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ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Exam Practice Test

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Total 406 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?

Options:

A.

A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed

B.

A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases

C.

A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite

D.

An experience-based test technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures

Question 2

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews.

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects.

Question 3

In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Options:

A.

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

B.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

C.

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

D.

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

Question 4

Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

Options:

A.

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

B.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

C.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

D.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

Question 5

Which activity is NOT documented in a test plan?

Options:

A.

Defining the quality assurance approach

B.

Defining the test approach

C.

Selecting the metrics for test monitoring

D.

Setting the budget for the test activities

Question 6

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

Question 7

Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.

Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

Options:

A.

II, III, V

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, III, v

D.

II, III, IV

Question 8

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3.Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4.These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5.Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques

White * White-box test techniques

Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Options:

A.

Black -1,3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

B.

Black - 2, 3 White -1 Experience - 4, 5

C.

Black -1,2 White - 3, 4 Experience - 5

D.

Black - 2, 3 White -1,5 Experience - 4

Question 9

What is test oracle?

Options:

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

Question 10

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

B.

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C.

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

D.

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

Question 11

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300.000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299,999 TC2=300,000 TC=300,001

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault.

Question 12

The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?

Options:

A.

Requirements elicitation

B.

Defect analysis

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Performance Testing

Question 13

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

Options:

A.

A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person

B.

A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.

C.

A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people

D.

A test manager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test cases will not be written as mandated by the test policy.

Question 14

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

Options:

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

Question 15

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage cnteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases.

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques.

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques.

Question 16

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.

Question 17

Atypical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to

Options:

A.

Take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.

Assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team.

C.

Use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient.

D.

Determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

Question 18

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.

B.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

C.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

D.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

Question 19

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

Options:

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

Question 20

Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

Options:

A.

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

C.

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

Question 21

Which of the following is an example of the absence-of-errors fallacy?

Options:

A.

Repeating the same test cases will continue to find new defects, even after dozens of executions

B.

A small number of modules contains the most defects

C.

Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful

D.

Other than trivial cases, it is not feasible to test all combinations of inputs and preconditions

Question 22

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

Question 23

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

Question 24

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

Question 25

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is “NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?

Options:

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

Question 26

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

Options:

A.

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

Question 27

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software. Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Test Execution tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Incident Management Tool

Question 28

A minimum of 0 and a maximum of 40 points can be achieved in a Certified Tester Foundation examination. With a score of 26 points to 36 points inclusive, the exam is considered "passed", with 37 points or higher it is "passed with distinction" and with less than 26 points the examination is "not passed".

Which of the following sets of positive integers fully covers a 2-value boundary value analysis ? (No values from invalid equivalence classes should be specified).

Options:

A.

0, 24, 25, 35, 36, 37, 40

B.

0, 25, 26, 36, 37, 40

C.

0, 2, 25, 26, 27, 35, 36, 37

D.

25, 26, 27, 39, 40, 41

Question 29

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

Question 30

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the purpose of confirmation testing versus regression testing?

Options:

A.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

B.

Confirmation testing ensures the entire system functions as expected, whereas regression testing focuses only on modified components.

C.

Confirmation testing verifies all system requirements, while regression testing ensures that no additional test cases are needed.

D.

Regression testing and confirmation testing are interchangeable and serve the same purpose.

Question 31

Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases ; As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online"

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story

[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password.

[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions.

[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered.

[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?

Options:

A.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

B.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

C.

The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card

D.

The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Question 32

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID. What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7.

B.

6.

C.

5.

D.

3.

Question 33

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

Question 34

Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

Options:

A.

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

B.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

C.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

D.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

Question 35

Which of the following statements BEST describes the shift-left approach in software testing?

Options:

A.

Testing is performed after the development phase is completed.

B.

Testing is performed on the entire system or product.

C.

Testing is performed by an independent testing team.

D.

Testing is performed as early as possible in the software development life cycle.

Question 36

Which of the following definitions is NOT true?

Options:

A.

Test data preparation tools fill databases, create files or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests.

B.

Test execution tools execute test objects using automated test scripts.

C.

Test Management tools monitor and report on how a system behaves during the testing activities.

D.

Test comparators determine differences between files, databases or test results.

Question 37

Which review type, also known as a “buddy check”, is commonly used in Agile development?

Options:

A.

Inspection.

B.

Walkthrough.

C.

Technical review.

D.

Informal review.

Question 38

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

D.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

Question 39

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

Options:

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

Question 40

The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.

What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

Options:

A.

Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,

Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge

B.

Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,

Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

C.

Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing,

Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development

D.

Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development;

Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

Question 41

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

Question 42

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

2

D.

6

Question 43

The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

Options:

A.

4

B.

1

C.

2

D.

Infinite

Question 44

Which of the following statements regarding the impact of the chosen software development lifecycle model on testing is true?

Options:

A.

The chosen software development lifecycle model has no impact on the number of regression test cases.

B.

The chosen software development lifecycle model influences when testing activities should start and end.

C.

The chosen software development lifecycle model determines the type of tests to be performed.

D.

The chosen software development lifecycle model does not affect the scope of the non-functional tests and the test tools to be used.

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Fixing the cause

B.

Reproducing the failure

C.

Diagnosing the root cause

D.

Adding new test cases

Question 46

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

Options:

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

Question 47

Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know that:

• I n < 0. a message "Value out of range" must be issued.

• If 0 < n < 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number

• If 100 < n < 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued

Options:

A.

There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200

B.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to 200 will be very large

C.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same

D.

The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping

Question 48

For a mandatory input field "ZIP code" the following rules are given:

1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits.

2 - The code has to exist in the post office's official ZIP code list

Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?

Options:

A.

8

B.

3

C.

6

D.

4

Question 49

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during

Options:

A.

Test execution

B.

Test design.

C.

Test analysis.

D.

Test planning

Question 50

Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality charactenstic.

B.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends to cover

C.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be

D.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be.

Question 51

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Specification Based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Experience based testing

D.

Structured based testing

Question 52

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error.

C.

The slowdown is an error; the memory leak is a defect.

D.

The slowdown is a defect; the memory leak is a failure.

Question 53

Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE?

I Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed.

II Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed.

III. Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level.

IV Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.

V. Re-testing should be included in the debugging activity.

Options:

A.

I, III. Iv

B.

II, v

C.

I, Ill

D.

II. IV, V

Question 54

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Question # 54

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.

B.

TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.

D.

TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3

Question 55

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

Options:

A.

It is not a defect

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

Failure

Question 56

An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?

Options:

A.

Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.

B.

Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner

C.

Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.

D.

Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better

Question 57

What does configuration management enable for testing?

Options:

A.

It enables the scheduling of test resources.

B.

It enables the derivation of test cases and test data.

C.

It enables the creation of test progress reports.

D.

It enables the versioning of the test elements.

Question 58

Which of the statements on confirmation testing and regression testing is correct?

Options:

A.

Regression tests are performed to confirm that defects have been corrected and no longer lead to errors

B.

Confirmation tests are performed to confirm that changes have no undesired effects

C.

Regression tests are performed to confirm that errors have been corrected and no longer lead to failures

D.

Confirmation tests are performed to confirm that defects have been corrected and no longer lead to failures

Question 59

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques

B.

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes

C.

Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques

D.

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

Question 60

For the same financial institution in Question 12, with the same requirements and expectations, what would be the most likely investment values used in testing if two-point boundary value analysis is used to design test cases specific to the 13% interest rate equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

R100 000, R100 001, R500 000, R500 001.

B.

R99 999, R100 000, R499 999, R500 000.

C.

R100 000. R500 000.

D.

R99 000, R500 001.

Question 61

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

Question 62

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Options:

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

Question 63

Which of the following options should NOT be used for writing acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Reaction time

B.

Scenarios

C.

Input-output mappings

D.

Test charters

Question 64

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes black-box test techniques?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.

B.

In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software's implementation.

C.

Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object's specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.

D.

Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.

Question 65

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Options:

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

Question 66

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique

Options:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects.

B.

That can be organised into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project.

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

Question 67

Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Options:

A.

Planning the review

B.

Determines if the review objectives have been met

C.

Decide on the execution of reviews

D.

Allocate time for review

Question 68

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the benefit of traceability between the test basis and test work products?

Options:

A.

Traceability may be required by IT governance rules

B.

Traceability may help evaluate the extent of test coverage

C.

Traceability may allow testing to be auditable

D.

Traceability may make it harder to understand the impact of changes

Question 69

Which of the following BEST distinguishes the terms "validation" and "verification"?

Options:

A.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

B.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

C.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

D.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

Question 70

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

Options:

A.

Defect management

B.

Configuration management

C.

Change management

D.

Risk management

Question 71

Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

Question # 71

Using the equivalence partitioning technique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,10,21,40}

B.

{8,10,25,40}

C.

{7,10,25,29}

D.

{7,10,25,40}

Question 72

Why it is essential that defects found in a review be reported objectively?

Options:

A.

In order to facilitate easy entry of detected defects in a OTS (Defect Tracking System)

B.

In order to allow the author of reviewed work product(S) to take the feedback positively as an effort at improving the product (S) and not as a personal assault

C.

In order to allow the review moderator to easily understand them, and assign them to the right developer for fixing

D.

In order to allow augmentation of existing checklists used for reviewing the work product (S)

Question 73

Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

Options:

A.

The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.

B.

Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.

C.

Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

D.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.

Question 74

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

Question 75

Which of the following project scenario gives the BEST example where maintenance testing should be triggered?

Options:

A.

Completion of architecture of the bank system

B.

Release of the early draft of the low level project design of an loT application

C.

Defect was found in a pre-released version of the customer service application

D.

Delivery of the hot fix to mobile operating system and ensuring that it still works

Question 76

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

Question 77

You are testing a system that is used in motor vehicles to warn the driver of an obstacle when re-versing. Output is provided by a series of LED lights (green, yellow, and red), each illuminated based on clearly defined conditions.

The following summary describes the functionality:

•Object within 10 metres, green LED lit.

•Object within 5 metres, yellow LED lit.

•Object within 1 metre, red LED lit.

•Setting sensitivity mode to "ON" will result in only the red LED being lit when the object is within 1 metre.

The following decision table describes the rules associated with the functioning of this proximity warning system:

Question # 77

Which intended functionality is tested by Rule 5 in the decision table?

Options:

A.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

B.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

C.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in no LED being lit.

D.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in no LED being lit.

Question 78

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test project?

Options:

A.

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

Question 79

Which of the following statements is the BEST example of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Tests which capture the time it takes to save a file

B.

Tests which calculate overtime pay for those employees entitled to such

C.

Tests related to "what" the system should do

D.

Tests based on the internal structure of a component or system

Question 80

Match each objective to the correct test level

Objective:

A)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the system are as designed andspecified.

B)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the interfaces are as designed.

C)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functionalbehaviorsof the components are as designedand specified.

D)Establishing confidence in the quality of the systemas a whole.

Test Level:

1.Component testing.

2.Integration testing.

3.System testing.

4.Acceptance testing.

Options:

A.

A3, B2. C4. D1

B.

A2, B3, Cl, D4

C.

A3. B2. C1. D4

Question 81

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

Options:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

Question 82

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

Options:

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

Question 83

Consider the following defect report for an Exam Booking System

Defect ID: ST1041 | Title: Unable to cancel an exam booking | Severity: Very High | Priority: Very High | Environment: Windows 10, Firefox

Description: When attempting to cancel an exam booking using the cancel exam feature, the system does not cancel the exam even though it shows a message that the exam has

been cancelled.

Which ONE of the following indicates the information that should be added to the description for reproducing the defect easily?

Options:

A.

Providing better severity and priority. It is not clear why this is a high severity problem as the exams can be booked without any problem.

B.

Providing exact steps that lead to this defect. It is not clear from the description if this is a problem for any scheduled exam or for a specific user.

C.

The defect Id used is alphanumeric in nature. It should be a number only.

D.

Repeating the test case with different browsers and logging a separate defect for each one of them

Question 84

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

Question 85

In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

Question 86

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

D.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

Question 87

During iteration planning, a scrum team uses an estimation technique called planning poker to estimate the effort required to deliver a critical user story. In advance of the estimation session, the team agreed on some ground rules to limit the number of poker rounds and save time.

The team agreed on the following:

1. They will use the following progression for estimation: Extra-small, Small, Medium, Large, Extra-large, and Extra-extra-large.

2. If estimation values differ significantly, the highest score will be used for estimation purposes.

The result of the first round of planning poker:

Team MemberEstimation

BusinessLarge

DevelopmentExtra-extra-large

TestingExtra-extra-large

Which of the following options best represent the team’s next actions?

Options:

A.

The fact that all estimations are high indicate that the user story is not well understood or should be broken down into multiple smaller stories.

B.

The pre-agreed rules state that the highest score should be used for estimation, resulting in the user story being categorised as Extra-extra-large.

C.

Since the business representative is likely to have the most informed view of the requirement, the user story is categorised as a Large.

D.

the team discusses the differences in the estimates and repeats the poker round until an agreemet is reached.

Question 88

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

Options:

A.

White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code

B.

box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage

C.

White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures

D.

White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage

Question 89

Which of the following statements is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Create confidence in the quality of the test object.

B.

Check whether the test object fulfils the specified requirements.

C.

Provide sufficient information for stakeholders to make decisions.

D.

Fix defects after they have been found and analyzed.

Question 90

Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

Options:

A.

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B.

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

C.

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

D.

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

Question 91

Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

Options:

A.

Activities III, IV, and V

B.

Activities II and V

C.

Activities I and V

D.

Activities I, III, and IV

Question 92

A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on

- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)

- the travelling type (as single or in a group)

- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)

- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)

Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage

B.

State transition testing

C.

Equivalence partitioning

D.

Use case testing

Question 93

A number of characteristics are given for impact of SDLC on the testing effort.

i. Finishing of requirements review leading to test analysis

ii. Both - static and dynamic testing performed at unit testing level

iii. Frequent regression testing may need to be performed

iv Extensive product documentation

v. More use of exploratory testing

Which of the following statements is MOST correct?

Options:

A.

i and iv are characteristics of sequential models; ii. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

B.

ii and iv are characteristics of sequential models; i. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

C.

iii and iv are characteristics of sequential models and i. ii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

D.

ii and iii are characteristics of sequential models; iv and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

Question 94

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

Question 95

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

Question 96

A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.

Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.

Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement

Options:

A.

It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)

B.

It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)

C.

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)

D.

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)

Question 97

Which of the following is a typical product risk?

Options:

A.

Poor usability of the software

B.

A problem in the code developed by a 3rd party

C.

Low quality of the configuration data, test data and tests

D.

Problem in defining the right requirements

Question 98

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Options:

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

Question 99

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

B.

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

C.

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

Question 100

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

Options:

A.

Q1

B.

Q2

C.

Q3

D.

Q4

Question 101

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Options:

A.

Test design

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test implementation

D.

Test execution

Question 102

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without prewritten test cases is experience based testing.

B.

Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.

C.

Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.

D.

Testing the software under test (SUT) based on design is black-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour is experience based testing.

Question 103

Which ONE of the following options CANNOT be subjected to static analysis?

Options:

A.

COTS (Commercial off-the-shelf)

B.

Source code

C.

BPMN (Business Process Modeling and Notation) models

D.

UML (Unified Modeling Language) models

Question 104

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

Options:

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

Question 105

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

Options:

A.

I, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

Question 106

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Configuration management and software testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps maintain consistent versions of software artifacts.

B.

Configuration management supports the build process, which is essential for delivering a test release into the test environment.

C.

When testers report defects, they need to reference version-controlled items.

D.

Version controlled test ware increases the chances of finding defects in the software under test.

Question 107

Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three point estimation technique-Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days Most likely effort (m) -180 person days Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days

Options:

A.

180

B.

120

C.

197

D.

20

Question 108

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[ii]. Expected result

[iii]. Actual result.

[IV] Test level.

[V]. Root cause.

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[l] and [IV]

B.

[ii] and [III].

C.

[ii], [iii] and [v]

D.

[ii], [IV] and [V].

Question 109

Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Memb1..... Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1,2, 3,5, 8,13,21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:

Question # 109

Which of the following answers BEST describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values most optimistic estimate - 1, most likely estimate - 3, and most pessimistic estimate - 21

B.

Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points.

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4> and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)

D.

Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before proceeding to another estimation round

Question 110

Which of the following statements regarding the test-first approach (principle of early testing) is true?

Options:

A.

An approach where the tests are written only as needed.

B.

An approach where the tests are written after implementation.

C.

An approach where the tests are written during implementation.

D.

An approach where the tests are written before implementation.

Question 111

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

Options:

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

Question 112

While repotting a defect, which attribute indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system?

Options:

A.

Priority

B.

Severity

C.

Status

D.

Description

Question 113

Which of the following statements does NOT describe good testing practice, regardless of the SDLC chosen?

Options:

A.

All development activities are subject to quality control.

B.

To avoid redundancy, different test levels have specific test objectives.

C.

To adhere to the principle of early testing, test analysis for a specific test level takes place during the corresponding phase of the SDLC.

D.

Testers are involved in the review of work results as soon as the documents have been approved by the stakeholders.

Question 114

Which of the following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase:

I. Usability

II Requirements based scenarios

III Testing parts of the code in isolation

IV Correct order of parameters in API calls

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

I. II

C.

II. IV

D.

III. IV

Question 115

The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

Question # 115

A)

Question # 115

B)

Question # 115

C)

Question # 115

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 116

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

Options:

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

Question 117

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

Question 118

Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

Options:

A.

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

B.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

C.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

D.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

Question 119

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

Options:

A.

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

Question 120

Which statement is true regarding confirmation testing and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Confirmation testing confirms the quality of the test being run while regression testing ensures that the software still works after a change has been made.

B.

Confirmation testing is an optional activity whilst regression testing is not negotiable.

C.

Confirmation testing aims to verify that a defect has been resolved and regression testing ensuring that existing functionality still works after a change.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

E.

TESTER Involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

Question 121

You are working on creating test cases for a user story -

As a customer, I want to be able to book an ISTQB exam for a particular date, so that I can find choose my time slot and pay the correct amount, including discounts, if any.

The acceptance criteria for this :

1. The dates shown should be from the current date to 2 years in future

2. Initially there should be 10 timeslots available for each day, 1 hour each, starting at 8 AM GMT

3. Maximum 5 persons should be able to select a time slot after which that time slot should become unavailable

4. First timeslot should have a 10% discount

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

Options:

A.

Logon to the site. Book an exam for the current date. Expected result: timeslots should be shown. Change the time to any other date prior to the selected date. Expected result: New slot should become visible.

B.

Logon to the site. Expected result: Default 8 AM (GMT) timeslot should be selected Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: New slot should be booked

C.

Logon to the site. Book 5 exams for the current date. Expected result: Exams should be booked. Book 6th timeslot for the same date. Expected result: The exam should be booked but no discount should be given.

D.

Logon to the site and book an exam for the 8 AM (GMT) timeslot Expected result: You should get 10% discounted price. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: Discount should be removed

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