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ISA ISA-IEC-62443 ISA/IEC 62443 Cybersecurity Fundamentals Specialist Exam Practice Test

ISA/IEC 62443 Cybersecurity Fundamentals Specialist Questions and Answers

Question 1

In which layer is the physical address assigned?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Layer 1

B.

Layer 2

C.

Layer 3

D.

Layer 7

Question 2

Which characteristic is MOST closely associated with the deployment of a demilitarized zone (DMZ)?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Level 4 systems must use the DMZ to communicate with Level 3 and below.

B.

Level 0 can only interact with Level 1 through the firewall.

C.

Internet access through the firewall is allowed.

D.

Email is prevented, thereby mitigating the risk of phishing attempts.

Question 3

In a defense-in-depth strategy, what is the purpose of role-based access control?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Ensures that users can access systems from remote locations

B.

Ensures that users can access only certain devices on the network

C.

Ensures that users can access only the functions they need for their job

D.

Ensures that users correctly manage their username and password

Question 4

If an asset owner wants to demonstrate compliance with ISA/IEC 62443-2-1 requirements during an external audit, which type of evidence would be MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Financial investment records in cybersecurity tools only

B.

Anecdotal reports from employees about security practices

C.

Documentation verifying use and configuration of technologies

D.

Marketing materials describing the company's commitment to security

Question 5

What is a feature of an asymmetric key?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Uses a continuous stream

B.

Uses different keys

C.

Shares the same key OD.

D.

Has lower network overhead

Question 6

What does the expression SL-T (BPCS Zone) vector {2 2 0 1 3 1 3} represent?

Options:

A.

A qualitative risk assessment method

B.

A single protection factor for all FRS

C.

The FR values for a specific zone's security level

D.

The SL values for a specific zone's foundational requirements

Question 7

Electronic security, as defined in ANSI/ISA-99.00.01:2007. includes which of the following?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Security guidelines for the proper configuration of IACS computers and operating systems

B.

Computers, networks, operating systems, applications, and other programmable configurable components of the system

C.

Personnel, policies, and procedures related to the security of computers, networks. PLCs, and other programmable configurable components of the system

D.

Security guidelines for the proper configuration of IACS PLCs and other programmable configurable components of the system

Question 8

What is a frequent mistake made with cybersecurity management?

Options:

A.

Ignoring organizational culture

B.

Focusing solely on technology solutions

C.

Implementing too many security practices at once

D.

Initially addressing smaller pieces of the entire system

Question 9

What is the name of the protocol that implements serial Modbus over Ethernet?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

MODBUS/CIP

B.

MODBUS/Ethernet

C.

MODBUS/Plus

D.

MODBUS/TCP

Question 10

What are the four main categories for documents in the ISA-62443 (IEC 62443) series?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

General. Policies and Procedures. System, and Component

B.

End-User, Integrator, Vendor, and Regulator

C.

Assessment. Mitigation. Documentation, and Maintenance

D.

People. Processes. Technology, and Training

Question 11

What are the four documents that belong to the General category of the ISA-62443 (IEC 62443) series?

Options:

A.

Part 1-1: Terminology, concepts, and models; Part 1-2: Master glossary of terms and definitions; Part 1-3: Security program ratings; and Part 1-4: IACS security lifecycle and use cases

B.

Part 1-1: Terminology, concepts, and models; Part 1-2: Master glossary of terms and definitions; Part 1-3: Security technologies for IACS; and Part 1-4: IACS security lifecycle and use cases

C.

Part 1-1: Terminology, concepts, and models; Part 1-2: Master glossary of terms and definitions; Part 1-3: System security conformance metrics; and Part 1-4: IACS security lifecycle and use cases

D.

Part 1-1: Terminology, concepts, and models; Part 1-2: Master glossary of terms and definitions; Part 1-3: System security conformance metrics; and Part 1-4: Security program requirements for IACS service providers

Question 12

What are the three main components of the ISASecure Integrated Threat Analysis (ITA) Program?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Software development security assurance, functional security assessment, and communications robustness testing

B.

Software robustness security testing, functional software assessment assurance, and essential security functionality assessment

C.

Communications robustness testing, functional security assurance, and software robustness communications

D.

Communication speed, disaster recovery, and essential security functionality assessment

Question 13

Which is the BEST deployment system for malicious code protection?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Network segmentation

B.

IACS protocol converters

C.

Application whitelistinq (AWL) OD.

D.

Zones and conduits

Question 14

An industrial facility wants to ensure that only authorized communication reaches its PLCs while minimizing disruption to time-sensitive control processes. Which type of firewall would BEST suit this need?

Options:

A.

General-purpose software firewall

B.

Unidirectional gateway (data diode)

C.

IACS-specific firewall with deep packet inspection

D.

Basic packet filter firewall without protocol awareness

Question 15

Which of the following tools has the potential for serious disruption of a control network and should not be used on a live system?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Remote desktop

B.

Vulnerability scanner

C.

FTP

D.

Web browser

Question 16

Which of the following staff is NOT mentioned as a stakeholder in the CSMS Program?

Options:

A.

Marketing

B.

Operations

C.

IT security

D.

Physical security

Question 17

Why is patch management more difficult for IACS than for business systems?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Overtime pay is required for technicians.

B.

Many more approvals are required.

C.

Patching a live automation system can create safety risks.

D.

Business systems automatically update.

Question 18

What programs are MOST effective if they are tailored to the audience, consistent with company policy, and communicated regularly?

Options:

A.

CSMS development

B.

Cybersecurity awareness programs

C.

Control systems adjustment programs

D.

ISCS cybersecurity certification programs

Question 19

Which is a commonly used protocol for managing secure data transmission on the Internet?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Datagram Transport Layer Security (DTLS)

B.

Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption

C.

Secure Telnet

D.

Secure Sockets Layer

Question 20

A company needs to create a standardized interface for exchanging real-time plant data between heterogeneous control devices while maintaining a structured organization of data elements such as folders, classes, and methods. Which feature of OPC supports this requirement?

Options:

A.

OPC Tunnel applications for firewalls

B.

OPC Classic-aware firewalls analyzing DCOM

C.

OPC Unified Architecture’s browsable namespace

D.

OPC Classic’s use of Microsoft OLE and COM technologies

Question 21

Which layer specifies the rules for Modbus Application Protocol

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Data link layer

B.

Session layer

C.

Presentation layer

D.

Application layer

Question 22

How should CSMS organizational responsibilities or training be handled over time?

Options:

A.

They should be ignored.

B.

They should be evaluated.

C.

They should remain constant.

D.

They should be expanded indefinitely.

Question 23

Within the National Institute of Standards and Technoloqv Cybersecuritv Framework v1.0 (NIST CSF), what is the status of the ISA 62443 standards?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

They are used as informative references.

B.

They are used as normative references.

C.

They are under consideration for future use.

D.

They are not used.

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT a general class of firewalls?

Options:

A.

Packet filter

B.

Network inspection

C.

Application proxy

D.

Stateful inspection

Question 25

Which service does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) provide?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

It is the lock on the door for networks and computer systems.

B.

It is effective against all vulnerabilities in networks and computer systems.

C.

It blocks malicious activity in networks and computer systems.

D.

It detects attempts to break into or misuse a computer system.

Question 26

What port number is used by MODBUS TCP/IP for communication?

Options:

A.

21

B.

80

C.

443

D.

502

Question 27

What is the primary audience for Part 2-5 of the ISA/IEC 62443 Series - Policies & Procedures group of standards?

Options:

A.

Asset owners

B.

Service providers

C.

Product suppliers

D.

System integrators

Question 28

Which is a reason for

and physical security regulations meeting a mixed resistance?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Regulations are voluntary documents.

B.

Regulations contain only informative elements.

C.

Cybersecurity risks can best be managed individually and in isolation.

D.

There are a limited number of enforced cybersecurity and physical security regulations.

Question 29

What impact do increasing cybercrime attacks have?

Options:

A.

They primarily target personal devices.

B.

They focus solely on financial institutions.

C.

They affect suppliers of essential services.

D.

They lead to improved cybersecurity measures.

Question 30

What is a key aspect of the relationship between physical security measures and cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Cybersecurity is irrelevant.

B.

Physical security is more important.

C.

They should operate independently.

D.

They should complement each other.

Question 31

What is a major reason for maintaining an asset inventory baseline in Configuration Management (SP Element 2)?

Options:

A.

To document IACS architecture

B.

To ensure physical access control

C.

To enforce user authentication policies

D.

To detect security anomalies in event management

Question 32

Which of the following can be employed as a barrier device in a segmented network?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Router

B.

Unmanaged switch

C.

VPN

D.

Domain controller

Question 33

What is the formula for calculating risk?

Options:

A.

Risk = Likelihood + Consequence

B.

Risk = Threat - Vulnerability * Consequence

C.

Risk = Threat + Vulnerability + Consequence

D.

Risk = Threat * Vulnerability * Consequence

Question 34

According to the scheme for cybersecurity profiles, which of the following is true about ISA/IEC 62443 security requirements when creating a security profile?

Options:

A.

New security requirements can be added freely.

B.

Only foundational requirements can be changed.

C.

No new requirements are allowed, and existing ones are not modified.

D.

Existing security requirements can be modified to fit the sector needs.

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT a general class of firewalls?

Options:

A.

Packet filter

B.

Network monitor

C.

Application proxy

D.

Stateful inspection

Question 36

What is a key activity in the Maintain phase?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Managing changes

C.

Allocating assets to security zones

D.

Designing cybersecurity countermeasures

Question 37

Which is NOT a potential consequence for organizations that fail to prioritize control system security?

Options:

A.

Personal injury

B.

Decreased energy consumption

C.

Unauthorized access, theft, or misuse of data

D.

Violation of legal and regulatory requirements

Question 38

To which category of the ISA-62443 (IEC 62443) series does the document titled "Patch management in the IACS environment" belong?

Options:

A.

System

B.

General

C.

Component

D.

Policies and Procedures

Question 39

To which category of the ISA-62443 (IEC 62443) series does the document titled “Patch management in the IACS environment” belong?

Options:

A.

System

B.

General

C.

Component

D.

Policies and Procedures

Question 40

What are the two elements of the risk analysis category of an IACS?

Options:

A.

Risk evaluation and risk identification

B.

Business rationale and risk reduction and avoidance

C.

Business rationale and risk identification and classification

D.

Business recovery and risk elimination or mitigation

Question 41

Which is one of the PRIMARY goals of providing a framework addressing secure product development life-cycle requirements?

Options:

A.

Aligned development process

B.

Aligned needs of industrial users

C.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

D.

Defense-in-depth approach to designing

Question 42

Which NIST Special Publication focuses specifically on securing Industrial Control Systems (ICS)?

Options:

A.

SP 800-30

B.

SP 800-53

C.

SP 800-82

D.

SP 800-171

Question 43

Under User Access Control (SP Element 6), which of the following is included in USER 1 — Identification and Authentication?

Options:

A.

Backup restoration

B.

Password protection

C.

Mutual authentication

D.

Incident handling and response

Question 44

A manufacturing plant is developing a cybersecurity plan for its IACS that must evolve as new threats emerge and system changes occur. Which document should serve as the foundation for this evolving security approach?

Options:

A.

IEC 62443-2-2 only

B.

Security Program (SP) portfolio

C.

Corporate KPIs unrelated to IACS

D.

Security Protection Scheme (SPS)

Question 45

What does IACS stand for?

Options:

A.

Industrial Automation and Control Systems

B.

Industrial Associations and Control Systems

C.

Integrated Automation and Control Systems

D.

International Automated and Control Systems

Question 46

What is the FIRST step required in implementing ISO 27001?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Create a security management organization.

B.

Define an information security policy.

C.

Implement strict security controls.

D.

Perform a security risk assessment.

Question 47

How many security levels are in the ISASecure certification program?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

Question 48

Which is one of the PRIMARY goals of providing a framework addressing secure product development life-cycle requirements?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Aligned development process

B.

Aligned needs of industrial users

C.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

D.

Defense-in-depth approach to designing

Question 49

Which of the following activities is NOT listed under the “Patch Testing” phase in the asset owner requirements?

Options:

A.

Notification

B.

File authenticity

C.

Removal procedure

D.

Qualification and verification

Question 50

What type of security level defines what a component or system is capable of meeting?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Capability security level

B.

Achieved security level

C.

Design security level

D.

Target security level

Question 51

As related to IACS Maintenance Service Providers, when do maintenance activities generally start?

Options:

A.

During the design phase

B.

At the beginning of the project

C.

After the handover of the solution

D.

Before the handover of the solution

Question 52

What is the primary purpose of Foundational Requirement 1 (FR 1)?

Options:

A.

Ensure data confidentiality.

B.

Respond to security violations.

C.

Control use of selected devices.

D.

Control access to selected devices.

Question 53

In terms of availability requirements, how do IACS and IT differ?

Options:

A.

IACS tolerates occasional failures while IT does not.

B.

Rebooting is never acceptable in IT but tolerated in IACS.

C.

Both IACS and IT have the same availability requirements.

D.

Continuous operation is expected in IT while scheduled operation is sufficient for IACS.

Question 54

What is defined as the hardware and software components of an IACS?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

COTS software and hardware

B.

Electronic security

C.

Control system

D.

Cybersecuritv

Question 55

What does a demilitarized zone (DMZ) provide in network security?

Options:

A.

Secure data transfer

B.

Increased bandwidth

C.

Indirect access to the Internet

D.

Simplified security architecture

Question 56

What is the purpose of ICS-CERT Alerts?

Options:

A.

To inform about hardware upgrades

B.

To advertise cybersecurity services

C.

To notify the owners of critical infrastructure

D.

To alert of targeted global energy sector threats

Question 57

Which of the following is NOT listed as a potential consequence of compromising IACS according to the ISA99 Committee scope?

Options:

A.

Losses

B.

Increased product sales

C.

Endangerment of public safety

D.

Loss of proprietary information

Question 58

Why is it important to document the results of the initial/high-level risk assessment?

Options:

A.

To establish a baseline

B.

To reduce communication

C.

To skip future assessments

D.

To avoid stakeholder involvement

Question 59

After receiving an approved patch from the JACS vendor, what is BEST practice for the asset owner to follow?

Options:

A.

If a low priority, there is no need to apply the patch.

B.

If a medium priority, schedule the installation within three months after receipt.

C.

If a high priority, apply the patch at the first unscheduled outage.

D.

If no problems are experienced with the current IACS, it is not necessary to apply the patch.

Question 60

What is the name of the missing layer in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model shown below?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Protocol

C.

Transport

D.

User

Question 61

Which of the following is an example of separation of duties as a part of system development and maintenance?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Changes are approved by one party and implemented by another.

B.

Configuration settings are made by one party and self-reviewed using a checklist.

C.

Developers write and then test their own code.

D.

Design and implementation are performed by the same team.

Question 62

Which of the following is an activity that should trigger a review of the CSMS?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Budgeting

B.

New technical controls

C.

Organizational restructuring

D.

Security incident exposing previously unknown risk.

Question 63

A company manufactures embedded devices and network components used in control systems but does not participate in on-site installation or maintenance. What role do they fulfill?

Options:

A.

Asset owner

B.

Product supplier

C.

Integration service provider

D.

Maintenance service provider

Question 64

What is the primary focus of Part 3-2 in the ISA/IEC 62443 series?

Options:

A.

Security technologies for IACS

B.

Cybersecurity risk assessment and system design

C.

Secure product development lifecycle requirements

D.

Technical security requirements for IACS components

Question 65

If a system integrator is designing zones and conduits for an IACS network based on risk assessments, which part of the ISA/IEC 62443 standard guides this process?

Options:

A.

Part 1-3: System security conformance metrics

B.

Part 2-1: Establishing an IACS security program

C.

Part 3-2: Security risk assessment for system design

D.

Part 4-1: Secure product development lifecycle requirements

Question 66

Which statement is TRUE regarding Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

Modern IDS recognize IACS devices by default.

B.

They are very inexpensive to design and deploy.

C.

They are effective against known vulnerabilities.

D.

They require a small amount of care and feeding

Question 67

What type of cyberattack was discussed in the Ukrainian power grid case study?

Options:

A.

Internal sabotage

B.

Nation state

C.

Insider threat

D.

Random hacking

Question 68

What are three possible entry points (pathways) that could be used for launching a cyber attack?

Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)

Options:

A.

LAN, portable media, and wireless

B.

LAN, portable media, and hard drives

C.

LAN, power source, and wireless OD.

D.

LAN, WAN, and hard drive