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ISC CC CC - Certified in Cybersecurity Exam Practice Test

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Total 403 questions

CC - Certified in Cybersecurity Questions and Answers

Question 1

Why is an asset inventory so important?

Options:

A.

It tells you what to encrypt

B.

The law requires it

C.

It contains a price list

D.

You can’t protect what you don’t know you have

Question 2

An organization’s security system that prevents, detects, analyzes, and responds to cybersecurity incidents is called:

Options:

A.

Business continuity team

B.

Disaster recovery team

C.

Incident response team

D.

Security Operations Center

Question 3

Scans networks to determine connected devices and services:

Options:

A.

Burp Suite

B.

Wireshark

C.

Fiddler

D.

Zenmap

Question 4

Example of token-based authentication:

Options:

A.

Kerberos

B.

Basic

C.

OAuth

D.

NTLM

Question 5

A security event does not affect confidentiality, integrity, or availability. What is it?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Breach

C.

Incident

D.

Event

Question 6

A security model where no network is trusted by default is called:

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

Trusted computing

C.

TPM

D.

TEE

Question 7

Permitting authorized access while preventing improper disclosure.

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Availability

D.

All

Question 8

The purpose of risk identification is:

Options:

A.

Employees at all levels help identify risks

B.

Identify risks to communicate clearly

C.

Identify risks to protect against them

D.

All

Question 9

Which security control is most commonly used to prevent data breaches?

Options:

A.

Physical control

B.

Logical control

C.

Administrative control

D.

RBAC

Question 10

What is the focus of disaster recovery planning after a data center outage?

Options:

A.

Maintaining business functions

B.

Fixing hardware

C.

Restoring IT and communications

D.

Emergency response guidance

Question 11

A set of security controls or system settings used to ensure uniformity of configuration through the IT environment?

Options:

A.

Patches

B.

Inventory

C.

Baseline

D.

Policy

Question 12

What is the highest priority during incident response?

Options:

A.

Protect mission

B.

Reduce impact

C.

Protect life, health, and safety

D.

Resume operations

Question 13

A method for risk analysis that is based on the assignment of a descriptor such as low, medium, or high.

Options:

A.

Quantitative Risk Analysis

B.

Risk Assessment

C.

Risk Mitigation

D.

Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 14

What is the best practice to clear SSD storage after use?

Options:

A.

Zero fill

B.

Degaussing

C.

Clearing

D.

Disintegration

Question 15

Raj wants aphysical deterrent controlto discourage unauthorized entry. Which option best serves this purpose?

Options:

A.

A wall

B.

Razor tape

C.

A sign

D.

A hidden camera

Question 16

Which type of application can intercept sensitive information such as passwords on a network segment?

Options:

A.

Log server

B.

Network scanner

C.

Firewall

D.

Protocol analyzer

Question 17

What drove the introduction of IPv6?

Options:

A.

IPv4 was insecure

B.

IPv4 was incompatible

C.

IPv4 address exhaustion

D.

IPv6 supports Wi-Fi

Question 18

Which technology should be implemented to increase the work effort required for buffer overflow attacks?

Options:

A.

Address Space Layout Randomization

B.

Memory induction application

C.

Input memory isolation

D.

Read-only memory integrity checks

Question 19

Exhibit.

Question # 19

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a web application firewall (WAF)?

Options:

A.

To protect the web server from DDoS attacks

B.

To monitor network traffic for intrusions

C.

To filter and block malicious web traffic and requests

D.

To manage SSL certificates

Question 20

An IP network protocol standardized by the IETF through RFC 792 to determine if a host is available is:

Options:

A.

IP

B.

ICMP

C.

IGMP

D.

HTTP

Question 21

Which plan is activated when Incident Response and BCP fail?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

BIA

C.

DRP

D.

None

Question 22

What is the difference between Business Continuity Planning (BCP) and Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP)?

Options:

A.

BCP restores IT systems, DRP maintains business functions

B.

DRP restores IT and communications, BCP maintains critical business functions

C.

They are the same

D.

BCP only applies before disasters

Question 23

An employee unintentionally shares confidential information with an unauthorized party. What term best describes this?

Options:

A.

Event

B.

Exploit

C.

Intrusion

D.

Breach

Question 24

Which of the following is often associated with Disaster Recovery planning?

Options:

A.

Checklists

B.

Antivirus

C.

Firewalls

D.

All

Question 25

What is the purpose of the CIA triad?

Options:

A.

Make security understandable

B.

Describe security concepts

C.

Define the purpose of security

D.

All

Question 26

What is the importance of non-repudiation in today’s world of e-commerce?

Options:

A.

Ensures people are not held responsible for transactions they did not conduct

B.

Ensures people are held responsible for transactions they conducted

C.

Ensures transactions are not conducted online

D.

Ensures transactions are conducted online

Question 27

Which is NOT a function of an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Encrypt network traffic

B.

Monitor network traffic

C.

Filter network traffic

D.

Detect and prevent attacks

Question 28

Which is the most efficient and effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Simulations

B.

Discussions

C.

Walkthroughs

D.

Reviews

Question 29

Which concept prevents crime by designing a physical environment that positively influences human behavior?

Options:

A.

DMZ

B.

Security alarm

C.

CPTED

D.

CCTV

Question 30

Which uses encrypted, machine-generated codes to verify a user's identity?

Options:

A.

Basic authentication

B.

Form-based authentication

C.

Token-based authentication

D.

All

Question 31

Hashing safeguards which CIA triad principle?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Integrity

D.

All

Question 32

Software that creates and manages virtual machines (VMM) is called:

Options:

A.

Hypervisor

B.

Simulation

C.

Emulation

D.

Cloud controller

Question 33

Which principle requires that all instances of data be identical?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Consistency

D.

All

Question 34

Events with negative consequences such as crashes, floods, defacement, or malicious code execution are called:

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Incident

C.

Adverse event

D.

Exploit

Question 35

A power outage disrupts operations. Which plan helps sustain operations?

Options:

A.

DRP

B.

IRP

C.

BCP

D.

All

Question 36

Which principle states that users should have access only to the specific data and resources needed to perform required tasks?

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

Defense in Depth

C.

Least Privilege

D.

All

Question 37

Security commensurate with risk and magnitude of harm is known as:

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Adequate security

Question 38

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of objectives is called:

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk management

Question 39

COVID-19 is an example where which plan sustains business?

Options:

A.

IRP

B.

DRP

C.

BCP

D.

All

Question 40

What principle states that individuals should only have the minimum set of permissions necessary to carry out their job functions?

Options:

A.

Least privilege

B.

Two-person control

C.

Job rotation

D.

Separation of privileges

Question 41

Example of a deterrent control:

Options:

A.

CCTV

B.

BCP

C.

DRP

D.

IRP

Question 42

When the ISC2 mail server sends mail to other mail servers, it becomes a —?

Options:

A.

SMTP Server

B.

SMTP Peer

C.

SMTP Master

D.

SMTP Client

Question 43

Which of the following properties is NOT guaranteed by digital signatures?

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Non-repudiation

D.

Integrity

Question 44

Critical business functions are disrupted due to a system outage. Which plan sustains operations?

Options:

A.

DRP

B.

BCP

C.

IRP

D.

All

Question 45

The primary functionality of Privileged Access Management (PAM) is:

Options:

A.

Validate access to a file

B.

Prevent unauthorized access to assets

C.

Provide just-in-time access to critical resources

D.

Manage centralized access control

Question 46

VLAN hopping belongs to which OSI layer?

Options:

A.

Layer 3

B.

Layer 4

C.

Layer 7

D.

Layer 2

Question 47

During an ISC2 CC exam, you observe another candidate cheating. What should you do?

Options:

A.

Yell at them

B.

Do nothing

C.

Report the candidate to ISC2

D.

Call law enforcement

Question 48

What is an IP address?

Options:

A.

A physical address

B.

A vendor identifier

C.

A logical address associated with a network interface

D.

A hardware address

Question 49

255.255.255.0 represents:

Options:

A.

Broadcast address

B.

Unicast address

C.

Subnet mask

D.

Global address

Question 50

A team activates procedures to mitigate a cyberattack. What plan is this?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Plan

B.

Incident Response Plan

C.

Disaster Recovery Plan

D.

Security Operations Plan

Question 51

Which type of control minimizes the impact of an attack and restores normal operations as quickly as possible?

Options:

A.

Compensatory control

B.

Corrective control

C.

Recovery control

D.

Detective control

Question 52

Ensuring a process cannot be completed by a single person is known as:

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Least privilege

C.

Privileged account

D.

Rule-based access control

Question 53

What is the process of verifying a user’s identity called?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Authentication

C.

Authorization

D.

Identification

Question 54

Which cloud service model provides the most suitable environment for customers to build and operate their own software?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

IaaS

C.

PaaS

Question 55

An employee launched a privilege escalation attack to gain root access on one of the organization’s database servers. The employee has an authorized user account on the server. What log file would MOST likely contain relevant information?

Options:

A.

Database application log

B.

Firewall log

C.

Operating system log

D.

IDS log

Question 56

Mark is configuring an automated data transfer between two hosts and needs an authentication method. What approach is best suited?

Options:

A.

Biometric

B.

Smart Card

C.

SSH Key

D.

Hard-coded Password

Question 57

What does internal consistency of information refer to?

Options:

A.

Accurate and complete data

B.

Protection from errors

C.

All data instances being identical

D.

Same display format

Question 58

Which protocol is used for secure email?

Options:

A.

POP3S

B.

IMAPS

C.

SMTPS

D.

All

Question 59

The process of how an organization is managed and how decisions are made is called:

Options:

A.

Standard

B.

Policy

C.

Procedure

D.

Governance

Question 60

What is the primary goal of a risk management process in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Eliminate all risks

B.

Transfer all risks

C.

Identify, assess, and mitigate risks to an acceptable level

D.

Ignore risks

Question 61

A popular way of implementing the principle of least privilege is:

Options:

A.

MAC

B.

DAC

C.

RBAC

D.

ABAC

Question 62

What is the recommended temperature range for optimal data center uptime?

Options:

A.

62°F–69°F

B.

64°F–81°F

C.

82°F–90°F

D.

91°F–100°F

Question 63

Is defined as the process of identifying, estimating, and prioritizing risks.

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Risk Treatment

C.

Risk Mitigation

D.

Risk Management

Question 64

An attacker places themselves between two communicating devices is known as:

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

Spoofing

C.

On-Path attack

D.

All

Question 65

Which is an example of a deterrent control?

Options:

A.

Biometric

B.

Guard dog

C.

Encryption

D.

Turnstile

Question 66

A system crash results in loss of data. What term best describes this?

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Incident

C.

Event

D.

Adverse event

Question 67

An unknown person obtains unauthorized access to the company file system. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Intrusion

B.

Breach

C.

Exploit

D.

Incident

Question 68

What is the end goal of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

All systems backed up

B.

DR site activated

C.

Infrastructure relocated

D.

Business restored to last-known reliable operations

Question 69

A type of malware capable of self-propagation and infecting multiple systems without human intervention is called:

Options:

A.

Worm

B.

Spyware

C.

Adware

D.

Virus

Question 70

What is the term used to denote the inherent set of privileges assigned to a user upon the creation of a new account?

Options:

A.

Aggregation

B.

Transitivity

C.

Baseline

D.

Entitlement

Question 71

What kind of control is it when we add a backup firewall that takes over if the main one stops working?

Options:

A.

Clustering

B.

High availability (HA)

C.

Load balancing

D.

Component redundancy

Question 72

Why is identifying roles and responsibilities important in IR planning?

Options:

A.

To prevent incidents

B.

To ensure everyone knows their role

C.

To reduce impact

D.

To select containment strategy

Question 73

Which IR phase involves identifying critical data and systems?

Options:

A.

Detection and analysis

B.

Preparation

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

Question 74

A ________ creates an encrypted tunnel to protect your personal data and communications.

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

VPN

C.

Anti-virus

D.

IDS

Question 75

Who is responsible for publishing and signing the organization’s policies?

Options:

A.

The security office

B.

Human resources

C.

Senior management

D.

The legal department

Question 76

The practice of sending fraudulent communications that appear to come from a reputable source is known as:

Options:

A.

DoS

B.

Virus

C.

Spoofing

D.

Phishing

Question 77

Who should participate in creating a BCP?

Options:

A.

IT only

B.

Management only

C.

Members across the organization

D.

Finance only

Question 78

The evaluation of security controls to determine whether they are implemented correctly and operating as intended is known as:

Options:

A.

Security assessment

B.

Risk assessment

C.

DRP

D.

IRP

Question 79

What is an incident in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Any event

B.

Unauthorized access

C.

An exploit

D.

An event that jeopardizes CIA

Question 80

Communication between end systems is encrypted using a key, often known as ________?

Options:

A.

Temporary key

B.

Section key

C.

Public key

D.

Session key

Question 81

A centralized organizational function that monitors, detects, and analyzes security events to prevent disruptions is called:

Options:

A.

IRP

B.

BCP

C.

SOC

D.

DRP

Question 82

Which plan provides immediate response procedures and management guidance?

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

IRP

C.

DRP

D.

All

Question 83

Faking the sender address of a transmission to gain illegal entry is called:

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

ARP

C.

Spoofing

D.

All

Question 84

What is the potential impact of an IPSec replay attack?

Options:

A.

Modification of network traffic

B.

Disruption of network communication

C.

Unauthorized access to network resources

D.

All

Question 85

Which organization defines Internet protocol standards?

Options:

A.

ISO

B.

NIST

C.

IETF

D.

GDPR

Question 86

What is the shortened form of

2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:ffff:0000:0001?

Options:

A.

2001:db8::ffff:0:1

B.

2001:db8:0000:ffff:0:1

C.

2001:db80::ffff:0000:1

D.

2001:db8::ffff:0000:0001

Question 87

DNS operates at which OSI layer?

Options:

A.

Physical

B.

Network

C.

Application

D.

Data Link

Question 88

A structured way to align IT with business goals while managing risk and regulations:

Options:

A.

GRC

B.

Policies

C.

Law

D.

Standard

Question 89

The Bell–LaPadula access control model is a form of:

Options:

A.

RBAC

B.

MAC

C.

DAC

D.

ABAC

Question 90

What is the primary purpose of a honeytoken in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

To lure and detect attackers

B.

To encrypt sensitive data

C.

To enhance network performance

D.

To manage user access

Question 91

Flooding a server with traffic to make services unavailable is called:

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

Virus

C.

Spoofing

D.

DDoS

Question 92

XenServer, LVM, Hyper-V, and ESXi are:

Options:

A.

Type 2 hypervisors

B.

Type 1 hypervisors

C.

Both

D.

None

Question 93

Which of the following is NOT one of the four typical ways of managing risk?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Avoid

C.

Mitigate

D.

Monitor

Question 94

What is the purpose of immediate response procedures in a BCP?

Options:

A.

To notify personnel the BCP is activated

B.

To guide management

C.

To protect CIA

D.

To account for operations

Question 95

What is the focus of disaster recovery planning after a data center failure?

Options:

A.

Maintain business functions

B.

Fix hardware

C.

Restore IT and communications

D.

Guide emergency responders

Question 96

An authorized simulated attack to evaluate security is called:

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Security testing

C.

Automated testing

D.

Regression testing

Question 97

What is the main objective of DRP after a breach shuts down systems?

Options:

A.

Relocation

B.

Employee safety

C.

Prosecution

D.

Restore systems

Question 98

Who must follow HIPAA compliance?

Options:

A.

Energy sector

B.

Health care

C.

Finance sector

D.

All

Question 99

A DDoS attack flooding ICMP packets is called:

Options:

A.

DoS

B.

SYN flood

C.

Smurf attack

D.

Phishing

Question 100

Which type of attack takes advantage of vulnerabilities in validation?

Options:

A.

ARP spoofing

B.

Pharming attacks

C.

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

D.

DNS poisoning

Question 101

A measure of the degree to which an organization depends on information or systems to achieve its mission is called:

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Criticality

C.

Authorization

D.

Confidentiality

Question 102

What is an IPSec replay attack?

Options:

A.

An attack where an attacker modifies packets in transit

B.

An attack where an attacker eavesdrops on network traffic

C.

An attack where an attacker overloads a network with traffic

D.

An attack where an attacker attempts to inject packets in an existing session

Question 103

Often offered by third-party organizations and covering advisory or compliance objectives:

Options:

A.

Standard

B.

Policy

C.

Procedure

D.

Laws or Regulations

Question 104

Which can be considered a fingerprint of a file or message?

Options:

A.

Hashing

B.

Encryption

C.

Decryption

D.

Encoding

Question 105

Information should be consistently and readily accessible for authorized parties.

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Authentication

C.

Availability

D.

Non-repudiation

Question 106

In cybersecurity, typical threat actors include:

Options:

A.

Insiders (intentional or accidental)

B.

External individuals or groups

C.

Technology (bots, automation, AI)

D.

All

Question 107

Which document provides a high-level overview of a Disaster Recovery Plan?

Options:

A.

Technical guides

B.

Department-specific plans

C.

Full plan copies for team members

D.

Executive summary

Question 108

Port forwarding is also known as:

Options:

A.

Port mapping

B.

Tunneling

C.

Punch-through

D.

All

Question 109

A company’s servers are down due to malware. What is the FIRST step the DR team should take?

Options:

A.

Disconnect affected systems

B.

Conduct risk assessment

C.

Restore from backups

D.

Contact law enforcement

Question 110

Finance Server and Transaction Server have restored their original facility after a disaster. What should be moved in FIRST?

Options:

A.

Management

B.

Most critical systems

C.

Most critical functions

D.

Least critical functions

Question 111

TCP and UDP reside at which layer of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

Session

B.

Transport

C.

Data Link

D.

Presentation

Question 112

Methods or mechanisms used to gain unauthorized access are called:

Options:

A.

Attacker

B.

Threat vector

C.

Threat

D.

Threat actor

Question 113

Which of the following is a characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Broad network access

B.

Rapid elasticity

C.

Measured service

D.

All

Question 114

Which provides confidentiality by hiding or obscuring a message so it cannot be understood by unauthorized parties?

Options:

A.

Hashing

B.

Encoding

C.

Cryptography

D.

All

Question 115

Exhibit.

Question # 115

Question # 115

What kind of vulnerability is typically not identifiable through a standard vulnerability assessment?

Options:

A.

File permissions

B.

Buffer overflow

C.

Zero-day vulnerability

D.

Cross-site scripting

Question 116

Embedded systems and network-enabled devices that communicate with the Internet are considered:

Options:

A.

Endpoint

B.

Node

C.

IoT

D.

Router

Question 117

The documented set of procedures to detect, respond to, and limit the consequences of cyberattacks is called:

Options:

A.

IR

B.

IRP

C.

BCP

D.

DRP

Question 118

When operating in a cloud environment, which cloud deployment model provides security teams with the greatest access to forensic information?

Options:

A.

FaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

Question 119

A LAN-based attack involving malicious packets sent to the default gateway:

Options:

A.

ARP poisoning

B.

SYN flood

C.

Ping of death

D.

Trojan

Question 120

If a device is found to be non-compliant with the security baseline, what action should the security team take?

Options:

A.

Report

B.

Evaluate

C.

Ignore

D.

Disable or isolate it into a quarantine area until it can be checked and updated

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Total 403 questions