FINRA SIE Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Exam Practice Test

Step by Step Explanation:

Right of Accumulation: Allows an investor to combine the value of existing investments within the same fund family to qualify for a breakpoint (reduced sales charge) on new purchases.

Current Holdings: $80,000

New Purchase: $50,000

Total: $130,000, qualifying for the $100,000 breakpoint.

Incorrect Options:

B: Contributions from all funds within the same family can be aggregated.

C: A new letter of intent is unnecessary; right of accumulation applies automatically.

D: Discounts apply immediately, not retroactively.

Step by Step Explanation:

Tender Offer Definition: A tender offer is an offer to purchase a certain number of shares from shareholders, typically at a price above the current market value. This is often part of mergers, acquisitions, or corporate takeovers.

Stock Split: A stock split increases the number of shares but decreases the price per share without affecting the total value of an investor's holdings.

Redemption: Redemption refers to the repayment of a bond or preferred stock at maturity or at a predetermined date.

Class Action: A class action is a lawsuit filed by a group of people with similar grievances.

A limit order to buy allows the investor to specify the maximum price he is willing to pay for the stock. The order will only execute if the stock price falls to or below the specified price.

B is correct because a limit order to buy aligns with the investor’s desire to secure a better price.

A is incorrect because a limit order to sell is used when an investor wants to sell at a minimum price.

C and D are incorrect because market orders execute at the current market price, not at a preferred price.

Refunding involves replacing existing debt with new debt, usually to take advantage of lower interest rates.

B is correct because the company issues new bonds to pay off the existing debt.

A is incorrect as refunding involves issuing debt, not equity.

C is incorrect because the company is not obligated to buy back bonds at a discount.

D is incorrect because a sinking fund is used for gradual repayment, not refunding.

The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) protects customers if a broker-dealer fails due to insolvency. Coverage applies to cash and securities in customer accounts, up to $500,000 total, including $250,000 for cash.

A is correct because SIPC’s purpose is to protect against losses arising from a broker-dealer’s insolvency.

B is incorrect because SIPC does not guarantee investment performance.

C is incorrect because SIPC does not cover market losses.

D is incorrect because futures contracts are not covered under SIPC.

A pass-through entity does not pay corporate income taxes; instead, income is passed to owners, who report it on their individual tax returns.

A is correct because C corporations are not pass-through entities; they pay corporate taxes.

B, C, and D are all pass-through entities for tax purposes.

Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are time deposit accounts issued by banks, offering fixed interest rates for a specified term. CDs are insured by the FDIC up to $250,000 per depositor, but the issuing entity is the bank itself.

B is correct because banks issue CDs.

A is incorrect because the FDIC insures CDs but does not issue them.

C is incorrect because broker-dealers may facilitate the purchase of CDs but do not issue them.

D is incorrect because the Federal Reserve does not issue CDs; it manages monetary policy.

Step by Step Explanation:

Private Securities Transactions: Under FINRA Rule 3280, RRs must obtain written approval from their employing firm before participating in the sale of securities outside the firm.

Promissory Notes: These are typically considered securities, requiring prior approval.

Incorrect Options:

A & C: Notification alone is insufficient; written approval is required.

D: Promissory notes are generally treated as securities under federal law.

Regulation S-P mandates that broker-dealers disclose how they collect, protect, and share customers’ nonpublic personal information. The privacy notice must include:

The categories of information collected.

The firm’s policies for safeguarding data.

Opt-out rights for sharing information with unaffiliated third parties.

D is correct because privacy notices must describe policies for protecting customer information.

A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not relate to the required elements of Regulation S-P privacy notices.

Step by Step Explanation:

Ex-Dividend Date Pricing: On the ex-dividend date, the mutual fund's price is adjusted downward by the amount of the dividend.

Closing Price: $10.00

Dividend: $0.25

Adjusted Opening Price: $10.00 - $0.25 = $9.75.

Incorrect Options:

A: $9.25 subtracts more than the dividend amount.

C: $10.00 does not reflect the dividend adjustment.

D: $10.25 adds to the price rather than subtracting the dividend.

Step by Step Explanation:

Telemarketing Rules (FINRA Rule 3230): Require firms to check the National Do Not Call Registry before contacting individuals, even if those individuals provide their contact information voluntarily.

Incorrect Options:

A: Approval isn’t required for individual follow-ups; compliance with the registry is.

B: While calls must be limited to appropriate hours, the registry check is still mandatory.

C: Written consent does not override the registry requirement.

Step by Step Explanation:

DVP Process: Ensures that payment occurs simultaneously with the delivery of securities, mitigating counterparty risk. Cash payment is made before or at the time of delivery.

Incorrect Options:

A: The T+5 timeline is not standard for DVP.

C: Payment must occur at delivery, not after.

D: Settlement date agreements with the issuer are irrelevant for DVP.

Treasury stock refers to shares that were issued by a company and subsequently repurchased by the company. These shares are held in the company’s treasury and are not considered outstanding.

C is correct because treasury stock is stock reacquired by the issuer.

A is incorrect because authorized but unissued stock has never been issued.

B is incorrect because restricted stock refers to shares issued with restrictions on transferability, not reacquired stock.

D is incorrect because it incorrectly refers to government securities, not corporate stock.

Step by Step Explanation:

Suspicious Activity: The use of multiple money orders, lack of investment activity, and request to wire funds to another firm raise red flags for potential money laundering.

FINRA Rules: The RR should escalate the issue by reporting internally and potentially filing a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).

Incorrect Options:

A: Denying the request without investigation may violate customer instructions.

B: Freezing the account requires a valid legal or regulatory basis.

D: Processing the request without investigation could facilitate illegal activity.

Step by Step Explanation:

REIT Requirements: REITs must invest at least 75% of their total assets in real estate to qualify for favorable tax treatment under IRS regulations.

90% Rule: Refers to the distribution requirement for taxable income, not asset allocation.

100% Rule: There is no requirement to allocate 100% of assets to real estate.

Step by Step Explanation:

ADRs: Represent foreign securities but are issued in the U.S. and quoted in U.S. dollars, making them easier for American investors to trade.

Incorrect Options:

B: ADRs are quoted in U.S. dollars, not foreign currencies.

C & D: ADRs represent foreign securities held by U.S. banks, not foreign banks.

529 savings plans are state-sponsored education savings accounts that offer tax-advantaged growth. Key features include:

Contributions are not federally tax deductible (some states offer state-level deductions).

No income limitations for contributions.

The account owner, not the beneficiary, controls the plan.

Assets can be transferred tax-free to another family member’s 529 plan.

D is correct because tax-free rollovers are allowed for family members of the current beneficiary.

A is incorrect as contributions are not universally tax deductible.

B is incorrect as there are no income limitations for contributing.

C is incorrect because the account owner, not the beneficiary, controls the assets.

Step by Step Explanation:

Warrants: Are often issued alongside fixed-income securities, such as bonds, to enhance their appeal to investors. Warrants give the holder the right to purchase company stock at a specific price in the future.

Incorrect Options:

Options: Not typically bundled with fixed-income securities.

Common and Preferred Stock: Usually issued separately, not as part of a package with bonds.

Step by Step Explanation:

Call Provision: This allows the issuer to redeem bonds before their maturity date, usually at a premium to the par value, which benefits the issuer in a declining interest rate environment.

Put Provision: Allows bondholders, not issuers, to sell the bond back to the issuer.

Conversion: Relates to convertible bonds that can be converted into equity.

Defeasement: Refers to the removal of a bond issuer’s obligation by setting aside cash or securities to cover the debt.

"Regular way" settlement refers to the standard settlement cycle for securities transactions, which is T+2 for most stocks and bonds. This timeline is set by regulators to ensure orderly processing of trades.

D is correct because regular way settlement follows the preset T+2 cycle.

A is incorrect because cash settlement occurs the same day as the trade.

B is not a recognized term for settlement types.

C is incorrect because next-day settlement applies only to specific securities (e.g., Treasury securities).

Under FINRA Rule 2210, firms must avoid making predictions or projections of future investment performance.

B is correct because it involves prohibited predictive statements.

A, C, and D are acceptable under FINRA guidelines, as they do not involve prohibited content.

Treasury securities are among the most liquid investments, as they are backed by the U.S. government and trade actively in large volumes.

A is correct because Treasuries are highly liquid, making them easy to buy and sell.

B is incorrect because most Treasury securities are not callable.

C is incorrect because FDIC insurance applies to bank deposits, not Treasuries.

D is incorrect because U.S. government securities have negligible default risk.

Step by Step Explanation:

Equity Index Options: These are cash-settled because the underlying asset is not a physical security but a theoretical value representing the index.

Incorrect Options:

Preferred Stock, Master Limited Partnerships, and ETFs: These involve physical delivery of the underlying asset upon exercise.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 1122: Requires that registered representatives update their residential address with FINRA for two years post-termination.

Purpose: This ensures accurate records for potential regulatory inquiries during the statutory two-year period when a terminated individual remains subject to FINRA’s jurisdiction.

A stock dividend increases the number of shares owned without affecting the total cost basis. The new cost basis per share is calculated by dividing the original total investment by the new number of shares:

Original total investment = 100 shares × $50.00 = $5,000

After a 10% stock dividend, the investor owns 110 shares.

New cost basis = $5,000 ÷ 110 shares = $45.45 per share.

B is correct because it reflects the adjusted cost basis per share.

Step by Step Explanation:

Priority in Bankruptcy: Preferred stockholders have a higher claim on a company’s assets than common stockholders during liquidation. Common stockholders are residual claimants.

Dividend Priority: Preferred stockholders are entitled to fixed dividends before common stockholders receive any dividends.

Incorrect Options:

A & B: Common and preferred stocks are treated differently in bankruptcy and dividend payments.

C: Common stock dividends are subordinate to preferred stock dividends.

SEC Regulation A provides a registration exemption for smaller public offerings but includes a "bad actor" disqualification. If certain key parties, such as the issuer, underwriter, or affiliates, have been involved in securities violations, the exemption is forfeited.

B is correct because underwriters are considered essential participants, and their status as bad actors disqualifies the offering.

A, C, and D are incorrect because custodians, transfer agents, and clearing corporations are not included in the "bad actor" provisions of Regulation A.

The announcement of negative regulatory changes introduces unsystematic risk, specific to the technology sector. Diversification into unrelated sectors can reduce exposure to this risk.

A is correct because uncorrelated holdings reduce portfolio risk.

B is incorrect because adding more microchip companies increases exposure to sector-specific risk.

C does not address the core issue of over-concentration.

D is the opposite of mitigating risk.

Under Federal Reserve Regulation T, customers must deposit at least 50% of the purchase price for margin trades. However, the minimum deposit requirement is $2,000, regardless of the 50% rule, if the account is below this threshold.

50% of $3,000 = $1,500.

Since $1,500 is less than the $2,000 minimum, the customer must deposit the full $2,000.

B is correct because $2,000 is the required minimum deposit.

A is incorrect because the $1,500 calculation does not meet the minimum.

C and D are incorrect because they exceed the minimum deposit requirement.

When an economy operates near full capacity, additional money in circulation leads to inflation, as demand exceeds the economy’s ability to increase supply.

B is correct because inflation is the primary impact when supply cannot keep up with excess demand.

A is incorrect because output does not significantly increase when capacity is already maximized.

C is incorrect because velocity measures the rate at which money circulates, not the impact of oversupply.

D is incorrect as unemployment is already low when the economy is at full capacity.

Step by Step Explanation:

Cost Basis in Reverse Split: The total cost basis remains unchanged in a reverse stock split. Only the number of shares and price per share adjust.

Pre-Split: 1,000 shares at $5 each = $5,000.

Post-Split: 200 shares at $25 each = $5,000.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and D: Do not reflect the unchanged total cost basis.

A transfer agent is responsible for maintaining accurate records of shareholder purchases, redemptions, and account balances. They also handle the issuance and cancellation of shares and ensure shareholders receive appropriate distributions.

D is correct because maintaining shareholder records is a core duty of a transfer agent.

A is incorrect because underwriting is the responsibility of a broker-dealer.

B is incorrect because distributing the prospectus is handled by the fund’s distributor.

C is incorrect because custody of securities is the role of a custodian, not the transfer agent.

Mutual funds are traded based on forward pricing. Orders received after the market closes are executed at the NAV calculated at the next market close.

A is correct because it aligns with forward pricing rules.

B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow mutual fund trade practices.

Step by Step Explanation:

Consumer Discretionary Sector: Includes products and services that are not essential, such as luxury items, travel, and entertainment. Revenues increase as disposable income rises during economic expansion.

Consumer Staples and Utilities: These sectors are defensive and less impacted by economic cycles.

Healthcare: Also less correlated with economic cycles due to its essential nature.

Equity securities represent ownership in a company, and preferred stock is a type of equity security that pays dividends and has priority over common stock in liquidation.

A is correct because preferred stock is an equity security.

B is incorrect because commercial paper is a short-term debt security.

C is incorrect because certificates of deposit (CDs) are fixed-income banking products.

D is incorrect because exchange-traded notes (ETNs) are unsecured debt securities.

Step by Step Explanation:

Nonpublic Information: A customer’s net worth is nonpublic personal information that requires confidentiality under Regulation S-P.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and D: Names, addresses, and phone numbers may be public unless linked to specific financial or personal details.

Step by Step Explanation:

Dividend Reinvestment Plans (DRIPs): These allow investors to automatically reinvest income distributed by the mutual fund to purchase additional shares.

Dollar Cost Averaging: Refers to systematic investments over time, not directly tied to income distributions.

Capital Gains Reinvestment: Involves reinvesting profits from the sale of fund holdings, which is distinct from dividend reinvestment.

The annual interest on a bond is calculated based on the coupon rate and the bond’s par value.

Coupon rate = 4.0%.

Annual interest = $10,000 (par value) × 4.0% = $400.

A is correct because the coupon rate determines the annual interest.

B, C, and D are incorrect because they reflect incorrect calculations. The current yield, YTM, and tax-equivalent yield do not affect the bond’s fixed coupon payments.

Currency devaluation reduces the value of a country’s currency relative to others, making its exports cheaper and more competitive internationally. This stimulates demand for the country’s goods and services.

D is correct because devaluation reduces export costs, encouraging foreign buyers.

A is incorrect because devaluation can increase inflation by raising the cost of imported goods.

B is incorrect because GDP often rises due to increased export demand.

C is incorrect because imports become more expensive after devaluation, reducing demand.

Step by Step Explanation:

Regulatory Element Requirement: Newly registered persons must complete the Continuing Education (CE) Regulatory Element on the second anniversary of their initial registration and every three years thereafter.

Incorrect Options:

A: The requirement begins on the second anniversary, not the following calendar year.

D: The cycle is every three years, not five.

Step by Step Explanation:

Low Liquidity: Hedge funds often impose lock-up periods and restrict redemptions, leading to low liquidity for investors.

Incorrect Options:

B: Hedge funds typically have high minimum investment requirements, often $1 million or more.

C: Hedge funds employ diverse strategies, not just fixed income.

D: Hedge funds are generally opaque about their strategies and holdings to protect their competitive advantage.

Money market mutual funds invest in highly liquid, short-term debt instruments, such as Treasury bills, commercial paper, and certificates of deposit. While the funds aim to maintain a stable $1 NAV, this is not guaranteed.

C is correct because the fund’s investments are short term.

A is incorrect because the rate of return is not fixed; it varies with market interest rates.

B is incorrect because while the fund tries to maintain a $1 NAV, it is not guaranteed.

D is incorrect because yields do not always exceed those of savings accounts.

Step by Step Explanation:

Secondary Offering: Involves the sale of shares by an existing shareholder, such as an insider, rather than the company itself issuing new shares.

Incorrect Options:

A: Rights offerings involve giving existing shareholders the opportunity to buy additional shares.

B: Private offerings are not registered with the SEC and involve limited investors.

C: An exempt offering refers to securities exempt from SEC registration, such as Regulation D offerings.

Step by Step Explanation:

Settlement of the Transaction: Refers to the finalization of a trade, where the buyer pays for the securities, and the seller delivers them. For most securities, regular-way settlement occurs T+2 (trade date plus two business days).

Incorrect Options:

Clearing the Trade: Refers to matching trade details to prepare for settlement.

DVP Transactions: A specific type of settlement involving simultaneous payment and delivery, often used for institutional clients.

Corporate Action: Refers to events like stock splits or dividend declarations.

Step by Step Explanation:

SIPC Coverage Limits: Protects up to $500,000 per customer, including a maximum of $250,000 for cash.

In this case, $300,000 in cash exceeds the SIPC limit, so only $250,000 is protected.

Incorrect Options:

A: $150,000 understates the SIPC limit for cash.

C: The full $300,000 in cash is not protected.

D: Total coverage exceeds SIPC limits.

Purchasing power risk, also known as inflation risk, occurs when inflation reduces the real value of a fixed-income stream. Fixed payments (e.g., bond interest or annuity payments) lose buying power as inflation rises.

D is correct because inflation directly affects fixed income by eroding purchasing power.

A is incorrect because market risk relates to fluctuations in market prices, not inflation.

B is incorrect because economic risk generally refers to broader economic downturns.

C is incorrect because interest rate risk involves changes in bond prices due to interest rate movements, not inflation.

Step by Step Explanation:

Front Running Definition: Occurs when a broker executes a personal trade ahead of a customer’s order to profit from the anticipated market movement.

Thinly Traded Security: Front running is particularly impactful in low-liquidity securities.

Other Options:

Selling Away: Involves unapproved securities transactions outside the employing firm.

Insider Trading: Involves trading on material non-public information.

Market Manipulation: Encompasses activities like wash trading or spoofing, not specific to this scenario.

Step by Step Explanation:

MSRB Rule G-37: Requires municipal securities dealers to report contributions to the MSRB, even if the amount is below the $1,000 threshold that would trigger a two-year prohibition on municipal business.

Incorrect Options:

SEC and FINRA: Not involved in reporting political contributions for municipal securities.

A covered call involves selling a call option on a stock the investor already owns. The strategy generates income in the form of the premium collected for selling the call, providing additional returns on the stock position.

D is correct because the primary goal of a covered call is to generate income.

A is incorrect because covered calls do not hedge against large declines in the stock price.

B is incorrect because speculation involves taking higher risks, not a covered call’s conservative strategy.

C is incorrect because no strategy guarantees a profit.