Labour Day Special Limited Time Flat 70% Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70spcl

IIA IIA-CCSA Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 27
Total 270 questions

Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A process to identify events potentially affecting the entity and manage risk within its risk appetite is known as:

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Management

B.

Stricter Risk Disclosure

C.

Overlapping Risk Classification

D.

Risk Management Strategy

Question 2

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Managers are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

B.

Internal auditors are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

C.

Team workers are often involved in CSA because of their experience in business of the organization.

D.

External auditors are often involved in CSA because of their expertise and experience in both business of the organization and its related risks and controls.

Question 3

The organization has a mechanism to ensure the prompt resolution of findings from audits and other reviews through:

Options:

A.

Program evaluation

B.

Audit resolution

C.

Ongoing monitoring

D.

Control environment

Question 4

What are influenced by size and complexity of the activity being examined, and by the geographical dispersion of the activity?

Options:

A.

Analytical auditing

B.

Time requirements

C.

Functional specifications

D.

Control activities

Question 5

Use of observations and interviews to study how people learn, interact with others or make decisions refers to:

Options:

A.

Open-ended discussion

B.

Focus groups

C.

Ethnographic analysis

D.

None of the above

Question 6

Employees are provided a proper amount of supervision in:

Options:

A.

Establishment of organizational objectives

B.

Oversight groups

C.

Assignment of authority

D.

Human resource policies and practices

Question 7

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Competency refers to the validity and reliability of audit evidence.

B.

Sufficiency refers to the validity and reliability of resources.

C.

Capability refers to the capacity and reliability of audit evidence.

D.

Consistency refers to the steadiness and reliability of audit evidence

Question 8

Compliance tests are procedures designed to verify whether controls are being applied in the manner described in the flowcharts, questionnaires etc.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 9

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continues improvement.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 10

Under the Securities and Exchange Commission’s final rules, management’s annual internal control report must avoid:

Options:

A.

Identify the framework used by management to evaluate effectiveness of internal control.

B.

Shun around the internal control over financial reporting for the company.

C.

Management’s assessment of the effectiveness of the internal control.

D.

A statement that auditor has to issue an attention report on management’s assessment.

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT the potential benefit of the CSA to the organization?

Options:

A.

Better risk assessment

B.

Improved employee morale

C.

Improved ability to test

D.

Efficient business processes

Question 12

__________ is relating to the entity’s fulfillment with applicable laws and regulations.

Options:

A.

Compliance control

B.

Efficiency control

C.

Timeliness control

D.

Law enforcement

Question 13

A technically sophisticated tool and approach to study a process variation for the purpose of improving the economic effectiveness of the process, is called:

Options:

A.

Process mapping

B.

Improve productivity

C.

Effectiveness of control

D.

Team mobilization

Question 14

The purpose of multifaceted system of control processes is:

Options:

A.

to support people of the organization in management of control and achievement of the established and communicated objectives of the team

B.

to support people of the organization in management of processes and achievement of the established and communicated objectives of the organization

C.

to support people of the organization in management of changes and achievement of the established and communicated objectives of the project

D.

to support people of the organization in management of risks and achievement of the established and communicated objectives of the enterprise

Question 15

Data synthesis is:

Options:

A.

a technique that separately uses single data elements to enhance decision-making

B.

a technique that separately uses multiple data elements to enhance decision-making

C.

a technique that combines and uses single data element to enhance decision-making

D.

a technique that combines and uses multiple data elements to enhance decisionmaking

Question 16

The CSA process that results in identification of fraud indicators as well as actual fraudulent activities is called:

Options:

A.

Fraudulent statements

B.

Reduced risk of fraud

C.

Accountability and control

D.

Natural reluctance to change

Question 17

The more extensive and detailed the documentation, the more it is to communicate and understand the optimal solution.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 18

Votes are cast anonymously and all responses are confidential is one of the advantages of:

Options:

A.

Classified voting

B.

Electronic mailing

C.

Electronic voting

D.

None of the above

Question 19

The risk that some action or inaction by the entity will impair the organization’s ability to reach its goals and objectives is known as:

Options:

A.

Reputation risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Strategic risk

D.

Fiscal risk

Question 20

What describes the organization’s basic philosophy or core operating principles?

Options:

A.

Vision statement

B.

Mission statement

C.

Value statement

D.

Organization Policy

Question 21

A process affected by an organization’s management and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives is known as:

Options:

A.

Design Process

B.

Control Process

C.

Self-reliance Process

D.

Production Process

Question 22

Good team communication, leadership, environment of trust and respect, good management are all factors of:

Options:

A.

Managerial acts

B.

Ethical conducts

C.

Enhanced operational conducts

D.

Open voting

Question 23

In linear organizations, decisions tend to follow from bottom to top through well-defined line of authority.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 24

___________ are clearly communicated to all employees and management obtains feedback signifying that the communication has been effective.

Options:

A.

Entity wide objectives

B.

Activity-level objectives

C.

Presentations

D.

Forms and means of communication

Question 25

2010- Planning standard states that:

Options:

A.

The external audit activity’s plan of engagements should be based on a productivity assessment, undertaken at least annually.

B.

The internal audit activity’s project of engagements should be based on a change assessment, undertaken at least annually.

C.

The internal audit activity’s plan of engagements should be based on a risk assessment, undertaken at least annually.

D.

The external audit activity’s plan of engagements should be based on a process assessment, undertaken periodically.

Question 26

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Risk arising from business strategies and activities are identified and prioritized.

B.

Changes arising from business strategies and activities are identified and not prioritized.

C.

Risk arising from business strategies and activities are identified and but less prioritized.

D.

Risk arising from decision strategies and activities are identified and prioritized.

Question 27

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

those risks that reduce consequences to immateriality are tested at the time of risk measurement.

B.

those audits that reduce consequences to immateriality are tested during the program execution.

C.

those internal controls that reduce consequences to immateriality are tested in the audit program.

D.

those amendments that reduce consequences to immateriality are tested after the feedback.

Question 28

Enterprise risk management helps an entity to achieve its performance and profitability targets but lower prevents loss of resources.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 29

Failure to effectively correct inappropriate behavior could result in a breakdown in the group dynamic and the entire CSA process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 30

Accounting controls are:

Options:

A.

Procedures and information related to the activity-level achievements of processes and reliability of financial records.

B.

Information related to the controlling of assets and reliability of financial records.

C.

Procedures related to the management of expenses and reliability of financial records.

D.

Procedures and information related to the safeguarding of assets and reliability of financial records.

Question 31

Control self-assessment questions have which following categories?

Options:

A.

General or Core questions

B.

Questions relating to particular business function

C.

Questions relating to specific business unit involves in workshop

D.

All of the above

Question 32

Operations control is related to the:

Options:

A.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s cost.

B.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s space.

C.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s time.

D.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s resources.

Question 33

The process of helping management and/or work teams assess the likelihood of meeting business objectives is called:

Options:

A.

CSA facilitation

B.

CSA process

C.

CSA goal

D.

CSA function

Question 34

Which of the following is NOT the step in developing the strategic planning process?

Options:

A.

To determine the amount of change occurring in the organization.

B.

Develop one or more general statements in the form of mission and objective.

C.

Develop specific plans for achieving objectives.

D.

Communicate the plan to affected staff.

Question 35

The internal auditor for standard 1220 should exercise due professional care by considering which following aspects?

Options:

A.

Risk management, probability and cost

B.

Reliability, security, performance

C.

Reliability, security, cost

D.

Reliability, probability, performance

Question 36

What provide means for evaluating the use of inputs to achieve outputs?

Options:

A.

Input/Output measures

B.

Non-Financial measures

C.

Quantifiable measures

D.

Operational measures

Question 37

_________ refers to recommended actions should take into account relevant resource limitations.

Options:

A.

Sufficiency

B.

Feasibility

C.

Consistency

D.

Reliability

Question 38

What involve developing a purpose and goals statement for CSA, resource budgets and projected completion time lines?

Options:

A.

Resource planning

B.

Organizational planning

C.

Operational planning

D.

Strategic planning

Question 39

The risk that deficiencies in expenditure control or revenues will adversely affect agreedupon outcomes or objectives is called:

Options:

A.

Unmodified risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Absolute risk

D.

Fiscal risk

Question 40

A technique to partner with another organization willing to assume a portion of the risk for some reward is called:

Options:

A.

Transfer the risk

B.

Manage the risk

C.

Investigate the risk

D.

Accept the risk

Page: 1 / 27
Total 270 questions