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Cyber AB CMMC-CCP Certified CMMC Professional (CCP) Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 236 questions

Certified CMMC Professional (CCP) Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

During an assessment, which phase of the process identifies conflicts of interest?

Options:

A.

Analyze requirements.

B.

Develop assessment plan.

C.

Verify readiness to conduct assessment.

D.

Generate final recommended assessment results.

Question 2

Per DoDI 5200.48: Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI), CUI is marked by whom?

Options:

A.

DOD OUSD

B.

Authorized holder

C.

Information Disclosure Official

D.

Presidentially authorized Original Classification Authority

Question 3

In accordance with NARA directives and Chapter 33 of Title 44 (Records Management Directive), which types of data MUST have policies and procedures for disposal?

Options:

A.

All recorded digital documents

B.

All digital and recorded paper documents

C.

All digital documents and recorded media

D.

All recorded information, regardless of form or characteristics

Question 4

When are data and documents with legacy markings from or for the DoD required to be re-marked or redacted?

Options:

A.

When under the control of the DoD

B.

When the document is considered secret

C.

When a document is being shared outside of the organization

D.

When a derivative document ' s original information is not CUI

Question 5

According to DFARS clause 252.204-7012, who is responsible for determining that Information in a given category should be considered CUI?

Options:

A.

The NARA CUI Executive Agent

B.

The contractor who generated the information

C.

The DoD agency for whom the contractor is performing the work

D.

The military personnel assigned to the contractor for that purpose

Question 6

Which training is a CCI authorized to deliver through an approved CMMC LTP?

Options:

A.

CMMC-AB approved training

B.

DoD DFARS and CMMC-AB approved training

C.

NARA CUI training and CMMC-AB approved training

D.

DoD DFARS, NARA CUI, and CMMC-AB approved training

Question 7

What is the BEST document to find the objectives of the assessment of each practice?

Options:

A.

CMMC Glossary

B.

CMMC Appendices

C.

CMMC Assessment Process

D.

CMMC Assessment Guide Levels 1 and 2

Question 8

A program manager for a defense contractor saves all FCI data relevant to a contract on a flash drive. Why is the flash drive categorized as an FCI Asset ?

Options:

A.

It is storing FCI.

B.

It is testing FCI.

C.

It is distributing FCI.

D.

It is properly marked as FCI.

Question 9

Which document is used to protect sensitive and confidential information from being made available by the recipient of that information?

Options:

A.

Legal agreement

B.

CMMC agreement

C.

Assessment agreement

D.

Non-disclosure agreement

Question 10

For the purpose of determining scope, what needs to be included as part of the assessment but would NOT receive a CMMC certification unless an enterprise assessment is conducted?

Options:

A.

ESP

B.

People

C.

Test equipment

D.

Government property

Question 11

In the CMMC Model, how many practices are included in Level 2?

Options:

A.

17 practices

B.

72 practices

C.

110 practices

D.

180 practices

Question 12

The Lead Assessor is presenting the Final Findings Presentation to the OSC. During the presentation, the Assessment Sponsor and OSC staff inform the assessor that they do not agree with the assessment results. Who has the final authority for the assessment results?

Options:

A.

C3PAO

B.

CMMC-AB

C.

Assessment Team

D.

Assessment Sponsor

Question 13

When an OSC requests an assessment by a C3PAO, who selects the Lead Assessor for the assessment?

Options:

A.

OSC

B.

C3PAO

C.

C3PAO and OSC

D.

OSC and Lead Assessor

Question 14

Which activities are involved in ALL assessment methods?

Options:

A.

Exercising one or more assessment objects under specified conditions to compare actual with expected behavior

B.

Conducting discussions with individuals or groups of individuals in an organization to facilitate understanding, achieve clarification, or lead to the location of evidence

C.

Checking, inspecting, reviewing, observing, studying, or analyzing one or more assessment objects or artifacts to facilitate understanding, achieve clarification, or obtain additional evidence

D.

Determining security safeguard existence, functionality, correctness, completeness, and potential for improvement over time

Question 15

While developing an assessment plan for an OSC. it is discovered that the certified assessor will be interviewing a former college roommate. What is the MOST correct action to take?

Options:

A.

Do not inform the OSC and the C3PAO of the possible conflict of interest, and continue as planned.

B.

Inform the OSC and the C3PAO of the possible conflict of interest, and start the entire process over without the conflicted team member.

C.

Inform the OSC and the C3PAO of the possible conflict of interest but since it has been an acceptable amount of time since college, no conflict of interest exists, and continue as planned.

D.

Inform the OSC and the C3PAO of the possible conflict of interest, document the conflict and mitigation actions in the assessment plan, and if the mitigation actions are acceptable, continue with the assessment.

Question 16

Which assessment method compares actual-specified conditions with expected behavior?

Options:

A.

Test

B.

Examine

C.

Compile

D.

Interview

Question 17

Which term describes assessing the ability of a unit equipped with a system to support its mission while withstanding cyber threat activity representative of an actual adversary?

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Black hat testing

C.

Red cell assessment

D.

Adversarial assessment

Question 18

A Level 2 Assessment was conducted for an OSC, and the results are ready to be submitted. Prior to uploading the assessment results, what step MUST the C3PAO complete?

Options:

A.

Pay an assessment submission fee.

B.

Complete an internal review of the results.

C.

Notify the CMMC-AB that submission is forthcoming.

D.

Coordinate a final briefing between the Lead Assessor and the OSC.

Question 19

Validation of findings is an iterative process usually performed during the Daily Checkpoints throughout the entire assessment process. As a validation activity, why are the preliminary findings important?

Options:

A.

It allows the OSC to comment and provide additional evidence.

B.

It determines whether the OSC will be rated MET or NOT MET on their assessment.

C.

It confirms that the Assessment Team ' s findings are right and cannot be changed.

D.

It corroborates the Assessment Team ' s understanding of the CMMC practices and controls.

Question 20

An assessment is being conducted at a remote client site. For the duration of the assessment, the client has provided a designated hoteling space in their secure facility which consists of a desk with access to a shared printer. After noticing that the desk does not lock, a locked cabinet is requested but the client does not have one available. At the end of the day, the client provides a printout copy of an important network diagram. The diagram is clearly marked and contains CUI. What should be done NEXT to protect the document?

Options:

A.

Take it with them to review in the evening.

B.

Leave it on the desk for review the following day.

C.

Put it in the unlocked desk drawer for review the following morning.

D.

Take a picture with the personal phone before securely shredding it.

Question 21

While conducting a CMMC Level 2 Assessment, the Lead Assessor determines that the OSC has badge readers, pin code pads, and keys for various access points as well as documentation to demonstrate meeting the practice. Which CMMC practice has the OSC MET?

Options:

A.

PE.L1-3.10.5: Control and manage physical access devices

B.

MP.L2-3.8.5: Mark media with necessary CUI markings and distribution limitations

C.

SI.L2-3.14.3: Monitor system security alerts and advisories and take action in response

D.

PS.L2-3.9.2: Ensure that organizational systems containing CUI are protected during and after personnel actions such as terminations and transfers

Question 22

Which organization is the governmental authority responsible for identifying and marking CUI?

Options:

A.

NARA

B.

NIST

C.

CMMC-AB

D.

Department of Homeland Security

Question 23

Which statement BEST describes an assessor ' s evidence gathering activities?

Options:

A.

Use interviews for assessing a Level 2 practice.

B.

Test all practices or objectives for a Level 2 practice

C.

Test certain assessment objectives to determine findings.

D.

Use examinations, interviews, and tests to gather sufficient evidence.

Question 24

What type of criteria is used to answer the question " Does the Assessment Team have the right evidence? "

Options:

A.

Adequacy criteria

B.

Objectivity criteria

C.

Sufficiency criteria

D.

Subjectivity criteria

Question 25

During assessment planning, the OSC recommends a person to interview for a certain practice. The person being interviewed MUST be the person who:

Options:

A.

funds that practice.

B.

audits that practice.

C.

supports, audits, and performs that practice.

D.

implements, performs, or supports that practice.

Question 26

A server is used to store FCI with a cloud provider long-term. What is the server considered?

Options:

A.

In scope, because the cloud provider will be storing the FCI data

B.

Out of scope, because the cloud provider stores the FCI data long-term

C.

In scope, because the cloud provider is required to be CMMC Level 2 certified

D.

Out of scope, because encryption is always used when the cloud provider stores the FCI data

Question 27

In performing scoping, what should the assessor ensure that the scope of the assessment covers?

Options:

A.

All assets documented in the business plan

B.

All assets regardless if they do or do not process, store, or transmit FCI/CUI

C.

All entities, regardless of the line of business, associated with the organization

D.

All assets processing, storing, or transmitting FCI/CUI and security protection assets

Question 28

Which authority leads the CMMC direction, standards, best practices, and knowledge framework for how to map the controls and processes across different Levels that range from basic cyber hygiene to advanced cyber practices?

Options:

A.

NIST

B.

DoD CIO office

C.

Federal CIO office

D.

Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Council

Question 29

A test or demonstration is being performed for the Assessment Team during an assessment. Which environment MUST the OSC perform this test or demonstration?

Options:

A.

Client

B.

Production

C.

Development

D.

Demonstration

Question 30

Which principles are included in defining the CMMC-AB Code of Professional Conduct?

Options:

A.

Objectivity, classification, and information accuracy

B.

Objectivity, confidentiality, and information integrity

C.

Responsibility, classification, and information accuracy

D.

Responsibility, confidentiality, and information integrity

Question 31

While conducting a CMMC Assessment, an individual from the OSC provides documentation to the assessor for review. The documentation states an incident response capability is established and contains information on incident preparation, detection, analysis, containment, recovery, and user response activities. Which CMMC practice is this documentation attesting to?

Options:

A.

IR.L2-3.6.1: Incident Handling

B.

IR.L2-3.6.2: Incident Reporting

C.

IR.L2-3.6.3: Incident Response Testing

D.

IR.L2-3.6.4: Incident Spillage

Question 32

A CCP is part of a CMMC Assessment Team interviewing a subject-matter expert on Access Control (AC) within an OSC. During the interview process, what will the CCP ensure about the information exchanged during the interview?

Options:

A.

Performed in groups for more efficient use of resources

B.

Recorded for inclusion in the Final Recommended Findings report

C.

Confidential and non-attributable so interviewees can speak without fear of reprisal

D.

Mapped to specific CMMC practices to clearly delineate which practice is being evaluated

Question 33

Who is responsible for ensuring that subcontractors have a valid CMMC Certification?

Options:

A.

CMMC-AB

B.

OUSDA & S

C.

DoD agency or client

D.

Contractor organization

Question 34

In scoping a CMMC Level 1 Self-Assessment, all of the computers and digital assets that handle FCI are identified. A file cabinet that contains paper FCI is also identified. What can this file cabinet BEST be determined to be?

Options:

A.

In scope, because it is an asset that stores FCI

B.

In scope, because it is part of the same physical location

C.

Out of scope, because they are all only paper documents

D.

Out of scope, because it does not process or transmit FCI

Question 35

Which example represents a Specialized Asset?

Options:

A.

SOCs

B.

Hosted VPN services

C.

Consultants who provide cybersecurity services

D.

All property owned or leased by the government

Question 36

Two network administrators are working together to determine a network configuration in preparation for CMMC. The administrators find that they disagree on a couple of small items. Which solution is the BEST way to ensure compliance with CMMC?

Options:

A.

Consult with the CEO of the company.

B.

Consult the CMMC Assessment Guides and NIST SP 800-171.

C.

Go with the network administrator ' s ideas with the least stringent controls.

D.

Go with the network administrator ' s ideas with the most stringent controls.

Question 37

To develop an assessment contract and establish a scope of work, which organization does an OSC work with?

Options:

A.

OUSD

B.

RPOs

C.

C3PAOs

D.

CMMC-AB

Question 38

In scoping a CMMC Level 1 Self-Assessment, it is determined that an ESP employee has access to FCI. What is the ESP employee considered?

Options:

A.

In scope

B.

Out of scope

C.

OSC point of contact

D.

Assessment Team Member

Question 39

The Assessment Team has completed the assessment and determined the preliminary practice ratings. The preliminary practice ratings must be shared with the OSC prior to being finalized for submission. Based on this information, the assessor should present the preliminary practice ratings:

Options:

A.

During the final Daily Checkpoint

B.

After discussing with the CMMC-AB

C.

Via email after the final Daily Checkpoint

D.

Over the phone after the final Daily Checkpoint

Question 40

Exercising due care to ensure the information gathered during the assessment is protected even after the engagement has ended meets which code of conduct requirement?

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Information Integrity

D.

Respect for Intellectual Property

Question 41

What is the BEST description of the purpose of FAR clause 52 204-21?

Options:

A.

It directs all covered contractors to install the cyber security systems listed in that clause.

B.

It describes all of the safeguards that contractors must take to secure covered contractor IS.

C.

It describes the minimum standard of care that contractors must take to secure covered contractor IS.

D.

It directs covered contractors to obtain CMMC Certification at the level equal to the lowest requirement of their contracts.

Question 42

Which statement BEST describes the key references a Lead Assessor should refer to and use the:

Options:

A.

DoD adequate security checklist for covered defense information.

B.

CMMC Model Overview as it provides assessment methods and objects.

C.

safeguarding requirements from FAR Clause 52.204-21 for a Level 2 Assessment.

D.

published CMMC Assessment Guide practice descriptions for the desired certification level.

Question 43

What service is the MOST comprehensive that the RPO provides?

Options:

A.

Training services

B.

Education services

C.

Consulting services

D.

Assessment services

Question 44

A company is working with a CCP from a contracted CMMC consulting company. The CCP is asked where the Host Unit is required to document FCI and CUI for a CMMC Assessment. How should the CCP respond?

Options:

A.

" In the SSP. within the asset inventory, and in the network diagranY '

B.

" Within the hardware inventory, data (low diagram, and in the network diagram "

C.

" Within the asset inventory, in the proposal response, and in the network diagram "

D.

" In the network diagram, in the SSP. within the base inventory, and in the proposal response ' "

Question 45

The Lead Assessor interviews a network security specialist of an OSC. The incident monitoring report for the month shows that no security incidents were reported from OSC ' s external SOC service provider. This is provided as evidence for RA.L2-3.11.2: Scan for vulnerabilities in organizational systems and applications periodically and when new vulnerabilities affecting those systems and applications are identified. Based on this information, the Lead Assessor should conclude that the evidence is:

Options:

A.

inadequate because it is irrelevant to the practice.

B.

adequate because it fits well for expected artifacts.

C.

adequate because no security incidents were reported.

D.

inadequate because the OSC ' s service provider should be interviewed.

Question 46

An assessment procedure consists of an assessment objective, potential assessment methods, and assessment objects. Which statement is part of an assessment objective?

Options:

A.

Specifications and mechanisms

B.

Examination, interviews, and testing

C.

Determination statement related to the practice

D.

Exercising assessment objects under specified conditions

Question 47

Where does the requirement to include a required practice of ensuring that personnel are trained to carry out their assigned information security-related duties and responsibilities FIRST appear?

Options:

A.

Level 1

B.

Level 2

C.

Level 3

D.

All levels

Question 48

What is DFARS clause 252.204-7012 required for?

Options:

A.

All DoD solicitations and contracts

B.

Solicitations and contracts that use FAR part 12 procedures

C.

Procurements solely for the acquisition of commercial off-the-shelf

D.

Commercial off-the-shelf sold in the marketplace without modifications

Question 49

During a POA & M closeout assessment , the Lead Assessor and team members verified all evidence provided by the OSC and passed those that satisfied the requirements. Who MUST verify that every failed practice from the initial original assessment has been adequately addressed?

Options:

A.

OSC

B.

CCA

C.

OSC sponsor

D.

Lead Assessor

Question 50

When planning an assessment, the Lead Assessor should work with the OSC to select personnel to be interviewed who could:

Options:

A.

have a security clearance.

B.

be a senior person in the company.

C.

demonstrate expertise on the CMMC requirements.

D.

provide clarity and understanding of their practice activities.

Question 51

While conducting a CMMC Assessment, a Lead Assessor is given documentation attesting to Level 1 identification and authentication practices by the OSC. The Lead Assessor asks the CCP to review the documentation to determine if identification and authentication controls are met. Which documentation BEST satisfies the requirements of IA.L1-3.5.1: Identify system users. processes acting on behalf of users, and devices?

Options:

A.

Procedures for implementing access control lists

B.

List of unauthorized users that identifies their identities and roles

C.

User names associated with system accounts assigned to those individuals

D.

Physical access policy that states. " All non-employees must wear a special visitor pass or be escorted. "

Question 52

An OSC lead has provided company information, identified that they are seeking CMMC Level 2, stated that they handle FCI. identified stakeholders, and provided assessment logistics. The OSC has provided the company ' s cyber hygiene practices that are posted on every workstation, visitor logs, and screenshots of the configuration of their FedRAMP-approved applications. The OSC has not won any DoD government contracts yet but is working on two proposals Based on this information, which statement BEST describes the CMMC Level 2 Assessment requirements?

Options:

A.

Ready because there is no need to certify this company until after they win a DoD contract.

B.

Not ready because the OSC is not on contract because they do not know the scope of FCI protection required by the contract.

C.

Not ready because the OSC still lacks artifacts that prove they have implemented all the CMMC Level 2 Assessment requirements.

D.

Ready because all DoD contractors are required to achieve CMMC Level 2; therefore, they are being proactive in seeking certification.

Question 53

What activities are conducted while developing an assessment plan?

Options:

A.

The C3PAO decides the Assessment Team members and notifies the Lead Assessor.

B.

The Lead Assessor and the OSC’s sponsor determine the assessment resources and schedule.

C.

The C3PAO’s project manager is responsible for handling potential conflicts of interest.

D.

The evidence collection approach can be finalized when the Lead Assessor conducts an onsite assessment.

Question 54

Which standard and regulation requirements are the CMMC Model 2.0 based on?

Options:

A.

NIST SP 800-171 and NIST SP 800-172

B.

DFARS, FIPS 100, and NIST SP 800-171

C.

DFARS, NIST, and Carnegie Mellon University

D.

DFARS, FIPS 100, NIST SP 800-171, and Carnegie Mellon University

Question 55

A client uses an external cloud-based service to store, process, or transmit data that is reasonably believed to qualify as CUI. According to DFARS clause 252.204-7012. what set of established security requirements MUST that cloud provider meet?

Options:

A.

FedRAMP Low

B.

FedRAMP Moderate

C.

FedRAMP High

D.

FedRAMP Secure

Question 56

Which government agency are DoD contractors required to report breaches of CUI to?

Options:

A.

FBI

B.

NARA

C.

DoD Cyber Crime Center

D.

Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence and Security

Question 57

What is the primary intent of the verify evidence and record gaps activity?

Options:

A.

Map test and demonstration responses to CMMC practices.

B.

Conduct interviews to test process implementation knowledge.

C.

Determine the one-to-one relationship between a practice and an assessment object.

D.

Identify and describe differences between what the Assessment Team required and the evidence collected.

Question 58

During an assessment, the Lead Assessor reviews the evidence for each CMMC in-scope practice that has been reviewed, verified, rated, and discussed with the OSC during the daily reviews. The Assessment Team records the final recommended MET or NOT MET rating and prepares to present the results to the assessment participants during the final review with the OSC and sponsor. As a part of this presentation, which document MUST include the attendee list, time/date, location/meeting link, results from all discussed topics, including any resulting actions, and due dates from the OSC or Assessment Team?

Options:

A.

Final log report

B.

Final CMMC report

C.

Final and recorded OSC CMMC report

D.

Final and recorded Daily Checkpoint log

Question 59

Which document is the BEST source for descriptions of each practice or process contained within the various CMMC domains?

Options:

A.

CMMC Glossary

B.

CMMC Appendices

C.

CMMC Assessment Process

D.

CMMC Assessment Guide Levels 1 and 2

Question 60

During a Level 1 Self-Assessment, a smart thermostat was identified. It is connected to the Internet on the OSC ' s WiFi network. What type of asset is this?

Options:

A.

FCI Asset

B.

CUI Asset

C.

In-scope Asset

D.

Specialized Asset

Question 61

In CMMC High-Level scoping, which definition BEST describes an HQ organization?

Options:

A.

The entity that carries out the tasks under a contract

B.

The unit to which a CMMC Level is applied for each contract

C.

The teams, services, and technologies that provide support to a Host Unit

D.

The entity legally responsible for the delivery of products or services under a contract

Question 62

An Assessment Team is conducting interviews with team members about their roles and responsibilities. The team member responsible for maintaining the antivirus program knows that it was deployed but has very little knowledge on how it works. Is this adequate for the practice?

Options:

A.

Yes, the antivirus program is available, so it is sufficient.

B.

Yes, antivirus programs are automated to run independently.

C.

No, the team member must know how the antivirus program is deployed and maintained.

D.

No, the team member ' s interview answers about deployment and maintenance are insufficient.

Question 63

During the review of information that was published to a publicly accessible site, an OSC correctly identifies that part of the information posted should have been restricted. Which item did the OSC MOST LIKELY identify?

Options:

A.

FCI

B.

Change of leadership in the organization

C.

Launching of their new business service line

D.

Public releases identifying major deals signed with commercial entities

Question 64

An assessor has been working with an OSC ' s point of contact to plan and prepare for their upcoming assessment. What is one of the MOST important things to remember when analyzing requirements for an assessment?

Options:

A.

Scoping an assessment is easy and worry-free.

B.

The initial plan cannot be changed once agreed upon.

C.

There is a determined amount of time that the OSC ' s point of contact has to submit evidence and rough order-of-magnitude.

D.

Assessors need to continuously review and update the requirements and plan for the assessment as information is gathered.

Question 65

During a Level 2 Assessment, the OSC has provided an inventory list of all hardware. The list includes servers, workstations, and network devices. Why should this evidence be sufficient for making a scoring determination for AC.L2-3.1.19: Encrypt CUI on mobile devices and mobile computing platforms?

Options:

A.

The inventory list does not specify mobile devices.

B.

The interviewee attested to encrypting all data at rest.

C.

The inventory list does not include Bring Your Own Devices.

D.

The DoD has accepted an alternative safeguarding measure for mobile devices.

Question 66

Who will verify the adequacy and sufficiency of evidence to determine whether the practices and related components for each in-scope Host Unit, Supporting Organization/Unit, or enclave have been met?

Options:

A.

OSC

B.

Assessment Team

C.

Authorizing official

D.

Assessment official

Question 67

For a CMMC Level 2 certification, which organization maintains a non-disclosure agreement with the OSC?

Options:

A.

NIST

B.

C3PAO

C.

CMMC-AB

D.

OUSD A & S

Question 68

During the assessment process, who is the final interpretation authority for recommended findings?

Options:

A.

C3PAO

B.

CMMC-AB

C.

OSC sponsor

D.

Assessment Team Members

Question 69

Who will verify the adequacy and sufficiency of evidence to determine whether the practices and related components for each in-scope Host Unit. Supporting Organization/Unit, or enclave has been met?

Options:

A.

OSC

B.

Assessment Team

C.

Authorizing official

D.

Assessment official

Question 70

Which document BEST determines the existence of FCI and/or CUI in scoping an assessment with an OSC?

Options:

A.

OSC SSP

B.

OSC POA & M

C.

OSC Evidence

D.

OSC Contract with DoD

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Total 236 questions