Summer Sale- Special Discount Limited Time 65% Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: netdisc

ECCouncil 712-50 EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 49
Total 494 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Question 1

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

After determining the audit findings are accurate, which of the following is the MOST logical next activity?

Options:

A.

Begin initial gap remediation analyses

B.

Review the security organization’s charter

C.

Validate gaps with the Information Technology team

D.

Create a briefing of the findings for executive management

Question 2

Scenario: The new CISO was informed of all the Information Security projects that the section has in progress. Two projects are over a year behind schedule and way over budget.

Which of the following will be most helpful for getting an Information Security project that is behind schedule back on schedule?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

More training of staff members

D.

Involve internal audit

Question 3

A CISO has implemented a risk management capability within the security portfolio. Which of the following

terms best describes this functionality?

Options:

A.

Service

B.

Program

C.

Portfolio

D.

Cost center

Question 4

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

Which of the following frameworks and standards will BEST fit the organization as a baseline for their security program?

Options:

A.

NIST and Privacy Regulations

B.

ISO 27000 and Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards

C.

NIST and data breach notification laws

D.

ISO 27000 and Human resources best practices

Question 5

If the result of an NPV is positive, then the project should be selected. The net present value shows the present

value of the project, based on the decisions taken for its selection. What is the net present value equal to?

Options:

A.

Net profit – per capita income

B.

Total investment – Discounted cash

C.

Average profit – Annual investment

D.

Initial investment – Future value

Question 6

The process for management approval of the security certification process which states the risks and mitigation of such risks of a given IT system is called

Options:

A.

Security certification

B.

Security system analysis

C.

Security accreditation

D.

Alignment with business practices and goals.

Question 7

As the Chief Information Security Officer, you are performing an assessment of security posture to understand

what your Defense-in-Depth capabilities are. Which network security technology examines network traffic flows

to detect and actively stop vulnerability exploits and attacks?

Options:

A.

Gigamon

B.

Intrusion Prevention System

C.

Port Security

D.

Anti-virus

Question 8

Scenario: Your program is developed around minimizing risk to information by focusing on people, technology, and operations.

You have decided to deal with risk to information from people first. How can you minimize risk to your most sensitive information before granting access?

Options:

A.

Conduct background checks on individuals before hiring them

B.

Develop an Information Security Awareness program

C.

Monitor employee browsing and surfing habits

D.

Set your firewall permissions aggressively and monitor logs regularly.

Question 9

Simon had all his systems administrators implement hardware and software firewalls to ensure network

security. They implemented IDS/IPS systems throughout the network to check for and stop any unauthorized

traffic that may attempt to enter. Although Simon and his administrators believed they were secure, a hacker

group was able to get into the network and modify files hosted on the company's website. After searching

through the firewall and server logs, no one could find how the attackers were able to get in. He decides that

the entire network needs to be monitored for critical and essential file changes. This monitoring tool alerts

administrators when a critical file is altered. What tool could Simon and his administrators implement to

accomplish this?

Options:

A.

They need to use Nessus.

B.

They can implement Wireshark.

C.

Snort is the best tool for their situation.

D.

They could use Tripwire.

Question 10

As the Chief Information Security Officer, you want to ensure data shared securely, especially when shared with

third parties outside the organization. What protocol provides the ability to extend the network perimeter with

the use of encapsulation and encryption?

Options:

A.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Question 11

A system is designed to dynamically block offending Internet IP-addresses from requesting services from a secure website. This type of control is considered

Options:

A.

Zero-day attack mitigation

B.

Preventive detection control

C.

Corrective security control

D.

Dynamic blocking control

Question 12

A newly-hired CISO needs to understand the organization’s financial management standards for business units

and operations. Which of the following would be the best source of this information?

Options:

A.

The internal accounting department

B.

The Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

C.

The external financial audit service

D.

The managers of the accounts payables and accounts receivables teams

Question 13

An organization has a number of Local Area Networks (LANs) linked to form a single Wide Area Network

(WAN). Which of the following would BEST ensure network continuity?

Options:

A.

Third-party emergency repair contract

B.

Pre-built servers and routers

C.

Permanent alternative routing

D.

Full off-site backup of every server

Question 14

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

During initial investigation, the team suspects criminal activity but cannot initially prove or disprove illegal actions. What is the MOST critical aspect of the team’s activities?

Options:

A.

Regular communication of incident status to executives

B.

Eradication of malware and system restoration

C.

Determination of the attack source

D.

Preservation of information

Question 15

Which of the following defines the boundaries and scope of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment schedule

B.

The risk assessment framework

C.

The risk assessment charter

D.

The assessment context

Question 16

As the Business Continuity Coordinator of a financial services organization, you are responsible for ensuring assets are recovered timely in the event of a disaster. Which is the BEST Disaster Recovery performance indicator to validate that you are prepared for a disaster?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Disaster Recovery Plan

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Business Continuity Plan

Question 17

The new CISO was informed of all the Information Security projects that the organization has in progress. Two projects are over a year behind schedule and over budget. Using best business practices for project management you determine that the project correctly aligns with the company goals.

Which of the following needs to be performed NEXT?

Options:

A.

Verify the scope of the project

B.

Verify the regulatory requirements

C.

Verify technical resources

D.

Verify capacity constraints

Question 18

The Annualized Loss Expectancy (Before) minus Annualized Loss Expectancy (After) minus Annual Safeguard Cost is the formula for determining:

Options:

A.

Safeguard Value

B.

Cost Benefit Analysis

C.

Single Loss Expectancy

D.

Life Cycle Loss Expectancy

Question 19

The total cost of security controls should:

Options:

A.

Be equal to the value of the information resource being protected

B.

Be greater than the value of the information resource being protected

C.

Be less than the value of the information resource being protected

D.

Should not matter, as long as the information resource is protected

Question 20

Access Control lists (ACLs), Firewalls, and Intrusion Prevention Systems are examples of

Options:

A.

Network based security preventative controls

B.

Software segmentation controls

C.

Network based security detective controls

D.

User segmentation controls

Question 21

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

You have identified potential solutions for all of your risks that do not have security controls. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Get approval from the board of directors

B.

Screen potential vendor solutions

C.

Verify that the cost of mitigation is less than the risk

D.

Create a risk metrics for all unmitigated risks

Question 22

Annual Loss Expectancy is derived from the function of which two factors?

Options:

A.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Asset Value

B.

Single Loss Expectancy and Exposure Factor

C.

Safeguard Value and Annual Rate of Occurrence

D.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Single Loss Expectancy

Question 23

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

What type of control is being implemented by supervisors and data owners?

Options:

A.

Management

B.

Operational

C.

Technical

D.

Administrative

Question 24

What are the three hierarchically related aspects of strategic planning and in which order should they be done?

Options:

A.

1) Information technology strategic planning, 2) Enterprise strategic planning, 3) Cybersecurity or

information security strategic planning

B.

1) Cybersecurity or information security strategic planning, 2) Enterprise strategic planning, 3) Information

technology strategic planning

C.

1) Enterprise strategic planning, 2) Information technology strategic planning, 3) Cybersecurity or

information security strategic planning

D.

1) Enterprise strategic planning, 2) Cybersecurity or information security strategic planning, 3) Information

technology strategic planning

Question 25

The primary purpose of a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

Maintain a log of discovered risks

B.

Track individual risk assessments

C.

Develop plans for mitigating identified risks

D.

Coordinate the timing of scheduled risk assessments

Question 26

The formal certification and accreditation process has four primary steps, what are they?

Options:

A.

Evaluating, describing, testing and authorizing

B.

Evaluating, purchasing, testing, authorizing

C.

Auditing, documenting, verifying, certifying

D.

Discovery, testing, authorizing, certifying

Question 27

Which of the following is a common technology for visual monitoring?

Options:

A.

Closed circuit television

B.

Open circuit television

C.

Blocked video

D.

Local video

Question 28

What is the primary reason for performing vendor management?

Options:

A.

To understand the risk coverage that are being mitigated by the vendor

B.

To establish a vendor selection process

C.

To document the relationship between the company and the vendor

D.

To define the partnership for long-term success

Question 29

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

Which of the following is the FIRST action the CISO will perform after receiving the audit report?

Options:

A.

Inform peer executives of the audit results

B.

Validate gaps and accept or dispute the audit findings

C.

Create remediation plans to address program gaps

D.

Determine if security policies and procedures are adequate

Question 30

What is one key difference between Capital expenditures and Operating expenditures?

Options:

A.

Operating expense cannot be written off while Capital expense can

B.

Operating expenses can be depreciated over time and Capital expenses cannot

C.

Capital expenses cannot include salaries and Operating expenses can

D.

Capital expenditures allow for the cost to be depreciated over time and Operating does not

Question 31

When should IT security project management be outsourced?

Options:

A.

When organizational resources are limited

B.

When the benefits of outsourcing outweigh the inherent risks of outsourcing

C.

On new, enterprise-wide security initiatives

D.

On projects not forecasted in the yearly budget

Question 32

Which of the following is the MOST important component of any change management process?

Options:

A.

Scheduling

B.

Back-out procedures

C.

Outage planning

D.

Management approval

Question 33

Information Security is often considered an excessive, after-the-fact cost when a project or initiative is completed. What can be done to ensure that security is addressed cost effectively?

Options:

A.

User awareness training for all employees

B.

Installation of new firewalls and intrusion detection systems

C.

Launch an internal awareness campaign

D.

Integrate security requirements into project inception

Question 34

The security team has investigated the theft/loss of several unencrypted laptop computers containing sensitive corporate information. To prevent the loss of any additional corporate data it is unilaterally decided by the CISO that all existing and future laptop computers will be encrypted. Soon, the help desk is flooded with complaints about the slow performance of the laptops and users are upset. What did the CISO do wrong? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

Failed to identify all stakeholders and their needs

B.

Deployed the encryption solution in an inadequate manner

C.

Used 1024 bit encryption when 256 bit would have sufficed

D.

Used hardware encryption instead of software encryption

Question 35

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful project?

Options:

A.

it is completed on time or early as compared to the baseline project plan

B.

it meets most of the specifications as outlined in the approved project definition

C.

it comes in at or below the expenditures planned for in the baseline budget

D.

the deliverables are accepted by the key stakeholders

Question 36

Which of the following is considered one of the most frequent failures in project management?

Options:

A.

Overly restrictive management

B.

Excessive personnel on project

C.

Failure to meet project deadlines

D.

Insufficient resources

Question 37

Knowing the potential financial loss an organization is willing to suffer if a system fails is a determination of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Cost benefit

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Business continuity

D.

Likelihood of impact

Question 38

Which of the following represents the BEST method of ensuring security program alignment to business needs?

Options:

A.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

B.

Create security consortiums, such as strategic security planning groups, that include business unit participation

C.

Ensure security implementations include business unit testing and functional validation prior to production rollout

D.

Ensure the organization has strong executive-level security representation through clear sponsorship or the creation of a CISO role

Question 39

Which of the following represents the BEST method for obtaining business unit acceptance of security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Allow the business units to decide which controls apply to their systems, such as the encryption of sensitive data

B.

Create separate controls for the business units based on the types of business and functions they perform

C.

Ensure business units are involved in the creation of controls and defining conditions under which they must be applied

D.

Provide the business units with control mandates and schedules of audits for compliance validation

Question 40

When managing the critical path of an IT security project, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Knowing who all the stakeholders are.

B.

Knowing the people on the data center team.

C.

Knowing the threats to the organization.

D.

Knowing the milestones and timelines of deliverables.

Question 41

Which of the following are not stakeholders of IT security projects?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Third party vendors

C.

CISO

D.

Help Desk

Question 42

The ultimate goal of an IT security projects is:

Options:

A.

Increase stock value

B.

Complete security

C.

Support business requirements

D.

Implement information security policies

Question 43

Which of the following is critical in creating a security program aligned with an organization’s goals?

Options:

A.

Ensure security budgets enable technical acquisition and resource allocation based on internal compliance requirements

B.

Develop a culture in which users, managers and IT professionals all make good decisions about information risk

C.

Provide clear communication of security program support requirements and audit schedules

D.

Create security awareness programs that include clear definition of security program goals and charters

Question 44

A severe security threat has been detected on your corporate network. As CISO you quickly assemble key members of the Information Technology team and business operations to determine a modification to security controls in response to the threat. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Business continuity planning

C.

Security Incident Response

D.

Thought leadership

Question 45

How often should the Statements of Standards for Attestation Engagements-16 (SSAE16)/International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402 (ISAE3402) report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Bi-annually

D.

Annually

Question 46

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Alignment with the business

B.

Effective use of existing technologies

C.

Leveraging existing implementations

D.

Proper budget management

Question 47

This occurs when the quantity or quality of project deliverables is expanded from the original project plan.

Options:

A.

Scope creep

B.

Deadline extension

C.

Scope modification

D.

Deliverable expansion

Question 48

Which one of the following BEST describes which member of the management team is accountable for the day-to-day operation of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Security administrators

B.

Security mangers

C.

Security technicians

D.

Security analysts

Question 49

Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

Options:

A.

Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B.

Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C.

Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D.

Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

Question 50

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Alignment with the business

B.

Effective use of existing technologies

C.

Leveraging existing implementations

D.

Proper budget management

Question 51

As the CISO for your company you are accountable for the protection of information resources commensurate with:

Options:

A.

Customer demand

B.

Cost and time to replace

C.

Insurability tables

D.

Risk of exposure

Question 52

Which of the following is considered a project versus a managed process?

Options:

A.

monitoring external and internal environment during incident response

B.

ongoing risk assessments of routine operations

C.

continuous vulnerability assessment and vulnerability repair

D.

installation of a new firewall system

Question 53

A CISO has recently joined an organization with a poorly implemented security program. The desire is to base the security program on a risk management approach. Which of the following is a foundational requirement in order to initiate this type of program?

Options:

A.

A security organization that is adequately staffed to apply required mitigation strategies and regulatory compliance solutions

B.

A clear set of security policies and procedures that are more concept-based than controls-based

C.

A complete inventory of Information Technology assets including infrastructure, networks, applications and data

D.

A clearly identified executive sponsor who will champion the effort to ensure organizational buy-in

Question 54

How often should the SSAE16 report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Annually

D.

Bi-annually

Question 55

You are the CISO of a commercial social media organization. The leadership wants to rapidly create new methods of sharing customer data through creative linkages with mobile devices. You have voiced concern about privacy regulations but the velocity of the business is given priority. Which of the following BEST describes this organization?

Options:

A.

Risk averse

B.

Risk tolerant

C.

Risk conditional

D.

Risk minimal

Question 56

When gathering security requirements for an automated business process improvement program, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Type of data contained in the process/system

B.

Type of connection/protocol used to transfer the data

C.

Type of encryption required for the data once it is at rest

D.

Type of computer the data is processed on

Question 57

A CISO sees abnormally high volumes of exceptions to security requirements and constant pressure from business units to change security processes. Which of the following represents the MOST LIKELY cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Poor audit support for the security program

B.

A lack of executive presence within the security program

C.

Poor alignment of the security program to business needs

D.

This is normal since business units typically resist security requirements

Question 58

A department within your company has proposed a third party vendor solution to address an urgent, critical business need. As the CISO you have been asked to accelerate screening of their security control claims. Which of the following vendor provided documents is BEST to make your decision:

Options:

A.

Vendor’s client list of reputable organizations currently using their solution

B.

Vendor provided attestation of the detailed security controls from a reputable accounting firm

C.

Vendor provided reference from an existing reputable client detailing their implementation

D.

Vendor provided internal risk assessment and security control documentation

Question 59

Which of the following information may be found in table top exercises for incident response?

Options:

A.

Security budget augmentation

B.

Process improvements

C.

Real-time to remediate

D.

Security control selection

Question 60

You currently cannot provide for 24/7 coverage of your security monitoring and incident response duties and your company is resistant to the idea of adding more full-time employees to the payroll. Which combination of solutions would help to provide the coverage needed without the addition of more dedicated staff? (choose the best answer):

Options:

A.

Deploy a SEIM solution and have current staff review incidents first thing in the morning

B.

Contract with a managed security provider and have current staff on recall for incident response

C.

Configure your syslog to send SMS messages to current staff when target events are triggered

D.

Employ an assumption of breach protocol and defend only essential information resources

Question 61

A new CISO just started with a company and on the CISO's desk is the last complete Information Security Management audit report. The audit report is over two years old. After reading it, what should be the CISO's FIRST priority?

Options:

A.

Have internal audit conduct another audit to see what has changed.

B.

Contract with an external audit company to conduct an unbiased audit

C.

Review the recommendations and follow up to see if audit implemented the changes

D.

Meet with audit team to determine a timeline for corrections

Question 62

The BEST organization to provide a comprehensive, independent and certifiable perspective on established security controls in an environment is

Options:

A.

Penetration testers

B.

External Audit

C.

Internal Audit

D.

Forensic experts

Question 63

After a risk assessment is performed, a particular risk is considered to have the potential of costing the organization 1.2 Million USD. This is an example of

Options:

A.

Risk Tolerance

B.

Qualitative risk analysis

C.

Risk Appetite

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

Question 64

A business unit within your organization intends to deploy a new technology in a manner that places it in violation of existing information security standards. What immediate action should the information security manager take?

Options:

A.

Enforce the existing security standards and do not allow the deployment of the new technology.

B.

Amend the standard to permit the deployment.

C.

If the risks associated with that technology are not already identified, perform a risk analysis to quantify the risk, and allow the business unit to proceed based on the identified risk level.

D.

Permit a 90-day window to see if an issue occurs and then amend the standard if there are no issues.

Question 65

What two methods are used to assess risk impact?

Options:

A.

Cost and annual rate of expectance

B.

Subjective and Objective

C.

Qualitative and percent of loss realized

D.

Quantitative and qualitative

Question 66

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001?

Options:

A.

Use within an organization to formulate security requirements and objectives

B.

Implementation of business-enabling information security

C.

Use within an organization to ensure compliance with laws and regulations

D.

To enable organizations that adopt it to obtain certifications

Question 67

A security manager regualrly checks work areas after buisness hours for security violations; such as unsecured files or unattended computers with active sessions. This activity BEST demonstrates what part of a security program?

Options:

A.

Audit validation

B.

Physical control testing

C.

Compliance management

D.

Security awareness training

Question 68

When dealing with a risk management process, asset classification is important because it will impact the overall:

Options:

A.

Threat identification

B.

Risk monitoring

C.

Risk treatment

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 69

When briefing senior management on the creation of a governance process, the MOST important aspect should be:

Options:

A.

information security metrics.

B.

knowledge required to analyze each issue.

C.

baseline against which metrics are evaluated.

D.

linkage to business area objectives.

Question 70

When a critical vulnerability has been discovered on production systems and needs to be fixed immediately, what is the BEST approach for a CISO to mitigate the vulnerability under tight budget constraints?

Options:

A.

Transfer financial resources from other critical programs

B.

Take the system off line until the budget is available

C.

Deploy countermeasures and compensating controls until the budget is available

D.

Schedule an emergency meeting and request the funding to fix the issue

Question 71

The CIO of an organization has decided to assign the responsibility of internal IT audit to the IT team. This is consider a bad practice MAINLY because

Options:

A.

The IT team is not familiar in IT audit practices

B.

This represents a bad implementation of the Least Privilege principle

C.

This represents a conflict of interest

D.

The IT team is not certified to perform audits

Question 72

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT) is which of the following?

Options:

A.

An Information Security audit standard

B.

An audit guideline for certifying secure systems and controls

C.

A framework for Information Technology management and governance

D.

A set of international regulations for Information Technology governance

Question 73

You have a system with 2 identified risks. You determine the probability of one risk occurring is higher than the

Options:

A.

Controlled mitigation effort

B.

Risk impact comparison

C.

Relative likelihood of event

D.

Comparative threat analysis

Question 74

Which of the following activities is the MAIN purpose of the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Creating an inventory of information assets

B.

Classifying and organizing information assets into meaningful groups

C.

Assigning value to each information asset

D.

Calculating the risks to which assets are exposed in their current setting

Question 75

Information security policies should be reviewed:

Options:

A.

by stakeholders at least annually

B.

by the CISO when new systems are brought online

C.

by the Incident Response team after an audit

D.

by internal audit semiannually

Question 76

You have implemented a new security control. Which of the following risk strategy options have you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Risk Avoidance

B.

Risk Acceptance

C.

Risk Transfer

D.

Risk Mitigation

Question 77

To have accurate and effective information security policies how often should the CISO review the organization policies?

Options:

A.

Every 6 months

B.

Quarterly

C.

Before an audit

D.

At least once a year

Question 78

A security officer wants to implement a vulnerability scanning program. The officer is uncertain of the state of vulnerability resiliency within the organization’s large IT infrastructure. What would be the BEST approach to minimize scan data output while retaining a realistic view of system vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Scan a representative sample of systems

B.

Perform the scans only during off-business hours

C.

Decrease the vulnerabilities within the scan tool settings

D.

Filter the scan output so only pertinent data is analyzed

Question 79

Which of the following is MOST important when dealing with an Information Security Steering committee:

Options:

A.

Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels.

B.

Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved.

C.

Review all past audit and compliance reports.

D.

Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor.

Question 80

When choosing a risk mitigation method what is the MOST important factor?

Options:

A.

Approval from the board of directors

B.

Cost of the mitigation is less than the risk

C.

Metrics of mitigation method success

D.

Mitigation method complies with PCI regulations

Question 81

When creating a vulnerability scan schedule, who is the MOST critical person to communicate with in order to ensure impact of the scan is minimized?

Options:

A.

The asset owner

B.

The asset manager

C.

The data custodian

D.

The project manager

Question 82

The Information Security Management program MUST protect:

Options:

A.

all organizational assets

B.

critical business processes and /or revenue streams

C.

intellectual property released into the public domain

D.

against distributed denial of service attacks

Question 83

The PRIMARY objective for information security program development should be:

Options:

A.

Reducing the impact of the risk to the business.

B.

Establishing strategic alignment with bunsiness continuity requirements

C.

Establishing incident response programs.

D.

Identifying and implementing the best security solutions.

Question 84

A global health insurance company is concerned about protecting confidential information. Which of the following is of MOST concern to this organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) regulations.

B.

Alignment with financial reporting regulations for each country where they operate.

C.

Alignment with International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards.

D.

Compliance with patient data protection regulations for each country where they operate.

Question 85

When a CISO considers delaying or not remediating system vulnerabilities which of the following are MOST important to take into account?

Options:

A.

Threat Level, Risk of Compromise, and Consequences of Compromise

B.

Risk Avoidance, Threat Level, and Consequences of Compromise

C.

Risk Transfer, Reputational Impact, and Consequences of Compromise

D.

Reputational Impact, Financial Impact, and Risk of Compromise

Question 86

When managing an Information Security Program, which of the following is of MOST importance in order to influence the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

An independent Governance, Risk and Compliance organization

B.

Alignment of security goals with business goals

C.

Compliance with local privacy regulations

D.

Support from Legal and HR teams

Question 87

Which of the following international standards can be BEST used to define a Risk Management process in an organization?

Options:

A.

National Institute for Standards and Technology 800-50 (NIST 800-50)

B.

International Organization for Standardizations – 27005 (ISO-27005)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)

D.

International Organization for Standardizations – 27004 (ISO-27004)

Question 88

The effectiveness of social engineering penetration testing using phishing can be used as a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) for the effectiveness of an organization’s

Options:

A.

Risk Management Program.

B.

Anti-Spam controls.

C.

Security Awareness Program.

D.

Identity and Access Management Program.

Question 89

The success of the Chief Information Security Officer is MOST dependent upon:

Options:

A.

favorable audit findings

B.

following the recommendations of consultants and contractors

C.

development of relationships with organization executives

D.

raising awareness of security issues with end users

Question 90

Many times a CISO may have to speak to the Board of Directors (BOD) about their cyber security posture. What would be the BEST choice of security metrics to present to the BOD?

Options:

A.

All vulnerabilities found on servers and desktops

B.

Only critical and high vulnerabilities on servers and desktops

C.

Only critical and high vulnerabilities that impact important production servers

D.

All vulnerabilities that impact important production servers

Question 91

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 92

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

Question 93

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 94

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 95

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question 96

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question 97

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

Question 98

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

Question 99

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question 100

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

Question 101

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

Question 102

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question 103

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question 104

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

Question 105

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 106

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

Question 107

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 108

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question 109

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

Question 110

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question 111

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

Question 112

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 113

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question 114

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

Question 115

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question 116

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 117

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Question 118

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 119

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question 120

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

Options:

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

Question 121

What is the purpose of the statement of retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

It represents the sum of all capital expenditures

B.

It represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

C.

It represents the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

D.

It has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

Question 122

Effective information security management programs require the active involvement of_________

Options:

A.

ClOS

B.

All employees

C.

Security Managers

D.

Executives

Question 123

During a cyber incident, which non-security personnel might be needed to assist the security team?

Options:

A.

Threat analyst, IT auditor, forensic analyst

B.

Network engineer, help desk technician, system administrator

C.

CIO, CFO, CSO

D.

Financial analyst, payroll clerk, HR manager

Question 124

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires an agreement between Cloud Service Providers (CCSP) and the covered entity. Based on HIPAA. which document must be completed between the covered entity and the CCSP?

Options:

A.

Business Associate Agreement (BAA]

B.

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)

Question 125

Which of the following BEST mitigates ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Phishing exercises

B.

Use immutable data storage

C.

Blocking use of wireless networks

D.

Application of multiple endpoint anti-malware solutions

Question 126

What is an approach to estimating the strengths and weaknesses of alternatives used to determine options, which provide the BEST approach to achieving benefits while preserving savings called?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Economic Impact analysis

C.

Return on Investment

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

Question 127

What does RACI stand for?

Options:

A.

Reasonable, Actionable, Controlled, and Implemented

B.

Responsible, Actors, Consult, and Instigate

C.

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed

D.

Review, Act, Communicate, and Inform

Question 128

An auditor is reviewing the security classifications for a group of assets and finds that many of the assets are not correctly classified.

What should the auditor’s NEXT step be?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify the board of directors of the organization as to the finding

B.

Correct the classifications immediately based on the auditor’s knowledge of the proper classification

C.

Document the missing classifications

D.

Identify the owner of the asset and induce the owner to apply a proper classification

Question 129

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Social engineering

D.

All of these

Question 130

When evaluating a Managed Security Services Provider (MSSP), which service(s) is/are most important:

Options:

A.

Patch management

B.

Network monitoring

C.

Ability to provide security services tailored to the business’ needs

D.

24/7 tollfree number

Question 131

If a CISO wants to understand the liabilities of the company, she will refer to the:

Options:

A.

Statement of Proxy

B.

Statement of Retained Earnings

C.

once Sheet

D.

Profit and Loss Statement

Question 132

Which of the following is NOT an approach for ethical decision making?

Options:

A.

Common good

B.

Utilitarian

C.

Risk based

D.

Fairness

Question 133

Optical biometric recognition such as retina scanning provides access to facilities through reading the unique characteristics of a person’s eye.

However, authorization failures can occur with individuals who have?

Options:

A.

Glaucoma or cataracts

B.

Two different colored eyes (heterochromia iridium)

C.

Contact lens

D.

Malaria

Question 134

Who is PRIMARILY responsible for declaring a disaster and initiating processes to facilitate the recovery of critical assets in an organization?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Manager

B.

Board of Directors

C.

Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

D.

CISO

Question 135

A Security Operations (SecOps) Manager is considering implementing threat hunting to be able to make better decisions on protecting information and assets.

What is the MAIN goal of threat hunting to the SecOps Manager?

Options:

A.

Improve discovery of valid detected events

B.

Enhance tuning of automated tools to detect and prevent attacks

C.

Replace existing threat detection strategies

D.

Validate patterns of behavior related to an attack

Question 136

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to secure the physical hardware hosts in a virtualized environment?

Options:

A.

Apply existing information security controls

B.

Apply virtualized controls to the physical host

C.

Secure the virtualized platform

D.

Secure the virtualized workload

Question 137

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

All of these

D.

Social engineering

Question 138

In which of the following cases would an organization be more prone to risk acceptance vs. risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance is high

B.

The organization uses exclusively a qualitative process to measure risk

C.

The organization uses exclusively a quantitative process to measure risk

D.

The organization's risk tolerance is low

Question 139

What is the MAIN responsibility of the purple security testing team?

Options:

A.

They emulate hackers to compromise systems

B.

The integrate the defensive Indies and controls from the Blue Team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the Red Team

C.

They defend against simulated hacker attacks

D.

They oversee security testing and results

Question 140

To reduce the threat of spear phishing, which of the following is the MOST critical security control to implement?

Options:

A.

Security awareness and training

B.

Firewall

C.

Data loss prevention

D.

Antivirus

Question 141

What Enterprise Architecture Framework is business-centric and is composed of eight phases?

Options:

A.

Federal Enterprise Architecture

B.

The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)

C.

Zochman

D.

Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture

Question 142

Which of the following strategies provides the BEST response to a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Real-time off-site replication

B.

Daily incremental backup

C.

Daily full backup

D.

Daily differential backup

Question 143

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

Question 144

As the CISO, you are the project sponsor for a highly visible log management project. The objective of the project is to centralize all the enterprise logs into a security information and event management (SIEM) system. You requested the results of the performance quality audits activity.

The performance quality audit activity is done in what project management process group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

Question 145

Which of the following is considered the MOST effective tool against social engineering?

Options:

A.

Anti-phishing tools

B.

Effective Security awareness program

C.

Anti-malware tools

D.

Effective Security Vulnerability Management Program

Question 146

What standard would you use to help determine key performance indicators?

Options:

A.

ITIL

B.

FIPS140-2

C.

NI5TSP800-53

D.

NISTSP800-5S

Question 147

To make sure that the actions of all employees, applications, and systems follow the organization’s rules and regulations can BEST be described as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Compliance management

B.

Asset management

C.

Risk management

D.

Security management

Question 148

What key technology can mitigate ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Use immutable data storage

B.

Phishing exercises

C.

Application of multiple end point anti-malware solutions

D.

Blocking use of wireless networks

Page: 1 / 49
Total 494 questions