent agreements with them regarding their roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations.12
An auditor should be aware of the importance of the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers because it provides a basis for assessing the risks and challenges associated with outsourcing services to a cloud provider and its supply chain. An auditor can use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to verify that the client organization has conducted a thorough due diligence of the provider’s suppliers and their capabilities, qualifications, certifications, and reputation. An auditor can also use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to evaluate whether the client organization has implemented adequate controls and processes to monitor, audit, or verify the security and compliance status of their cloud services and data across the supply chain. An auditor can also use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the client organization’s security management program and to provide recommendations for improvement.34
References := Practical Guide to Cloud Service Agreements Version 2.01; HIDDEN INTERDEPENDENCIES BETWEEN INFORMATION AND ORGANIZATIONAL …2; Cloud Computing: The Audit Challenge - ISACA3; Cloud Computing: Audit Considerations - AICPA4
In audit parlance, what is meant by "management representation"?
A person or group of persons representing executive management during audits
A mechanism to represent organizational structure
A project management technique to demonstrate management's involvement in key
project stages
Statements made by management in response to specific inquiries
Management representation is a term used in audit parlance to refer to the statements made by management in response to specific inquiries or through the financial statements, as part of the audit evidence that the auditor obtains. Management representation can be oral or written, but the auditor usually obtains written representation from management in the form of a letter that attests to the accuracy and completeness of the financial statements and other information provided to the auditor. The management representation letter is signed by senior management, such as the CEO and CFO, and is dated the same date of audit work completion. The management representation letter confirms or documents the representations explicitly or implicitly given to the auditor during the audit, indicates the continuing appropriateness of such representations, and reduces the possibility of misunderstanding concerning the matters that are the subject of the representations12.
Management representation is not a person or group of persons representing executive management during audits (A), as this would imply that management is not directly involved or accountable for the audit process. Management representation is not a mechanism to represent organizational structure (B), as this would imply that management representation is a graphical or diagrammatic tool to show the hierarchy or relationships within an organization. Management representation is not a project management technique to demonstrate management’s involvement in key project stages ©, as this would imply that management representation is a method or practice to monitor or report on the progress or outcomes of a project.
From an auditor perspective, which of the following BEST describes shadow IT?
An opportunity to diversify the cloud control approach
A weakness in the cloud compliance posture
A strength of disaster recovery (DR) planning
A risk that jeopardizes business continuity planning
From an auditor’s perspective, shadow IT is best described as a risk that jeopardizes business continuity planning. Shadow IT refers to the use of IT-related hardware or software that is not under the control of, or has not been approved by, the organization’s IT department. This can lead to a lack of visibility into the IT infrastructure and potential gaps in security and compliance measures. In the context of business continuity planning, shadow IT can introduce unknown risks and vulnerabilities that are not accounted for in the organization’s disaster recovery and business continuity plans, thereby posing a threat to the organization’s ability to maintain or quickly resume critical functions in the event of a disruption.
References = The answer is based on general knowledge of shadow IT risks and their impact on business continuity planning. Specific references from the Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) documents and related resources by ISACA and the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) are not directly cited here, as my current capabilities do not include accessing or verifying content from external documents or websites. However, the concept of shadow IT as a risk to business continuity is a recognized concern in IT governance and auditing practices1234.
In all three cloud deployment models, (laaS, PaaS, and SaaS), who is responsible for the patching of the hypervisor layer?
Cloud service provider
Shared responsibility
Cloud service customer
Patching on hypervisor layer not required
The cloud service provider is responsible for the patching of the hypervisor layer in all three cloud deployment models (IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS). The hypervisor layer is the software that allows the creation and management of virtual machines on a physical server. The hypervisor layer is part of the cloud infrastructure, which is owned and operated by the cloud service provider. The cloud service provider is responsible for ensuring that the hypervisor layer is secure, reliable, and up to date with the latest patches and updates. The cloud service provider should also monitor and report on the status and performance of the hypervisor layer, as well as any issues or incidents that may affect it.
The cloud service customer is not responsible for the patching of the hypervisor layer, as they do not have access or control over the cloud infrastructure. The cloud service customer only has access and control over the cloud resources and services that they consume from the cloud service provider, such as virtual machines, storage, databases, applications, etc. The cloud service customer is responsible for ensuring that their own cloud resources and services are secure, compliant, and updated with the latest patches and updates.
The patching of the hypervisor layer is not a shared responsibility between the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer, as it is solely under the domain of the cloud service provider. The shared responsibility model in cloud computing refers to the division of security and compliance responsibilities between the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer, depending on the type of cloud deployment model. For example, in IaaS, the cloud service provider is responsible for securing the physical infrastructure, network, and hypervisor layer, while the cloud service customer is responsible for securing their own operating systems, applications, data, etc. In PaaS, the cloud service provider is responsible for securing everything up to the platform layer, while the cloud service customer is responsible for securing their own applications and data. In SaaS, the cloud service provider is responsible for securing everything up to the application layer, while the cloud service customer is responsible for securing their own data and user access.
Patching on hypervisor layer is required, as it is essential for maintaining the security, reliability, and performance of the cloud infrastructure. Patching on hypervisor layer can help prevent vulnerabilities, bugs, errors, or exploits that may compromise or affect the functionality of the virtual machines or other cloud resources and services. Patching on hypervisor layer can also help improve or enhance the features or capabilities of the hypervisor software or hardware. References :=
Which of the following is the MOST important strategy and governance documents to provide to the auditor prior to a cloud service provider review?
Enterprise cloud strategy and policy, as well as inventory of third-party attestation reports
Policies and procedures established around third-party risk assessments, including questionnaires that are required to be completed to assess risk associated with use of third-party services
Enterprise cloud strategy and policy, as well as the enterprise cloud security strategy
Inventory of third-party attestation reports and enterprise cloud security strategy
The best approach for an auditor to review the operating effectiveness of the password requirement is to review the configuration settings on the Configuration Management (CM) tool and verify that the CM tool agents are functioning correctly on the VMs. This method ensures that the password policies are being enforced as intended and that the CM tool is effectively managing the configurations across the organization’s virtual machines. It provides a balance between relying solely on automated tools and manual verification processes.
References = This approach is supported by best practices in cloud security and auditing, which recommend a combination of automated tools and manual checks to ensure the effectiveness of security controls123. The use of CM tools for enforcing password policies is a common practice, and their effectiveness must be regularly verified to maintain the security posture of cloud services.
The Cloud Octagon Model was developed to support organizations':
risk treatment methodology.
incident detection methodology.
incident response methodology.
risk assessment methodology.
The Cloud Octagon Model was developed to support organizations’ risk assessment methodology. Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with a cloud computing environment. The Cloud Octagon Model provides a logical approach to holistically deal with security aspects involved in moving to the cloud by introducing eight dimensions that need to be considered: procurement, IT governance, architecture, development and engineering, service providers, risk processes, data classification, and country. The model aims to reduce risks, improve effectiveness, manageability, and security of cloud solutions12.
References:
Under GDPR, an organization should report a data breach within what time frame?
48 hours
72 hours
1 week
2 weeks
Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), organizations are required to report a data breach to the appropriate supervisory authority within 72 hours of becoming aware of it. This timeframe is critical to ensure timely communication with the authorities and affected individuals, if necessary, to mitigate any potential harm caused by the breach.
References = This requirement is outlined in the GDPR guidelines, which emphasize the importance of prompt reporting to maintain compliance and protect individual rights and freedoms12345.
The PRIMARY purpose of Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to:
facilitate an effective relationship between the cloud service provider and cloud client.
ensure understanding of true risk and perceived risk by the cloud service users.
provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider.
enable the cloud service provider to prioritize resources to meet its own requirements.
According to the CSA website, the primary purpose of the Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to provide global, accredited, trusted certification of cloud providers1 The OCF is an industry initiative to allow global, trusted independent evaluation of cloud providers. It is a program for flexible, incremental and multi-layered cloud provider certification and/or attestation according to the Cloud Security Alliance’s industry leading security guidance and control framework2 The OCF aims to address the gaps within the IT ecosystem that are inhibiting market adoption of secure and reliable cloud services, such as the lack of simple, cost effective ways to evaluate and compare providers’ resilience, data protection, privacy, and service portability2 The OCF also aims to promote industry transparency and reduce complexity and costs for both providers and customers3
The other options are not correct because:
References: 1: Open Certification Framework Working Group | CSA 2: Open Certification Framework | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance 3: Why your cloud services need the CSA STAR Registry listing
An auditor examining a cloud service provider's service level agreement (SLA) should be MOST concerned about whether:
the agreement includes any operational matters that are material to the service operations.
the agreement excludes any sourcing and financial matters that are material in meeting the
service level agreement (SLA).
the agreement includes any service availability matters that are material to the service operations.
the agreement excludes any operational matters that are material to the service operations
An auditor examining a cloud service provider’s SLA should be most concerned about whether the agreement excludes any operational matters that are material to the service operations, as this could indicate a lack of transparency, accountability, and quality assurance from the provider. Operational matters are the aspects of the cloud service that affect its functionality, performance, availability, reliability, security, and compliance. Examples of operational matters include service scope, roles and responsibilities, service levels and metrics, monitoring and reporting mechanisms, incident and problem management, change management, backup and recovery, data protection and privacy, and termination and exit clauses12. These matters are material to the service operations if they have a significant impact on the achievement of the service objectives and expectations of the cloud customer. The auditor should verify that the SLA covers all the relevant and material operational matters in a clear and comprehensive manner, and that the provider adheres to the SLA terms and conditions.
The other options are not the most concerning for the auditor. Option A is a desirable feature of an SLA, but not a concern if it is missing. Option B is an unrealistic expectation of an SLA, as sourcing and financial matters are usually essential in meeting the SLA. Option C is a specific example of an operational matter that is material to the service operations, but not the only one that should be included in the SLA. References:
The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to:
GDPR CoC certification.
GB/T 22080-2008.
SOC 2 Type 1 or 2 reports.
ISO/IEC 27001 implementation.
The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined in the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to ISO/IEC 27001 implementation. The CCM is a cybersecurity control framework for cloud computing that covers 17 domains and 197 control objectives that address all key aspects of cloud technology. ISO/IEC 27001 is a standard for information security management systems that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an information security management system within the context of the organization. The CSA STAR Certification demonstrates that a cloud service provider conforms to the applicable requirements of ISO/IEC 27001, has addressed issues critical to cloud security as outlined in the CCM, and has been assessed against the STAR Capability Maturity Model for the management of activities in CCM control areas1. The CSA STAR Certification is a third-party independent assessment of the security of a cloud service provider and provides a high level of assurance and trust to customers2.
References:
What is an advantage of using dynamic application security testing (DAST) over static application security testing (SAST) methodology?
DAST is slower but thorough.
Unlike SAST, DAST is a black box and programming language agnostic.
DAST can dynamically integrate with most continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) tools.
DAST delivers more false positives than SAST
Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is a method of testing the security of an application by simulating attacks from an external source. DAST does not require access to the source code or binaries of the application, unlike static application security testing (SAST), which analyzes the code for vulnerabilities. Therefore, DAST is a black box testing technique, meaning that it does not need any knowledge of the internal structure, design, or implementation of the application. DAST is also programming language agnostic, meaning that it can test applications written in any language, framework, or platform. This makes DAST more flexible and adaptable to different types of applications and environments. However, DAST also has some limitations, such as being slower, less accurate, and more dependent on the availability and configuration of the application. References:
Which of the following is the BEST control framework for a European manufacturing corporation that is migrating to the cloud?
CSA'sGDPRCoC
EUGDPR
NIST SP 800-53
PCI-DSS
For a European manufacturing corporation migrating to the cloud, the best control framework would be the Cloud Security Alliance’s (CSA) General Data Protection Regulation Code of Conduct (GDPR CoC). This framework is specifically designed to help cloud service providers and users comply with EU data protection requirements. As GDPR is a critical regulation in Europe that imposes strict data protection rules, adhering to a framework that aligns with these regulations is essential for any organization operating within the EU.
References = The CSA’s GDPR CoC is recognized as a robust framework for ensuring compliance with GDPR, which is a key consideration for European organizations migrating to the cloud. This is supported by the resources provided by the Cloud Security Alliance and ISACA in their Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) materials1.
Which of the following has been provided by the Federal Office for Information Security in Germany to support customers in selecting, controlling, and monitoring their cloud service providers?
BSI IT-basic protection catalogue
Multi-Tier Cloud Security (MTCS)
German IDW PS 951
BSI Criteria Catalogue C5
The BSI Criteria Catalogue C5 is a document that has been provided by the Federal Office for Information Security (BSI) in Germany to support customers in selecting, controlling, and monitoring their cloud service providers (CSPs). The C5 stands for Cloud Computing Compliance Criteria Catalogue and specifies minimum requirements for secure cloud computing. The C5 is primarily intended for professional CSPs, their auditors, and customers of the CSPs. The C5 covers 17 domains and 114 control objectives that address all key aspects of cloud security, such as data protection, identity and access management, encryption and key management, incident response, audit assurance, and compliance. The C5 also maps to other industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks, such as ISO 27001/27002/27017/27018, NIST SP 800-53, CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), COBIT, GDPR, etc. The C5 helps customers to evaluate and compare the security and compliance posture of different CSPs, and to verify that the CSPs meet their contractual obligations and legal requirements12.
References:
Which of the following is the BEST tool to perform cloud security control audits?
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2
ISO 27001
The CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is the best tool to perform cloud security control audits, as it is a cybersecurity control framework for cloud computing that is aligned to the CSA best practices and is considered the de-facto standard for cloud security and privacy1. The CCM provides a set of 197 control objectives that are structured in 17 domains covering all key aspects of cloud technology, such as identity and access management, data security, encryption and key management, business continuity and disaster recovery, audit assurance and compliance, and risk management1. The CCM also maps the controls to various industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and control frameworks, such as ISO 27001/27002/27017/27018, NIST SP 800-53, PCI DSS, GDPR, and others1. The CCM can be used as a tool for the systematic assessment of a cloud implementation, and provides guidance on which security controls should be implemented by which actor within the cloud supply chain1. The CCM also includes the Consensus Assessment Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ), which provides a set of “yes or no” questions based on the security controls in the CCM that can be used to assess a cloud service provider2.
The other options are not the best tools to perform cloud security control audits, as they are either not specific to cloud computing or not comprehensive enough. GDPR is a regulation that aims to protect the personal data and privacy of individuals in the European Union and the European Economic Area3, but it does not provide a framework for cloud security controls. FIPS 140-2 is a standard that specifies the security requirements for cryptographic modules used by federal agencies in the United States, but it does not cover other aspects of cloud security. ISO 27001 is a standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system within the context of the organization, but it does not provide specific guidance for cloud services. References:
When establishing cloud governance, an organization should FIRST test by migrating:
legacy applications to the cloud.
a few applications to the cloud.
all applications at once to the cloud.
complex applications to the cloud
When establishing cloud governance, an organization should first test by migrating a few applications to the cloud. Cloud governance is the process of defining and implementing policies, procedures, standards, and controls to ensure the effective, efficient, secure, and compliant use of cloud services. Cloud governance requires a clear understanding of the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and objectives of both the cloud service provider and the cloud customer, as well as the alignment of the cloud strategy with the business strategy. Cloud governance also involves monitoring, measuring, and reporting on the performance, availability, security, compliance, and cost of cloud services.
Migrating a few applications to the cloud can help an organization to test and validate its cloud governance approach before scaling up to more complex or critical applications. Migrating a few applications can also help an organization to:
Migrating a few applications to the cloud can also help an organization to avoid some common pitfalls and challenges of cloud migration, such as:
Therefore, migrating a few applications to the cloud is a recommended best practice for establishing cloud governance. It can help an organization to gain experience and confidence in using cloud services while ensuring that its cloud governance approach is effective, efficient, secure, and compliant.
References:
To BEST prevent a data breach from happening, cryptographic keys should be:
distributed in public-facing repositories.
embedded in source code.
rotated regularly.
transmitted in clear text.
Rotating cryptographic keys regularly is a security best practice that helps to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access to encrypted data. When keys are rotated, old keys are retired and replaced with new ones, making any compromised keys useless to an attacker. This process helps to limit the time window during which a stolen key can be used to breach data. Key rotation is a fundamental aspect of key management lifecycle best practices, which include generating new key pairs, rotating keys at set intervals, revoking access to keys, and destroying out-of-date or compromised keys.
References = The importance of key rotation is supported by various security standards and best practices, including recommendations from the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)1 and the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA)23. These sources emphasize the need for periodic renewal and decommissioning of old keys as part of a comprehensive key management strategy.
A contract containing the phrase "You automatically consent to these terms by using or logging into the service to which they pertain" is establishing a contract of:
exclusivity.
adhesion.
execution.
exclusion.
A contract containing the phrase “You automatically consent to these terms by using or logging into the service to which they pertain” is establishing a contract of adhesion. A contract of adhesion is a type of legal agreement that involves one party setting the terms and conditions and the other party having no choice but to accept or reject them without bargaining. These contracts are often used in situations where one party has more power or resources than the other, such as in online services, insurance, leases, or consumer credit. These contracts may be unfair or unclear to the weaker party and may be challenged in court for unconscionability or ambiguity12.
References:
What areas should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud?
Identity and access management (IAM) and data protection
Source code reviews and hypervisor
Patching and configuration
Vulnerability management and cyber security reviews
When auditing a public cloud, it is essential to review areas such as Identity and Access Management (IAM) and data protection. IAM involves ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to the cloud resources, and that their access is appropriately managed and monitored. This includes reviewing user authentication methods, access control policies, role-based access controls, and user activity monitoring1.
Data protection is another critical area to review. It involves ensuring that the data stored in the public cloud is secure from unauthorized access, breaches, and leaks. This includes reviewing data encryption methods, data backup and recovery processes, data privacy policies, and compliance with relevant data protection regulations1.
While the other options may also be relevant in certain contexts, they are not as universally applicable as IAM and data protection for auditing a public cloud. Source code reviews and hypervisor (option B), patching and configuration (option C), and vulnerability management and cybersecurity reviews (option D) are important but are more specific to certain types of cloud services or deployment models. References:
Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?
Documentation criteria for the audit evidence
Testing procedure to be performed
Processes and systems to be audited
Updated audit work program
The most important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider is the document that defines the processes and systems to be audited. This document should clearly identify the objectives, criteria, and boundaries of the audit, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the audit team and the cloud service provider. The document should also specify the scope of the cloud service provider’s services, such as the service model, deployment model, geographic location, data classification, and compliance requirements. The document should also describe the scope of the audit evidence, such as the types, sources, methods, and sampling techniques of data collection and analysis. The document should also state the expected deliverables, timelines, and reporting formats of the audit. The document should be agreed upon by both parties before the audit commences.
The document that defines the processes and systems to be audited is essential for ensuring that the audit is relevant, reliable, consistent, and complete. It helps to establish a common understanding and expectation between the auditor and the auditee, as well as to avoid any misunderstandings or conflicts during or after the audit. It also helps to focus the audit on the key risks and controls related to the cloud service provider’s operations and performance. It also helps to ensure that the audit complies with the applicable standards, frameworks, and regulations.
References:
Which of the following would be considered as a factor to trust in a cloud service provider?
The level of willingness to cooperate
The level of exposure for public information
The level of open source evidence available
The level of proven technical skills
Trust in a cloud service provider is fundamentally based on the assurance that the provider can deliver secure and reliable services. The level of proven technical skills is a critical factor because it demonstrates the provider’s capability to implement and maintain robust security measures, manage complex cloud infrastructures, and respond effectively to technical challenges. Technical expertise is essential for establishing trust, as it directly impacts the security and performance of the cloud services offered.
References = The importance of technical skills in establishing trust is supported by the resources provided by ISACA and the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA). These resources emphasize the need for cloud service providers to have a strong technical foundation to ensure the fulfillment of internal requirements, proper controls, and compliance with regulations, which are crucial for maintaining customer trust and mitigating risks1234.
Which of the following is an example of availability technical impact?
The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.
A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alters the discount percentage in the product database.
A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.
An administrator inadvertently clicked on phish bait, exposing the company to a ransomware attack
A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours is an example of availability technical impact. Availability is the protection of data and services from disruption or denial, and it is one of the three dimensions of information security, along with confidentiality and integrity. Availability technical impact refers to the extent of damage or harm that a threat can cause to the availability of the information system and its components, such as servers, networks, applications, and data. A DDoS attack is a malicious attempt to overwhelm a target system with a large volume of traffic or requests from multiple sources, making it unable to respond to legitimate requests or perform its normal functions. A DDoS attack can cause a significant availability technical impact by rendering the customer’s cloud inaccessible for a prolonged period of time, resulting in loss of productivity, revenue, customer satisfaction, and reputation. References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 81; What is a DDoS Attack? | Cloudflare
To support a customer's verification of the cloud service provider claims regarding its responsibilities according to the shared responsibility model, which of the following tools and techniques is appropriate?
External audit
Internal audit
Contractual agreement
Security assessment
An external audit is an appropriate tool and technique to support a customer’s verification of the cloud service provider’s claims regarding its responsibilities according to the shared responsibility model. An external audit is an independent and objective examination of the cloud service provider’s policies, procedures, controls, and performance by a qualified third-party auditor. An external audit can provide assurance that the cloud service provider is fulfilling its obligations and meeting the customer’s expectations in terms of security, compliance, availability, reliability, and quality. An external audit can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the cloud service provider’s security posture and suggest recommendations for improvement.
An external audit can be based on various standards, frameworks, and regulations that are relevant to the cloud service provider’s industry and domain. For example, some common external audits for cloud service providers are:
The other options listed are not suitable for supporting a customer’s verification of the cloud service provider’s claims regarding its responsibilities according to the shared responsibility model. An internal audit is an audit conducted by the cloud service provider itself or by an internal auditor hired by the cloud service provider. An internal audit may not be as independent or objective as an external audit, and it may not provide sufficient evidence or credibility to the customer. A contractual agreement is a legal document that defines the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both the cloud service provider and the customer. A contractual agreement may specify the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance, availability, security, compliance, data protection, incident response, dispute resolution, liability, and termination. However, a contractual agreement alone does not verify or validate whether the cloud service provider is actually fulfilling its claims or meeting its contractual obligations. A security assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the security risks and vulnerabilities of a system or an organization. A security assessment may involve various methods such as vulnerability scanning, penetration testing, threat modeling, or risk analysis. A security assessment may provide useful information about the current state of security of a system or an organization, but it may not cover all aspects of the shared responsibility model or provide assurance that the cloud service provider is complying with its responsibilities on an ongoing basis.
An organization is using the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to extend its IT governance in the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to take advantage of the supplier relationship feature?
Filter out only those controls directly influenced by contractual agreements.
Leverage this feature to enable the adoption of the Shared Responsibility Model.
Filter out only those controls having a direct impact on current terms of service (TOS) and
service level agreement (SLA).
Leverage this feature to enable a smarter selection of the next cloud provider.
The best way for the organization to take advantage of the supplier relationship feature of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is to leverage this feature to enable a smarter selection of the next cloud provider. The supplier relationship feature is a column in the CCM spreadsheet that indicates whether a control is influenced by contractual agreements between the cloud service provider and the cloud customer. This feature can help the organization to identify and compare the security and compliance capabilities of different cloud providers, as well as to negotiate and customize the terms of service (TOS) and service level agreements (SLA) according to their needs and requirements123.
The other options are not the best ways to use the supplier relationship feature. Option A, filter out only those controls directly influenced by contractual agreements, is not a good way to use the feature because it would exclude other important controls that are not influenced by contractual agreements, but still relevant for cloud security and governance. Option B, leverage this feature to enable the adoption of the Shared Responsibility Model, is not a good way to use the feature because the Shared Responsibility Model is defined by another column in the CCM spreadsheet, which indicates whether a control is applicable to the cloud service provider or the cloud customer. Option C, filter out only those controls having a direct impact on current TOS and SLA, is not a good way to use the feature because it would exclude other controls that may have an indirect or potential impact on the TOS and SLA, or that may be subject to change or negotiation in the future. References :=
Application programming interfaces (APIs) are likely to be attacked continuously by bad actors because they:
are the asset with private IP addresses.
are generally the most exposed part.
could be poorly designed.
act as a very effective backdoor.
APIs are likely to be attacked continuously by bad actors because they are generally the most exposed part of an application or system. APIs serve as the interface between different components or services, and often expose sensitive data or functionality to the outside world. APIs can be accessed by anyone with an Internet connection, and can be easily discovered by scanning or crawling techniques. Therefore, APIs are a prime target for attackers who want to exploit vulnerabilities, steal data, or disrupt services.
References:
Which of the following standards is designed to be used by organizations for cloud services that intend to select controls within the process of implementing an information security management system based on ISO/IEC 27001?
ISO/IEC 27017:2015
ISO/IEC 27002
NIST SP 800-146
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)
ISO/IEC 27017:2015 is a standard that provides guidelines for information security controls applicable to the provision and use of cloud services by providing additional implementation guidance for relevant controls specified in ISO/IEC 27002, as well as additional controls with implementation guidance that specifically relate to cloud services1. ISO/IEC 27017:2015 is designed to be used by organizations for cloud services that intend to select controls within the process of implementing an information security management system based on ISO/IEC 270011. ISO/IEC 27001 is a standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system within the context of the organization.
ISO/IEC 27002 is a standard that provides a code of practice for information security controls, but it does not provide specific guidance for cloud services. NIST SP 800-146 is a publication that provides an overview of cloud computing, its characteristics, service models, deployment models, and security considerations, but it does not provide a standard for selecting controls for cloud services. CSA CCM is a framework that provides detailed understanding of security concepts and principles that are aligned to the Cloud Security Alliance guidance in 13 domains, but it is not a standard that is based on ISO/IEC 27001. References:
When an organization is using cloud services, the security responsibilities largely vary depending on the service delivery model used, while the accountability for compliance should remain with the:
cloud user.
cloud service provider. 0
cloud customer.
certification authority (CA)
According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the cloud customer is the entity that retains accountability for the business outcome of the system or the processes that are supported by the cloud service1. The cloud customer is also responsible for ensuring that the cloud service meets the legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations that apply to the customer’s business context1. The cloud customer should also perform due diligence and risk assessment before selecting a cloud service provider, and establish a clear and enforceable contract that defines the roles and responsibilities of both parties1.
The cloud user is the entity that uses the cloud service on behalf of the cloud customer, but it is not necessarily accountable for the compliance of the service1. The cloud service provider is the entity that makes the cloud service available to the cloud customer, but it is not accountable for the compliance of the customer’s business context1. The certification authority (CA) is an entity that issues digital certificates to verify the identity or authenticity of other entities, but it is not accountable for the compliance of the cloud service2. References:
The MOST critical concept for managing the building and testing of code in DevOps is:
continuous build.
continuous delivery.
continuous integration.
continuous deployment.
Continuous integration (CI) is the most critical concept for managing the building and testing of code in DevOps. CI is the practice of merging all developers’ working copies of code to a shared mainline several times a day. This enables early detection and resolution of bugs, conflicts, and errors, as well as faster and more frequent feedback loops. CI also facilitates the automation of building, testing, and deploying code, which improves the quality, reliability, and security of the software delivery process. CI is a prerequisite for continuous delivery (CD) and continuous deployment (CD), which are the next stages of DevOps maturity that aim to deliver software to customers faster and more frequently. References:
Which of the following can be used to determine whether access keys are stored in the source code or any other configuration files during development?
Static code review
Dynamic code review
Vulnerability scanning
Credential scanning
Credential scanning is a technique that can be used to detect and prevent the exposure of access keys and other sensitive information in the source code or any other configuration files during development. Credential scanning tools can scan the code repositories, files, and commits for any hardcoded credentials, such as access keys, passwords, tokens, certificates, and connection strings. They can also alert the developers or security teams of any potential leaks and suggest remediation actions, such as rotating or revoking the compromised keys, removing the credentials from the code, or using secure storage mechanisms like vaults or environment variables. Credential scanning can be integrated into the development pipeline as part of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) process, or performed periodically as a security audit. Credential scanning can help reduce the risk of credential leakage, which can lead to unauthorized access, data breaches, or account compromise. References:
An organization that is utilizing a community cloud is contracting an auditor to conduct a review on behalf of the group of organizations within the cloud community. Of the following, to whom should the auditor report the findings?
Management of the organization being audited
Public
Shareholders and interested parties
Cloud service provider
According to the ISACA CCAK Study Guide, the auditor should report the findings to the management of the organization being audited, as they are the primary stakeholders and decision makers for the cloud service. The management is responsible for ensuring that the cloud service meets the requirements and expectations of the community, as well as complying with any relevant laws and regulations. The auditor should also communicate the findings to the cloud service provider, as they are the secondary stakeholders and service providers for the cloud service. The cloud service provider should be aware of any issues or gaps identified by the auditor and work with the management to resolve them. The auditor should not report the findings to the public, shareholders, or interested parties, as they are not directly involved in the cloud service or its governance. The auditor should respect the confidentiality and privacy of the community and its data, and only disclose the findings to those who have a legitimate need to know. References :=
Which of the following is an example of integrity technical impact?
The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.
distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer's cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.
An administrator inadvertently clicked on phish bait, exposing the company to a ransomware attack.
A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alters the discount percentage in the product database.
An example of integrity technical impact refers to an event where the accuracy or trustworthiness of data is compromised. Option D, where a hacker uses a stolen administrator identity to alter the discount percentage in the product database, directly affects the integrity of the data. This action leads to unauthorized changes to data, which is a clear violation of data integrity. In contrast, options A, B, and C describe breaches of confidentiality, availability, and security, respectively, but do not directly impact the integrity of the data itself123.
References = The concept of data integrity in cloud computing is extensively covered in the literature, including the importance of protecting against unauthorized data alteration to maintain the trustworthiness and accuracy of data throughout its lifecycle123.
Supply chain agreements between a cloud service provider and cloud customers should, at a minimum, include:
regulatory guidelines impacting the cloud customer.
audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms.
the organizational chart of the provider.
policies and procedures of the cloud customer
Supply chain agreements between a cloud service provider and cloud customers should, at a minimum, include audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms. This is because cloud services involve multiple parties in the supply chain, such as cloud providers, sub-providers, brokers, carriers, and auditors. Each party may have different roles and responsibilities in delivering the cloud services and ensuring their quality, security, and compliance. Therefore, it is important for the cloud customers to have visibility and assurance of the performance and compliance of the cloud providers and their sub-providers. Audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications are methods to evaluate the effectiveness of the controls and processes implemented by the cloud providers and their sub-providers to meet the agreement terms. These methods can help the cloud customers to identify any gaps or risks in the supply chain and to take corrective actions if needed. This is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain COM-04: Audit Assurance & Compliance, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to conduct audits and assessments of cloud services and data to verify compliance with applicable regulatory frameworks, contractual obligations, and industry standards."12 References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 551; Practical Guide to Cloud Service Agreements Version 2.02
An auditor identifies that a cloud service provider received multiple customer inquiries and requests for proposal (RFPs) during the last month.
Which of the following should be the BEST recommendation to reduce the provider's burden?
The provider can schedule a call with each customer.
The provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process.
The provider can answer each customer individually.
The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry
The CSA STAR registry is a publicly accessible registry that documents the security and privacy controls provided by popular cloud computing offerings1 The registry is designed for users of cloud services to assess their cloud providers’ security and compliance posture, including the regulations, standards, and frameworks they adhere to1 The registry also promotes industry transparency and reduces complexity and costs for both providers and customers2
The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry, as this would be the best recommendation to reduce the provider’s burden. By publishing to the registry, the provider can show current and potential customers their security and compliance posture, without having to fill out multiple customer questionnaires or requests for proposal (RFPs)2 The provider can also leverage the different levels of assurance available in the registry, such as self-assessment, third-party audit, or certification, to demonstrate their security maturity and trustworthiness1 The provider can also benefit from the CSA Trusted Cloud Providers program, which recognizes providers that have fulfilled additional training and volunteer requirements with CSA, demonstrating their commitment to cloud security competency and industry best practices3
The other options are not correct because:
References: 1: STAR | CSA 2: Why your cloud services need the CSA STAR Registry listing 3: STAR Registry | CSA
A cloud service provider contracts for a penetration test to be conducted on its infrastructures. The auditor engages the target with no prior knowledge of its defenses, assets, or channels. The provider's security operation center is not notified in advance of the scope of the audit and the test vectors. Which mode has been selected by the provider?
Reversal
Double blind
Double gray box
Tandem
A double blind penetration test is a type of pen test where the hacker has no prior knowledge of the target’s defenses, assets, or channels, and the target’s security team is not notified in advance of the scope of the audit and the test vectors. This mode simulates a real-world attack scenario, where both the attacker and the defender have to rely on their skills and resources to achieve their objectives. A double blind penetration test can help evaluate the effectiveness of the target’s security posture, detection and response capabilities, and incident management procedures12.
References:
Which of the following methods can be used by a cloud service provider with a cloud customer that does not want to share security and control information?
Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Independent auditor report
First-party audit
Industry certifications
An independent auditor report is a method that can be used by a cloud service provider (CSP) with a cloud customer that does not want to share security and control information. An independent auditor report is a document that provides assurance on the CSP’s security and control environment, based on an audit conducted by a qualified third-party auditor. The audit can be based on various standards or frameworks, such as ISO 27001, SOC 2, CSA STAR, etc. The independent auditor report can provide the cloud customer with the necessary information to evaluate the CSP’s security and control posture, without disclosing sensitive or proprietary details. The CSP can also use the independent auditor report to demonstrate compliance with relevant regulations or contractual obligations.
References:
Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?
Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.
Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.
Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service provider.
The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements
According to the web search results, the most critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit would be that the application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures. This finding indicates a serious lack of security by design and security by default principles, which are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application and its data . If the application architecture and configurations are not secure, they could expose the application to various threats and vulnerabilities, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, denial-of-service attacks, injection attacks, cross-site scripting attacks, and others . This finding could also result in non-compliance with relevant security standards and regulations, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, GDPR, and others . Therefore, this finding should be addressed with high priority and urgency by implementing appropriate security measures and controls in the application architecture and configurations.
The other options are not as critical as option B. Option A is a moderate finding that indicates a lack of awareness and assessment of the global security standards specific to cloud, such as ISO 27017, ISO 27018, CSA CCM, NIST SP 800-53, and others . This finding could affect the security and compliance of the cloud services used by the application, but it does not directly impact the application itself. Option C is a severe finding that indicates a major incident that occurred at the cloud service provider level, such as a service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data. This finding could affect the availability, confidentiality, and integrity of the application and its data, but it is not caused by the application itself. Option D is a minor finding that indicates a lack of efficiency and consistency in integrating cloud compliance with regulatory requirements. This finding could affect the compliance posture of the application and its data, but it does not directly impact the security or functionality of the application. References:
From the perspective of a senior cloud security audit practitioner in an organization with a mature security program and cloud adoption, which of the following statements BEST describes the DevSecOps concept?
Process of security integration using automation in software development
Operational framework that promotes software consistency through automation
Development standards for addressing integration, testing, and deployment issues
Making software development simpler, faster, and easier using automation
DevSecOps is an approach that integrates security practices into every phase of the software development lifecycle. It emphasizes the incorporation of security from the beginning, rather than as an afterthought, and utilizes automation to ensure security measures are consistently applied throughout the development process. This method allows for early detection and resolution of security issues, making it an essential practice for organizations with mature security programs and cloud adoption.
References = The definition and best practices of DevSecOps are well-documented in resources provided by leading industry authorities such as Microsoft1 and IBM2, which describe DevSecOps as a framework that automates the integration of security into the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following has the MOST substantial impact on how aggressive or conservative the cloud approach of an organization will be?
Applicable laws and regulations
Internal policies and technical standards
Risk scoring criteria
Risk appetite and budget constraints
Risk appetite and budget constraints have the most substantial impact on how aggressive or conservative the cloud approach of an organization will be. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Budget constraints are the limitations on the financial resources that an organization can allocate to its cloud initiatives. Both factors influence the organization’s strategic decisions on which cloud service models, deployment models, providers, and solutions to adopt, as well as the level of security, compliance, and performance to achieve. An organization with a high risk appetite and a large budget may opt for a more aggressive cloud approach, such as moving critical applications and data to a public cloud provider, while an organization with a low risk appetite and a small budget may opt for a more conservative cloud approach, such as keeping sensitive information on-premises or using a private cloud provider12.
References:
After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data. In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?
As an integrity breach
As an availability breach
As a confidentiality breach
As a control breach
As an integrity breach. The technical impact of this incident can be categorized as an integrity breach, which refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Integrity is one of the three security properties of an information system, along with confidentiality and availability.
The incident described in the question involves a cybersecurity criminal finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, accessing an encrypted file system, and overwriting parts of some files with random data. This is a type of data tampering or corruption attack that affects the accuracy and reliability of the data. The fact that the file system was encrypted does not prevent the integrity breach, as the attacker did not need to decrypt or read the data, but only to overwrite it. The integrity breach can have serious consequences for the organization, such as data loss, data inconsistency, data recovery costs, and loss of trust.
The other options are not correct categories for the technical impact of this incident. Option B, as an availability breach, is incorrect because availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial, which is not the case in this incident. Option C, as a confidentiality breach, is incorrect because confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure, which is not the case in this incident. Option D, as a control breach, is incorrect because control refers to the ability to manage or influence the behavior or outcome of a system or process, which is not a security property of an information system. References: =
After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data. In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?
As an availability breach
As a control breach
As a confidentiality breach
As an integrity breach
The technical impact of this incident would be categorized as an integrity breach in reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology. The Top Threats Analysis methodology is a process developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) to help organizations identify, analyze, and mitigate the top threats to cloud computing, as defined in the CSA Top Threats reports. The methodology consists of six steps: scope definition, threat identification, technical impact identification, business impact identification, risk assessment, and risk treatment. Each of these provides different insights and visibility into the organization’s security posture.1
The technical impact identification step involves determining the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system caused by each threat. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity refers to the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial.2
An integrity breach occurs when a threat compromises the accuracy and consistency of the data or system. An integrity breach can result in data corruption, falsification, or manipulation, which can affect the reliability and trustworthiness of the data or system. An integrity breach can also have serious consequences for the business operations and decisions that depend on the data or system.3
In this case, the cybersecurity criminal was able to access an encrypted file system and overwrite parts of some files with random data. This means that the data in those files was altered without authorization and became unusable or invalid. This is a clear example of an integrity breach, as it violated the principle of ensuring that data is accurate and consistent throughout its lifecycle.4
References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 811; What is CIA Triad? Definition and Examples2; Data Integrity vs Data Security: What’s The Difference?3; Data Integrity: Definition & Examples
What is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles?
Large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems
Incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early
A waterfall model remove resources through the development to release phases
Maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits
The shift-left concept of code release cycles is a practice that aims to integrate testing, quality, and performance evaluation early in the software development life cycle, often before any code is written. This helps to find and prevent defects, improve quality, and enable faster delivery of secure software. One of the key aspects of the shift-left concept is the incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early, such as using continuous integration, continuous delivery, and continuous testing tools. Automation can help reduce manual errors, speed up feedback loops, and increase efficiency and reliability123
The other options are not correct because:
References: 1: AWS. What is DevSecOps? - Developer Security Operations Explained - AWS. [Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 2: Dynatrace. Shift left vs shift right: A DevOps mystery solved - Dynatrace news. [Online]. Available: 2. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: BMC Software. Shift Left Testing: What, Why & How To Shift Left – BMC Software | Blogs. [Online]. Available: 3. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 4: GitLab. How to shift left with continuous integration | GitLab. [Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5: DZone. DevOps and The Shift-Left Principle - DZone. [Online]. Available: 5. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 6: Devopedia. Shift Left - Devopedia. [Online]. Available: 6. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
A cloud service provider utilizes services of other service providers for its cloud service. Which of the following is the BEST approach for the auditor while performing the audit for the cloud service?
The auditor should review the service providers' security controls even more strictly, as they are further separated from the cloud customer.
The auditor should review the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service provider to help direct and estimate the level of effort and analysis the auditor should apply.
As the contract for the cloud service is between the cloud customer and the cloud service provider, there is no need for the auditor to review the services provided by the service providers.
As the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service providers is governed by separate contracts between them, there is no need for the auditor to review the services
According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the auditor should review the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service provider to help direct and estimate the level of effort and analysis the auditor should apply1. The auditor should understand the nature and scope of the services provided by the service provider, the contractual obligations and service level agreements, the security and compliance requirements, and the monitoring and reporting mechanisms. The auditor should also assess the risks and controls associated with the service provider, and determine if additional audit procedures are needed to obtain sufficient assurance.
The other options are not the best approach for the auditor. Option A is too strict and might not be feasible or necessary, depending on the type and level of services provided by the service provider. Option C is too lax and might overlook significant risks and gaps in the cloud service. Option D is too narrow and might ignore the impact of the service provider on the cloud customer’s business context. References:
When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?
Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to
identified risks.
Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information
system.
Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization,
excluding informational assets.
Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the
organization.
When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, the scope of the technical impact identification step is to determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system. The Top Threats Analysis methodology is a framework developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) to help organizations identify, analyze, and mitigate the most critical threats to cloud computing. The methodology consists of six steps: threat identification, threat analysis, technical impact identification, business impact analysis, risk assessment, and risk treatment12.
The technical impact identification step is the third step of the methodology, and it aims to assess how the incident affected the security properties of the information system, namely confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity refers to the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial. The technical impact identification step can help organizations to understand the severity and extent of the incident and its consequences on the information system12.
The other options are not within the scope of the technical impact identification step. Option A, determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks, is not within the scope because it is part of the risk treatment step, which is the sixth and final step of the methodology. Option C, determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets, is not within the scope because it is not related to the information system or its security properties. Option D, determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the organization, is not within the scope because it is part of the business impact analysis step, which is the fourth step of the methodology. References :=
Which of the following is the MOST significant difference between a cloud risk management program and a traditional risk management program?
Virtualization of the IT landscape
Shared responsibility model
Risk management practices adopted by the cloud service provider
Hosting sensitive information in the cloud environment
The most significant difference between a cloud risk management program and a traditional risk management program is the shared responsibility model. The shared responsibility model is the division of security and compliance responsibilities between the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer, depending on the type of cloud service model (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS). The shared responsibility model implies that both parties have to collaborate and coordinate to ensure that the cloud service meets the required level of security and compliance, as well as to identify and mitigate any risks that may arise from the cloud environment123.
Virtualization of the IT landscape (A) is a difference between a cloud risk management program and a traditional risk management program, but it is not the most significant one. Virtualization of the IT landscape refers to the abstraction of physical IT resources, such as servers, storage, network, or applications, into virtual ones that can be accessed and managed over the internet. Virtualization of the IT landscape enables the cloud service provider to offer scalable, flexible, and efficient cloud services to the cloud service customer. However, virtualization of the IT landscape also introduces new risks, such as data leakage, unauthorized access, misconfiguration, or performance degradation123.
Risk management practices adopted by the cloud service provider © are a difference between a cloud risk management program and a traditional risk management program, but they are not the most significant one. Risk management practices adopted by the cloud service provider refer to the methods or techniques that the cloud service provider uses to identify, assess, treat, monitor, and report on the risks that affect their cloud services. Risk management practices adopted by the cloud service provider may include policies, standards, procedures, controls, audits, certifications, or attestations that demonstrate their security and compliance posture. However, risk management practices adopted by the cloud service provider are not sufficient or reliable on their own, as they may not cover all aspects of cloud security and compliance, or may not align with the expectations or requirements of the cloud service customer123.
Hosting sensitive information in the cloud environment (D) is a difference between a cloud risk management program and a traditional risk management program, but it is not the most significant one. Hosting sensitive information in the cloud environment refers to storing or processing data that are confidential, personal, or valuable in the cloud infrastructure or platform that is owned and operated by the cloud service provider. Hosting sensitive information in the cloud environment can offer benefits such as cost savings, accessibility, availability, or backup. However, hosting sensitive information in the cloud environment also poses risks such as data breaches, privacy violations, compliance failures, or legal disputes123. References :=
"Network environments and virtual instances shall be designed and configured to restrict and monitor traffic between trusted and untrusted connections. These configurations shall be reviewed at least annually, and supported by a documented justification for use for all allowed services, protocols, ports, and by compensating controls." Which of the following types of controls BEST matches this control description?
Virtual instance and OS hardening
Network security
Network vulnerability management
Change detection
The correct answer is B. Network security is the type of control that best matches the control description given in the question. Network security involves designing and configuring network environments and virtual instances to restrict and monitor traffic between trusted and untrusted connections, such as firewalls, routers, switches, VPNs, and network segmentation. Network security also requires periodic reviews and documentation of the network configurations and the justification for the allowed services, protocols, ports, and compensating controls.
The other options are not directly related to the question. Option A, virtual instance and OS hardening, refers to the process of applying security configurations and patches to virtual instances and operating systems to reduce their attack surface and vulnerabilities. Option C, network vulnerability management, refers to the process of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and remediating network vulnerabilities using tools such as scanners, analyzers, and testers. Option D, change detection, refers to the process of monitoring and detecting changes in the system or network environment that could affect the security posture or performance of the system or network.
References :=
Which of the following BEST ensures adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment?
Ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines
Periodic review of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations
Role-based access controls in the production and development pipelines
Separation of production and development pipelines
Role-based access control (RBAC) is a method of restricting access to resources based on the roles of individual users within an organization1 RBAC can help ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment, as it can limit the permissions and actions that each user can perform on the pipeline resources, such as code, secrets, environments, etc. RBAC can also help enforce the principle of least privilege, which states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks2
The other options are not correct because:
References: 1: Wikipedia. Role-based access control - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: 1. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 2: Microsoft Learn. Set pipeline permissions - Azure Pipelines | Microsoft Learn. [Online]. Available: 1. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: Investopedia. Segregation Of Duties Definition - Investopedia.com Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 4: Cider Security. Insufficient PBAC (Pipeline-Based Access Controls) - Cider Security Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5: Wikipedia. Audit trail - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 6: Microsoft Learn. Securing Azure Pipelines - Azure Pipelines | Microsoft Learn. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. : AWS DevOps Blog. How to implement CI/CD with AWS CodePipeline - AWS DevOps Blog | Amazon Web Services Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. : LambdaTest. What Is Parallel Testing? with Example - LambdaTest Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
The PRIMARY purpose of Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to:
facilitate an effective relationship between the cloud service provider and cloud client.
enable the cloud service provider to prioritize resources to meet its own requirements.
provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider.
ensure understanding of true risk and perceived risk by the cloud service users
The primary purpose of the Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider. According to the CSA website1, the OCF is an industry initiative to allow global, trusted independent evaluation of cloud providers. It is a program for flexible, incremental and multi-layered cloud provider certification and/or attestation according to the Cloud Security Alliance’s industry leading security guidance and control framework. The OCF aims to address the gaps within the IT ecosystem that are inhibiting market adoption of secure and reliable cloud services. The OCF also integrates with popular third-party assessment and attestation statements developed within the public accounting community to avoid duplication of effort and cost. The OCF manages the foundation that runs and monitors the CSA STAR Certification program, which is an assurance framework that enables cloud service providers to embed cloud-specific security controls. The STAR Certification program has three levels of assurance, each based on a different type of audit or assessment: Level 1: Self-Assessment, Level 2: Third-Party Audit, and Level 3: Continuous Auditing. The OCF also oversees the CSA STAR Registry, which is a publicly accessible repository that documents the security controls provided by various cloud computing offerings2. The OCF helps consumers to evaluate and compare their providers’ resilience, data protection, privacy capabilities, and service portability. It also helps providers to demonstrate their compliance with industry standards and best practices.
References:
During an audit, it was identified that a critical application hosted in an off-premises cloud is not part of the organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP). Management stated that it is responsible for ensuring the cloud service provider has a plan that is tested annually. What should be the auditor's NEXT course of action?
Review the security white paper of the provider.
Review the provider’s audit reports.
Review the contract and DR capability.
Plan an audit of the provider
The auditor’s next course of action should be to review the contract and DR capability of the cloud service provider. This will help the auditor to verify if the provider has a DR plan that meets the organization’s requirements and expectations, and if the provider has evidence of testing and validating the plan annually. The auditor should also check if the contract specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties, the RTO and RPO values, the SLA terms, and the penalties for non-compliance.
Reviewing the security white paper of the provider (option A) might give some information about the provider’s security practices and controls, but it might not be sufficient or relevant to assess the DR plan. Reviewing the provider’s audit reports (option B) might also provide some assurance about the provider’s compliance with standards and regulations, but it might not address the specific DR needs of the organization. Planning an audit of the provider (option D) might be a possible course of action, but it would require more time and resources, and it might not be feasible or necessary if the contract and DR capability are already satisfactory. References:
What should be the control audit frequency for an organization's business continuity management and operational resilience strategy?
Annually
Biannually
Quarterly
Monthly
The control audit frequency for an organization’s business continuity management and operational resilience strategy should be conducted annually. This frequency is considered appropriate for most organizations to ensure that their business continuity plans and operational resilience strategies remain effective and up-to-date with the current risk landscape. Conducting these audits annually aligns with the best practices of reviewing and updating business continuity plans to adapt to new threats, changes in the business environment, and lessons learned from past incidents. References = The annual audit frequency is supported by industry standards and guidelines that emphasize the importance of regular reviews to maintain operational resilience. These include resources from professional bodies and industry groups that outline the need for periodic assessments to ensure the effectiveness of business continuity and resilience strategies