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Insurance Licensing InsNV_Health02 NV Accident and Health Exam Practice Test
NV Accident and Health Questions and Answers
Insurance for the primary purpose of repaying a loan in the event of disability is referred to as:
Options:
Credit Accident and Health policy
Guaranteed Asset Protection policy
Credit Life and Major Medical policy
Loan Repayment policy
Answer:
AExplanation:
Credit Accident and Health insurance is insurance on a debtor that provides indemnity for payments or debt becoming due on a specific loan or credit transaction while the debtor is disabled as defined by the policy. Its primary purpose is to protect the borrower and creditor by helping repay the outstanding debt when disability prevents the borrower from working or making scheduled payments.
The coverage may pay periodic loan installments during a qualifying disability or, depending on policy design, provide benefits related to the unpaid debt. It is connected to a specific credit obligation rather than serving as broad disability-income protection. The benefit is limited by the loan terms, policy provisions, waiting period, disability definition, and maximum benefit duration.
Guaranteed Asset Protection, or GAP, generally addresses the difference between an automobile’s outstanding loan balance and its actual cash value after a covered total loss. Credit life insurance pays or reduces debt upon the debtor’s death, not disability. “Loan Repayment policy” is not the standard statutory insurance term.
The examination distinction is that disability-related loan protection is Credit Accident and Health insurance, while death-related loan protection is Credit Life insurance.
Study Guide references/topics: credit insurance; disability protection; credit accident and health insurance; debtor; NRS 690A.0135 .
An Outline of Coverage for Medicare Supplement policies must be provided to a prospective insured at which of the following times?
Options:
When the policy is delivered
At the time of application
When the premium is paid
At the time a claim is submitted
Answer:
BExplanation:
A Medicare Supplement insurer must provide an Outline of Coverage to the applicant at the time the application is presented. The outline is a consumer-disclosure document designed to summarize the policy’s principal benefits, premiums, limitations, exclusions, and other important features before the applicant makes a final purchasing decision.
The outline is not the insurance contract itself. The policy contains the full contractual rights and obligations, but the outline allows an applicant to compare Medicare Supplement plans in a clear and standardized format. It helps the consumer understand how the policy works with Original Medicare and whether it duplicates other existing coverage.
If the issued policy differs from the coverage described in the original outline, the insurer must provide a substitute outline describing the policy actually issued when delivering it. That later document does not change the initial requirement: the first outline is provided at application.
The premium-payment date and claim-submission date occur too late to serve the purpose of pre- sale disclosure. The key examination concept is timing: applicants receive the Outline of Coverage before purchasing the Medicare Supplement policy.
Study Guide references/topics: Medicare Supplement insurance; consumer disclosures; Outline of Coverage; NAC 687B.250 .
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A client needs a $250,000 death benefit for exactly 20 years to protect a home mortgage. The client wants the lowest practical initial premium and does not need cash-value accumulation. Which policy is most appropriate?
Options:
Whole life insurance
Level term life insurance
Variable life insurance
Universal life insurance
Answer:
BExplanation:
Level term life insurance is the appropriate recommendation because it provides a stated death benefit for a stated period, such as 20 years. It is designed for temporary protection where the financial need has a known end date—for example, the remaining duration of a mortgage, a child’s dependency period, or a short-to-medium-term income-replacement need. The premium is generally level for the selected term period, while the death benefit remains level if the policy stays in force.
Whole life insurance provides permanent protection and cash-value accumulation, but its premium is ordinarily higher because the insurer expects coverage to continue for the insured’s lifetime. Universal life offers flexible premiums and adjustable death-benefit structures, but it is not the simplest match when the client’s purpose is fixed, time-limited mortgage protection. Variable life has investment risk because policy values depend on separate-account performance and is not selected merely to obtain low-cost temporary coverage.
The producer should confirm that the term period aligns with the mortgage obligation and explain that coverage normally ends at the term’s expiration unless the policy is renewed, converted, or otherwise continued under its provisions.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Types of Life Insurance; Term Life Insurance; Needs Analysis; Mortgage Protection.
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In order for a health insurance producer to be an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator (EEF), the producer:
Options:
can receive commissions from the company in addition to the compensation as a facilitator
can receive both commission and compensation as a facilitator
must surrender the producer ' s license and apply for an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator license
can offer advice to consumers resulting in the " steering " of the selection of coverage
Answer:
CExplanation:
A person may not concurrently hold a Nevada producer license and an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator certificate. Therefore, a health insurance producer who wishes to become an EEF must surrender the producer authority and apply for certification as an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator.
An EEF assists consumers with enrollment in qualified health plans offered through the Exchange. The role is designed to provide objective enrollment help, application assistance, and general information. An EEF may not sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance. The EEF also may not receive consideration from a health insurance issuer or insurer in connection with enrollment and may not receive remuneration arising from EEF activities from a licensed producer, insurance consultant, surplus lines broker, or insurer.
For that reason, a producer cannot receive commissions while acting as an EEF, cannot collect both commission and EEF compensation in the manner described, and cannot steer a consumer toward a particular coverage choice. Producers and EEFs have different legal roles, compensation structures, and consumer-protection limitations.
Study Guide references/topics: Exchange Enrollment Facilitators; producer licensing; prohibited acts; compensation; NRS 695J.210 .
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When a criminal violation of the insurance code has occurred, the Nevada Insurance Commissioner is required to report the violation to the:
Options:
Secretary of State
Lieutenant Governor
State Police
District Attorney
Answer:
DExplanation:
When the Nevada Insurance Commissioner has reason to believe that a person has violated the Insurance Code or another law applicable to insurance operations and criminal prosecution appears appropriate, the Commissioner must provide the relevant information to the appropriate district attorney or to the Attorney General. Of the choices given, District Attorney is the correct answer.
The Commissioner administers and enforces Nevada insurance laws, investigates potential violations, conducts examinations, and may impose administrative sanctions where authorized. Criminal prosecution, however, is handled by the appropriate prosecutorial authority rather than by the Commissioner personally. This division of responsibility preserves due process and ensures that criminal cases are evaluated and prosecuted by officials with criminal-law authority.
The Secretary of State, Lieutenant Governor, and State Police may have governmental roles that occasionally relate to business records, executive functions, or investigations, but they are not the statutory prosecutorial recipients identified in Nevada’s insurance law. The examination point is that an insurance violation can produce both administrative consequences, such as a fine or license action, and criminal referral when the conduct warrants prosecution.
Study Guide references/topics: powers and duties of the Commissioner; insurance-code enforcement; criminal violations; NRS 679B.150 .
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A group health insurance policy MUST include coverage for which of the following expenses?
Options:
Adult dental
Hospice
Adult vision
Over-the-counter dietary supplements
Answer:
BExplanation:
A group health insurance policy in Nevada must include coverage for expenses arising from hospice care. Hospice care is intended for patients with terminal illness and emphasizes comfort, pain control, symptom management, supportive services, and assistance for the patient and family rather than curative treatment.
Nevada’s group-policy required-provisions statute specifically identifies benefits for expenses arising from hospice care. This makes hospice the correct answer. Adult dental and adult vision benefits may be offered by separate policies, riders, employer plans, or benefit arrangements, but they are not universally required in every group health policy. Over-the-counter dietary supplements are not a standard mandated group health benefit and are generally covered only when specifically provided by a policy or health plan.
Hospice coverage should be distinguished from ordinary inpatient hospital coverage. Hospice care may be delivered in a home, residential setting, hospice facility, or other appropriate location, depending on the patient’s needs and the terms of coverage. It frequently involves an interdisciplinary team and includes both patient care and family-support services.
Study Guide references/topics: group health required provisions; hospice care; mandated benefits; supportive services; NRS 689B.030 .
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Which Medicare part generally helps cover inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facility care following a qualifying hospital stay, hospice care, and certain home health services?
Options:
Medicare Part A
Medicare Part B
Medicare Part C
Medicare Part D
Answer:
AExplanation:
Medicare Part A is commonly called hospital insurance. It generally helps cover inpatient hospital care, limited skilled nursing facility care following a qualifying hospital stay, hospice care, and certain home health services. Part A benefits are subject to program rules, benefit periods, deductibles, coinsurance, eligibility conditions, and coverage limitations. It does not mean that every hospital-related service is fully paid.
Medicare Part B is medical insurance. It generally covers physicians’ services, outpatient care, preventive services, durable medical equipment, and other medically necessary services. Part C, Medicare Advantage, is an alternative way for eligible beneficiaries to receive Medicare-covered benefits through approved private plans. Part D provides outpatient prescription-drug coverage through private plans approved by Medicare.
A producer must understand that Medicare supplements and Medicare Advantage plans coordinate differently with Original Medicare. A Medicare supplement policy is designed to help pay certain deductibles, coinsurance, and other gaps in Original Medicare. A Medicare Advantage plan generally replaces the method of receiving Parts A and B services through a private managed plan rather than functioning as a standard supplement.
The examination focus is the basic division: Part A is primarily hospital-related coverage; Part B is primarily medical and outpatient coverage.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medicare; Medicare Part A; Medicare Part B; Medicare Advantage; Medicare Supplement Insurance.
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A prospect submits an Accident and Health application with the premium and receives a conditional receipt. The insurance company issues a policy and mails it to the insured, but the insured never receives it. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about this situation?
Options:
The policy is not in force because delivery was not completed.
The policy will be in force five business days after the prospect notifies the company that the prospect has not received the policy.
The policy will be in force as soon as the company issues a replacement policy.
The policy is in force.
Answer:
DExplanation:
The correct answer is D. A conditional receipt may provide temporary or conditional coverage when the application and required premium are submitted, subject to the receipt’s terms and the applicant meeting underwriting requirements. Once the insurer approves the application, issues the policy, and mails it to the insured, the policy is generally considered delivered through constructive delivery. Physical receipt by the insured is not required when the insurer has completed issuance and mailing without retaining control over the policy. Accordingly, failure of the insured to receive the mailed policy does not, by itself, prevent the policy from being in force. Choice A incorrectly assumes that personal delivery is always essential. Choices B and C introduce conditions that are not part of the usual delivery rule. The policy’s effective date remains governed by the application, conditional receipt, policy provisions, and underwriting approval. This question tests the distinction between actual delivery, where the insured personally receives the policy, and constructive delivery, where the insurer’s completed mailing is sufficient to establish delivery. Study Guide References/Topics: Completing the Application, Underwriting, and Delivering the Policy; Conditional Receipts; Policy Delivery.
For Social Security disability benefits, which statement is generally correct?
Options:
Benefits are payable for any short-term illness that prevents work for one week.
The program uses a strict definition of disability involving inability to perform substantial work for a required duration.
Benefits are available only to persons age 65 or older.
The program is funded entirely by private insurance premiums.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Social Security disability benefits are based on a strict federal definition of disability. In general, the claimant must be unable to engage in substantial gainful activity because of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment that has lasted, or is expected to last, for at least 12 months or is expected to result in death. The program is not designed to insure every short-term illness, temporary injury, or partial loss of earnings.
Eligibility also depends on work history and Social Security credits in many cases. The Social Security Administration evaluates whether the person can perform past work or adjust to other substantial work, considering medical and vocational factors. A waiting period may apply before cash disability benefits begin. Separate programs, such as Supplemental Security Income, have different eligibility and income-resource rules.
For insurance examination purposes, distinguish Social Security disability from private disability-income insurance. Private coverage is based on the policy definition of disability, elimination period, benefit amount, and benefit period. Social Security disability uses the federal program’s statutory standard and administrative determination process. A producer should describe private coverage as a possible supplement to—not a replacement for—government disability benefits.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Social Security Disability; Definitions of Disability; Disability Income Insurance; Government Benefit Coordination.
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Which feature most clearly distinguishes a health maintenance organization (HMO) from a traditional indemnity health insurance plan?
Options:
The HMO always reimburses any provider at the same level.
The HMO pays only after the insured satisfies a cash-value requirement.
The HMO commonly uses a provider network and coordinates care through managed-care rules.
The HMO provides only disability-income benefits.
Answer:
CExplanation:
An HMO is a managed-care arrangement that commonly delivers and finances health-care services through a defined network of providers. Covered persons typically select or are assigned a primary care provider who coordinates routine care and, depending on the plan design, provides referrals for specialist services. Services received outside the network may be limited or not covered except for emergencies or specifically authorized care.
Traditional indemnity insurance operates differently. It generally reimburses covered medical expenses subject to policy limits, deductibles, coinsurance, and usual-and-customary or other payment standards. The insured may have broader provider choice, but that flexibility is often paired with less managed coordination and potentially greater out-of-pocket exposure. A preferred provider organization, or PPO, also uses a network but typically allows nonnetwork care at reduced benefit levels rather than requiring the same referral structure associated with many HMOs.
The exam distinction is based on delivery of care and network control, not merely on whether a policy has a deductible. Managed-care plans seek to control cost and improve coordination by negotiating with providers and establishing coverage procedures. Nevada recognizes network plans as policies in which financing and delivery of medical care are provided, at least in part, through defined providers under contract with the insurer.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Managed Care; HMO; PPO; Network Plans; NRS 689A—Network Plan Definition.
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Under a Gold health insurance plan, an insurer would be expected to pay which percentage of medical costs?
Options:
60%
70%
80%
90%
Answer:
CExplanation:
A Gold Marketplace health plan has an actuarial value of approximately 80%. Therefore, the insurer is expected to pay about 80% of covered medical costs for a standard population, while enrollees as a group pay approximately 20% through deductibles, copayments, and coinsurance.
Actuarial value does not mean that the insurer pays exactly 80% of every individual’s bills. A particular insured may pay more or less than 20% in a year depending on the services used, the plan’s deductible, copayment structure, provider network, prescription-drug costs, and whether the annual out-of-pocket maximum has been reached. It is an overall measure of expected cost sharing for covered benefits.
The standard metal levels are Bronze at 60%, Silver at 70%, Gold at 80%, and Platinum at 90%. Gold plans generally have higher monthly premiums than Bronze or Silver plans but lower cost sharing when health care is received. Platinum plans generally have the highest premiums and the lowest cost sharing.
Study Guide references/topics: Affordable Care Act; Marketplace plans; metal levels; actuarial value; deductibles; copayments; HealthCare.gov plan categories .
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The Nevada Insurance Commissioner may revoke the license of any licensed producer who:
Options:
is found liable by final judgment in a civil case
fails to file an annual financial report with the Division of Insurance
fails to notify the Commissioner of a change of address within forty-eight hours
misappropriates monies belonging to policyholders
Answer:
DExplanation:
Misappropriating money belonging to policyholders is a direct and serious ground for license revocation. A producer commonly receives premiums, return premiums, claim funds, or other property in the course of insurance business. Those funds must be handled honestly, promptly, and in accordance with the producer’s fiduciary responsibilities. Using, converting, improperly withholding, or diverting that money violates Nevada producer-licensing law.
The Commissioner may refuse to issue, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a producer’s license and may impose administrative fines or other disciplinary action for specified misconduct. Misappropriation is specifically identified as conduct warranting discipline because it threatens consumers and undermines the integrity of the insurance marketplace.
A civil judgment alone does not automatically establish a licensing-revocation ground under the wording of this question. Likewise, reporting requirements and address-change obligations may lead to administrative consequences when violated, but the question asks for the clear statutory cause for revocation. Misappropriation of policyholder money is the most direct and legally significant answer.
Producers should maintain accurate premium records, promptly remit funds, segregate money when required, and never treat policyholder or insurer funds as personal assets.
Study Guide references/topics: producer fiduciary duties; prohibited practices; license denial, suspension, and revocation; NRS 683A.451 .
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The Coinsurance clause in an individual Medical Expense policy refers to the:
Options:
insured ' s rights to have another person, such as a spouse or child, insured on the same policy
insurance company ' s right to join with another company to carry excessive coverage on a particular individual
insurance company ' s right to share claim experience with another company
insurance company ' s right to require the insured to share a certain percentage of the cost of each claim
Answer:
DExplanation:
Coinsurance is the contractual sharing of covered medical expenses between the insured and the insurer after any applicable deductible has been satisfied. Choice D is correc t. Under a common 80/20 coinsurance arrangement, for example, the insurer pays 80 percent of an eligible expense and the insured pays the remaining 20 percent, up to any out-of-pocket maximum or other plan limitation. Coinsurance reduces premium cost and encourages insureds to consider the cost of care, while preserving significant protection against major expenses. It does not refer to adding family members to a policy, which concerns eligibility or family coverage. It also does not describe insurers sharing risk with each other; that would involve reinsurance or other insurer-to-insurer arrangements. Coinsurance should be distinguished from a deductible, which is a specified dollar amount the insured pays before policy benefits begin. A copayment is instead a fixed dollar amount paid for a covered service. The exact coinsurance percentage, covered-charge definition, network rules, and annual out-of-pocket limit are determined by the policy. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Medical Expense Insurance; Deductibles and Coinsurance.
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A group health policy that covers hospital expenses MUST also cover:
Options:
burial expenses
elective cosmetic surgery
travel expenses for caretakers
routine physical examinations
Answer:
DExplanation:
A group health policy that provides hospital-expense coverage must also provide coverage for routine physical examinations. Routine examinations are preventive services intended to identify health concerns early, promote wellness, and reduce the risk that a medical condition will progress before treatment begins.
Burial expenses are not health-insurance benefits. They are ordinarily addressed through life insurance, final-expense coverage, or other arrangements. Elective cosmetic surgery is generally excluded unless it is medically necessary, reconstructive, or otherwise required by the policy or applicable law. Travel expenses for caretakers are likewise not a standard mandatory group health benefit.
The key point is that group health coverage is not confined to hospitalization after illness or injury occurs. Required provisions can include preventive and health-maintenance benefits. Routine physical examinations allow the insured to receive medical assessment before a condition requires hospital confinement or major treatment.
The exact scope of a routine examination, frequency limitations, network requirements, and whether additional diagnostic services are covered may depend on the policy and applicable preventive-care rules. But among the choices, routine physical examinations are the mandated benefit associated with hospital-expense group coverage.
Study Guide references/topics: group health required provisions; hospital expense coverage; preventive care; routine physical examinations; Nevada group-health policy requirements .
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Which person is the measuring life whose survival determines the timing and duration of annuity payments?
Options:
Annuitant
Beneficiary
Policyowner
Producer
Answer:
AExplanation:
The annuitant is the person whose life expectancy is used to determine the amount, timing, or duration of annuity payments. The annuitant is not necessarily the contract owner or the beneficiary. In many personally owned annuities, one person may occupy more than one role, but examination questions frequently separate them. The owner controls contractual rights, including premium payments, beneficiary changes, withdrawals when permitted, and surrender decisions. The annuitant is the measuring life. The beneficiary receives remaining contract value or death proceeds if the owner or annuitant dies, depending on the contract design.
During the accumulation period, the owner pays premiums or transfers funds into the annuity. During the annuitization period, the accumulated value is converted into a stream of income payments. The annuitant’s age and selected payout option influence the payment calculation. A life-income option normally provides larger periodic payments for an older annuitant because the expected payment period is shorter.
Do not confuse the annuitant with the insured under life insurance. Life insurance is designed primarily to create a death benefit upon the insured’s death. An annuity is designed primarily to provide income during life, although death-benefit provisions may apply before annuitization.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Annuities; Parties to an Annuity; Accumulation Period; Annuitization Period; Payout Options.
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If coverage has stayed in force with the same insurance company, what is the maximum number of years for which reconstructive surgery (mastectomy) benefits must be provided?
Options:
1
3
5
7
Answer:
BExplanation:
If reconstructive surgery is begun within three years after a mastectomy, the amount of benefits for that surgery must equal the amount provided by the policy at the time of the mastectomy. Therefore, the tested maximum period is three years.
Nevada requires a policy that covers mastectomy to provide commensurate coverage for reconstruction of the breast on which the mastectomy was performed, surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to create symmetry, prostheses, and treatment of physical complications of all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedema. The attending physician and patient determine the appropriate care.
The three-year rule protects an insured from losing the original level of reconstruction benefits merely because reconstruction is delayed. If surgery begins more than three years after the mastectomy, benefits are governed by the policy terms, conditions, and exclusions in effect at the time reconstructive surgery begins.
This question does not ask how long all reconstruction coverage disappears. It tests the period during which the policy must preserve the benefit amount available at the time of mastectomy.
Study Guide references/topics: mastectomy coverage; reconstructive surgery; breast reconstruction; mandated health benefits; NRS 689B.0375 .
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The commission for the placement of nonadmitted insurance is paid by the insurer to the:
Options:
policyholder
Division of Insurance
surplus lines broker
third-party claimant
Answer:
CExplanation:
The commission for the placement of nonadmitted insurance is paid to the surplus lines broker. A surplus lines broker is specially licensed to place eligible insurance with a nonadmitted insurer when coverage cannot be procured from authorized insurers under the conditions required by Nevada’s Nonadmitted Insurance Law.
A nonadmitted insurer is not licensed or authorized to transact insurance generally in Nevada, but it may provide qualifying surplus-lines coverage through a properly licensed surplus lines broker. The broker performs the regulated placement function, documents the effort to obtain coverage from the admitted market when required, handles applicable filings, and ensures that statutory taxes and disclosures are addressed.
The policyholder purchases the insurance and pays the premium; the policyholder is not paid the placement commission. The Division of Insurance regulates the transaction and may receive taxes, fees, and reports as provided by law, but it is not the recipient of the insurer’s commission. A third-party claimant is someone asserting a claim against an insured and has no role in the placement commission.
Study Guide references/topics: nonadmitted insurance; surplus lines; broker licensing; commissions; Nevada Nonadmitted Insurance Law .
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A policyowner names two children as beneficiaries “per stirpes.” If one child dies before the insured but leaves children, how are that deceased child’s share and the surviving child’s share handled?
Options:
The surviving child receives all proceeds.
The deceased child’s share passes to the insurer.
The deceased child’s descendants receive that child’s share.
The estate of the deceased child automatically receives all proceeds.
Answer:
CExplanation:
A per stirpes beneficiary designation means “by the branch” or “by the bloodline.” If a named beneficiary dies before the insured, that beneficiary’s descendants take the deceased beneficiary’s share. In this question, the deceased child’s children receive the share that would have gone to their parent, while the surviving child receives that child’s own share. This preserves each family branch’s intended portion of the life insurance proceeds.
A per capita designation works differently. Under a per capita arrangement, surviving members of a named class generally share equally, and a deceased beneficiary’s descendants do not automatically take the deceased beneficiary’s share unless the designation or policy language provides otherwise. The precise result always depends on the policy designation, applicable law, and any contingent- beneficiary provisions.
Beneficiary designations should be reviewed after divorce, marriage, birth, death, adoption, or other major changes. A producer should not provide legal advice about estate planning, but should encourage the policyowner to obtain professional legal guidance when the designation involves trusts, minors, estates, complex family arrangements, or special-needs planning.
The test point is straightforward: per stirpes preserves the deceased beneficiary’s branch; per capita distributes among the surviving members of the class.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Beneficiary Designations; Per Stirpes; Per Capita; Primary and Contingent Beneficiaries; Estate Planning Basics.
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Under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy, in which of the following circumstances will an autopsy NOT be performed?
Options:
When the beneficiary refuses to give consent
When it is prohibited by law
When the cause of death was an illness
When the cause of death was an accident
Answer:
BExplanation:
The correct answer is B. An AD & D policy may give the insurer the right to conduct an autopsy when death occurs, provided the autopsy is not prohibited by law. The autopsy provision helps the insurer determine whether the cause of death falls within the policy’s accidental-death coverage and whether an exclusion applies. A beneficiary’s refusal does not necessarily defeat the insurer’s contractual right if applicable law permits the examination. The fact that death resulted from illness rather than an accident may affect whether an AD & D benefit is payable, but it does not itself state the legal restriction on performing an autopsy. Likewise, an accidental cause of death is precisely the type of circumstance in which the insurer may need medical evidence to verify coverage. The insurer’s right is not unlimited: it must comply with legal requirements, including restrictions imposed by statute, court order, or other controlling authority. The exam rule is straightforward: the insurer may conduct an autopsy at its own expense unless doing so is prohibited by law. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Accidental Death and Dismemberment; Autopsy Provision.
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When a nonqualified annuity is surrendered for more than the owner’s investment in the contract, how is the gain generally treated for federal income-tax purposes?
Options:
As a tax-free return of principal only
As ordinary income
As a long-term capital gain in all cases
As a deductible business loss
Answer:
BExplanation:
Gain from a nonqualified annuity is generally taxed as ordinary income when distributed. The owner’s investment in the contract, often called the cost basis, is not taxed again because it was paid with after-tax dollars. However, the growth above that basis is tax-deferred only while it remains inside the annuity. When the owner surrenders the contract or receives a taxable distribution, the gain is subject to ordinary-income treatment rather than the preferential capital-gains treatment that may apply to certain investments.
A nonqualified annuity is funded with after-tax money and is not held inside a qualified retirement arrangement such as an IRA or employer plan. The contract’s tax deferral can be valuable for long-term planning, but it does not mean that every distribution is tax free. In addition, distributions before age 59½ may be subject to an additional federal tax penalty unless an exception applies. A full surrender may also trigger a surrender charge under the contract if it occurs during the surrender-charge period.
The producer should never present an annuity as tax avoidance. The accurate explanation is tax deferral, possible ordinary-income taxation of gain upon distribution, potential penalties for early distributions, and the importance of consulting a qualified tax adviser for individual circumstances.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Annuity Taxation; Nonqualified Annuities; Cost Basis; Tax Deferral; Surrender Charges.
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Which statement best describes Medicare Part B?
Options:
It is automatic for every person at age 55.
It is medical insurance and generally requires enrollment and a monthly premium.
It provides only outpatient prescription-drug benefits.
It is Medicaid coverage for low-income individuals.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Medicare Part B is the medical-insurance portion of Original Medicare. It generally helps cover physician services, outpatient care, diagnostic services, preventive care, durable medical equipment, and other covered medical services. Enrollment is generally voluntary, although it may be automatic for certain people who are already receiving Social Security benefits. Most individuals pay a monthly Part B premium, and higher-income beneficiaries may pay an income-related additional amount.
Part B should not be confused with Medicare Part D, which provides outpatient prescription-drug coverage, or with Medicaid, which is a joint federal-state program for eligible individuals with limited income and resources. Part B also differs from Part A, which is primarily hospital insurance. Delaying Part B enrollment without qualifying employer coverage can result in late-enrollment penalties and gaps in coverage, so producers should avoid casual advice and instead direct consumers to current Medicare enrollment guidance.
When discussing Medicare-related products, producers must accurately identify whether a client has Original Medicare, a Medicare Advantage plan, a Medicare supplement policy, and/or a Part D prescription-drug plan. These arrangements have different rules, premiums, provider networks, and cost-sharing structures.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medicare Part B; Original Medicare; Enrollment Periods; Medicare Premiums; Medicare Supplement Products.
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A producer aggrieved by any regulation or order of the Insurance Commissioner may request:
Options:
an administrative hearing
injunctive relief through the Secretary of State
legislative review of the case
peer review of the case
Answer:
AExplanation:
A producer who is aggrieved by a regulation or order of the Nevada Insurance Commissioner may request an administrative hearing. Nevada law requires the Commissioner to hold a hearing upon a proper written application from a person aggrieved by an act, failure to act, report, rule, regulation, or order related to the business of insurance, subject to statutory timing and procedural requirements.
The request is a due-process mechanism. It gives the affected producer an opportunity to state the grounds for relief, present evidence, challenge the factual or legal basis of the regulatory action, and create an administrative record. The application must generally be filed with the Division within 60 days after the person knew or reasonably should have known of the action, unless another law establishes a different period.
The Secretary of State does not provide the administrative remedy described in this question. Legislative review and peer review are not the standard appeal mechanisms for an individual Commissioner action. Judicial review may become available after the administrative process, but the immediate remedy tested here is the request for an administrative hearing.
Study Guide references/topics: Commissioner authority; hearings; producer rights; administrative due process; NRS 679B.310 .
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Which of the following is permitted by a licensee?
Options:
Buying the client a nominal gift at Christmas
Lowering the premium by rebating the commission
Altering the client ' s application information to lower the premium rate
Returning the commission to the client to ensure policy renewal
Answer:
AExplanation:
A licensee may give a client a nominal gift, such as an ordinary Christmas gift, so long as the gift complies with Nevada’s statutory limits and is not used as an unlawful inducement. Nevada permits producers and insurers to provide certain gifts, goods, gift certificates, meals, event tickets, and similar items to a policyholder or prospective policyholder up to an aggregate value of $100 in a calendar year.
Rebating is prohibited. A producer may not reduce the premium by giving back all or part of a commission, nor may the producer return a commission to induce the client to buy, retain, or renew insurance. The prohibition protects consumers and preserves fair competition by requiring premiums and policy benefits to be applied consistently.
Altering an application to obtain a lower premium is also prohibited. Application answers must accurately reflect the applicant’s information. Knowingly changing material information can constitute misrepresentation, fraud, and grounds for producer discipline.
The exam distinction is straightforward: a modest, permitted gift is lawful; a rebate, commission return, or falsification of application information is not.
Study Guide references/topics: rebating; inducements; producer ethics; application accuracy; NRS 686A.110 .
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For an individual health insurance policy, which document is generally part of the entire contract when a copy is attached to or endorsed on the policy?
Options:
The application
A producer’s personal notes
An advertisement used during the sale
A verbal statement made by the applicant
Answer:
AExplanation:
The application is generally part of the entire contract only when a copy is attached to or endorsed on the policy. The entire-contract provision identifies the documents that form the binding agreement between the insurer and the insured. In an individual health policy, the policy itself and the attached application are the principal contract documents. Material statements made in the application are treated according to the policy and governing law, but outside papers, advertisements, and verbal discussions ordinarily do not become policy terms merely because they were used in the sales process.
This rule protects both parties. The insured can review the documents that govern coverage, while the insurer can rely on the written application it used for underwriting. A producer’s notes, informal assurances, or advertising language cannot expand benefits, remove exclusions, or alter policy conditions unless formally incorporated into the contract. Producers must avoid statements that conflict with the issued policy and should deliver the policy promptly so the applicant can examine it during any applicable free-look period.
Nevada’s individual health-insurance law requires specified policy provisions and permits approved substitutions only when they are not less favorable to the insured or beneficiary. The exact wording and placement of the application therefore matter.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Entire Contract; Application; Policy Delivery; Individual Health Policy Provisions; NRS 689A.040.
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What is the principal purpose of Medicare supplement insurance?
Options:
To replace Medicare Part A and Part B entirely
To help pay certain deductibles, coinsurance, and other gaps in Original Medicare
To provide Medicaid eligibility
To pay only long-term custodial care
Answer:
BExplanation:
Medicare supplement insurance, often called Medigap, is designed to help pay certain out-of-pocket costs left by Original Medicare, such as deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, and other covered gaps, depending on the standardized policy type and current rules. It supplements Original Medicare Parts A and B; it does not replace Medicare coverage. The insured must generally remain enrolled in Original Medicare to use a Medicare supplement policy.
Medigap differs from Medicare Advantage. A Medicare Advantage plan is a private plan through which an eligible beneficiary receives Medicare-covered services, usually with plan networks, plan rules, and an annual out-of-pocket maximum. A consumer generally does not use a Medicare supplement policy to supplement a Medicare Advantage plan. Medigap also differs from stand-alone Part D prescription-drug coverage, which is separately arranged for many Original Medicare beneficiaries.
Producers selling Medicare-related products must make accurate comparisons, use required disclosures, and avoid misleading consumers about benefits, provider access, premiums, or enrollment rights. A client’s health needs, travel patterns, provider preferences, prescription needs, affordability, and enrollment timing are important factors. No single Medicare arrangement is automatically best for every beneficiary.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medicare Supplement Insurance; Original Medicare; Medicare Advantage; Medicare Part D; Medicare Cost Sharing.
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J and K are married and have several children. J is the primary beneficiary on K ' s Accidental Death and Dismemberment (AD & D) policy, and K ' s sibling, L, is the contingent beneficiary. J, K, and L are involved in a train accident, and K and L are killed instantly. The Accidental Death benefits will be paid to:
Options:
L ' s estate
K ' s estate
J and K ' s estate
J only
Answer:
DExplanation:
The correct answer is D, J only. A primary beneficiary has the first right to receive policy proceeds. J is named as K’s primary beneficiary and survives the accident. Therefore, the AD & D benefit is paid directly to J. The contingent beneficiary, L, would receive the proceeds only if the primary beneficiary had died before K or could not receive the benefit under the policy terms. Because J remains alive, L’s death does not change the payment outcome. The proceeds do not pass to K’s estate because a living named primary beneficiary exists. They also do not pass to L’s estate, because L never became entitled to the benefit; the contingency never occurred. Beneficiary designations control over general assumptions about family relationships or estates. The insured should keep beneficiary designations current after changes in family status, death, divorce, or estate-planning decisions. A simultaneous-death provision can alter outcomes if the beneficiary and insured die in the same event and survivorship cannot be determined, but the facts here identify K and L as deceased while J survives. Study Guide References/Topics: Group Health Insurance; Accidental Death and Dismemberment; Beneficiary Designations.
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R, a self-employed stockbroker, becomes totally disabled on January 1 and receives $1,500 a month for the next twelve months from her own Individual Disability Income policy, for which she had paid the premium. How much of this income is subject to federal income tax?
Options:
$18,000
$12,800
$9,000
$0
Answer:
DExplanation:
The correct answer is D, $0. Disability income benefits generally are not taxable to the insured when the insured personally paid the premiums with after-tax dollars. R paid the premium for her own individual disability income policy, so the $1,500 monthly benefit is excluded from federal taxable income. The total annual benefit is $18,000, but the fact that it totals $18,000 does not make it taxable. Tax treatment changes when an employer pays the premium and does not include that premium amount in the employee’s taxable income; in that case, disability benefits are generally taxable. Similarly, benefits can be taxable when premiums were paid through certain pre-tax arrangements. The central exam rule is: personally paid, after-tax disability premiums normally produce income-tax-free disability benefits. The Internal Revenue Service confirms that benefits from an accident or health policy are not taxable when the taxpayer paid the premiums. See IRS Publication 525 . Study Guide References/Topics: Taxation and Business Uses of Health Insurance; Disability Income Insurance; Tax Treatment of Disability Benefits.
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Which of the following BEST describes Medicare Advantage Plans?
Options:
Privately subsidized government insurance
Government Subsidized private insurance
Long-Term care benefits rider added to basic Medicare benefits
Federally funded welfare benefit plans
Answer:
BExplanation:
Medicare Advantage Plans are best described as government-subsidized private insurance. Medicare Advantage, also called Medicare Part C, is offered by private companies that contract with Medicare and must follow Medicare rules. Eligible beneficiaries receive their Medicare-covered benefits through the private plan instead of receiving benefits through Original Medicare directly.
The federal Medicare program pays private Medicare Advantage organizations to provide covered services to enrolled beneficiaries. The plans must provide all medically necessary services covered by Original Medicare, except hospice care, which remains covered under Original Medicare. Many Medicare Advantage plans also include prescription drug coverage and may provide additional benefits such as dental, vision, hearing, wellness, or transportation benefits.
The plans are private, but they are not privately subsidized government insurance. They are federally regulated Medicare arrangements supported by Medicare payments. They are not long-term care riders and are not welfare benefit plans. Enrollees generally continue paying their Medicare Part B premium and may also pay a plan premium, although some plans have a $0 additional premium.
Study Guide references/topics: Medicare Part C; Medicare Advantage; private insurers; federal Medicare program; Medicare Advantage overview .
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An insured who owns a Disability Income policy forgot to pay the premium due on July 1. If the insured files a disability claim on July 31, the insurance company will MOST likely:
Options:
deny the claim
pay the claim but deduct the unpaid premium
reinstate the policy and then pay the claim
cancel the policy and return all premiums paid
Answer:
BExplanation:
The policy remains in force during its contractual grace period after a premium becomes due. For individual accident and health policies, the required grace period generally depends on premium mode: seven days for weekly premiums, ten days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for other premium modes. A claim occurring within the applicable grace period is not automatically denied simply because the premium has not yet been paid. Instead, the insurer may pay the covered claim and deduct the overdue premium from the amount otherwise payable. Therefore, choice B is the best answer. Reinstatement is unnecessary because the policy has not yet lapsed while the grace period is still running. Cancellation and return of all prior premiums would be inconsistent with the purpose of the grace-period provision. The question tests the difference between a late premium during grace and a lapsed policy after grace expires. Once grace expires without payment, coverage can lapse; if coverage later is reinstated, loss coverage may be subject to reinstatement provisions and limitations. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Grace Period; Disability Income Insurance.
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The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that:
Options:
interest charged on premium loans be limited to a specified amount
applicants be advised that a consumer report may be requested
insurance companies treat insureds fairly and not discriminate
insurance companies pay interest on claims that are paid late
Answer:
BExplanation:
The Fair Credit Reporting Act governs the collection, use, and disclosure of consumer-report information. Choice B is correct because an insurance applicant must receive appropriate notice when an insurer may obtain a consumer report or investigative consumer report in connection with underwriting. Consumer reports can contain information relevant to an insurer’s evaluation of risk, including credit-related information and other data permitted by law. The notice requirement promotes transparency and gives applicants the opportunity to understand that reporting information may be used in the underwriting process. The remaining choices concern different legal issues. Interest on premium loans is governed by policy and insurance-law rules, not the FCRA. Unfair discrimination is addressed through insurance regulation and unfair-trade-practice standards. Interest for late claim payments is governed by applicable claims-handling requirements, not the FCRA. The FCRA permits insurance companies to obtain consumer reports only for a permissible purpose and imposes duties regarding notices and adverse actions when report information is used. See the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau’s FCRA guidance . Study Guide References/Topics: Nevada Insurance Regulation and Licensing; Consumer Reports; Fair Credit Reporting Act.
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A Long-Term Care policy provides coverage for:
Options:
medical expenses
hospital expenses
custodial care in a nursing home
Medicare Supplement coverage
Answer:
CExplanation:
Long-term care insurance is designed primarily to cover services required when an insured cannot perform activities of daily living independently or has a severe cognitive impairment. Custodial care in a nursing home is a core example of long-term care coverage. Custodial care involves assistance with everyday personal needs, such as bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, and continence, rather than acute medical treatment.
Long-term care benefits may be provided in a nursing home, assisted-living setting, adult day-care setting, or the insured’s home, depending on the policy. Coverage can include skilled nursing care, intermediate care, custodial care, home health care, hospice care, respite care, and care-management services, subject to policy conditions and benefit triggers.
Hospital-expense and medical-expense policies generally focus on acute treatment, physician services, surgery, hospitalization, and related medical costs. Medicare Supplement insurance is designed to help pay certain Medicare deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments; it is not long-term care insurance.
The distinction is crucial: long-term care insurance addresses prolonged assistance and supervision resulting from chronic illness, disability, frailty, or cognitive impairment, whereas major medical insurance focuses principally on acute medical treatment.
Study Guide references/topics: long-term care insurance; custodial care; skilled care; activities of daily living; nursing-home benefits; Nevada long-term-care regulations .
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Which person is generally eligible to establish and contribute to a health savings account (HSA)?
Options:
A person enrolled in any health plan with no deductible
A person covered by a qualified high-deductible health plan and meeting other eligibility requirements
A person enrolled in Medicare Part A
A person claimed as another taxpayer’s dependent
Answer:
BExplanation:
An HSA is generally available to an eligible individual who is covered by a qualified high-deductible health plan, commonly called an HDHP, and who meets the other federal eligibility requirements. The account is owned by the individual, not the employer or insurer. Contributions may be made by the individual, an employer, or another person, subject to annual contribution limits. Qualified distributions used for eligible medical expenses are generally tax advantaged under federal rules.
Eligibility is not based solely on having a high deductible. The health plan must meet the federal HDHP requirements for the applicable year. In addition, an individual generally cannot be enrolled in Medicare, cannot be claimed as another person’s tax dependent, and cannot have disqualifying other health coverage. Because federal limits and requirements can change, the producer should not provide individualized tax advice and should refer the consumer to current IRS guidance or a qualified tax professional.
An HSA differs from a flexible spending arrangement because unused HSA funds generally remain with the account owner and may carry forward. It also differs from health insurance itself; the HSA is a tax-advantaged account used alongside an eligible health plan.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Health Savings Accounts; High-Deductible Health Plans; Consumer-Directed Health Plans; Tax-Advantaged Medical Accounts.
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Which of the following information is included in the Consideration clause in an Accident and Health policy?
Options:
Description of the coverage provided
Explanation of the Contestable periods
Duration of the Grace Period
Schedule and amount of premium payments
Answer:
DExplanation:
The consideration clause identifies the exchange of value that creates the insurance contract. The insurer’s consideration is its promise to provide the stated coverage and pay covered claims. The applicant’s consideration consists of the application statements and payment of the required premium. Therefore, choice D is correct because the policy identifies the schedule and amount of premium payments as part of that contractual consideration. The coverage description is found in the insuring clause and benefit provisions. Contestability is addressed in the time-limit or incontestability provisions. The grace period is stated in a separate mandatory policy provision dealing with late premium payments and continuation of coverage. The consideration clause is important because it establishes that insurance is a reciprocal exchange: the insurer assumes risk in return for the applicant’s premium and representations. If the premium is not paid as required, the policy can lapse after the grace period unless another provision applies. The clause also connects the policy and attached application as part of the entire contract, subject to applicable individual accident and health insurance requirements. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Consideration Clause; Entire Contract.
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Most insurance companies use the usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) charges to:
Options:
reimburse the employee for expenses charged by the medical facilities
reimburse physicians for excess expense
pay dollars direct to the employers for health insurance
limit the insurance company claims liability
Answer:
DExplanation:
Usual, customary, and reasonable charges are payment standards used to determine the portion of a medical charge that a health insurer recognizes as eligible for reimbursement. Choice D is correct because UCR standards limit the insurer’s claim liability to an amount considered appropriate for the service in the relevant geographic area. “Usual” refers to the fee commonly charged by a particular provider; “customary” refers to fees generally charged by comparable providers in the area; and “reasonable” considers the circumstances and complexity of the service. If a provider’s charge exceeds the plan’s allowed amount, the insurer may pay only the UCR amount, and the patient may remain responsible for the difference unless a network agreement or other policy provision prevents balance billing. UCR does not mean that insurers reimburse excess charges, pay funds to employers, or reimburse every amount billed by a medical facility. This concept is tested as a cost-control mechanism within medical expense coverage and should be distinguished from deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, and maximum benefit limits. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Medical Expense Insurance; Usual, Customary, and Reasonable Charges.
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Under a life insurance policy with a revocable beneficiary designation, who normally has the authority to change the beneficiary?
Options:
The insured, regardless of ownership
The beneficiary
The policyowner
The insurer
Answer:
CExplanation:
The policyowner normally holds the contractual rights known as incidents of ownership. When the beneficiary designation is revocable, the policyowner may generally change the beneficiary without obtaining that beneficiary’s consent, provided the policy is in force and no assignment or court order restricts the right. The owner may also ordinarily exercise other ownership rights, such as selecting premium-payment modes, assigning the policy, taking a policy loan when available, surrendering the policy for cash value, and electing settlement options.
The insured and the owner can be the same person, but they do not have to be. The insured is the person whose life is covered and whose death triggers payment of the death benefit. A beneficiary is the person or entity designated to receive policy proceeds. Those roles must be kept separate on examination questions. A revocable beneficiary has only an expectancy until the insured dies; by contrast, an irrevocable beneficiary usually has a vested interest that limits the owner’s ability to change the designation or exercise certain policy rights without consent.
Correctly identifying the owner is essential because ownership determines control of the policy during the insured’s lifetime.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Policyowners’ Rights; Beneficiary Designations; Revocable and Irrevocable Beneficiaries; Assignments.
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In Nevada, which life insurance policy is subject to a 30-day right to surrender for a premium refund after delivery?
Options:
An industrial life policy
A group life certificate
A replacement life insurance policy
A standard nonreplacement life insurance policy
Answer:
CExplanation:
A replacement life insurance policy delivered in Nevada must provide a 30-day period during which the policyowner may surrender the policy to the insurer with a written request for cancellation and receive a refund of premiums paid, including policy fees or other charges. This longer review period recognizes the special risks associated with replacement transactions. Replacing existing coverage can cause the consumer to lose favorable values, restart contestability or suicide periods, incur surrender charges, or exchange a policy that better serves the client’s long-term needs.
For a nonreplacement life policy, annuity contract, or pure endowment contract, Nevada generally requires a 10-day right of surrender after delivery. The applicable statute excludes industrial life insurance from this requirement. The producer must therefore identify whether a proposed transaction is a replacement and follow the related disclosure and recordkeeping requirements. The free-look period is a consumer-protection right; it does not excuse a producer from determining suitability or accurately comparing existing and proposed coverage before the sale.
On an examination question, the key distinction is not whether the policy is whole life, term life, or universal life. The key is whether it is a replacement contract or policy.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Replacement; Free-Look Provision; Nevada Consumer Protections; NRS 688A.165.
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Group coverage for a handicapped dependent child may be continued if the primary insured submits the required proof to the insurance company within what MAXIMUM period of time after the child reaches the limiting age?
Options:
15 days
30 days
31 days
45 days
Answer:
CExplanation:
A group health policy that terminates dependent-child coverage at a stated limiting age must continue coverage for an eligible dependent child who remains incapable of self-sustaining employment because of a qualifying disability and who remains dependent on the insured group member for support and maintenance. To preserve that continuation right, the required proof must be furnished within 31 days after the child reaches the policy’s limiting age.
This is a time-sensitive protection. The purpose is to prevent automatic termination of coverage solely because a dependent reaches the normal age limit when the child remains disabled and financially dependent. After initial proof is provided, the insurer may require continuing proof of incapacity and dependency, but it may not demand that proof more often than permitted by law.
The 31-day rule should be distinguished from notice periods for newborn coverage, conversion rights, premium grace periods, and claim notices. Each insurance provision may use a different time period, so examination questions often test the exact statutory deadline.
Study Guide references/topics: group health dependents; limiting age; continuation of coverage; NRS 689B.035 .
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For which of the following losses would an insurance company MOST likely pay benefits under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy?
Options:
Loss of life due to a heart attack
Loss of eyesight due to an accidental injury
Loss of the spleen due to an accidental injury
Partial paralysis due to a stroke
Answer:
BExplanation:
Choice B is correct because accidental loss of eyesight is a standard covered dismemberment loss under most AD & D policies. These policies pay benefits for accidental death and for specifically listed losses, often including loss of life, both hands, both feet, one h and and one foot, sight in one or both eyes, hearing, speech, or specified paralysis. The loss must result directly from accidental bodily injury and occur within the policy’s required loss period. Death from a heart attack is generally illness-related rather than accidental. Loss of the spleen, even when caused by an accident, is not usually one of the specifically scheduled losses in a basic AD & D policy. Partial paralysis due to a stroke is caused by illness rather than accidental injury. AD & D policies are limited-benefit contracts, so the policy does not pay merely because an injury is serious; the loss must match the policy’s defined covered loss. The benefit amount varies according to the loss, with full principal sums often payable for death or loss of both eyes and smaller percentages for certain partial losses. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Accidental Death and Dismemberment; Covered Losses.
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An insured has a $1,000 deductible and then pays 20% of covered medical expenses, while the insurer pays 80%. What is the insured’s 20% share called?
Options:
Copayment
Coinsurance
Elimination period
Stop-loss benefit
Answer:
BExplanation:
Coinsurance is the percentage of covered expenses that the insured shares with the insurer after the deductible has been satisfied. In this question, the insured pays 20% and the insurer pays 80%; this is commonly described as 80/20 coinsurance. The deductible is separate. It is the amount the insured must pay before the insurer begins sharing covered expenses, subject to any services that the policy covers before the deductible.
A copayment is a fixed dollar amount paid for a covered service, such as a stated amount for a physician visit or prescription. It is not normally expressed as a percentage. An elimination period is a waiting period in disability-income insurance before benefits begin. A stop-loss feature, also called an out-of-pocket maximum in many plans, limits the insured’s covered cost sharing after a stated maximum has been reached, subject to plan rules.
Understanding these terms is essential when comparing health plans. A plan may have a lower premium but a higher deductible, greater coinsurance, or a larger out-of-pocket maximum. Producers must clearly explain the consumer’s potential financial responsibility and must not imply that the insurer pays every medical expense once a policy is issued.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Major Medical Insurance; Deductibles; Coinsurance; Copayments; Out-of-Pocket Maximums.
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