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ITIL ITIL-4-Foundation ITIL 4 Foundation Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 532 questions

ITIL 4 Foundation Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the four dimensions focuses or managing data in compliance with industry regulations?

Options:

A.

Partners and suppliers

B.

Organizations and people

C.

Value streams and processes

D.

Information and technology

Question 2

Which practice balance management of risk with maximizing throughput?

Options:

A.

Change enablement

B.

Continual improvement

C.

Incident management

D.

Problem management

Question 3

Which TWO of the following statements are MOST associated with the optimize and automate' guiding principle?

1. It is important to assess which method of communication is appropriate 'or each type of stakeholder.

2. Complex systems should be designed with an understanding of how the components' parts are related.

3. Organizations should consider whether technology could improve the eficiency o' manual processes.

4 It is important to understand the organization's objectives when assessing the impact of potential improvements.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 4

Which of the four dimensions contributes MOST to defining activities needed to deliver services?

Options:

A.

Value streams and processes

B.

Partners and suppliers

C.

Information and technology

D.

Organizations and people

Question 5

Which BEST describe the focus of the 'think and work holistically' principle?

Options:

A.

Considering the existing organizational assets before building something new

B.

Integrating an organization’s activities to deliver value

C.

Eliminating unnecessary steps to deliver valuable outcomes

D.

Breaking down large initiative into smaller pieces of work

Question 6

Which is a key requirement for successful service level agreements (SLAs)?

Options:

A.

They should be written using language and terms which all parties will understand

B.

They should be based on system-based metrics which are useful to the service provider

C.

They should be carried forward, unchanged, 'rom one year to the next to enable uunsisleni service

D.

They should avoid ambiguous targets such as those relating to user experience

Question 7

What is included in the purpose of the 'release management' practice?

Options:

A.

Authorizing changes to proceed

B.

Making new features available for use

C.

Moving new software to live environments

D.

Ensuring information about services is available

Question 8

What is defined as "any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service"?

Options:

A.

An event

B.

An IT asset

C.

A configuration item

D.

A change

Question 9

What ensures that a service provider and a service consumer continually co-create value?

Options:

A.

Service consumption

B.

Service offerings

C.

Change enablement

D.

Service relationship management

Question 10

Which value chain activity is concerned with the availability of service components?

Options:

A.

Design and transition

B.

Deliver and support

C.

Plan

D.

Obtain/build

Question 11

Which is part of the value proposition of a service?

Options:

A.

Costs removed from the consumer by the service

B.

Costs imposed on the consumer by the service

C.

Outputs of the service received by the consumer

D.

Risks imposed on the consumer by the service

Question 12

Which practice handles all pre-defined user-initiated service actions?

Options:

A.

Deployment management

B.

Incident management

C.

Service level management

D.

Service request management

Question 13

Which practice MOST requires staff who demonstrate skills such as empathy and emotional intelligence?

Options:

A.

Service request management

B.

Service desk

C.

Problem management

D.

Continual management

Question 14

Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Emergency changes are low risk and well understood

B.

Authorization of emergency changes may be deferred until after implementation

C.

It is necessary to complete all documentation before an emergency charge is implemented

D.

Emergency changes are not usually recorded in the change schedule

Question 15

Which is a key element of the 'think and work holistically' guiding principle?

Options:

A.

Assessing which procedures can be re-used when improving a service

B.

Understanding the methods applicable to complex systems

C.

Eliminating metrics which do not contribute to achieving an objective

D.

Using technology for standard tasks to give people time for complex activities

Question 16

Which is an activity in the 'Problem control' phase of problem management?

Options:

A.

Re-assessing a known error to manage the ongoing impact.

B.

Reviewing incident records to identity trends

C.

Implementing a technical fix to resolve an issue

D.

Documenting the steps in workaround

Question 17

What is the difference between the 'incident management' and 'service desk' practices?

Options:

A.

Incident management restores service operation, service desk provides communication with users

B.

incident management manages interruptions to service desk monitors achieved service quality

C.

incident management resolves issues, service desk investigates the underlying causes of issues

D.

incident management resolves complex issues, service desk resolve simpler issues.

Question 18

Which term is used to describe removing something that could have an effect on a service?

Options:

A.

A change

B.

An incident

C.

An IT asset

D.

A problem

Question 19

Identify the missing word in the following sentence.

Sponsor is the role that authorizes budget for service [?)

Options:

A.

value

B.

consumption

C.

management

D.

provision

Question 20

Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?

Options:

A.

Service configuration management

B.

Problem management

C.

Service level management

D.

Change control

Question 21

Which TWO statements about an organization’s culture are CORRECT? (Choose two.)

1. It is created from shared values based on how it carries out its work

2. It is determined by the type of technology used to support services

3. It should be based on the culture of prospective suppliers

4. It should be based on the objectives of the organization

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 22

Which ITIL practice has a purpose that includes reducing the likelihood of incidents?

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Continual improvement

C.

Problem management

D.

Service desk

Question 23

How does a service consumer contribute to the reduction of disk?

Options:

A.

By paying for the service

B.

By managing server hardware

C.

By communicating constraints

D.

By managing staff availability

Question 24

When planning ‘continual improvement’, which approach for assessing the current state of a service is

CORRECT?

Options:

A.

An organization should always use a single technique to ensure metrics are consistent

B.

An organization should always use a strength, weakness, opportunity and threat (SWOT) analysis

C.

An organization should always develop competencies in methodologies and techniques that will meet their

needs

D.

An organization should always use an approach that combines Lean, Agile and DevOps methodologies

Question 25

What helps diagnose and resolve a simple incident?

Options:

A.

Rapid escalation

B.

Formation of a temporary team

C.

The use of scripts

D.

Problem prioritization

Question 26

Which of the following can be used to access service desks?

Options:

A.

Phone calls

B.

All of the above

C.

Text and social media messaging

D.

Email

Question 27

Which describes a set of defined steps for implementing improvements?

Options:

A.

The ‘improve’ value chain activity

B.

The ‘continual improvement register’

C.

The ‘continual improvement model’

D.

The ‘engage’ value chain activity

Question 28

What is the purpose of the ‘deployment management’ practice?

Options:

A.

To ensure services achieve agreed and expected performance

B.

To make new or changed services available for use

C.

To move new or changed components to live environments

D.

To set clear business-based targets for service performance

Question 29

Which is NOT a component of the service value system?

Options:

A.

The guiding principles

B.

Governance

C.

Practices

D.

The four dimensions of service management

Question 30

Which statement about service desks is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The service desk should work in close collaboration with support and development teams

B.

The service desk should rely on self-service portals instead of escalation to support teams

C.

The service desk should remain isolated from technical support teams

D.

The service desk should escalate all technical issues to support and development teams

Question 31

Which practice has a purpose that includes aligning the organization's practices and services with changing business needs?

Options:

A.

Relationship management

B.

Continual improvement

C.

Service configuration management

D.

Service level management

Question 32

Which of the following is an example of incident?

Options:

A.

A backup server is being rebooted while services are running on the primary server

B.

An application is not available during the business hours

C.

A user has requested access to a shared repository

D.

A user wants to reset the password of a server

Question 33

What defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption?

Options:

A.

A customer

B.

A user

C.

A configuration item (CI)

D.

An IT asset

Question 34

Which practice provides a single point of contact for users?

Options:

A.

Incident management

B.

Change control

C.

Service desk

D.

Service request management

Question 35

What is the starting point for optimization?

Options:

A.

Standardizing practices and services

B.

Determining where the most positive impact would be

C.

Securing stakeholder engagement

D.

Understanding the vision and objectives of the organization

Question 36

When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a standard change?

Options:

A.

Each time the standard change is implemented

B.

When the procedure for the standard change is created

C.

At least once a year

D.

When an emergency change is requested

Question 37

What is an output?

Options:

A.

A possible event that could cause harm or loss

B.

Something created by carrying out an activity

C.

A result for a stakeholder

D.

A change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item

Question 38

What type of change is MOST likely to be managed by the 'service request management' practice?

Options:

A.

An emergency change

B.

A normal change

C.

An application change

D.

A standard change

Question 39

Which is a way of applying the guiding principle 'focus on value'?

Options:

A.

Understanding how service consumers use services

B.

Comprehending the whole, but doing something

C.

Recognizing the complexity of systems

D.

Doing fewer things, but doing them better

Question 40

Which is the BEST example of a standard change?

Options:

A.

The review and authorization of a change requested by a customer

B.

The implementation of a critical software patch in response to a vendor security Issue

C.

The Installation of a software application in response to a service request

D.

The replacement of a component in response to a major incident

Question 41

Which practice is most likely to benefit from the use of chatbots?

Options:

A.

Service level management

B.

Change enablement

C.

Continual improvement

D.

Service desk

Question 42

Which action is performed by a service provider?

Options:

A.

Requesting required service actions

B.

Authorizing budget for service consumption

C.

Ensuring access to agreed resources

D.

Receiving of the agreed goods

Question 43

Identify the missing word in the following sentence.

The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the [?], and the CIs that support them, is available when and where it is needed.

Options:

A.

relationships with suppliers

B.

configuration of services

C.

skills of people

D.

authorization of changes

Question 44

What is the MAIN benefit of 'problem management'?

Options:

A.

Restoring normal service as quickly as possible

B.

Reducing the number and impact of incidents

C.

Maximizing the number of successful changes

D.

Managing workarounds and known errors

Question 45

Which practice improves customer and user satisfaction by reducing the negative impact of service interruptions?

Options:

A.

Service request management

B.

Service level management

C.

Incident management

D.

Change management

Question 46

Why should a service level manager carry out regular service reviews?

Options:

A.

To ensure that agreements are written simply and are easy to understand

B.

To collect information about service consumer goals and objectives

C.

To capture information about service issues and performance against agreed goals

D.

To ensure continual improvement of services, so that they meet the evolving needs of service consumers

Question 47

What can be described as an operating model for the creating and management of products and services?

Options:

A.

Governance

B.

Service value chain

C.

Guiding principles

D.

Practices

Question 48

What can help to reduce resistance to a planned improvement when applying the guiding principle ‘collaborate and promote visibility’?

Options:

A.

Restricting information about the improvement to essential stakeholders only.

B.

Increasing collaboration and visibility for the improvement.

C.

Involving customers after all planning has been completed.

D.

Engaging every stakeholder group in the same way, with the same communication.

Question 49

Which statement about service relationship management is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It focuses on the service actions performed by users

B.

It requires the service consumer to create resources for the service provider

C.

It requires co-operation of both the service provider and service consumer

D.

It focuses on the fulfilment of the agreed service actions

Question 50

Which dimension of service management includes consideration of the type of relationship required with other organizations involved in the design and delivery of services?

Options:

A.

Organizations and people

B.

Information and technology

C.

Partners and suppliers

D.

Value streams and processes

Question 51

Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Outcomes rely on outputs to deliver results for a stakeholder.

B.

Outcomes use activities to produce tangible or intangible deliverables.

C.

Outcomes gives service consumers assurance of products or services

D.

Outcomes help a service consumers to assess the cost of a specific activity

Question 52

What is the purpose of the ‘monitoring and event management’ practice?

Options:

A.

To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

B.

To manage workarounds and known errors

C.

To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests

D.

To systematically observe services and service components

Question 53

An organization asks a stakeholder to review a planned change. Which guiding principle does this demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Collaborate and promote visibility

B.

Start where you are

C.

Focus on value

D.

Keep it simple and practical

Question 54

Which practice has a strong influence on the user experience and perception of the service provider?

Options:

A.

Service desk

B.

Change enablement

C.

Service level management

D.

Supplier management

Question 55

Which is included in the purpose of the 'change enablement' practice?

Options:

A.

Make new and changed services available for use

B.

Ensure that risks have been property assessed

C.

Record and report selected changes of state

D.

Plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets

Question 56

Which TWO are inputs to the service value system?

1 Demand

2 Products

3 Value

4 Opportunity

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Question 57

What is the MOST important reason for prioritizing incidents?

Options:

A.

To ensure that user expectations are realistic

B.

To ensure that incidents with highest impact are resolved first

C.

To help information-sharing are learning

D.

To provide links to related changes and known errors

Question 58

Which statement about the 'service desk1 practice is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It provides a link with stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels

B.

It carries out change assessment and authorization

C.

It investigates the cause of incidents

D.

It needs a practical understanding of the business processes

Question 59

Which is a purpose of release management?

Options:

A.

To protect the organization’s information

B.

To handle user-initiated service requests

C.

To make new and changed services available for use

D.

To move hardware and software to live environments

Question 60

Which dimension includes the knowledge needed for the management of services?

Options:

A.

Organizations and people

B.

Value streams and processes

C.

Information and technology

D.

Partners and suppliers

Question 61

Which statement about change management is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It optimizes overall business risk

B.

It optimizes financial exposure

C.

It ensures that all changes are authorized by the change advisory board (CAB)

D.

It ensures that service requests follow the normal change management process

Question 62

Which practice has a purpose that includes maximizing success by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?

Options:

A.

Relationship management

B.

Change control

C.

Release management

D.

Monitoring and event management

Question 63

How does categorization of incidents assist the 'incident management' practice?

Options:

A.

It determines the priority assigned to the incident

B.

It determines how the service provider is perceived

C.

It helps direct the incident to the correct support area

D.

It ensures that incidents are resolved in timescales agreed with the customer

Question 64

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

Options:

A.

The value of a service

B.

Service metrics

C.

The total cost of a service

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 65

Which gives a user access to a system?

Options:

A.

Service requirement

B.

Service agreement

C.

Service consumption

D.

Service provision

Question 66

What is the purpose of the ‘problem management’ practice?

Options:

A.

To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

B.

To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors

C.

To align the organization’s practices and services with changing business needs through the ongoing identification and improvement of services

D.

To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

Question 67

Which practice includes conducting regular reviews to ensure that services are still appropriate and relevant?

Options:

A.

Service level management

B.

Service desk

C.

Continual improvement

D.

Change enablement

Question 68

Which statement about the known error database (KEDB) is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

It is maintained by the service desk and updated with the details of each new incident

B.

It is a part of the configuration management database (CMDB) and contains workarounds

C.

It is maintained by problem management and is used by the service desk to help resolve incidents

D.

It is maintained by incident management and contains solutions to be implemented by problem

management

Question 69

Which guiding principle considers the importance of customer loyalty?

Options:

A.

Progress iteratively with feedback

B.

Focus on value

C.

Optimize and automate

D.

Start where you are

Question 70

Which guiding principle recommends collecting data before deciding what can be re-used?

Options:

A.

Focus on value

B.

Keep it simple and practical

C.

Start where you are

D.

Progress interactively with feedback

Question 71

Which process works with incident management to ensure that security breaches are detected and logged?

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Service level management

C.

Access management

D.

Continual service improvement

Question 72

Which describes the utility of a service?

Options:

A.

A service that is fit for use

B.

A service that meets its service level targets

C.

A service that increases constraints on the consumer

D.

A service that supports the performance of the consumer

Question 73

Which two practices use workarounds?

Options:

A.

Change enablement and continual improvement

B.

Change enablement and problem management

C.

Problem management and incident management

D.

Incident management and continual improvement

Question 74

Which are elements of the service value system?

Options:

A.

Service provision, service consumption, service relationship management

B.

Governance, service value chain, practices

C.

Outcomes, utility, warranty

D.

Customer value, stakeholder value, organization

Question 75

Which guiding principle recommends assessing the current state and deciding what can be reused?

Options:

A.

Focus on value

B.

Start where you are

C.

Collaborate and promote visibility

D.

Progress iteratively with feedback

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Total 532 questions