Labour Day Special Limited Time Flat 70% Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70spcl

ITIL ITIL-Foundation ITIL Foundation Certification - IT Service Management Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 32
Total 324 questions

ITIL Foundation Certification - IT Service Management Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

Options:

A.

Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve

B.

Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?

C.

Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution

D.

What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Question 2

Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

Options:

A.

Components

B.

Processes

C.

The end-to-end service

D.

Customer satisfaction

Question 3

Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners, People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?

Options:

A.

Profit

B.

Preparation

C.

Products

D.

Potential

Question 4

Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

Options:

A.

Where are we now?

B.

Where do we want to be?

C.

How do we get there?

D.

Did we get there?

Question 5

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

Options:

A.

The value of a service

B.

Governance

C.

Total cost of ownership (TCO)

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 6

Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?

1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources

2. Reduced cost to design new services

3. Result in higher volume of successful changes

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

None of the above

Question 7

In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?

1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors

2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

Options:

A.

Both of the above

B.

Neither of the above

C.

Option 1 only

D.

Option 2 only

Question 8

Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

Options:

A.

Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management

B.

Change management, capacity management event management, service request management

C.

Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management

D.

Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfilment

Question 9

In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

Options:

A.

Service strategy

B.

Service design

C.

Service transition

D.

Service operation

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

Options:

A.

Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results

B.

Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes

C.

Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction

D.

Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Question 11

In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA)

B.

The problem record

C.

The availability management information system

D.

The IT service continuity plan

Question 12

Which one of the following generates demand for services?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure trends

B.

Patterns of business activity (PBA)

C.

Cost of providing support

D.

Service level agreements (SLA)

Question 13

What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

Options:

A.

Outcome

B.

Incident

C.

Change

D.

Problem

Question 14

Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?

1. The approach is pre-authorized

2. The risk is usually low and well understood

3. Details of the change will be recorded

4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfillment process

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Question 15

The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?

Options:

A.

A change

B.

A change model

C.

A change request

D.

A change advisory board

Question 16

What is the BEST description of a change proposal?

Options:

A.

Any request for change (RFC. submitted to change management

B.

An authorised change submitted to release and deployment

C.

An RFC that must be implemented as soon as possible

D.

A justification for a change with significant cost or risk

Question 17

Which is an example of an internal customer?

Options:

A.

A customer who has a contract with an internet service provider for a broadband connection

B.

The HR department whose payroll service is provided by their organization’s IT department

C.

An IT department that uses a network service obtained from a supplier

D.

A retail bank that outsources its infrastructure to athird-party supplier

Question 18

What is the primary focus of business capacity management?

Options:

A.

Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual

elements of IT technology

B.

Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management

C.

Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live,

operational IT services

D.

Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a

timely fashion

Question 19

Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics?

Options:

A.

The process practitioner

B.

The process owner

C.

The service owner

D.

The process manager

Question 20

Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during the transition stage of the service lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Testing the tool and training process managers on using the process

B.

Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the tools

C.

Training tool administrators how to manage tools and monitoring tool performance in operational environment

D.

Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the process

Question 21

What should a service always deliver to customers?

Options:

A.

Applications

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Value

D.

Resources

Question 22

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

Options:

A.

Employers

B.

Stakeholders

C.

Regulators

D.

Accreditors

Question 23

Which of the following is best definition of IT service management?

Options:

A.

An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit

B.

A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers

C.

Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components

D.

The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs

Question 24

Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

Options:

A.

Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

B.

Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt

C.

Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

D.

Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Question 25

What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

Options:

A.

Strategic service

B.

Delivered service

C.

Internal service

D.

External service

Question 26

The 'multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?

Options:

A.

Customer level

B.

Service level

C.

Corporate level

D.

Configuration level

Question 27

Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?

Options:

A.

Planning how to recover the cost of a change

B.

Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful

C.

Planning how to compensate a user for a failed change

D.

Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change

Question 28

Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

Options:

A.

Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available

B.

Only incidents reported to the service desk can be logged

C.

All incidents must be fully logged

D.

The service desk decide which incidents to log

Question 29

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

Options:

A.

To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

B.

Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

C.

To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening

D.

To detect security events and make sense of them

Question 30

What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

Options:

A.

The change authorization board

B.

The change advisory board

C.

The change implementer

D.

The change manager

Question 31

What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?

Options:

A.

Informational, scheduled, normal

B.

Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency

C.

Informational, warning, exception

D.

Warning, reactive, proactive

Question 32

Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

Options:

A.

IT services and components

B.

IT services and business processes

C.

Components and business processes

D.

IT services, components and business processes

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?

Options:

A.

To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them

B.

To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk

C.

To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

D.

To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

Question 34

Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?

1. Those planned to be delivered

2. Those being delivered

3. Those that have been withdrawn from service

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

All of the above

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Question 35

Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?

Options:

A.

Request fulfilment

B.

Service portfolio management

C.

Service desk

D.

IT finance

Question 36

Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?

Options:

A.

Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge

B.

Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom

C.

Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data

D.

Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

Question 37

Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

Options:

A.

Knowledge

B.

Information

C.

Wisdom

D.

Data

Question 38

Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?

1. Design and modeling

2. Reporting

3. Pattern recognition and analysis

4. Detection and monitoring

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1, 3 and 4 only

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

All of the above

Question 39

Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow

2. Measurement and reporting

3. Release and deployment

4. Process design

Options:

A.

2 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

All of the above

Question 40

Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?

1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance

2. Identifying improvement opportunities

3. Appointing people to required roles

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Question 41

Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?

1. Logging details of incidents and service requests

2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis

3. Restoring service

4. Implementing all standard changes

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

1, 2 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 42

Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

Options:

A.

Defining where the vendor of an application should be located

B.

Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome

C.

Deciding who the vendor of storage devices will be

D.

Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

Question 43

Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

Options:

A.

Technical management

B.

IT operations management

C.

Request fulfilment

D.

Applications management

Question 44

Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Service level management

B.

IT operations management

C.

Capacity management

D.

Incident management

Question 45

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk

2. Virtual service desk

3. IT help desk

4. Follow the sun

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4 only

B.

2, 3 and 4 only

C.

1, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 only

Page: 1 / 32
Total 324 questions