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Insurance Licensing Virginia-Life-Annuities-and-Health-Insurance Virginia Life, Annuities, and Health Insurance Examination Series 11-01 Exam Practice Test

Virginia Life, Annuities, and Health Insurance Examination Series 11-01 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Before being tested for HIV, a health insurance applicant must:

Options:

A.

Pay for the test

B.

Sign a consent form

C.

Provide evidence of insurability

D.

Sign a waiver of treatment

Question 2

Under COBRA, how much of the active-employee cost may be passed on to a surviving spouse for continued coverage?

Options:

A.

No more than 50%

B.

No more than 75%

C.

No more than 100%

D.

No more than 102%

Question 3

The length of time for which claims will be paid under a long-term care insurance policy is known as:

Options:

A.

The benefit period

B.

The hospitalization period

C.

The elimination period

D.

The recovery period

Question 4

(Who receives dividends in a mutual insurance company?)

Options:

A.

Policyholders

B.

Shareholders

C.

Beneficiaries

D.

Producers

Question 5

One premium payment covers which period of time in a single premium whole life policy?

Options:

A.

One month

B.

One year

C.

To the insured’s age 65

D.

The full life of the policy

Question 6

An individual currently owns a long-term care policy. At the time of application for similar coverage, which item must be signed by the applicant and retained by the insurer?

Options:

A.

A cancellation notice

B.

A substitution notice

C.

A replacement notice

D.

A duplication notice

Question 7

(All employer-sponsored qualified retirement plans are generally required to open participation to any employee age 21 or over with a minimum of how many years of service?)

Options:

A.

1 year

B.

3 years

C.

5 years

D.

7 years

Question 8

Life insurance policies are required to have all of the following provisions EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The waiver of premium clause

B.

The misstatement of age clause

C.

The grace period clause

D.

The incontestability clause

Question 9

For an AD&D policy with an irrevocable beneficiary designation, a change in the beneficiary can ONLY be made:

Options:

A.

At the time of policy renewal

B.

When an absolute assignment is attached to the policy

C.

Upon the death of the current beneficiary

D.

With the consent of both the policyowner and the beneficiary

Question 10

An information security program shall be designed to do all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Ensure policyholder access to their information without substantial inconvenience

B.

Ensure the confidentiality of policyholder information

C.

Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the integrity of the information

D.

Protect against unauthorized access to the information

Question 11

Reasons for buying life insurance on a child's life may include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

To provide benefits for the child in case of the death of either or both parents

B.

To give the child a start on a personal insurance program

C.

To pay for funeral expenses if the child dies

D.

To provide funds for the child's education

Question 12

If an employee in poor health is part of a large group that is acceptable for group life insurance, that employee is:

Options:

A.

Ineligible for coverage under the plan

B.

Eligible for coverage, but on a rated basis

C.

Eligible for the same type of coverage as other employees

D.

Eligible for coverage more limited than that of other employees

Question 13

The primary purpose of disability income insurance is to:

Options:

A.

Provide indemnity for loss of life

B.

Pay necessary hospital expenses when the insured is unable to work

C.

Provide benefit payments for a period of time when the insured is unable to work

D.

Pay any physicians' fees resulting from a disabling injury

Question 14

The primary purpose of an HMO gatekeeper system is to:

Options:

A.

Control plan utilization

B.

Emphasize preventive care

C.

Limit access to inpatient care

D.

Guarantee provider quality

Question 15

Which of the following is an advantage of term life insurance?

Options:

A.

The cost is about the same as whole life insurance

B.

It will be cost effective in the long term if it is maintained to age 65 and beyond

C.

It provides insurance protection on a permanent basis

D.

The initial premium is lower than for an equivalent amount of whole life insurance

Question 16

Which one of the following statements describes the fixed-period installments settlement option in life insurance policies?

Options:

A.

The beneficiary receives a specified amount of money until proceeds are exhausted

B.

The beneficiary receives regular payments of principal and interest for a specified period

C.

The beneficiary is guaranteed dividend payments for a specified period

D.

The beneficiary receives nothing until the end of the specified period

Question 17

Including a guaranteed insurability rider on a life insurance policy means that:

Options:

A.

The original policy was sold on a non-medical basis.

B.

The company will require evidence of insurability for any future purchase of life insurance.

C.

Any extra premium charged for a health impairment will be discontinued if standard insurability is proved later.

D.

The policyowner may purchase additional life insurance periodically without proving insurability.

Question 18

The typical group disability income insurance policy EXCLUDES coverage for disability resulting from:

Options:

A.

Commercial airline crashes

B.

Injuries occurring in the home

C.

Automobile accidents

D.

Military service

Question 19

In individual health insurance, the 10-day free look provision:

Options:

A.

Is the same as a grace period

B.

Is subject to a surrender charge

C.

Provides for a full refund of premium

D.

Applies only when no premium has been paid

Question 20

Which expenses are covered by Medicare Part D?

Options:

A.

Medical

B.

Hospital

C.

Prescription drug

D.

Dental

Question 21

(Term life insurance may be purchased for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:)

Options:

A.

To provide relatively low-priced life insurance protection

B.

To provide readjustment income for the insured's survivors

C.

To pay off a mortgage in the event of death

D.

To accumulate savings for the children's education

Question 22

EXCEPT for fraud, what is the time limit after issue for an insurer to deny an individual health insurance claim based on material misrepresentation in the application?

Options:

A.

180 days

B.

1 year

C.

2 years

D.

3 years

Question 23

All of the following statements about the installments for a fixed period settlement option in life insurance policies are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The amount of the periodic payment is based on the beneficiary’s age

B.

The longer the period of time, the smaller each installment

C.

Each installment payment consists of both principal and interest

D.

The beneficiary may elect this option unless the policyowner has specified otherwise

Question 24

(Benefit payments under a joint and survivor annuity normally continue until the death of:)

Options:

A.

Both annuitants

B.

One annuitant

C.

All beneficiaries

D.

One beneficiary

Question 25

Working people age 65 or over generally must:

Options:

A.

Be offered the same health benefits offered to younger employees

B.

Be offered employer group Medicare Supplement coverage

C.

Accept Medicare as the primary payer

D.

Continue coverage under the employer group health plan

Question 26

(Which type of life insurance does NOT insure the life of an individual?)

Options:

A.

Employer group plan

B.

Association group plan

C.

Group credit life insurance

D.

Equity indexed universal life

Question 27

A life and health insurance agent licensed in the Commonwealth of Virginia is authorized to:

Options:

A.

Approve the payment of a claim

B.

Reinstate an insurance contract after the expiration date

C.

Solicit, receive and forward applications to the insurer

D.

Replace a policy without notifying the insurer

Question 28

A spendthrift clause in a life insurance policy would have NO effect if the beneficiary receives the proceeds as:

Options:

A.

Fixed amount installments

B.

Fixed period installments

C.

Interest-only payments

D.

One lump sum payment

Question 29

Which one of the following statements about a decreasing term life insurance policy is true?

Options:

A.

The face amount of the policy remains constant throughout the policy period, but the premium decreases

B.

The face amount of the policy remains level for five years and then decreases during the remainder of the policy period

C.

The face amount of the policy decreases throughout the policy period

D.

The face amount of the policy increases during the policy period, but the premium decreases

Question 30

An agreement attached to a health insurance policy which alters either the terms of the policy or the coverage is called:

Options:

A.

A limit clause

B.

An attachment

C.

An insuring clause

D.

A rider

Question 31

(When an agent is acting within the scope of authority granted in the agency contract, the insurer:)

Options:

A.

Is responsible for all of the agent’s acts

B.

Is exempt from liability when the agent makes a misrepresentation

C.

Transfers all liability for the agent’s acts to the agent

D.

Is responsible for agent acts that are based on express authority only

Question 32

An agent learned that a client covered by a large employer group health plan has just suffered kidney failure. Which health plan will be primary during the months immediately following the onset of kidney failure?

Options:

A.

Medicare Part A Hospital Insurance

B.

Medicare Part B Medical Insurance

C.

The Medicaid program

D.

The employer group health plan

Question 33

All of the following statements about tax-sheltered annuities (TSAs) are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

They are also known as 403(b) plans.

B.

Accumulation payments often come from voluntary salary reductions.

C.

The annuitant may have an individual account or contract.

D.

The investment gain each year is included in the participant’s gross income.

Question 34

Under a single premium deferred annuity (SPDA), the annuitant generally:

Options:

A.

Will receive benefit payments beginning immediately

B.

Can make tax-free withdrawals until the principal is recovered

C.

Is designated as the beneficiary

D.

Is permitted to make only one premium payment

Question 35

Premiums for Medicare supplement plans may be determined by all of the following methods EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Attained age rating

B.

Community rating

C.

Issue age rating

D.

Experience rating

Question 36

Which doctor-ordered services can be performed by individuals without medical training?

Options:

A.

Rehabilitative care

B.

Therapeutic care

C.

Intermediate care

D.

Custodial care

Question 37

When an insured under a group life insurance plan in Virginia elects the conversion option, the new policy is issued:

Options:

A.

Without requiring evidence of insurability

B.

At the same premium rate as the group coverage rate

C.

With a maximum face amount of two times the group benefit amount

D.

As temporary coverage until the insured becomes eligible under a new group plan

Question 38

In long-term care insurance, ADLs normally include:

Options:

A.

Age, sex, income, and occupation

B.

Physicians, surgeons, dentists

C.

Spouse, children, parents, and siblings

D.

Dressing, eating, bathing, and transferring

Question 39

A tax cost typically associated with death is:

Options:

A.

Life insurance proceeds tax

B.

Excise tax

C.

Federal estate tax

D.

State sales tax

Question 40

Assuming no indebtedness or dividend accumulations, how much will the insurer pay under a life insurance policy if the insured dies during the grace period without having paid the premium?

Options:

A.

The face amount of the policy

B.

The cash value of the policy

C.

The face amount of the policy less the premium due

D.

The reduced amount of paid-up insurance provided under the nonforfeiture provisions

Question 41

Which concept states that the insured is entitled to the coverage under a policy that a sensible and prudent buyer would expect it to provide?

Options:

A.

Indemnity

B.

Comity

C.

Reasonable expectations

D.

Subrogation

Question 42

An agent convicted of a felony must report the conviction to the Commission:

Options:

A.

Within 15 calendar days

B.

Within 30 calendar days

C.

Within 45 calendar days

D.

On the next license renewal date

Question 43

A preferred risk classification typically is available for life insurance applicants who:

Options:

A.

Pay a flat extra-rated premium

B.

Smoke less than a pack of cigarettes each day

C.

Have a better than average life expectancy

D.

Have no other life insurance coverage

Question 44

Generally, an indemnity plan which covers dental expenses:

Options:

A.

Rarely requires an insured to pay a deductible or coinsurance portion for major services such as crowns

B.

Covers preventive care for adults and children once every six months

C.

Covers all dependent family members living in the insured's household, including dependent parents

D.

Only allows insureds to be treated by certain preselected providers

Question 45

Which statement about universal life insurance is true?

Options:

A.

Coverage is terminated automatically when the insured retires.

B.

It generally is written to provide a death benefit that decreases over time.

C.

The policyowner may be able to increase the death benefit subject to insurability requirements.

D.

The guaranteed interest rate generally is tied to the Consumer Price Index.

Question 46

Which of the following statements regarding the renewal of a Medicare supplement policy is in accordance with Virginia regulations?

Options:

A.

Each policy is guaranteed to be renewable.

B.

Each policy is subject to an annual administrative fee to be paid prior to renewal.

C.

An individual must obtain an annual physical which meets specific health requirements to have the policy renewed.

D.

An individual has the option to renew the policy as long as the maximum annual coverage has not been met the previous year.

Question 47

(Under which marketing system do insurers solicit customers by mass media advertising and mail without the services of an agent?)

Options:

A.

Branch office

B.

Contingent

C.

Captive agent

D.

Direct response

Question 48

(The clause in a life insurance contract that prohibits the insurer from questioning the validity of the contract after a certain period of time has elapsed is the:)

Options:

A.

Guaranteed renewable clause

B.

Entire contract clause

C.

Incontestability clause

D.

Noncancelable clause

Question 49

Which type of annuity could be used for contributions to an Individual Retirement Account?

Options:

A.

Joint life

B.

Temporary

C.

Survivorship

D.

Deferred

Question 50

Misrepresenting pertinent policy provisions relating to coverages after a loss is:

Options:

A.

A concealment in insurance applications

B.

An unfair claim settlement practice

C.

An unfair discrimination between individuals

D.

A violation of the principle of adhesion

Question 51

The period of time during which a new employee is ineligible for group health insurance coverage is called a:

Options:

A.

Participation period

B.

Grace period

C.

Probationary period

D.

Contributory period

Question 52

Whole life insurance policies guarantee all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The nonforfeiture values

B.

The policy loan values

C.

The dividend scale

D.

The settlement option values

Question 53

All of the following are typical health maintenance organization (HMO) preventive care services provided by a primary care physician EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Well-baby checkups

B.

Immunizations for children

C.

Experimental surgery

D.

Physical examinations

Question 54

A licensed agent must report a felony conviction to the Commission within how many calendar days?

Options:

A.

10 days

B.

20 days

C.

30 days

D.

60 days

Question 55

If an insurer pays an individual health insurance claim during a policy’s grace period:

Options:

A.

The deductible is waived

B.

A 10% service fee is charged

C.

The policy is canceled automatically at the end of the grace period

D.

The amount of unpaid premium may be subtracted from the reimbursement

Question 56

When a health insurer requires a covered individual to undergo a physical examination, who chooses the examining physician?

Options:

A.

The premium payor

B.

The principal insured individual

C.

The patient or parent of the patient

D.

The insurer

Question 57

Which one of the following would entitle the beneficiary to receive benefits under accidental death and dismemberment insurance coverage?

Options:

A.

Death caused by a heart attack

B.

Death caused by a commercial airline crash

C.

Death caused by a stroke

D.

Death caused by suicide

Question 58

Which of the following terms may NOT be used in the advertisement of Accident and Sickness Insurance?

Options:

A.

Reductions

B.

Exclusions

C.

Pre-existing conditions

D.

Unlimited Benefits

Question 59

When a five-year renewable term life insurance policy issued at age 35 is renewed, the premium rate will be the current rate for:

Options:

A.

Five-year term insurance for a person aged 40

B.

Five-year term insurance for a person aged 35

C.

Yearly renewable term insurance for a person aged 40

D.

Yearly renewable term insurance for a person aged 35

Question 60

(All of the following are characteristics of term life insurance EXCEPT:)

Options:

A.

Temporary protection

B.

Increasing cash values

C.

Decreasing or level face amounts

D.

Low initial cost of protection

Question 61

In a deferred annuity, which event initiates benefit payments to the annuitant?

Options:

A.

The contract is surrendered

B.

A cash refund is paid

C.

The contract matures

D.

The beneficiary dies

Question 62

(Information regarding an individual's credit standing is contained in:)

Options:

A.

An agent's report

B.

A consumer report

C.

An attending physician's report

D.

An index bureau report

Question 63

An insurance contract that identifies individuals by relationship to a particular organization is called:

Options:

A.

Contributory insurance

B.

Group insurance

C.

Health insurance

D.

COBRA coverage

Question 64

Which is true about a term life insurance policy?

Options:

A.

It usually provides a cash value.

B.

It provides temporary protection.

C.

It may only be written for periods of five years or less.

D.

It usually can be renewed at the same premium.

Question 65

When a Medicare Supplement policy is purchased during the open enrollment period:

Options:

A.

The premium cost may be higher than usual

B.

The benefits may be lower than usual

C.

The exclusions may be more numerous than usual

D.

The policy must be issued regardless of health status

Question 66

Fixed annuities credit interest at a rate no lower than the:

Options:

A.

Expected renewal interest rate

B.

Contract guaranteed rate

C.

Current prime rate

D.

Front-end load rate

Question 67

When a Medicare Supplement insurance policy is being replaced, who must sign the notice of replacement?

Options:

A.

The home office underwriter

B.

An officer of the insurance company

C.

A notary public

D.

The agent and the applicant

Question 68

Replacement rules are designed primarily to protect the interest of the:

Options:

A.

Insurer replacing a policy

B.

Insurer whose policy is being replaced

C.

Policyowner

D.

Agent who sold the original policy

Question 69

Insurance which covers business expenses and payroll when the insured businessowner is disabled is:

Options:

A.

Workers compensation insurance

B.

Professional insurance

C.

Business overhead expense insurance

D.

Special risk insurance

Question 70

All of the following statements about life annuities are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

They provide for the systematic liquidation of a principal sum

B.

Benefit payments start after the annuitant's death

C.

They are a form of insurance since risk sharing is involved

D.

They can protect against outliving one's financial resources

Question 71

Unless an insured has made fraudulent statements on the application for individual health coverage, subsequent claims may not be denied under the provision for:

Options:

A.

Legal actions

B.

Time limit on certain defenses

C.

Grace period

D.

Time payment of claims

Question 72

When an HIV test is requested by a health insurer, who signs the consent form?

Options:

A.

The applicant

B.

The applicant’s physician

C.

The insurance agent

D.

The medical laboratory technician

Question 73

When the business of insurance is no longer conducted under an assumed name, an agent must notify:

Options:

A.

The Bureau of Insurance

B.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners

C.

The Chamber of Commerce

D.

The Surety Organization of Virginia

Question 74

In dental insurance coverage, which one of the following typically is EXCLUDED?

Options:

A.

Treatment started prior to the eligibility date

B.

Preventive care

C.

Dental X-rays

D.

Root canal therapy

Question 75

If an individual's occupation is considered to be illegal:

Options:

A.

It must be stated as such on a health insurance application

B.

It may require a waiver on a disability income insurance policy

C.

It may result in a denial of a disability income claim

D.

It results in a substandard rating on a health insurance policy

Question 76

Which concept states that the insured is entitled to the coverage under a policy that a sensible and prudent buyer would expect it to provide?

Options:

A.

Indemnity

B.

Reasonable expectations

C.

Subrogation

D.

Utmost good faith

Question 77

The owner of a life insurance policy who enters into a viatical settlement contract is called:

Options:

A.

A viatical settlement provider

B.

A viatical settlement broker

C.

A viator

D.

A viatee

Question 78

A self-employed individual could use an annuity to fund any of the following retirement plans EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

An individual retirement account (IRA)

B.

A simplified employee pension (SEP)

C.

A tax-sheltered annuity (TSA)

D.

A Keogh plan

Question 79

Which of the following statements is true regarding an insurance agent’s license?

Options:

A.

The license fee is paid to the insurance company

B.

It authorizes the agent to transact insurance until otherwise terminated, suspended, or revoked

C.

It must be renewed annually

D.

A separate license must be issued for each insurer the agent represents

Question 80

Which annuity would provide benefit payments for five years to the beneficiary if the annuitant died five years after the benefit payments began?

Options:

A.

A reversionary annuity

B.

A life annuity with ten years certain

C.

A five-year annuity certain

D.

A twenty-year temporary annuity

Question 81

Which of these is a claim payment method that responds to the geographical variation in medical costs?

Options:

A.

Fee schedules for common procedures

B.

Usual, customary, and reasonable charges

C.

Experience rating

D.

Capitation

Question 82

A life insurance agent is normally responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Delivering newly issued policies to applicants

B.

Notifying the company if a new policy will replace an existing policy

C.

Approving policies for issue on behalf of the insurer

D.

Collecting the initial premium from the applicant

Question 83

The document given to employees under a group life insurance plan that describes the basic features of the life insurance coverage is:

Options:

A.

A joinder agreement

B.

A certificate of insurance

C.

An application certificate

D.

A life policy binder

Question 84

When the employer pays the premium, covered individuals normally receive tax-free benefits under all of the following group health plans EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Disability income

B.

Major medical

C.

Dental

D.

Health maintenance organization

Question 85

All changes and corrections made to an application for health insurance by an agent must be initialed by the:

Options:

A.

Agent

B.

Applicant

C.

Applicant’s physician

D.

Insurance company underwriter

Question 86

The prevention and correction of dental and oral irregularities through the use of mechanical corrective devices is called:

Options:

A.

Orthodontics

B.

Endodontics

C.

Periodontics

D.

Prosthodontics

Question 87

The information which gives an insurer necessary personal data regarding an individual and helps determine whether the individual can be insured under an individual health insurance policy is contained in the:

Options:

A.

Enrollment form

B.

Policy schedule

C.

Application

D.

Agent's statement

Question 88

(Which one of the following life insurance settlement options guarantees that benefits will be paid on a life-long basis to two or more people?)

Options:

A.

Life income with refund

B.

Life income with period certain

C.

Joint and survivor

D.

Life income only

Question 89

All of the following are common features found in health maintenance organizations (HMOs) EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Wellness programs

B.

Discounts on local health spa memberships

C.

Twenty-four hour access to emergency care

D.

Outpatient medical services

Question 90

All of the following statements about independent agents are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

They are responsible for their own expenses.

B.

They are employees of an insurer.

C.

Their compensation is based on what they sell.

D.

They own their renewal business.

Question 91

Under IRS rules, a company normally may do all of the following with funds in a qualified retirement plan EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Invest in shares of common stocks

B.

Make allocations to participating shareholder-employees

C.

Distribute vested funds to employees who leave

D.

Repossess the funds for business purposes

Question 92

(Which table shows the rate of death by age for given groups of people?)

Options:

A.

Mortality table

B.

Morbidity table

C.

Premium rate table

D.

Dividend table

Question 93

(All of the following statements about an adjustable life insurance policy are true EXCEPT:)

Options:

A.

The policyowner may change the plan of coverage.

B.

It is designed to meet changing insurance needs.

C.

Evidence of insurability may be required when the amount of insurance is increased.

D.

The policyowner is not permitted to take policy loans even if the policy has a cash value.

Question 94

(What is the MINIMUM percentage of employees who must participate in an employer's noncontributory group life insurance plan?)

Options:

A.

75%

B.

85%

C.

90%

D.

100%

Question 95

No existing agent’s license will be revoked until:

Options:

A.

The agent has been afforded a right to a hearing on the charges

B.

At least three violations have been incurred

C.

A jury has decided upon such action

D.

A cease and desist order has been issued

Question 96

(In general, before what minimum age requirement would a withdrawal taken from an employer-sponsored qualified retirement plan be considered premature and thus, subject to a tax penalty?)

Options:

A.

Age 59 1/2

B.

Age 60

C.

Age 64 1/2

D.

Age 65

Question 97

One characteristic of flexible premium life insurance is that payment of the premium can be altered at the option of:

Options:

A.

The policyowner

B.

The contingent beneficiary

C.

The insurer, if the Consumer Price Index has risen at least 10% over the past year

D.

The insurer, if the prime interest rate falls below 6%

Question 98

(To be complete, an application for life insurance must contain all of the following EXCEPT:)

Options:

A.

Applicant’s name and address

B.

Applicant’s signature

C.

Date of application

D.

Date of maturity

Question 99

Who has the right to change the beneficiary of a health policy with a revocable beneficiary designation?

Options:

A.

The policyowner

B.

The beneficiary

C.

The insurer

D.

The agent

Question 100

Needs analysis is a method of life insurance planning which:

Options:

A.

Identifies the needs of an individual and the individual's dependents

B.

Eliminates the need for estimating future interest and inflation rates

C.

Requires the team effort of the agent and home office underwriter

D.

Ignores Social Security benefit payments

Question 101

What is the primary role of medical expense and disability insurance?

Options:

A.

Payment of death benefits

B.

Protection against the costs of medical care and the loss of earning power

C.

Provision for dismemberment benefits

D.

Payment for rehabilitation costs following a life-threatening injury

Question 102

Claims settlement practices of insurers are regulated by:

Options:

A.

The Internal Revenue Service

B.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners

C.

Claims adjusters

D.

State insurance departments

Question 103

If an agent unknowingly violates insurance laws, what is the maximum aggregate penalty for similar violations occurring?

Options:

A.

$5,000

B.

$7,500

C.

$10,000

D.

$15,000

Question 104

All of the following underwriting criteria are useful in evaluating the health risks of a group EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Stability of the group’s membership

B.

Composition of the group in terms of age, sex, and income

C.

Industrial classification of the group

D.

Persistency of the employer’s group contract

Question 105

All of the following statements about tax-sheltered annuities (TSAs) are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Only employees of certain tax-exempt organizations may participate

B.

The employee is normally the applicant, owner, and annuitant under the contract

C.

The employee issues periodic personal checks to purchase the contract

D.

An employee’s rights under the contract are nonforfeitable

Question 106

(An insurer or an agent must respond to an insured who requests access to the personal information gathered on the insured within:)

Options:

A.

30 business days

B.

45 business days

C.

60 business days

D.

90 business days

Question 107

(How many lives are normally insured by a survivorship life insurance policy?)

Options:

A.

One

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Four

Question 108

The term independent agent means that the:

Options:

A.

Agent's office is located away from the insurer's home office

B.

Agent does NOT require support from the insurer

C.

Agent may represent more than one insurer

D.

Agent represents a foreign insurer

Question 109

Disability income insurance policies usually provide coverage for loss of income resulting from:

Options:

A.

Self-inflicted injuries

B.

Injuries incurred while in military service

C.

Disability resulting from war

D.

Accidental injuries

Question 110

At policy delivery, to ensure that the insured has NOT experienced adverse medical conditions since the time of application for life insurance, the insured may be required to sign a:

Options:

A.

Disclosure notice

B.

Statement of good health

C.

Conditional receipt

D.

Notice of information practices

Question 111

A valid contract requires:

Options:

A.

A written offer

B.

A company form

C.

Consideration

D.

Written evidence

Question 112

Which one of the following statements about the accidental death benefit rider in life insurance is true?

Options:

A.

It requires the payment of an additional premium

B.

It is part of every life insurance policy

C.

It is available only to preferred risks

D.

It increases the amount of nonforfeiture benefits

Question 113

(The value that each party gives to the other in a contract is called:)

Options:

A.

Contribution

B.

Consideration

C.

Subrogation

D.

Valuation

Question 114

When replacing individual health insurance, an agent should compare existing benefits with the proposed new policy to determine if:

Options:

A.

The insured must cancel the existing policy before applying for another

B.

The grace period of the existing policy will be renewed

C.

Commissions payable under the new policy justify replacement

D.

Existing benefits would be maintained under the new plan

Question 115

Which of the following is commonly used to structure the payment of liability insurance settlements, lottery winnings, and other large sums?

Options:

A.

A modified endowment contract

B.

An individual retirement account

C.

A 403(b) tax-sheltered annuity

D.

An immediate annuity

Question 116

Which type of life insurance policy often contains a payor benefit rider?

Options:

A.

Juvenile

B.

Group life

C.

Credit life

D.

Second-to-die

Question 117

Dental expenses covered under an indemnity plan include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Fluoride treatments for children under 16

B.

Fillings and root canal treatments

C.

Dietary counseling and instructions

D.

Extraction of teeth

Question 118

Under the notice of claim provision, notice given to a health insurance company’s agent is:

Options:

A.

An incomplete preliminary notice of claim

B.

Notice to the insurer

C.

Not valid notice to the company

D.

Contrary to the uniform mandatory provisions

Question 119

Which statement is true of trade association groups eligible for group medical benefits?

Options:

A.

Members of the association are usually in the same industry

B.

Such associations are formed for the purpose of purchasing insurance

C.

The association membership primarily consists of large employers

D.

Employer contributions are usually waived

Question 120

A penalty tax sometimes applies to "premature" distributions of gains under a modified endowment contract (MEC). What is the amount of the penalty tax?

Options:

A.

7.5%

B.

10.0%

C.

12.5%

D.

15.0%

Question 121

(Under which of the following circumstances may a class designation of beneficiary in life insurance be used?)

Options:

A.

To name the insured’s children as beneficiaries without naming them individually

B.

To donate insurance proceeds to a specific organization or charity

C.

To set up a trust fund for the insured’s children

D.

To name a specific beneficiary to receive the proceeds on behalf of a group

Question 122

Which is true about the conversion privilege in term life insurance?

Options:

A.

The policyowner may convert to another term policy of the insured’s choice

B.

The policyowner may convert to permanent life insurance on an attained age basis without evidence of insurability

C.

The policyowner may convert to an annuity at attained age rates only if evidence of insurability is provided

D.

The policyowner may obtain additional term insurance at issue age rates without evidence of insurability

Question 123

Medical expense insurance typically EXCLUDES payment for treatment of injury or sickness resulting from:

Options:

A.

Auto accidents

B.

Sporting accidents

C.

War

D.

Tropical disease

Question 124

An example of a comprehensive health policy is:

Options:

A.

A major medical policy

B.

A dental policy

C.

A vision policy

D.

A workers' compensation policy

Question 125

A group health insurance contract is between the:

Options:

A.

Employer and employees

B.

Employee and insurance company

C.

Employer and insurance company

D.

Employer, employees, and insurance company

Question 126

When an HIV test is requested by a health insurer, who signs the consent form?

Options:

A.

The applicant

B.

The applicant's physician

C.

The insurance agent

D.

The medical laboratory technician

Question 127

A juvenile life insurance policy is:

Options:

A.

Designed to insure the lives of a juvenile's parents

B.

Available only for children who are less than five years old

C.

A life insurance policy that insures the life of a minor

D.

Available only as decreasing term insurance for a minor

Question 128

In health insurance, the insured must furnish written proof of loss to the insurer within:

Options:

A.

15 days of the occurrence of the loss

B.

30 days of the occurrence of the loss

C.

60 days of the occurrence of the loss

D.

90 days of the occurrence of the loss

Question 129

A coordination of benefits provision is included in group health insurance to reduce:

Options:

A.

Dependent coverage

B.

Duplication of coverage

C.

Probationary periods

D.

Waiting periods

Question 130

In long-term care insurance, ADLs normally include:

Options:

A.

Age, sex, income, and occupation

B.

Physicians, surgeons, dentists, and optometrists

C.

Spouse, children, parents, and siblings

D.

Dressing, eating, bathing, and mobility

Question 131

A mandatory second surgical opinion provision typically requires the insured to do which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Seek a second opinion in emergency situations

B.

Pay the cost of the second opinion

C.

Seek a second opinion for surgeries that are on a list of elective surgeries

D.

Accept the recommendation of the second surgeon