Disability policies MOST often pay benefits in the form of
an annuity.
periodic income.
a lump sum reimbursement for wages lost.
a lump sum payment based on projected income.
Disability income insurance policies are designed to replace a portion of the insured’s income if they become disabled and unable to work. These policiesmost often pay benefits in the form of periodic income, typically monthly, to provide ongoing financial support during the disability period, as outlined in Oklahoma’s health insurance regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 4405). Lump sum payments or annuities are less common and usually associated with other types of coverage.
Option A: Incorrect. Annuities provide retirement income, not disability benefits.
Option B: Correct. Disability policies typically pay periodic (e.g., monthly) income.
Option C: Incorrect. Lump sum reimbursements are rare in disability policies; periodic payments are standard.
Option D: Incorrect. Lump sum payments based on projected income are not typical for disability insurance.
Misrepresenting the advantages and benefits of a new policy to induce replacement of an existing policy is
rebating.
twisting.
defamation.
forfeiting.
Twistingis the unethical practice of using misrepresentation or incomplete information to persuade an insured to replace an existing policy with a new one, often to their detriment. It is prohibited under Oklahoma’s Unfair Trade Practices Act (Title 36 O.S. § 1204) to protect consumers from deceptive sales practices.
Option A: Incorrect. Rebating involves offering a portion of the premium or other inducements to purchase insurance.
Option B: Correct. Twisting involves misrepresenting benefits to induce policy replacement.
Option C: Incorrect. Defamation is making false statements harming someone’s reputation, not policy replacement.
Option D: Incorrect. Forfeiting is not a term related to policy replacement practices.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers unfair trade practices.
Which of the following is one of the MAIN tasks of a field underwriter?
Editing an applicant’s report to ensure approval.
Approving an individual’s policy.
Ensure the accuracy and completeness of an individual’s medical information.
Obtaining a Medical Information Bureau (MIB) report.
Afield underwriter, typically an insurance producer, gathers initial information from applicants to assess their insurability and ensure the application is accurate and complete. A main task is ensuring the accuracy and completeness of an individual’s medical information, as this is critical for the insurer’s underwriting decision. Field underwriters do not approve policies or edit reports to guarantee approval; they facilitate the process by providing reliable data.
Option A: Incorrect. Editing reports to ensure approval is unethical and not a field underwriter’s role.
Option B: Incorrect. Approving policies is the role of the insurer’s underwriting department, not the field underwriter.
Option C: Correct. Ensuring accuracy and completeness of medical information is a key task of a field underwriter.
Option D: Incorrect. Obtaining an MIB report is typically done by the insurer, not the field underwriter.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Underwriting,” which covers the role of field underwriters.
How will covered expenses be paid if an insured has a scheduled dental policy?
All expenses will be paid after the insured’s deductible is paid.
The insurer will pay a percentage of each expense.
Benefits will be limited to a specific maximum dollar amount per procedure.
After the deductible is paid, benefits will be paid in a lump sum directly to the insured.
Ascheduled dental policyprovides coverage based on a predetermined schedule of benefits, which lists specific maximum dollar amounts payable for each dental procedure (e.g., $100 for a filling, $500 for a crown). This contrasts with comprehensive dental plans that may pay a percentage of expenses or cover all costs after a deductible.
Option A: Incorrect. Scheduled dental policies do not pay all expenses after a deductible; they limit payments to scheduled amounts.
Option B: Incorrect. Paying a percentage of expenses is typical of comprehensive dental plans, not scheduled policies.
Option C: Correct. Benefits are limited to a specific maximum dollar amount per procedure, as defined in the schedule.
Option D: Incorrect. Benefits are not paid as a lump sum directly to the insured; they are paid per procedure up to the scheduled limit.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Health Providers and Products,” which covers dental insurance structures.
Under a Long-Term Care policy, all of the following are Activities of Daily Living EXCEPT
dressing.
talking.
eating.
toileting.
Long-Term Care (LTC) policies cover services for individuals who need assistance withActivities of Daily Living (ADLs), which are basic self-care tasks. Oklahoma regulations (O.A.C. 365:10-5-44) and federal standards define ADLs as including dressing, eating, toileting, bathing, transferring, and continence.Talkingis not considered an ADL, as it is not a fundamental self-care activity.
Option A: Incorrect. Dressing is an ADL.
Option B: Correct. Talking is not an ADL.
Option C: Incorrect. Eating is an ADL.
Option D: Incorrect. Toileting is an ADL.
How long is the contestable period for a life insurance policy?
6 months
12 months
24 months
36 months
Thecontestable periodfor a life insurance policy in Oklahoma, as mandated by Title 36 O.S. § 4004, is24 months(2 years) from the policy’s issuance. During this period, the insurer can contest the policy’s validity based on material misrepresentations in the application (e.g., health or lifestyle). After 2 years, the policy becomes incontestable except for non-payment of premiums or fraud in some cases.
Option A: Incorrect. 6 months is too short for the contestable period.
Option B: Incorrect. 12 months is insufficient; the standard is 24 months.
Option C: Correct. The contestable period is 24 months.
Option D: Incorrect. 36 months exceeds the standard period.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers the incontestability provision.
The grace period is a period of time
after the premium is paid and before the policy is issued.
after the premium is received and before the policy is issued.
between the death of the insured individual and the payment of the benefits.
when the policyowner is protected from an unintentional lapse of the policy.
Thegrace periodin life and health insurance policies, as mandated by Oklahoma law (Title 36 O.S. § 4005 for life, § 4405 for health), is a period (typically 31 days) after a premium due date during which the policy remains in force, protecting the policyowner from an unintentional lapse. If the insured dies during the grace period, the death benefit is payable, minus any overdue premiums.
Option A: Incorrect. The period after premium payment but before policy issuance is the underwriting or application phase, not the grace period.
Option B: Incorrect. This is similar to Option A and does not describe the grace period.
Option C: Incorrect. The time between death and benefit payment is the claim processing period, not the grace period.
Option D: Correct. The grace period protects against unintentional policy lapse due to late premium payment.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers grace period provisions.
One advantage of a whole life insurance policy is that it offers
Liberal underwriting guidelines.
Initial lower premiums.
Variable premium amounts.
Permanent coverage.
Awhole life insurance policyprovidespermanent coveragefor the insured’s entire life, as long as premiums are paid, along with a guaranteed death benefit and cash value accumulation. This is a key advantage over term life, which is temporary. Whole life premiums are typically higher than term life, and underwriting guidelines or premium flexibility depend on the insurer, not the product itself.
Option A: Incorrect. Underwriting guidelines vary by insurer, not by policy type.
Option B: Incorrect. Whole life has higher initial premiums compared to term life.
Option C: Incorrect. Whole life typically has fixed premiums, unlike universal life, which offers variable premiums.
Option D: Correct. Permanent coverage is a primary advantage of whole life insurance.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Life Products,” which covers the benefits of whole life insurance.
Which of the following is NOT a right of the life insurance policyowner?
Assign or transfer the policy.
Borrow from the cash values.
Select and change a beneficiary.
Revoke an absolute assignment.
A life insurance policyowner has several rights, including assigning or transferring the policy (e.g., through absolute or collateral assignment), borrowing against the cash value (in policies with cash value), and selecting or changing the beneficiary, as outlined in Oklahoma’s Insurance Code (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 et seq.). However, anabsolute assignmenttransfers all ownership rights to the assignee, and the original policyowner cannot unilaterally revoke it without the assignee’s consent, as it is a complete transfer of ownership.
Option A: Incorrect (is a right). The policyowner can assign or transfer the policy to another party.
Option B: Incorrect (is a right). The policyowner can borrow against the cash value in policies like whole life or universal life.
Option C: Incorrect (is a right). The policyowner can select and change the beneficiary unless restricted (e.g., irrevocable beneficiary).
Option D: Correct (is not a right). An absolute assignment cannot be revoked by the original policyowner without the assignee’s agreement.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers policyowner rights and assignments.
An accelerated death benefit provision allows a portion of the death benefits to be paid to the insured prior to death if the insured
becomes disabled.
has a terminal illness.
has reached retirement age.
has a dependent with a serious illness.
Anaccelerated death benefit (ADB)provision, regulated in Oklahoma (Title 36 O.S. § 4051), allows an insured with aterminal illness(typically with a life expectancy of 12–24 months) to receive a portion of the life insurance death benefit before death. This provides funds for medical or personal expenses during the insured’s lifetime.
Option A: Incorrect. Disability may trigger other riders (e.g., waiver of premium), not ADB.
Option B: Correct. A terminal illness qualifies for accelerated death benefits.
Option C: Incorrect. Reaching retirement age does not trigger ADB.
Option D: Incorrect. A dependent’s illness is not a qualifying condition for ADB.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers accelerated death benefits.
All of the following are Medicare Advantage Plans EXCEPT
Preferred Provider Organization (PPO).
Health Maintenance Organization (HMO).
Private Fee-For-Service (PFFS).
Social Security Disability Income (SSDI).
Medicare Advantage (Part C)plans are private health plans approved by Medicare, includingPPOs,HMOs, andPFFSplans, which provide an alternative to Original Medicare.Social Security Disability Income (SSDI)is a federal program providing income support for disabled individuals, not a Medicare Advantage plan.
Option A: Incorrect. PPO plans are a type of Medicare Advantage plan.
Option B: Incorrect. HMO plans are a type of Medicare Advantage plan.
Option C: Incorrect. PFFS plans are a type of Medicare Advantage plan.
Option D: Correct. SSDI is not a Medicare Advantage plan; it is a disability income program.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Medicare,” which covers Medicare Advantage plans.
An insured individual takes out a life insurance policy on himself and commits suicide 13 months later. Since the policy has an expressed provision limiting the liability of the insurer against suicide, the insurer is
obligated to reimburse the amount of the premiums paid for the policy.
not liable to make any payouts on the policy.
liable to pay the full value of the policy.
liable for the full value of the policy if the insured individual was proven to be insane at the time of his death.
Most life insurance policies include asuicide clause, typically lasting 2 years in Oklahoma (Title 36 O.S. § 4004), which limits the insurer’s liability if the insured commits suicide within that period. If suicide occurs within the clause’s timeframe (e.g., 13 months), the insurer is generally not liable to pay the death benefit and instead refunds the premiums paid. However, the question emphasizes the policy’s expressed provision limiting liability, suggesting no payout beyond premiums, making “not liable to make any payouts” the most accurate choice. Insanity is not a standard exception unless specified.
Option A: Incorrect. While premium refunds are common, the question emphasizes no payouts, aligning with the provision’s limit.
Option B: Correct. The insurer is not liable to make any payouts due to the suicide clause.
Option C: Incorrect. The full value is not paid within the suicide clause period.
Option D: Incorrect. Insanity is not a standard exception in suicide clauses unless explicitly stated.
An endorsement to an insurance policy that modifies clauses and provisions of the policy is referred to as
an attachment.
a supplement.
a rider.
an add-on.
Arideris an endorsement or amendment to an insurance policy that modifies its clauses, provisions, or coverage. Riders can add, remove, or alter benefits, such as adding coverage for a specific condition or family members in life or health insurance policies. The term is standard in Oklahoma insurance law and practice.
Option A: Incorrect. An attachment is not a specific insurance term for policy modifications.
Option B: Incorrect. A supplement may refer to additional coverage but is not the standard term for policy endorsements.
Option C: Correct. A rider is an endorsement that modifies policy provisions.
Option D: Incorrect. “Add-on” is not a formal insurance term for policy modifications.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers policy endorsements.
Mortgage redemption or cancellation insurance is a form of what type of insurance?
Increasing term.
Decreasing term.
Level premium whole life.
Level premium universal life.
Mortgage redemption or cancellation insuranceis a type ofdecreasing term life insurancedesigned to pay off a mortgage balance if the insured dies. The death benefit decreases over time, matching the declining mortgage balance, while premiums typically remain level, making it cost-effective for this purpose.
Option A: Incorrect. Increasing term insurance has a rising death benefit, unsuitable for mortgage protection.
Option B: Correct. Decreasing term insurance aligns with the declining mortgage balance.
Option C: Incorrect. Whole life provides permanent coverage with cash value, not specific to mortgage payoff.
Option D: Incorrect. Universal life is flexible permanent insurance, not typically used for mortgage redemption.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Life Products,” which covers types of term life insurance.
When a life insurance or annuity replacement policy is sold, the policyowner has a right to return the policy for a full refund of premium within
3 days.
7 days.
14 days.
20 days.
Oklahoma regulations (O.A.C. 365:10-3-16) provide afree-look periodfor life insurance or annuity replacement policies, allowing the policyowner to return the policy for afull refund of premiumwithin20 daysfrom receipt. This extended period for replacements (compared to 10 days for non-replacement policies) ensures consumers can review the new policy and compare it to the replaced one.
Option A: Incorrect. 3 days is too short for the free-look period.
Option B: Incorrect. 7 days is not the required timeframe.
Option C: Incorrect. 14 days is shorter than the replacement free-look period.
Option D: Correct. The free-look period for replacement policies is 20 days.
An individual who is NOT acceptable by an insurer at standard rates because of health, habits, or occupation is called a
rating risk.
standard risk.
preferred risk.
substandard risk.
In insurance underwriting, individuals are classified based on their risk profile. Asubstandard riskis an applicant who, due to health issues, hazardous habits (e.g., smoking), or high-risk occupations (e.g., stunt performer), cannot be insured at standard rates. These individuals may be offered coverage at higher premiums or with exclusions, as outlined in standard underwriting practices and Oklahoma’s regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 1204).
Option A: Incorrect. “Rating risk” is not a standard underwriting term.
Option B: Incorrect. A standard risk qualifies for standard rates with average risk.
Option C: Incorrect. A preferred risk qualifies for lower-than-standard rates due to low risk.
Option D: Correct. A substandard risk is not acceptable at standard rates due to higher risk factors.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Underwriting,” which covers risk classification.
In Oklahoma, a foreign insurer is one formed under the laws of
Oklahoma.
a country other than the United States.
another state or government of the United States.
Oklahoma or under the laws of a state geographically bordering Oklahoma.
In Oklahoma’s Insurance Code (Title 36 O.S. § 105), aforeign insureris defined as an insurance company formed under the laws of another U.S. state or territory. This distinguishes it from adomestic insurer(formed in Oklahoma) and analien insurer(formed in a foreign country).
Option A: Incorrect. An insurer formed in Oklahoma is a domestic insurer.
Option B: Incorrect. An insurer from a foreign country is an alien insurer.
Option C: Correct. A foreign insurer is formed under the laws of another U.S. state or government.
Option D: Incorrect. Geographic proximity is irrelevant; the definition is based on legal formation.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers insurer classifications.
The primary reason for purchasing life insurance is to provide
tax deduction.
death benefits.
retirement income.
safety of principal.
The primary purpose of life insurance is to provide adeath benefit, which is a financial payout to beneficiaries upon the insured’s death, ensuring financial protection for dependents or obligations (Title 36 O.S. § 4002). While some policies offer cash value or tax advantages, these are secondary to the death benefit.
Option A: Incorrect. Tax deductions are not the primary reason; they may apply to specific scenarios but are secondary.
Option B: Correct. Death benefits are the primary reason for purchasing life insurance.
Option C: Incorrect. Retirement income is a goal of annuities or cash value policies, not the primary purpose.
Option D: Incorrect. Safety of principal relates to investments, not the core purpose of life insurance.
The ownership provision of a life insurance policy states that during the insured individual’s lifetime, the rights and privileges belong to the
insured individual only
owner only
insured individual’s family
beneficiaries
Theownership provisionin a life insurance policy specifies that the policyowner (who may or may not be the insured) holds all rights and privileges during the insured’s lifetime, including changing beneficiaries, borrowing against cash value, or surrendering the policy. This is standard in Oklahoma’s Insurance Code (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 et seq.). Beneficiaries have no rights until the insured’s death, and the insured’s family has no automatic rights unless designated as owners.
Option A: Incorrect. The insured has no ownership rights unless they are also the policyowner.
Option B: Correct. The policyowner holds all rights and privileges.
Option C: Incorrect. The insured’s family has no inherent rights unless they are the policyowner.
Option D: Incorrect. Beneficiaries have rights only after the insured’s death.
Unlike HMO plans, PPO plan members MOST often
receive no medical benefits while traveling to other states.
have more choices of doctors and medical service providers.
must designate a primary care physician.
can see a physician on a walk-in basis.
Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs) and Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs) are two common types of managed care plans in health insurance. According to standard insurance study materials for the Oklahoma Life, Accident, and Health or Sickness Producer exam, a key distinction between PPOs and HMOs lies in the flexibility of provider choice. PPOs allow members to choose from a broader network of doctors and medical service providers, both in-network and out-of-network, without requiring a referral from a primary care physician. HMOs, in contrast, typically restrict members to in-network providers and require a designated primary care physician to coordinate care.
Option A: Incorrect. PPO plans often provide coverage for out-of-state medical services, especially within their network or through out-of-network benefits, though at potentially higher costs. This is not a defining characteristic compared to HMOs.
Option B: Correct. PPOs are known for offering more choices of doctors and medical service providers, as they do not mandate a primary care physician or referrals for specialists, unlike HMOs.
Option C: Incorrect. HMOs require members to designate a primary care physician, while PPOs do not.
Option D: Incorrect. While PPOs offer flexibility, the ability to see a physician on a walk-in basis is not a standard feature distinguishing them from HMOs, as both may vary in appointment requirements.
This aligns with the Prometric exam content outline under “Health Providers and Products,” which emphasizes understanding differences between health insurance plans like HMOs and PPOs.
Which of the following BEST describes a waiver of premium clause in a typical disability policy?
The waiver of premium benefit pays the policy premium during a disability claim.
This clause eliminates any premium being paid for the lifetime of the insured individual.
The monthly benefit under the policy is reduced to offset the premium that is no longer being paid.
This clause generally begins immediately with the doctor stating that the insured person is completely disabled.
Thewaiver of premium clausein a disability income policy waives the policy’s premiums during a disability claim, ensuring the policy remains in force without the insured having to pay premiums while disabled. This typically begins after the elimination period, as outlined in Oklahoma’s health insurance provisions (Title 36 O.S. § 4405).
Option A: Correct. The waiver of premium pays the policy premium during a disability claim.
Option B: Incorrect. Premiums are waived only during disability, not for the insured’s lifetime.
Option C: Incorrect. Monthly benefits are not reduced to offset waived premiums.
Option D: Incorrect. The waiver begins after the elimination period, not immediately upon a doctor’s statement.
A license is NOT required when you are
providing referrals.
selling insurance.
negotiating insurance.
soliciting insurance.
In Oklahoma, an insurance producer license is required for activities defined astransacting insurance, which includes selling, soliciting, or negotiating insurance contracts (Title 36 O.S. § 1435.2).Providing referrals(e.g., passing along contact information without discussing insurance products) does not constitute transacting insurance and does not require a license, provided no compensation is tied to the sale.
Option A: Correct. Providing referrals does not require a license if it avoids solicitation or negotiation.
Option B: Incorrect. Selling insurance requires a producer license.
Option C: Incorrect. Negotiating insurance requires a producer license.
Option D: Incorrect. Soliciting insurance requires a producer license.
In a life insurance cash value policy, the automatic premium loan provision authorizes the insurance company to withdraw from the policy’s cash values the amount of
any outstanding loans from any policies insured with the same insurance company.
premiums due if the premium has not been paid by the end of the grace period.
premiums needed to terminate the policy.
interest owed by the insured on outstanding policy loan amounts not repaid at the policy’s maturity date.
Theautomatic premium loan (APL)provision in a life insurance policy with cash value allows the insurer to automatically borrow from the policy’s cash value to pay overdue premiums if the policyowner fails to pay by the end of the grace period (typically 31 days, per Title 36 O.S. § 4005). This prevents the policy from lapsing, provided sufficient cash value is available.
Option A: Incorrect. The APL provision does not cover loans from other policies.
Option B: Correct. The APL provision authorizes withdrawal to pay premiums due at the end of the grace period.
Option C: Incorrect. The APL provision prevents termination, not facilitates it.
Option D: Incorrect. Interest on policy loans is separate and not covered by the APL provision.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers automatic premium loans.
To be eligible for a small group health insurance plan, a company may NOT have more than how many employees?
2
10
40
50
In Oklahoma, asmall group health insurance planis defined under Title 36 O.S. § 6512 as coverage for employers with2 to 50 employees, aligning with federal standards under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Companies with more than 50 employees are considered large groups and subject to different regulations.
Option A: Incorrect. 2 employees is the minimum for a small group plan, not the maximum.
Option B: Incorrect. 10 employees is below the maximum limit.
Option C: Incorrect. 40 employees is within the small group range.
Option D: Correct. A company with more than 50 employees is not eligible for a small group plan.
Any person of competent legal capacity may contract for life and health insurance at a MINIMUM age of
15.
16.
18.
21.
In Oklahoma, the minimum age for a person of competent legal capacity to contract for life and health insurance is18, as this is the age of majority under Oklahoma law (Title 15 O.S. § 13). Individuals under 18 may be insured (e.g., as dependents or under juvenile policies), but they cannot enter into insurance contracts themselves unless emancipated.
Option A: Incorrect. Age 15 is below the age of majority.
Option B: Incorrect. Age 16 is below the age of majority.
Option C: Correct. Age 18 is the minimum age for contracting insurance in Oklahoma.
Option D: Incorrect. Age 21 is not required; 18 is sufficient.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers eligibility to contract insurance.
What is the main reason a Medicare supplement policy is purchased?
to cover dental services
to cover long-term care services
to cover prescription drugs filled at the pharmacy
to fill the gaps not covered by Medicare Parts A and B
AMedicare supplement policy(Medigap) is designed to cover out-of-pocket costs not paid by Original Medicare (Parts A and B), such as deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments. The primary reason for purchasing Medigap is tofill the gapsin Medicare coverage, as outlined in Oklahoma’s regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 6217) and federal guidelines (CMS, Medicare & You Handbook). Dental services, long-term care, and prescription drugs are not typically covered by Medigap; these require separate plans (e.g., Medicare Part D for drugs).
Option A: Incorrect. Dental services are not covered by Medigap; they require separate dental insurance.
Option B: Incorrect. Long-term care is not covered by Medigap; it requires LTC insurance.
Option C: Incorrect. Prescription drugs are covered by Medicare Part D, not Medigap.
Option D: Correct. Medigap fills gaps in Medicare Parts A and B coverage.
A form of an accelerated death benefit is a
home care benefit.
nonforfeiture extended term benefit.
terminal illness settlement benefit.
cost of living benefit.
Anaccelerated death benefit (ADB)provision allows an insured to receive a portion of the life insurance death benefit before death under specific conditions, such as aterminal illness. Theterminal illness settlement benefitis a form of ADB, providing funds for medical or personal needs, as regulated in Oklahoma (Title 36 O.S. § 4051).
Option A: Incorrect. A home care benefit relates to long-term care, not ADB.
Option B: Incorrect. A nonforfeiture extended term benefit is a policy lapse option, not an ADB.
Option C: Correct. A terminal illness settlement benefit is a type of accelerated death benefit.
Option D: Incorrect. A cost of living benefit adjusts benefits for inflation, not an ADB.
In addition to the application, MIB, or consumer reports, underwriters can acquire information from all of the following EXCEPT
medical questionnaires.
attending physician statements.
physical examinations.
genetic testing.
Underwriters use various sources to assess an applicant’s risk, including the application, Medical Information Bureau (MIB) reports, consumer reports, medical questionnaires, attending physician statements (APS), and physical examinations, as permitted under Oklahoma’s underwriting practices (Title 36 O.S. § 1204). However,genetic testingis generally restricted or prohibited for life and health insurance underwriting due to federal and state laws, such as the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008, which limits the use of genetic information in health insurance decisions.
Option A: Incorrect. Medical questionnaires are a standard underwriting tool.
Option B: Incorrect. Attending physician statements provide medical history and are commonly used.
Option C: Incorrect. Physical examinations are often required for underwriting.
Option D: Correct. Genetic testing is typically not allowed for underwriting due to legal restrictions.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement to become a resident producer or adjuster in Oklahoma?
Live in Oklahoma for a period of 6 months or more.
Successfully passing a licensing examination.
Be at least 18 years of age.
Must be of good personal and business reputation.
To become a resident insurance producer or adjuster in Oklahoma, as outlined in Title 36 O.S. § 1435.7 and § 1435.8, an applicant must: be at least 18 years old, be of good personal and business reputation (demonstrating trustworthiness and competency), successfully pass the required licensing examination, and be a resident of Oklahoma or intend to become one. However, there is no specific requirement to have lived in Oklahoma for 6 months or more prior to applying; residency is established by maintaining a principal place of residence or business in the state at the time of application.
Option A: Correct (not a requirement). Living in Oklahoma for 6 months or more is not explicitly required; residency status is sufficient.
Option B: Incorrect (is a requirement). Passing the licensing exam is mandatory.
Option C: Incorrect (is a requirement). Applicants must be at least 18 years old.
Option D: Incorrect (is a requirement). Good personal and business reputation is required.
If Janet purchases a 10-year level term life insurance policy with a face amount of $100,000, which of the following is TRUE?
The policy will be converted to a whole life policy at the end of the 10-year period.
The face amount will remain constant as the premium increases over the 10-year period.
The face amount will increase as dividends on the policy accumulate over the 10-year period.
The premium and the face amount will remain constant for the 10-year period.
A10-year level term life insurance policyhas a fixed premium and a fixed face amount (death benefit) for the entire 10-year term. The premium and death benefit remain constant, and there is no cash value or dividend accumulation, as term life is not a participating policy.
Option A: Incorrect. Conversion to whole life is an optional rider, not automatic at the end of the term.
Option B: Incorrect. In a level term policy, the premium does not increase during the term; it remains constant.
Option C: Incorrect. Term life policies do not pay dividends or accumulate cash value, so the face amount does not increase.
Option D: Correct. Both the premium and the $100,000 face amount remain constant for the 10-year term.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Life Products,” which covers term life insurance characteristics.
Loans may generally be obtained against the proceeds of a personal life insurance policy, and policy loan proceeds
accelerate the benefits under the policy.
are not treated as taxable income.
are subject to Federal estate tax.
generate nontaxable interest income.
Permanent life insurance policies with a cash value (e.g., whole life, universal life) allow policyholders to take loans against the cash value. According to IRS guidelines and standard insurance principles, policy loans are not considered taxable income because they are treated as a debt against the policy’s cash value, not as income. However, if the policy lapses or is surrendered with an outstanding loan, the loan amount exceeding the policy’s basis may become taxable.
Option A: Incorrect. Policy loans do not accelerate benefits (e.g., death benefits or living benefits); they reduce the cash value and death benefit until repaid.
Option B: Correct. Policy loan proceeds are not treated as taxable income, as they are a loan against the policy’s cash value.
Option C: Incorrect. Policy loans are not subject to Federal estate tax unless the policy’s death benefit is included in the estate, which is unrelated to the loan itself.
Option D: Incorrect. Interest on policy loans is not nontaxable; it is charged by the insurer and does not generate income for the policyholder.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which includes knowledge of policy loans and their tax implications.
The Oklahoma Insurance Commissioner is REQUIRED to examine domestic insurers’ financial condition at LEAST every
2 years.
4 years.
5 years.
6 years.
Under Oklahoma’s Insurance Code (Title 36 O.S. § 309.2), the Oklahoma Insurance Commissioner is required to examine the financial condition ofdomestic insurersat least once every5 yearsto ensure solvency and compliance with state regulations. More frequent examinations may occur if issues arise, but 5 years is the minimum requirement.
Option A: Incorrect. 2 years is too frequent for the minimum requirement.
Option B: Incorrect. 4 years is not the specified interval.
Option C: Correct. Examinations are required at least every 5 years.
Option D: Incorrect. 6 years exceeds the required frequency.
Upon surrender of a whole life insurance policy, which has been in force for AT LEAST 3 full years, and within 60 days after the date the premium payment is due and unpaid, the insurer will
pay a cash surrender value.
extend the grace period.
reimburse all paid premiums.
refund premium.
Under Oklahoma’s Standard Nonforfeiture Law (Title 36 O.S. § 4029), a whole life insurance policy in force for at least 3 years that is surrendered due to non-payment of premiums within 60 days of the due date entitles the policyowner to acash surrender value, provided sufficient cash value has accumulated. This is one of the nonforfeiture options, alongside extended term or reduced paid-up insurance.
Option A: Correct. The insurer pays a cash surrender value upon surrender.
Option B: Incorrect. The grace period (typically 31 days) cannot be extended beyond policy terms.
Option C: Incorrect. Reimbursing all premiums is not a nonforfeiture option.
Option D: Incorrect. Refunding the premium is not applicable; cash value is paid.
A condition for which medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received during the 6 months immediately preceding the effective date of group health coverage is
elimination period.
affiliation period.
diagnosed condition.
preexisting condition.
Apreexisting conditionis defined in health insurance as a medical condition for which advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received within a specified period (commonly 6 months) before the effective date of coverage. In Oklahoma, group health insurance policies often include provisions limiting or excluding coverage for preexisting conditions for a certain period, as regulated by federal and state laws, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
Option A: Incorrect. An elimination period is the waiting period before benefits begin, typically in disability or long-term care policies, not related to preexisting conditions.
Option B: Incorrect. An affiliation period is a waiting period for late enrollees in HMOs under HIPAA, not tied to medical conditions.
Option C: Incorrect. A diagnosed condition is not a standard insurance term; it does not specifically denote the timeframe of prior treatment like a preexisting condition.
Option D: Correct. A preexisting condition matches the definition provided, as per Oklahoma and federal regulations.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers health insurance exclusions and limitations.
Backdating on a life insurance policy is the practice of
reinstating a lapsed policy.
excluding medical coverage for preexisting medical conditions.
accepting the premium after the expiration of the grace period.
making the policy effective on an earlier date than the present.
Backdatinga life insurance policy involves setting the policy’s effective date earlier than the current date, often to secure a lower premium based on the insured’s younger age at the earlier date. This requires the policyowner to pay premiums for the backdated period, as permitted under Oklahoma insurance practices (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 et seq.).
Option A: Incorrect. Reinstating a lapsed policy involves restoring coverage after a lapse, not changing the effective date.
Option B: Incorrect. Excluding preexisting conditions applies to health insurance, not backdating life insurance.
Option C: Incorrect. Accepting late premiums relates to the grace period, not backdating.
Option D: Correct. Backdating makes the policy effective on an earlier date.
The change of beneficiary provision states that the insured has the right to change the beneficiary unless the beneficiary is
uninsurable.
irrevocable.
power of attorney.
deceased.
Thechange of beneficiary provisionallows the policyowner (often the insured) to change the beneficiary at any time unless the beneficiary is designated asirrevocable. An irrevocable beneficiary cannot be changed without their consent, as specified in Oklahoma’s life insurance regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 et seq.).
Option A: Incorrect. Insurability of the beneficiary does not affect the right to change them.
Option B: Correct. An irrevocable beneficiary cannot be changed without their consent.
Option C: Incorrect. Power of attorney affects legal authority, not beneficiary changes.
Option D: Incorrect. A deceased beneficiary can be replaced without restriction.
The type of annuity in which all payments cease upon the death of an annuitant is referred to as a
terminal annuity.
finite annuity.
refund annuity.
life annuity.
Alife annuity(or straight life annuity) pays periodic payments to the annuitant until their death, at which point all payments cease, with no further benefits to beneficiaries. This contrasts with other annuity types, such as refund or joint-life annuities, which may continue payments or provide refunds.
Option A: Incorrect. “Terminal annuity” is not a standard insurance term.
Option B: Incorrect. “Finite annuity” is not a recognized annuity type.
Option C: Incorrect. A refund annuity provides a refund or continued payments to a beneficiary if the annuitant dies early.
Option D: Correct. A life annuity ceases payments upon the annuitant’s death.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Life Products,” which covers annuities and their features.
In terms of consideration, in which of the following circumstances is a health insurance contract effective?
When the insurance company provides the services promised in the contract.
When the insured pays the premium for a plan.
When the insured pays the premium and the policy is issued as applied for.
When the contract has been signed by both the insured and the insurance company.
In insurance, a contract is effective when there is mutual consideration, offer, acceptance, and a meeting of the minds. For a health insurance contract, this occurs when the insured pays the initial premium (consideration from the insured) and the insurer issues the policy as applied for (acceptance by the insurer), as outlined in Oklahoma’s Insurance Code (Title 36 O.S. § 4401). The policy becomes binding at this point, assuming all other conditions (e.g., underwriting approval) are met.
Option A: Incorrect. Providing services occurs during claims, not when the contract is effective.
Option B: Incorrect. Paying the premium alone is not sufficient without policy issuance.
Option C: Correct. The contract is effective when the premium is paid and the policy is issued as applied for.
Option D: Incorrect. Signing by both parties is not typically required; issuance and premium payment suffice.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers contract formation in health insurance.
How many days does the insured have to notify the insurer to add a newly-born child to continue coverage?
31 days.
30 days.
21 days.
14 days.
In life and health insurance policies with family or dependent coverage riders, Oklahoma insurance regulations typically allow a 31-day period for the insured to notify the insurer of a newly-born child to add them to the policy for continued coverage. This aligns with standard provisions for automatic coverage of newborns, which often provide temporary coverage from birth (e.g., for 31 days) before requiring formal notification and premium adjustment to maintain coverage.
Option A: Correct. The insured has 31 days to notify the insurer to add a newly-born child, consistent with standard policy provisions and Oklahoma regulations.
Option B: Incorrect. 30 days is not the standard timeframe in Oklahoma for this purpose.
Option C: Incorrect. 21 days is too short and not aligned with typical insurance provisions.
Option D: Incorrect. 14 days is insufficient for the notification period in most policies.
This question is part of the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers dependent coverage and policy provisions.
Which of the following is a potential DISADVANTAGE of a fixed annuity?
The insured invests payments in variable securities, and the return fluctuates with an uncertain economic market.
There is no guaranteed specific benefit amount to the annuitant.
Annuitants could experience a decrease in the purchasing power of their payments over a period of years due to inflation.
Payments continue only for a maximum of 2 years after the annuitant’s death.
Afixed annuityprovides guaranteed, stable payments to the annuitant, but a key disadvantage is that the fixed payments may losepurchasing powerover time due to inflation, reducing their real value. This is a concern for long-term annuitants, as noted in Oklahoma’s annuity regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 4002).
Option A: Incorrect. Variable securities apply to variable annuities, not fixed annuities.
Option B: Incorrect. Fixed annuities guarantee a specific benefit amount.
Option C: Correct. Inflation can decrease the purchasing power of fixed payments.
Option D: Incorrect. Payment duration depends on the annuity type (e.g., life annuity), not a 2-year limit.
A new mother is guaranteed a 48-hour hospital stay after a regular delivery of a child under which federal law and regulations for group health insurance?
COBRA.
Medicaid.
HIPAA.
ERISA.
TheHealth Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)includes provisions from the Newborns’ and Mothers’ Health Protection Act (NMHPA) of 1996, which mandates that group health plans cannot restrict hospital stays for childbirth to less than 48 hours for a vaginal delivery or 96 hours for a cesarean section. This federal law applies to group health insurance plans in Oklahoma and ensures minimum coverage for maternity care.
Option A: Incorrect. COBRA allows continuation of group health coverage after certain events but does not mandate maternity stay durations.
Option B: Incorrect. Medicaid is a state-federal program for low-income individuals, not a law mandating hospital stays for childbirth.
Option C: Correct. HIPAA, via the NMHPA, guarantees the 48-hour hospital stay for regular deliveries.
Option D: Incorrect. ERISA governs employee benefit plans but does not specifically address maternity hospital stays.
This question is part of the Prometric content outline under “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers federal and state laws affecting health insurance.
Health benefit plans providing maternity coverage shall provide postpartum home care if childbirth occurs at home within?
24 hours by vaginal delivery.
48 hours by vaginal delivery.
72 hours by vaginal delivery.
96 hours by vaginal delivery.
Oklahoma law (Title 36 O.S. § 6060.9), aligned with the federal Newborns’ and Mothers’ Health Protection Act (NMHPA), requires health benefit plans providing maternity coverage to offer postpartum home care for mothers and newborns if childbirth occurs at home and the mother is discharged within48 hoursfor a vaginal delivery (or 96 hours for a cesarean section).
Option A: Incorrect. 24 hours is too short for required postpartum home care.
Option B: Correct. Postpartum home care is required if discharged within 48 hours for vaginal delivery.
Option C: Incorrect. 72 hours is not the standard timeframe.
Option D: Incorrect. 96 hours applies to cesarean deliveries, not vaginal.
A single contract for group medical insurance issued to an employer is known as
a master policy.
an employer policy.
a certificate policy.
a conglomerate policy.
In group medical insurance, themaster policyis the single contract issued to the employer or group sponsor (e.g., a trust or association) that outlines the terms, conditions, and coverage for the entire group. Individual employees receivecertificates of insurance, which summarize their coverage under the master policy but are not the contract itself.
Option A: Correct. The master policy is the contract issued to the employer for group medical insurance.
Option B: Incorrect. “Employer policy” is not a standard insurance term.
Option C: Incorrect. A certificate policy refers to the document given to individuals, not the group contract.
Option D: Incorrect. “Conglomerate policy” is not a recognized term in insurance.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Health Providers and Products,” which covers group health insurance structures.
Which of the following is NOT a settlement option for life or annuity policies?
Fixed period.
Pure life income.
Asset withdrawal.
Life income with period certain.
Settlement options for life insurance or annuity policies determine how proceeds are paid to beneficiaries or annuitants. Common options includefixed period(payments over a set time),pure life income(payments for the annuitant’s lifetime), andlife income with period certain(payments for life with a guaranteed minimum period), as outlined in Oklahoma’s regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 et seq.).Asset withdrawalis not a standard settlement option; it may refer to accessing funds but not a formal payout method.
Option A: Incorrect. Fixed period is a standard settlement option.
Option B: Incorrect. Pure life income is a standard settlement option.
Option C: Correct. Asset withdrawal is not a recognized settlement option.
Option D: Incorrect. Life income with period certain is a standard settlement option.
Laura has a group medical plan that has an 80% coinsurance provision but no deductible. She recently incurred a $1,000 medical bill. How much will Laura have to pay?
$0
$200
$800
$1,000
In a group medical plan with an80% coinsurance provisionand no deductible, the insurer pays 80% of covered medical expenses, and the insured pays the remaining 20%. For Laura’s $1,000 medical bill, the insurer covers 80% ($1,000 × 0.80 = $800), and Laura pays 20% ($1,000 × 0.20 = $200). This calculation aligns with standard health insurance cost-sharing provisions in Oklahoma (Title 36 O.S. § 6060.3).
Option A: Incorrect. Laura must pay her coinsurance share, not $0.
Option B: Correct. Laura pays $200 (20% of $1,000).
Option C: Incorrect. $800 is the insurer’s share, not Laura’s.
Option D: Incorrect. Laura does not pay the full $1,000; she pays only her coinsurance portion.
Many Universal Life Policies will permit a partial surrender of cash value. The surrender amount would
have to be repaid.
increase the face amount.
increase the cash value.
not need to be repaid.
Universal life insurance is a flexible permanent life insurance product with a cash value component. Apartial surrenderallows the policyowner to withdraw a portion of the cash value, reducing both the cash value and, typically, the death benefit. Unlike a policy loan, a partial surrender does not need to be repaid, as it is a withdrawal of the policyowner’s own funds.
Option A: Incorrect. Partial surrenders are not loans and do not require repayment.
Option B: Incorrect. A partial surrender reduces the death benefit, not increases the face amount.
Option C: Incorrect. A partial surrender decreases the cash value, not increases it.
Option D: Correct. The surrender amount does not need to be repaid, as it is a withdrawal.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Life Products,” which covers universal life insurance features, including cash value options.