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EMC D-CIS-FN-01 Dell Cloud Infrastructure and Services Foundations v2 Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 122 questions

Dell Cloud Infrastructure and Services Foundations v2 Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

How is application functionality segmented when using a microservices approach in an application development environment?

Options:

A.

Dependent and tightly coupled services

B.

Independent and tightly coupled services

C.

Dependent and loosely coupled services

D.

Independent and loosely coupled services

Question 2

When implementing an initial IT service center using ITILframework. In service strategy state which process needs to be considered for automation?

Options:

A.

Business relationship management

B.

Information security management

C.

Knowledge management

D.

Problem Management

Question 3

What steps appear in the service enablement roadmap?

Options:

A.

Define, Create, Plan, Enable, Terminate

B.

Understand, Plan, Build, Enable, Optimize

C.

Define, Observe, Understand, Enable, Act

D.

Plan, Action, Condition, Enable, End

Question 4

A cloud service provider must improve the utilization of resources by sharing them with multiple customers.

What mechanism should the cloud provider deploy to prevent one consumer from accessing the virtual machines of another consumer?

Options:

A.

Distributed switching

B.

Secure multitenancy

C.

Pooling of resources

D.

Raw disk mapping

Question 5

What is a benefit of link aggregation?

Options:

A.

Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL

B.

Improves performance by combining two or more parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL

C.

Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISL

D.

Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL

Question 6

What is a key function of service operation management?

Options:

A.

Analyze customer feedback.

B.

Perform market research.

C.

Enable problem resolution.

D.

Establish pricing and budgeting

Question 7

Which cloud security control mechanism monitors activity using video surveillance cameras and detects unusual activities using sensors and alarms?

Options:

A.

Administrative control

B.

Technical control

C.

Corrective control

D.

Physical control

Question 8

What is true about change management?

Options:

A.

Defines SLA compliance

B.

Triggers alerts

C.

Monitors compliance

Question 9

An administrator must design a fault-tolerant IT environment for applications.

Which techniques meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Active/Passive for Compute -

NIC Teaming for Network -

Dual disks for storage

B.

Active/Active for Compute -

Link Aggregation for Network -

Erasure Coding for storage

C.

Active/Passive for Compute -

Spanning for Network -

Dynamic Disk Sparing for storage

D.

Active/Standby for Compute -

Multipathing for Network -

RAID for storage

Question 10

Which tool should be recommended to customers for Infrastructure automation?

Options:

A.

GitHub

B.

Docker

C.

Chef

D.

JARVIS

Question 11

An organization requires double the processing capacity for a specific duration to handle increased workload. For the remaining period, the organization might want to release the idle resources to save costs. The workload variations may be seasonal or transient.

Which cloud characteristic enables the consumer to handle such variations in workloads and IT resource requirements?

Options:

A.

Resource pooling

B.

On-demand self-service

C.

Rapid elasticity

Question 12

Which condition triggers a warning level alert?

Options:

A.

Service has failed.

B.

Service has been created.

C.

Service instance is ready to use.

D.

Service is approaching resource usage limit.

Question 13

Why do organizations take advantage of virtual infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Require more data center space -

Resource underprovisioning -

Organizations have overutilized resources

B.

Organizations have underutilized resources

Ability to overprovision resources

Require more data center space

C.

Require no data center space -

Organizations have underutilized resources

Ability to overprovision resources

D.

Resource underprovisioning -

Organizations have overutilized resources

Require no data center space

Question 14

Which plane in a software-defined storage environment manages and provisions storage?

Options:

A.

control

B.

Data

C.

Application

D.

Service

Question 15

How is a container different from a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

Containers are stateful.

B.

Virtual machines are transportable.

C.

Virtual machines start faster.

D.

Containers share an operating system.

Question 16

What is a benefit of synchronous remote replication?

Options:

A.

Saves network bandwidth by replicating only deduplicated data

B.

Replicates data across any geographic location without impacting response time

C.

Ensures that source and replica always have identical data

D.

Supports repeated write I/O to the same location to improve replication performance

Question 17

Which risk management step deploys various security mechanisms that minimize risks impacts?

Options:

A.

Identification

B.

Mitigation

C.

Assessment

D.

Monitoring

Question 18

What is the effect of a denial-of-service attack?

Options:

A.

Privileges are misused to compromise data security.

B.

User credentials are captured and sent to the attacker

C.

Unauthorized access is gained to user accounts and data.

D.

Legitimate users are prevented from accessing services.

Question 19

What condition can result in the development of a "shadow IT" organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of cloud extensibility inside an organization

B.

Increasing number of end user devices and different access points

C.

Bypassing of internal IT and looking elsewhere for IT services

D.

Aging facilities, and outdated policies and technology

Question 20

What term refers to businesses that cautiously and gradually embrace digital transformation?

Options:

A.

Digital Evaluators

B.

Digital Laggards

C.

Digital Leaders

D.

Digital Adopters

Question 21

What activity is included in a compliance checklist when moving data to the cloud?

Options:

A.

Determine if appropriate governance processes are available to meet consumers' requirements

B.

Ensure that IT infrastructure and data adhere to specific rules and regulations

C.

Review the financial stability of the provider to ensure its longevity

D.

Review and evaluate the usage of encryption to protect consumers' data

Question 22

What is a key responsibility of a security governance board?

Options:

A.

Defining the cloud service catalog

B.

Assessing assets with realistic valuations

C.

Assessing the cloud provider’s capability to provide logs

D.

Defining access rights for users

Question 23

Which network feature enables dynamic distribution of applications I/O traffic across VMs?

Options:

A.

NIC Teaming

B.

Erasure Coding

C.

Link Aggregation

D.

Load Balancing

Question 24

An organization wants to deliver applications quickly and effectively. They believe that it is the only way to stay competitive in this ever-changing digital world. The organization wants to adopt practices that promote collaboration across teams during various phases of the software development lifecycle.

Which practice will meet the organization’s requirements?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration

B.

Waterfall model

C.

DevOps

D.

Continuous Delivery

Question 25

What is a characteristic of a best-of-breed infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Provides limited flexibility to choose components

B.

Prevents vendor lock-in

C.

Provides single management software to control multi-vendor components

D.

Requires less time to integrate all the components to build as an appliance

Question 26

Which component presents service catalog and cloud interfaces, enabling consumers to order and manager cloud services?

Options:

A.

Cloud Operating System

B.

Orchestor

C.

Cloud Portal

D.

Service automation

Question 27

Which two are key requirements for fault tolerance?

Options:

A.

Document SPOF and Fault Elimination

B.

Fault Isolation and Eliminate SPOF

C.

Network Isolation and Eliminate SPOF

D.

RAID Storage and Fault Isolation

Question 28

What does a service attribute specify?

Options:

A.

Relationships between services

B.

Configurations of service components

C.

Structure of a service

Question 29

What is a characteristic of an object-based storage system?

Options:

A.

Extends a single file system across all storage nodes

B.

Consolidates block and file access in one storage platform

C.

Capable of dynamically creating multiple object IDs for each object

D.

Uses a flat, non-hierarchical address space

Question 30

Which phase of the cloud service lifecycle involves ongoing management activities to maintain cloud infrastructure and deployed services?

Options:

A.

Service Creation

B.

Service Operation

C.

Service Termination

D.

Service Planning

Question 31

What is a characteristic of reporting?

Options:

A.

Provides tabular or graphical views of monitored information

B.

Provides information about events or impending threats or issues

C.

Displays a personalized functional interface

D.

Presents service instances to consumers in real time

Question 32

What is the correct sequence of steps in the service catalog design and implementation process?

Question # 32

Options:

Question 33

What is used to update information in a configuration management database?

Options:

A.

Discovery tool

B.

Capacity management tool

C.

Configuration manager

D.

Performance management tool

Question 34

What is a possible cause for incurring high capital expenditures for IT, even though resources may remain underutilized for a majority of the time in a traditional data center?

Options:

A.

IT resources are configured for peak usage

B.

IT resources are provisioned on demand

C.

IT resources are rented as services

D.

IT resources are provisioned as self-service

Question 35

What is an advantage of asynchronous remote replication?

Options:

A.

Ensures source LUN and replica have identical data at all times

B.

Supports replication across any geographic location without impacting response time

C.

Provides a near zero recovery point objective without impacting response time

D.

Requires less storage space for the replica than the source LUN

Question 36

What term refers to the entry points from which an attack can be launched?

Options:

A.

Attack surface

B.

Attack factor

C.

Attack vector

Page: 1 / 12
Total 122 questions