Summer Sale- Special Discount Limited Time 65% Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: netdisc

DAMA DMF-1220 Data Management Fundamentals Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 73
Total 725 questions

Data Management Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

Temporal aspects usually include:

Options:

A.

Valid time

B.

Transmitting time

C.

Transaction time

D.

Value time

Question 2

A goal of a Reference and Master Data Management program include enabling master and reference data to be shared across enterprise functions and applications.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 3

Critical Data is most often used in

Options:

A.

Regulatory, financial, or management reporting

B.

Business operational needs

C.

Measuring product quality and customer satisfaction

D.

Business strategy, especially efforts at competitive differentiation.

E.

All of these

Question 4

Examples of technical metadata include:

Options:

A.

Access permission

B.

Recovery and backup rules

C.

Colum properties

D.

Data subject properties

Question 5

Select the areas to consider when constructing an organization’s operating model:

Options:

A.

Cultural Factors

B.

Business model

C.

Impact of the regulation

D.

None of the above

E.

Value of the data to the organisation

F.

All of the above

Question 6

Which Data Architecture artefact contains the names of key business entities, their

relationships, critical guiding business rules and critical attributes?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Data Standards

B.

Enterprise Business Glossary

C.

Enterprise Semantic Model

D.

Enterprise Data Model

E.

Enterprise Data Flows

Question 7

Which of the following activities is most likely to maintain bias in data analysis?

Options:

A.

Re-baselining the data set after each period of analysis to remove assumptions

B.

Working with external stakeholders to assess data quality

C.

Using more data sets with same data

D.

Remove sources of likely bias from data sets before analysis

E.

Using more data sets with diverse data sources

Question 8

There are numerous methods of implementing databases on the cloud. The most common are:

Options:

A.

Virtual machine image

B.

Distributed machine image

C.

DAAS

D.

Managed database hosting on the cloud

Question 9

What type of key is used in physical and sometimes logical relational data modelling schemes to represent a relationship?

Options:

A.

Primary key

B.

Foreign key

C.

Network key

D.

Applications key

E.

Door key

F.

All of the above

Question 10

Data Integration and Interoperability (DII) describes processes related to the movement and consolidation of data within and between data stores, applications and organizations.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 11

Product Master data can only focus on an organization’s internal product and services.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 12

Type of Reference Data Changes include:

Options:

A.

Row level changes to internal Reference Data sets

B.

Row level changes to external Reference Data sets

C.

Creation of new Reference Data sets

D.

Business model changes on column level

E.

Structural changes to external Reference Data sets

F.

None of the above

Question 13

In a SQL injection attack, a perpetrator inserts authorized database statements into a vulnerable SQL data channel, such as a stored procedure.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 14

The neutral zone is one of the phases in the Bridges’ transition phases.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 15

Compound authorization groups provide a means to:

Options:

A.

Effectively prepare for data security audits

B.

Distract the data security officer

C.

Encrypt sensitive transmissions of data

D.

Precisely configure an individual's access to a system

E.

Obfuscate a user's actual access to a system

Question 16

Small reference data value sets in the logical data model can be implemented in a physical model in three common ways:

Options:

A.

Create a matching separate code table

B.

Create a master shared code table

C.

None of the above

D.

Program integration by joining tables

E.

Embed rules or valid codes into the appropriate object’s definition.

F.

Roadmap Development

Question 17

Please select the correct name for the LDM abbreviation

Options:

A.

Logical Data Model

B.

Logical Dimensional Model

C.

Lifecycle Data Model

D.

Lifecycle Dimensional Model

Question 18

Consistent input data reduces the chance of errors in associating records. Preparation processes include:

Options:

A.

Standardization

B.

EnrichmentC Validation

C.

Database management

Question 19

The list of V’s include:

Options:

A.

Volatility

B.

Volume

C.

Veracity

D.

Viscosity

E.

Variety

F.

Validity

Question 20

When recovering from multiple system failures, what is the biggest difficulty faced

by a DBA?

Options:

A.

Determining where the corrupt pages exist in the database file system

B.

Determining what point to recover to using backups taken at different points intime

C.

Reseting active directory to reapply the security policies

D.

Organising for the tapes to be delivered to the main data center

E.

Determining what version of the DBMS to recover - considering incrementalPatches

Question 21

The accuracy dimension has to do with the precision of data values.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 22

The library of Alexandria was one of the largest collection of books in the ancient

world. Which DMBoK knowledge area is most aligned with managing the collection?

Options:

A.

Data Integration and Interoperability

B.

Reference and Master Data

C.

Data Security

D.

Document and Content Management

E.

Data Govemance

Question 23

What business function is best aligned to deliver oversight to data architecture ?

Options:

A.

Data Govemance

B.

Business Innovation

C.

Business Integration

D.

Chief Technology Office

E.

Enterprise Architecture

Question 24

Deliverables in the Metadata Management context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Metadata Strategy

B.

Metadata Standards

C.

Data Lineage

D.

Metadata Architecture

E.

Metadata design

F.

Data storage and operations

Question 25

Master data is an aggregation of:

Options:

A.

Transaction Structure Data

B.

Database Structure Data

C.

Reference Data

D.

Enterprise Structure Data

Question 26

Over a decade an organization has rationalized implementation of party concepts from 48 systems to 3. This is a result of good:

Options:

A.

Data operations and system rationalization

B.

Data quality and data governance

C.

System rationalization and metadata management

D.

Data architecture and data warehousing

E.

Data architecture and data governance

Question 27

Data access control can be organized at an individual level or group level, depending on the need.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 28

A database uses foreign keys from code tables for column values. This is a way of implementing:

Options:

A.

Master data

B.

Event data

C.

Reference data

D.

Star schema data

E.

Temporal data

Question 29

In the Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence Context Diagram, a primary deliverable is the DW and BI Architecture.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 30

Who should write the main content for a security policy for an organisation?

Options:

A.

A security knowledge area specialist

B.

A data governance knowledge area specialist

C.

The data warehouse developer

D.

The database administrator

E.

The data steward associated with the data

Question 31

Communication should start later in the process as too many inputs will distort the vision.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 32

Some ways to measure value of data include:

Options:

A.

Replacement cost

B.

Market value

C.

Selling Data

D.

Risk cost

E.

Identified opportunities

F.

All of the above

Question 33

Factors that have shown to play a key role in the success in the success of effective data management organizations does not include:

Options:

A.

Clear vision

B.

Orientation and training

C.

Leadership alignment

D.

IT sponsorship

Question 34

Data replication has two dimensions of scaling: diagonal and lateral

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 35

Technical metadata describes details of the processing and accessing of data.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 36

A business driver for Master Data Management program is managing data quality.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 37

Data modelling tools and model repositories are necessary for managing the enterprise data model in all levels.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 38

MPP is an abbreviation for Major Parallel Processing.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 39

The Data Warehouse has a set of storage areas, including:

Options:

A.

Staging areas

B.

Data marts

C.

Cubes

D.

Kubernetes

Question 40

Data Warehouse describes the operational extract, cleansing, transformation, control and load processes that maintain the data in a data warehouse.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 41

Different types of product Master Data solutions include:

Options:

A.

People Lifecycle Product Management (PLPM)

B.

Product data in Manufacturing Execution Systems (MES)

C.

None of the above

D.

Product Data in Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)

E.

Product Lifecycle Management (PLM)

Question 42

Functionality-focused requirements associated with a comprehensive metadata solution, include:

Options:

A.

Synchronization

B.

Structure

C.

None of the above

D.

History

E.

Volatility

F.

Access rights

Question 43

What area do you not consider when developing a 'Data Governance operating model?

Options:

A.

Impact of regulation

B.

Cultural factors - such as acceptance of discipline and adaptability to change

C.

The availability of industry data models

D.

The business model - decentralised versus centralised

E.

The value of data to the organization

Question 44

Part of alignment includes developing organizational touchpoints for data governance work. Some examples of touchpoints include: Procurement and Contracts; Budget and Funding; Regulatory Compliance; and the SDLC framework.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 45

Field overloading: Unnecessary data duplication is often a result of poor data management.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 46

Well prepared records have characteristics such as:

Options:

A.

Context

B.

Content

C.

Compliance

D.

Timeliness

Question 47

There are three techniques for data-based change data capture, namely:

Options:

A.

The source system populates specific data elements.

B.

Application automated interfaces

C.

The source system processes copy data that has changed into a separate object as part of the transaction, which is then used for the extract process.

D.

The source systems send binary code through ASCI that makes the process rapid.

E.

The source system processes add to a simple list of objects and identifiers when changing data, which is then used to control selection of data extraction.

F.

None of the above

Question 48

Open by default' document control will assist data sharing by:

Options:

A.

Allocating more metadata to each document

B.

Automatically opening the document when it is selected on the desktop

C.

Keeping the documents open on the desktop ready for use

D.

Setting the security to shared unless overwritten

E.

Automatically moving the data to the warehouse where everybody can access it

Question 49

Category information is one of the types of data that can be modelled.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 50

When data is classified as either security data or regulatory data, the result will be:

Options:

A.

Business employees are restricted from viewing the data but technical employees can store the data in databases

B.

Employees will never see classified data for any reason

C.

Employees know they have to aggregate the data

D.

Employees, both business & technical know the sensitivity of the data

E.

Employees know they cannot use the data because it has been classified

Question 51

Tools required to manage and communicate changes in data governance programs include

Options:

A.

Ongoing business case for data governance

B.

Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

C.

Data governance roadmap

D.

Monitoring the resistance

E.

Business/Data Governance strategy map

F.

Data governance metrics

Question 52

A goal of data governance is to enable an organisation to manage its data as a liability.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 53

Project that use personal data should have a disciplined approach to the use of that data. They should account for:

Options:

A.

What activities analytics will focus on

B.

How they select their populations for study

C.

All of the above

D.

How data will be captured

E.

How results will be made accessible

Question 54

The key architecture domains include:

Options:

A.

Business, data, infrastructure and technology architectures

B.

Process, database, software and technology architectures

C.

Zachmann, TOGAF, Cobit, and Heath architectures

D.

Business, data, application and technology architectures

E.

Business, strategy, application and technology architectures

Question 55

A data architecture team is best described as:

Options:

A.

A group of strong database administrators

B.

A strategic planning and compliance team

C.

An operational data provisioning group

D.

The authors of reference data

E.

A well-managed project of architectural development

Question 56

A key feature of Bill Inmon’s approach to data warehousing is:

Options:

A.

A tight management of data dimensions

B.

An exclusive focus on star schemas and cubes

C.

A normalized relational model to store and manage data

D.

A preference for supporting operational reporting

E.

Its ability to operate on open-source platforms

Question 57

Poorly managed metadata leads to:

Options:

A.

Row-orientated metadata

B.

Graph metadata issues

C.

Redundant data and data management processes

D.

Doubt about the reliability of metadata and data

E.

Redundant master data

F.

Document inefficiencies

Question 58

What model is the highest level model within the enterprise data model?

Options:

A.

Logical model

B.

Physical model

C.

Conceptual model

D.

Subject Area model

Question 59

Which of the following are must-do for any successful Data Governance programme?

Options:

A.

Create a communications plan to inform to all stakeholders what you are doing.

B.

Ensure there is a Data Governance Policy with which everyone in the organization is required to comply.

C.

Create a training programme for all for data owners and data stewards.

D.

Set up a wiki for incorrect data definitions.

E.

Allocate Data Ownership responsibilities according to their role in the organization.

Question 60

Typically, DW/BI have three concurrent development tracks:

Options:

A.

Data mart

B.

Business Intelligence tools

C.

Data

D.

System development

E.

Techonology

F.

None of the above

Question 61

Data Fabric is:

Options:

A.

A way of sewing together different data concepts into a single data warehouse

B.

A metadata repository

C.

A form of data lake that automates data acquisition and initial data quality processing

D.

A superior star schema strategy

E.

Just another data warehouse with no distinguishing features

Question 62

SSD is the abbreviation for Solid State Dimension.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 63

Inputs in the data modelling and design context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Data standards

B.

Data sets

C.

Data Management Architecture

D.

Systems Architecture

E.

Data architecture

F.

Enterprise taxonomy

Question 64

Data science merges data mining, statistical analysis, and machine learning with the integration and data modelling capabilities, to build predictive models that explore data content patterns.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 65

The primary goal of data management capability assessment is to evaluate the current state of critical data management activities in order to plan for improvement.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 66

Three classic implementation approaches that support Online Analytical Processing include:

Options:

A.

QOLAP

B.

ROLAP

C.

OLAP2

D.

HOLAP

E.

MOLAP

F.

None of the above

Question 67

Identify indicative components of a Data Strategy.

Options:

A.

Vision, case studies, succession plans, functional requirements

B.

Vision, data invoice, payment receipts, confirmations

C.

Vision, business surveys, employee performance goals

D.

Vision, business case, data models, employee goals

E.

Vision, business case, principles, goals, and measures

Question 68

The percentage of enterprise computers having the most recent security patch

installed is a metric of which knowledge area?

Options:

A.

Data Quality

B.

Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

C.

Data Storage and Operations

D.

Metadata Management

E.

Data Security

Question 69

The DW encompasses all components in the data staging and data presentation areas, including:

Options:

A.

Operational source system

B.

Data access tools

C.

Data presentation area

D.

Data staging area

E.

All of the above

F.

Technology source system

Question 70

A metadata repository is essential to assure the integrity and consistent use of an enterprise data model across business processes.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 71

Valuation information, as an example of data enrichment, is for asset valuation, inventory and sale.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 72

Data profiling examples include:

Options:

A.

Counts of null

B.

Max/Min value

C.

Max/Min length

D.

Frequency distribution

E.

Data type and format

F.

None of the above

Question 73

Information gaps represent enterprise liabilities with potentially profound impacts on operational effectiveness and profitability.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 74

Managing business party Master Data poses these unique challenges:

Options:

A.

Difficulties in unique dimensions

B.

Difficulties in unique identification

C.

Reference data anomaly detection

D.

The number of data sources and the differences between them

Question 75

Because Data Governance activities require coordination across functional areas, the DG program must establish an ___________ that defines accountabilities and intersections.

Options:

A.

Alliance

B.

Operating framework

C.

Organization

D.

Enterprise-wide coalition

E.

Architecture framework

Question 76

A staff member has been detected inappropriately accessing client records from

usage logs. The security mechanism being used is an:

Options:

A.

Access

B.

Audit

C.

Entitlement

D.

Authorisation

E.

Authentication

Question 77

The main difference between a System of Record and a System of Reference is:

Options:

A.

A system of reference is the source of transaction data; the system of record is the source of master data

B.

The data does not originate in the system of reference

C.

A system of record is the source of master data; a system of reference is the source of reference data

D.

They are the same thing

E.

The data does not originate in the system of record

Question 78

Architects seek to design in a way that brings value to an organisation. To reach these goals, data architects define and maintain specifications that:

Options:

A.

Align data architecture with enterprise strategy and business architecture

B.

Provide a standard business vocabulary for data and components

C.

Outline high-level integrated designs to meet these requirements.

D.

Integrate with overall enterprise architecture roadmap

E.

Define the current state of data in the organization.

F.

Express strategic data requirements

Question 79

Layers of data governance are often part of the solution. This means determining where accountability should reside for stewardship activities and who the owners of the data are.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 80

A successful Data Governance program requires that all enterprise data be certified.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 81

An authoritative system where data is created/captured, and/or maintained through

a defined set of rules and expectations is called:

Options:

A.

A System of Systems

B.

A System of Retirement

C.

A System of Record

D.

A System of Reference

E.

A System of Referential Integrity

Question 82

The minority of operational metadata is generated as data is processed.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 83

The impact of the changes from new volatile data must be isolated from the bulk of the historical, non-volatile DW data. There are three main approaches, including:

Options:

A.

Streaming

B.

Messaging

C.

DAAS

D.

Trickle Feeds

Question 84

ANSI 859 recommends taking into account the following criteria when determining which control level applies to a data asset:

Options:

A.

Need to reuse the asset or earlier versions of the assets

B.

Consequences of change to the enterprise or project

C.

Cost of providing and updating the asset

D.

Project impact, if change will have significant cost or schedule consequences

Question 85

The data warehouse and marts differ from that in applications as the data is organized by subject rather than function.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 86

To become data-centric, organizations need to think differently. They need to recognize:

Options:

A.

That managing data is the same as delivering reporting

B.

That managing data is different from managing IT

C.

That managing data is the same as making better business decisions

D.

That managing data is the same as managing finance

E.

That managing data is the same as managing IT

Question 87

Media monitoring and text analysis are automated methods for retrieving insights from large unstructured or semi-structured data, such as transaction data, social media, blogs, and web news sites.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 88

A goal of reference and master data management is for data to ensure shared data is:

Options:

A.

Continuous, consistent, current and private

B.

Complete, consistent, current and authoritative

C.

Secure, auditable, publicly available and free

D.

Complete, consistent, content and relevant

E.

Secure, auditable. complete and relevant

Question 89

Data parsing is the process of analysing data using pre-determined rules to define its content or value.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 90

The better an organization understands the lifecycle and lineage of its data, the better able it will be to manage its data. Please select correct implication of the focus of data management on the data lifecycle.

Options:

A.

Data Quality must be managed throughout the data lifecycle

B.

Data Security must only be managed at the start of the data lifecycle

C.

Metadata Quality is the most important part of the management process

D.

Data Management efforts should focus on the most critical data last

Question 91

Examples of technical metadata include:

Options:

A.

Column Properties

B.

Access permissions

C.

Internal

D.

Conceptual

E.

ETL job details

Question 92

Information architecture is the process of creating structure for a body of information or content. It includes the following components:

Options:

A.

Navigation maps

B.

User flows

C.

Use cases

D.

Controlled technologies

Question 93

In an information management context, the short-term wins and goals often arise from the resolution of an identified problem.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 94

You have completed analysis of a Data Governance issue in your organisation and have presented your findings to the executive management team. However, your findings are not greeted warmly and you find yourself being blamed for the continued existence of the issue. What is the most likely root cause for this?

Options:

A.

You did not secure appropriate budget or resources for the engagement and did not properly define the project charter

B.

You failed to correctly scope the analysis project and did not secure resources to deliver a fully executed solution to address root causes

C.

You failed to communicate to your team the importance of achieving a workable solution to the issues identified

D.

You failed to correctly manage expectations about the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities for Data Governance in the organisation and are dependent on other areas to execute your recommendations

E.

You adopted an incorrect methodology to your Data Governance and have failed to execute necessary information management tasks

Question 95

Various Regulations require evidence of clear data lineage and accuracy. How can we as data managers best serve our enterprises in achieving this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform a one off review of data quality

B.

Create a new data store for regulator required metrics

C.

Capture and document all metrics and store in a central repository

D.

Undertake an audit of current process and produce a report

E.

Provide the framework and guidance to enable a business led ongoing Data Governance process

Question 96

Decentralized informality can be made more formal through a documented series of connections and accountabilities via a RACI matrix.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 97

ISO 8000 will describe the structure and the organization of data quality management, including:

Options:

A.

Data Quality Availability

B.

Data Quality Planning

C.

Data Quality Control

D.

Data Quality Assurance

E.

Data Quality Improvement

Question 98

What are the three qualities of an effective Data Governance function?

Options:

A.

Optimism, objective, sustainable

B.

Sustainable, embedded, measured

C.

Measured, objective, embedded

D.

Embedded, systematic, sustainable

E.

Sustainable, realistic, embedded

Question 99

On example of a transformation process in ETL is:

Options:

A.

Re-ordering

B.

Recording

C.

Duping

D.

Servicing

Question 100

A Global ID is the MDM solution-assigned and maintained unique identifier attached to reconciled records.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 101

CMDB provide the capability to manage and maintain Metdata specifically related to the IT assets, the relationships among them, and contractual details of the assets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 102

The implementation of a Data Warehouse should follow guiding principles, including:

Options:

A.

Data Efficiency

B.

One size does not fit all

C.

Contracts

D.

Focus on the business goals

E.

Start with the end in mind

F.

Collaborate

Question 103

Misleading visualisations could be an example where a base level of truthfulness and transparency are not adhered to.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 104

Business Intelligence, among other things, refer to the technology that supports this kind of analysis.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 105

The Data Warehouse encompasses all components in the data staging and data presentation areas, including:

Options:

A.

Data Access Tool

B.

Application Tool

C.

Operational source systems

D.

Data staging area

E.

Data presentation area

F.

All of the above

Question 106

A "Data Governance strategy" usually includes the following deliverables:

Options:

A.

A Statement of Intent, a Decision Framework, an Implementation Roadmap, and a Governance Toolkit

B.

A Charter, a Data Architecture, a Program Data Model, and a Plan for Operational Success

C.

A Program Plan, a Resource Plan, an Implementation Plan, and a Test Plan

D.

A Charter, an Operating Framework, an Implementation Roadmap, and a Plan for Operational Success

E.

A Charter, a Security Strategy, a Solution Roadmap, and a User Experience Plan

Question 107

Which of the following provides the strongest tangible reason for driving initiation of a Data Governance process in an enterprise?

Options:

A.

Each division of an enterprise may have its own way to describe its business and associated metrics

B.

There is disagreement among divisions on the meaning of key metrics

C.

There is typically significant waste in an enterprise through duplication of reports and metrics

D.

Increasing regulation in industry can impose real penalties in terms of substantial fines or jail terms for non-compliance to properly managed data (e.g. accurate reporting/accounting)

E.

I've been to a conference and found that lots of our competitors are doing it

Question 108

Accomplish repository scanning in two distinct approaches, including:

Options:

A.

Semi- proprietary integration

B.

Proprietary interface

C.

Semi-proprietary interface

D.

Proprietary integration

Question 109

The need to manage data movement efficiently is a primary driver for Data Integration and Interoperability.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 110

Modeling Bid data is a non-technical challenge but critical if an organization that want to describe and govern its data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 111

Corporate Information Factory (CIF) components include:

Options:

A.

Data marts

B.

Objectives

C.

Operational Reports

D.

Reduction of risk

E.

Staging Area

F.

Contributions to business objectives

Question 112

Analytics models are associated with different depths of analysis, including:

Options:

A.

Quality testing

B.

Explanatory modeling

C.

Descriptive modeling

D.

Performance modeling

E.

All of the above

F.

None of the above

Question 113

Deliverables in the document and content management context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Metadata and reference data

B.

Policy and procedure

C.

Data governance

D.

Content and records management strategy

E.

Audit trail and log

F.

Data storage and operations

Question 114

The ISO 11179 Metadata registry, an international standard for representing Metadata in an organization, contains several sections related to data standards, including naming attributes and writing definitions.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 115

Content management includes the systems for organizing information resources so that they can specially be stored.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 116

Data quality management is a key capability of a data management practice and organization.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 117

Data flows map and document relationships between data and:

Options:

A.

Locations where local differences occur

B.

Situations where local differences occur

C.

Network segments

D.

Applications within a business process

E.

None of the above

F.

All of the above

Question 118

Data replication can be active or passive.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 119

You are a reporting Data Analyst. A new Management Report has been requested. What is the most effective way to ensure you receive the appropriate data at the correct level of accuracy to meet the business need?

Options:

A.

Hold a meeting to understand the timelines of when data will be provided

B.

Supply a detailed definition document which includes timelines, data requirements, calculation details, etc

C.

Supply a detailed definition template document and request completion by relevant managers

D.

Send a general email to the manager of the department(s)

E.

Write a general definitions statement describing conceptually what is required

Question 120

Different storage volumes include:

Options:

A.

Gigabyte

B.

Petabyte

C.

Perabyte

D.

Exabyte

E.

Tetrabyte

F.

Terabyte

Question 121

The scope and focus of any data governance program depend on organizational needs, but most programs include:

Options:

A.

Strategy

B.

Policy

C.

Data Management Projects

D.

Compliance

E.

Oversight

F.

All of the above

Question 122

Inputs in the reference and master data context diagram include:

Options:

A.

None of the above

B.

Business Drivers

C.

Business model

D.

Data Glossary

E.

Cultural Drivers

F.

All of the above

Question 123

With reliable Metadata an organization does not know what data it has, what the data represents and how it moves through the systems, who has access to it, or what it means for the data to be of high quality.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 124

Data stewardship is the least common label to describe accountability and responsibility for data and processes to ensure effective control and use of data assets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 125

Control activities to manage metadata stores include:

Options:

A.

Roadmap extrapolation

B.

Load statistical analysis

C.

Lineage

D.

Missing metadata reports

E.

Definitions resolutions improvement

F.

Job scheduling and monitoring

Question 126

Risk classifications describe the sensitivity of the data and the likelihood that it might be sought after for malicious purposes.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 127

DBAs and database architects combine their knowledge of available tools with the business requirements in order to suggest the best possible application of technology to meet organizational goals.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 128

Most document programs have policies related to:

Options:

A.

Scope and compliance audits

B.

Proper destruction of records

C.

Proper construction of records

D.

Identification and protection of vital records

E.

Partition tolerance

F.

All of the above

Question 129

Please select the incorrect item that does not represent a dimension in the Data Values category in Data Quality for the Information age.

Options:

A.

Currency

B.

Timeliness

C.

Consistency

D.

Completeness

Question 130

Data security includes the planning, development and execution of security policies and procedures to provide authentication, authorisation, access and auditing of data and information assets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 131

A data dictionary is necessary to support the use of a DW.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 132

What is the best definition of Crowdsourced data collection?

Options:

A.

Crowdsourcing should not be used to gather data because there will be too many opinions and not enough facts

B.

Crowdsourcing is the process of obtaining needed data by soliciting contributions from a large group of people, and especially from an online community, rather than from traditional employees or suppliers  

C.

Crowdsourced data is the best way of finding data because so many people are contributing their definitions

D.

Crowdsourced data is the data that comes from using a company wiki to gather data because anyone in the crowd can contribute

E.

Crowdsourced data collection is only used by researchers to answer research, survey or feedback questions

Question 133

Organizations conduct capability maturity assessments for a number of reasons, including:

Options:

A.

Organizational change

B.

Data management issues

C.

Regulation

D.

Data governance

E.

Data modeling

F.

New technology

Question 134

Achieving security risk reduction in an organisation begins with developing what?

Options:

A.

A change management model, prioritising security changes and then updatingthe active directory

B.

An enterprise data model, rolling out data flow diagrams and enbedding securityinto the database

C.

A security model, classifying each organisational role and putting the physicaldata behind a firewall

D.

A classification model, classifying each data concept and locating the physicaldata

E.

A metadata model, locating the data and moving it into the metadata repository

Question 135

Data Standards used by the enterprise must:

Options:

A.

Promote consistent results but periodically reviewed and updated

B.

Be a guideline for the organization but open to interpretation

C.

Promote consistent results so only written once and never updated

D.

Only be necessary for the Data Governance team

E.

Set by an standards organization and not by the enterprise

Question 136

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the Data Quality Management Cycle?

Options:

A.

Check

B.

Do

C.

Plan

D.

Act

E.

Intervene

Question 137

Developing complex event processing solutions require:

Options:

A.

Preparation of historical data and pre-population of a predictive model

B.

Integration testing for subsequent logging requirements

C.

Processing of real-time data stream to fully populate a predictive model and identify meaningful events

D.

Executing the triggered action in response to the prediction

E.

All of the above

F.

None of the above

Question 138

Within each area of consideration mentioned in question 13, they should address morale adversity as per Ethical Risk Model for Sampling Projects.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 139

A point to point interface architecture will, in general, have more or less interfa

formats than a service oriented architecture?

Options:

A.

A few less

B.

About the same

C.

A few more

D.

Many less

E.

Many more

Question 140

Big data management requires:

Options:

A.

No discipline at all

B.

Less discipline than relational data management

C.

More discipline than relational data management

D.

Big ideas with big budgets

E.

A certification in data science

Question 141

There are several methods for masking data:

Options:

A.

Substitution

B.

Temporal variance

C.

Temporal stagnation

D.

Value stagnation

E.

Value variance

F.

All of the above

Question 142

Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, identifying, capturing, logging and updating actions.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 143

Logical abstraction entities become separate objects in the physical database design using one of two methods.

Options:

A.

The DAMA Wheel

B.

Supertype partition

C.

Subtype partition

D.

Subtype absorption

E.

Supertype absorption

Question 144

What position should be responsible for leading the Data Governance Council (DGC)?

Options:

A.

Chief Data Steward or Chief Data Officer

B.

Chief Information Officer or Chief Technology Officer

C.

DGC Chair should rotate among executive positions

D.

Chief Data Architect or Chief Data Modeler

E.

Any executive can chair the DGC

Question 145

No recorded negative ethical outcomes does not mean that the organization is processing data ethically. Legislation cannot keep up with the evolution of the data environment so how do we stay compliant?

Options:

A.

Constant attention to ethical legislation and legal proceedings and international ethical bodies will enable the organization to recognize potential compliancy issues that can be addressed

B.

An active data quality and privacy assessment program can be used to detect ethical risks. Once identified, we can reduce the associated risks according to the organizations ethical values

C.

A healthy internal governance, risk and compliance function, including internal data audits will identify potential ethical issues

D.

An organization must develop and sustain a culture of ethical data handling to detect potential ethical risks. On identifying ethical risks, the onus is on the organization to modifying the processing to achieve acceptable data handling

E.

The best way to keep up with the evolution is to survey communities, customers and employees and what they consider to be appropriate use of the information

Question 146

Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as:

Options:

A.

Capacity, availability, backup instances, data quality

B.

Capacity, design, normalization, user access

C.

Create, read, update, delete

D.

Create, read, normalization, user access

E.

Capacity, availability, cache performance, user statistics

Question 147

Veracity refers to how difficult the data is to use or to integrate.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 148

Your organization has many employees with official roles as data stewards and data custodians, but they don't seem to know exactly what they're supposed to be doing. Which of the following is most likely to be a root cause of this problem?

Options:

A.

There has been too much investment in Data Governance and data management tools without improving the data

B.

The people who were new to the organization were assigned to Data Governance

C.

People were assigned roles based on a somewhat random connection to the data, and without a clear purpose

D.

The Data Governance initiative leaders are using outdated vocabulary

E.

The data standards are too general and high level for proper enforcement

Question 149

Please select the option that correctly orders the models in decreasing level of detail:

Options:

A.

None of the above

B.

Conceptual model, Subject Area model, Logical model, Logical & Physical models for a project.

C.

Logical model, Conceptual model, Subject Area model, Logical & Physical models for a project.

D.

Conceptual model, Logical model, Subject Area model, Logical & Physical models for a project.

E.

Subject Area model, Conceptual model, Logical model, Logical & Physical models for a project.

Question 150

In data integration, the goal of data discovery is toc

Options:

A.

Identify potential sources and assure data recovery processes are compliant

B.

Identify key users and perform high level assessment of data quality

C.

Assign data glossary terms and data formats

D.

Identify potential sources and perform high-level assessment of data quality

E.

Assien data plossary terms and canonical models

Question 151

The independent updating of data into a system of reference is likely to cause:

Options:

A.

Reference data inconsistencies

B.

Duplicate data

C.

Deadlocks in the database

D.

Master data inconsistencies

E.

Transaction data inconsistencies

Question 152

The term data quality refers to only the characteristics associated with high quality data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 153

Data modelling tools are software that automate many of the tasks the data modeller performs.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 154

Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, facilitating subjective discussions where managers’ viewpoints are heard.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 155

During the initial scoping of a project, a data model can be used to:

Options:

A.

Determine the impact of business processes and customer lifecycles

B.

Identify detailed impact on all the tables in a database that must be changed

C.

Plan structure of the metadata repository

D.

Provide a clear definition of affected and non-affected data entities

E.

Determine the security requirements for accessing the data

Question 156

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 157

Metadata is described using different set of categories, including:

Options:

A.

Descriptive Metadata, Structural Metada, Administrative Metadata

B.

Diagnostic Metadata, Structural Metada, Administrative Metadata

C.

Prescriptive Metadata, Serial Metada, Administrative Metadata

D.

Descriptive Metadata, Serial Metada, Administrative Metadata

E.

None of the above

Question 158

Which of the following answers best describes an Active Data Dictionary?

Options:

A.

A dictionary that is active 24 hours a day

B.

Any data dictionary is considered active because it has codes and values used in the enterprise

C.

An integrated dictionary that is managed automatically by the database management system software

D.

A dictionary that allows users to enter data in an 'active' or open manner

E.

A dictionary that can be activated by the metadata team

Question 159

The IBM Data Governance Council model is organized around four key categories. Select the answer that is not a category.

Options:

A.

Outcomes

B.

System Lifecycles

C.

Enablers

D.

Core disciplines

E.

Supporting disciplines

Question 160

The term data quality refers to both the characteristics associated with high quality data and to the processes used to measure or improve the quality of data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 161

A minimal super key is:

Options:

A.

Also known as a candidate key, it is a superkey without duplicated attributes. I.e., any set of attributes without duplicates that uniquely identify an entity instance

B.

A synonym for a surrogate key

C.

An artificial key, made up of several meaningful components to help the reader understand the nature of the entity from the key alone

D.

Any set of attributes where each attribute that makes up the key is a foreign key in its own right

E.

A type of advanced index key structure, in the same family as Hash, Heap, B-Tree, and Inverted

Question 162

Obfuscating or redacting data is the practice of making information anonymous ot removing sensitive information. Risks are present in the following instances:

Options:

A.

Data storage

B.

Data marketing

C.

Data aggregation

D.

Data marking

E.

Data masking

F.

Data integration

Question 163

The impact of the changes from new volatile data must be isolated from the bulk of the historical, non-volatile DW data. There are three main approaches, including:

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

Streaming

C.

Messaging

D.

Technology

E.

Data

F.

Trickle Feeds

Question 164

How can the Data Governance process in an organisation best support the requirements of various Regulatory reporting needs?

Options:

A.

By creating a map of where the enterprise data is located in IT systems.

B.

By providing a Business Glossary based look up facility for data definitions.

C.

By ensuring that data is properly categorized, owned, understood, defined, documented and controlled

D.

By highlighting the challenges of multiple data definitions within the enterprise

E.

By performing an as-is data audit

Question 165

In matching, false positives are three references that do not represent the same entity are linked with a single identifier.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 166

There are three recovery types that provide guidelines for how quickly recovery takes place and what it focuses on.

Options:

A.

Immediate recovery

B.

Intermittent recovery

C.

Critical recovery

D.

Translucent recovery

E.

BMT recovery

F.

Non-critical recovery

Question 167

A complexity in documenting data lineage is:

Options:

A.

Establishing data quality metrics

B.

Conflicting application requirements from data owners

C.

Choosing which content management software to use

D.

Identifying source databases

E.

Different data element names and formats

Question 168

The Shewhart chart contains the following elements:

Options:

A.

Plan

B.

Utilization

C.

Do

D.

Check

E.

Act

F.

All of the above

Question 169

A data governance strategy defines the scope and approach to governance efforts. Deliverables include:

Options:

A.

Charter

B.

Operating framework and accountabilities

C.

Implementation roadmap

D.

Plan for operational success

E.

All of the above

F.

None of the above

Question 170

XML is the abbreviation for standard mark-up language.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 171

The Data Model Scorecard provides 10 data model quality metrics

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 172

Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:

Options:

A.

Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

B.

Stewardship

C.

Monitoring the resistance

D.

Ownership

E.

Addressing all queries

F.

Controlled change

Question 173

Inputs in the data storage and operations context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Data requirements

B.

Service level agreements

C.

Data Management Architecture

D.

Systems Architecture

E.

Data architecture

F.

Data models

Question 174

Please select the correct General Accepted Information Principles:

Options:

A.

Asset Principle

B.

Audit Principle

C.

Due Diligence Principle

D.

Going Concern Principle

E.

Ethical Principle

F.

All of the above

Question 175

Please select the answer that does not represent a machine learning algorithm:

Options:

A.

Reinforcement learning

B.

Supervised learning

C.

Artificial learning

D.

Unsupervised learning

Question 176

Organizations are legally required to protect privacy by identifying and protecting sensitive data. Who usually identifies the confidentiality schemes and identify which assets are confidential or restricted?

Options:

A.

Data Security

B.

Record Retention Department

C.

Data Owners

D.

Regulations/Laws

E.

Business Analysts

Question 177

Real-time data integration is usually triggered by batch processing, such as historic data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 178

A synonym for transformation in ETL is mapping. Mapping is the process of developing the lookup matrix from source to target structures, but not the result of the process.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 179

Practitioners identify development of staff capability to be a primary concern of Data Governance. Why would this be a main concern?

Options:

A.

Because we need to develop the next generation of Chief Data Officers

B.

Because it is important to have senior people, in order to dictate that the policy will be followed

C.

Because organizations expect quick results

D.

Because it is important to train staff to ensure application of appropriate methods

E.

Because it is a recognized benchmark standard

Question 180

Which model has one Data Governance organization coordinate with multiple Business Units to maintain consistent definitions and standards?

Options:

A.

Federated Data Governance Model

B.

Central Data Governance Model

C.

Cognitive Data Governance Model

D.

Replicated Data Governance Model

E.

Associative Data Governance Model

Question 181

The purpose of data governance is to ensure that data is managed properly, according to policies and best practices. Data governance is focused on how decisions are made about data and how people and processes are expected to behave in relation to data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 182

A goal of metadata management is to manage data related business terminology in

order toc

Options:

A.

Successfully size the database

B.

Ensure accurate data requirements are gathered for reporting

C.

Ensure people understand data content and can use data consistently

D.

Ensure people understand data definition in Bl systems

E.

Ensure the business processes align to the data model

Question 183

Enterprise data architecture usually include the following work streams:

Options:

A.

Strategy

B.

Governance

C.

Organization

D.

Results

E.

Working methods

F.

All of the above

Question 184

When assessing security risks it is required to evaluate each system for the following:

Options:

A.

The current security protections in place

B.

The requirements to protect the data

C.

None of the above

D.

All of the above

E.

The complexity of the data stored or in transit

F.

The sensitivity of the data stored or in transit

Question 185

Data modelling is most infrequently performed in the context of systems and maintenance efforts, known as SDLC.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 186

A deliverable in the data security context diagram is the data security architecture.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 187

Latency can be:

Options:

A.

Batch

B.

Event-driven

C.

Distributed

D.

Real-time synchronous

Question 188

Organizations should evaluate several maturity assessment models for data management, and for Data Governance, before adopting one or before developing a custom maturity assessment model because:

Options:

A.

Choosing a maturity model for an organization is expensive

B.

Vendors may go out of business so organizations need to choose wisely

C.

Performing an assessment without evaluating multiple models does not provide the organization with the ability to use the easiest model

D.

Each maturity model is flawed and the organization must find the flaws and work around them

E.

Each DMMM is based on a specific approach and needs to align with an organization's needs

Question 189

Some common data quality business rule types are:

Options:

A.

Definitional conformance

B.

Format compliance

C.

Range conformance

D.

Mapping conformance

Question 190

If data is not integrated with care it presents risk for unethical data handling. These ethical risks intersect with fundamental problems in data management including: Limited knowledge of data’s origin and lineage; Data of poor quality; Unreliable Metadata; and Documentation of error remediation.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 191

Gathering and interpreting results from a DMM or Data Governance assessment are important because:

Options:

A.

Lack of results gathered can indicate a lack of assessment performance

B.

The assessments are done by different teams within the organization and may have different results

C.

Interpreting these results is difficult

D.

Data Management and Data Governance results are gathered and interpreted differently, depending on the organization being evaluated

E.

Performing these activities objectively can ensure the success of the assessment and affect the acceptance and implementation of the data management and/or Data Governance program

Question 192

Dimensions of data quality include:

Options:

A.

Validity

B.

Privacy

C.

Innovation

D.

Accessibility

E.

Currency

F.

All of the above

Question 193

The best way to validate that a database backup is working, is to:

Options:

A.

Periodically recover from the backup file

B.

Appoint a special DBA in charge of backups

C.

Check the size of the backup file

D.

Check the backup logs every day

E.

Check for the automatic email notification of backup success

Question 194

What result(s) is/are Data Handling Ethics trying to avoid?

Options:

A.

Loss of reputation for the organization and loss of customers

B.

Unethical use of information by staff to achieve business outcomes; customers trust so they are willing to pay more

C.

Increased Risk for people whose data is exposed and criminal proceedings

D.

Ensure that Data Governance is in line with Corporate Governance and ethic business statements

E.

Ensure that organizations are adhering to ethical standards set by industry and bodies such as the World Economic Forum

Question 195

A general principle for managing metadata includes Responsibility.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 196

The accuracy dimension of data quality refers to the degree that data correctly respresents ‘real-life’ entities.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 197

How does the DMBOK refer to an organization that values data as an asset and manages data through all phases of its lifecycle?

Options:

A.

A Data integration organization

B.

A Data support organization

C.

A Data-driven organization

D.

A Data-centric organization

E.

A Data management organization

Question 198

DAMA International’s Certified Data Management Professional (CDMP) certification required that data management professionals subscribe to a formal code of ethics, including an obligation to handle data ethically for the sake of society beyond the organization that employs them.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 199

The acronym ETL most commonly stands for:

Options:

A.

Extract Transpose Leverage

B.

Export Transform Log

C.

Extend Trim Load

D.

Extract Transform Load

E.

Efficient Trace Logging

Question 200

Most people who work with data know that it is possible to use data to misrepresent facts. Which of the following is NOT a way in which data is used to misrepresent facts?

Options:

A.

Data collected with bias to prove a pre-conceived idea is correct

B.

Leaving out required context in a report resulting in ambiguity and assumptions being made about the data points

C.

Omission or inclusion of certain data points in a report or activity based on timing

D.

Providing transparency on the sources, uses, and intent of the data used in a report

E.

Leaving out the relationship between data points in a chart

Question 201

Which of the following is a core principle of any Data Governance program?

Options:

A.

All metadata should be held in a central Metadata repository acquired for that purpose

B.

Data should be formally owned by the IT Department, who is tasked with leading Data Governance across the organization

C.

All information and data stored by the company should be subject to formal Data Governance

D.

All important company data should be subject to formal business ownership and stewardship and be systematically measured and improved where necessary

E.

Governance of corporate data held on Cloud provider platforms is the sole responsibility of the Cloud provider

Question 202

Data security internal audits ensure data security and regulatory compliance policies are followed should be conducted regularly and consistently.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 203

According to the DMBoK2, by creating Data Management Services, IT involves the Data Governance Council:

Options:

A.

To estimate the enterprise needs for these services and provide the justification for staffing and funding to provide these services

B.

To provide a funnel for data and information issues to take the administration load off IT

C.

To ensure that data and information is still managed by IT and business only plays an advisory role

D.

To enable the business to maintain oversight on data and information projects

E.

To provide data stewards as and when needs to perform services where IT resources are either not available or do not exist

Question 204

The business glossary should capture business terms attributes such as:

Options:

A.

Lineage

B.

Utilization

C.

Common misunderstanding in terms

D.

System development

E.

Algorithms to supporting definitions

F.

All of the above

Question 205

Domains can be identified in different ways including: data type; data format; list; range; and rule-based.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 206

A data warehouse deployment with multiple ETL, storage and querying tools often

suffers due to the lack of:

Options:

A.

Integration of the dictionaries to achieve common understanding

B.

Conflict between software vendors

C.

Disk space on the big data platform

D.

Quality data modelers

E.

Common data types in the source datasets

Question 207

What are the three characteristics of effective Data Governance communication?

Options:

A.

It must be clear, unambiguous, and consistent

B.

It must be consistent, unambiguous, engaging

C.

It must be viral, vital, and have volume

D.

It must be colorful, engaging, using multi-media

E.

It must be clear, structured, repetitive

Question 208

Data management organizational constructs include the following type of model.

Options:

A.

Network operating model

B.

Decentralized operating model

C.

Centralized operating model

D.

Federation operating model

E.

Hybrid operating model

F.

Integrated operating model

Question 209

The four main types of NoSQL databases are:

Options:

A.

Document

B.

Row-orientated

C.

Graph

D.

Strategic

E.

Key-value

F.

Column-orientated

Question 210

Which of these best describes the purpose of a Communications Plan in Data Governance?

Options:

A.

A Communications plan is required to schedule the email updates to stakeholders

B.

Implementing Data Governance requires you to know who to communicate issues and incidents via social media

C.

Implementing Data Governance requires you to engage with external suppliers to tell them what standards have changed

D.

Implementing Data Governance is a change management activity, and planned communications are essential for successful change

E.

Implementing Data Governance is a great brand development opportunity for your organization, so you need to engage media in a planned way

Question 211

Common OLAP operations include:

Options:

A.

Drill down/up

B.

Roll-up

C.

Slice

D.

Dice

E.

All of the above

F.

Cut

Question 212

The Data Warehouse (DW) is a combination of three primary components: An integrated decision support database, related software programs and business intelligence reports.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 213

Implementing a BI portfolio is about identifying the right tools for the right user communities within or across business units.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 214

SBA is an abbreviation for service-based architecture.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 215

Class operations can be:

Options:

A.

General: Hidden

B.

Public: Externally visible

C.

Internally visible: Visible to children objects

D.

Private: Hidden

Question 216

SOA stand for Service Orchestrated Architecture

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 217

Content needs to be modular, structured, reusable and device and platform independent.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 218

Enterprise data architecture project-related activities include:

Options:

A.

Define maturity assessment

B.

Define scope

C.

Design

D.

Implement

E.

None of the above

F.

All of the above

Question 219

BI tool types include:

Options:

A.

BPM

B.

Operational reporting

C.

Data lake extraction

D.

Diagnostic, self-service analytics

E.

Descriptive, self-service analytics

F.

Reduction of risk

Page: 1 / 73
Total 725 questions