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Cyber AB CMMC-CCP Certified CMMC Professional (CCP) Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 221 questions

Certified CMMC Professional (CCP) Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

A Level 2 Assessment was conducted for an OSC, and the results are ready to be submitted. Prior to uploading the assessment results, what step MUST the C3PAO complete?

Options:

A.

Pay an assessment submission fee.

B.

Complete an internal review of the results.

C.

Notify the CMMC-AB that submission is forthcoming.

D.

Coordinate a final briefing between the Lead Assessor and the OSC.

Question 2

While conducting a CMMC Level 2 Assessment, the Lead Assessor determines that the OSC has badge readers, pin code pads, and keys for various access points as well as documentation to demonstrate meeting the practice. Which CMMC practice has the OSC MET?

Options:

A.

PE.L1-3.10.5: Control and manage physical access devices

B.

MP.L2-3.8.5: Mark media with necessary CUI markings and distribution limitations

C.

SI.L2-3.14.3: Monitor system security alerts and advisories and take action in response

D.

PS.L2-3.9.2: Ensure that organizational systems containing CUI are protected during and after personnel actions such as terminations and transfers

Question 3

The Advanced Level in CMMC will contain Access Control (AC) practices from:

Options:

A.

Level 1

B.

Level 3

C.

Levels 1 and 2

D.

Levels 1, 2, and 3

Question 4

An organization's sales representative is tasked with entering FCI data into various fields within a spreadsheet on a company-issued laptop. This laptop is an FCI Asset being used to:

Options:

A.

process and transmit FCI.

B.

process and organize FCI.

C.

store, process, and transmit FCI.

D.

store, process, and organize FCI.

Question 5

A CMMC Level 1 Self-Assessment identified an asset in the OSC's facility that does not process, store, or transmit FCI. Which type of asset is this considered?

Options:

A.

FCI Assets

B.

Specialized Assets

C.

Out-of-Scope Assets

D.

Government-Issued Assets

Question 6

Recording evidence as adequate is defined as the criteria needed to:

Options:

A.

verify, based on an assessment and organizational scope.

B.

verify, based on an assessment and organizational practice.

C.

determine if a given artifact, interview response, demonstration, or test meets the CMMC scope.

D.

determine if a given artifact, interview response, demonstration, or test meets the CMMC practice.

Question 7

The CMMC Level 2 assessment methods include examination and can include:

Options:

A.

documents, mechanisms, or activities.

B.

specific hardware, software, or firmware safeguards employed within a system.

C.

policies, procedures, security plans, penetration tests, and security requirements.

D.

observation of system backup operations, exercising a contingency plan, and monitoring network traffic.

Question 8

The practices in CMMC Level 2 consist of the security requirements specified in:

Options:

A.

NIST SP 800-53

B.

NIST SP 800-171

C.

48 CFR 52.204-21

D.

DFARS 252.204-7012

Question 9

After completing a Level 2 Assessment, a C3PAO is preparing to upload the Assessment Results Package to Enterprise Mission Assurance Support Service. Which document MUST be included as part of the final assessment results package?

Options:

A.

Final Report

B.

Certification rating

C.

Summary-level findings

D.

All Daily Checkpoint logs

Question 10

What is objectivity as it applies to activities with the CMMC-AB?

Options:

A.

Ensuring full disclosure

B.

Reporting results of CMMC services completely

C.

Avoiding the appearance of or actual, conflicts of interest

D.

Demonstrating integrity in the use of materials as described in policy

Question 11

Who will verify the adequacy and sufficiency of evidence to determine whether the practices and related components for each in-scope Host Unit. Supporting Organization/Unit, or enclave has been met?

Options:

A.

OSC

B.

Assessment Team

C.

Authorizing official

D.

Assessment official

Question 12

In the CMMC Model, how many practices are included in Level 2?

Options:

A.

17 practices

B.

72 practices

C.

110 practices

D.

180 practices

Question 13

Exercising due care to ensure the information gathered during the assessment is protected even after the engagement has ended meets which code of conduct requirement?

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Information Integrity

D.

Respect for Intellectual Property

Question 14

A CCP is working as an Assessment Team Member on a CMMC Level 2 Assessment. The Lead Assessor has assigned the CCP to assess the OSC's Configuration Management (CM) domain. The CCP's first interview is with a subject-matter expert for user-installed software. With respect to user-installed software, what facet should the CCP's interview focus on?

Options:

A.

Controlled and monitored

B.

Removed from the system

C.

Scanned for malicious code

D.

Limited to mission-essential use only

Question 15

There are 15 practices that are NOT MET for an OSC's Level 2 Assessment. All practices are applicable to the OSC. Which determination should be reached?

Options:

A.

The OSC may have 90 days for remediating NOT MET practices.

B.

The OSC is not eligible for an option to remediate NOT MET practices.

C.

The OSC may be eligible for an option to remediate NOT MET practices.

D.

The OSC is not eligible for an option to remediate after the assessment is canceled.

Question 16

SC.L2-3 13.14: Control and monitor the use of VoIP technologies is marked as NOT APPLICABLE for an OSC's assessment. How does this affect the assessment scope?

Options:

A.

Any existing telephone system is in scope even if it is not using VoIP technology.

B.

An error has been made and the Lead Assessor should be contacted to correct the error.

C.

VoIP technology is within scope, and it uses FlPS-validated encryption, so it does not need to be assessed.

D.

VoIP technology is not used within scope boundary, so no assessment procedures are specified for this practice.

Question 17

Which domain has a practice requiring an organization to restrict, disable, or prevent the use of nonessential programs?

Options:

A.

Access Control (AC)

B.

Media Protection (MP)

C.

Asset Management (AM)

D.

Configuration Management (CM)

Question 18

As part of CMMC 2.0, the change to Level 1 Self-Assessments supports "reduced assessment costs" allows all companies at Level 1 (Foundational) to:

Options:

A.

to conduct self-assessments.

B.

opt out of CMMC Assessments.

C.

have assessment costs reimbursed by the DoD.

D.

pay no more than $500.00 for their annual assessment.

Question 19

What technical means can an OSC have in place to limit individuals who are authorized to post or process information on publicly accessible systems?

Options:

A.

Enable cookies to track who has accessed certain websites.

B.

Ensure procedural documentation is in place on how to access website consoles.

C.

Ensure marketing team trainings are required so that any changes to the website go through proper review.

D.

Enable administrative access roles to those that need them so that only those people can post items to the website.

Question 20

An assessor is collecting affirmations. So far, the assessor has collected interviews, demonstrations, emails, messaging, and presentations. Are these appropriate approaches to collecting affirmations?

Options:

A.

No, emails are not appropriate affirmations.

B.

No, messaging is not an appropriate affirmation.

C.

Yes, the affirmations collected by the assessor are all appropriate.

D.

Yes, the affirmations collected by the assessor are all appropriate, as are screenshots.

Question 21

A CMMC Assessment Team arrives at an OSC to begin a CMMC Level 2 Assessment. The team checks in at the front desk and lets the receptionist know that they are here to conduct the assessment. The receptionist is aware that the team is arriving today and points down a hallway where the conference room is. The receptionist tells the Lead Assessor to wait in the conference room. as someone will be there shortly. The receptionist fails to check for credentials and fails to escort the team. The receptionist's actions are in direct violation of which CMMC practice?

Options:

A.

PE.L1-3.10.3: Escort visitors and monitor visitor activity

B.

PE.L1-3.10.5: Control and manage physical access devices

C.

PS.L2-3.9.1; Screen individuals prior to authorizing access to organizational systems containing CUI

D.

PS.L2-3 9.2: Ensure that organizational systems containing CUI are protected during and after personnel actions such as terminations and transfers

Question 22

In late September. CA.L2-3.12.1: Periodically assess the security controls in organizational systems to determine if the controls are effective in their application is assessed. Procedure specifies that a security control assessment shall be conducted quarterly. The Lead Assessor is only provided the first quarter assessment report because the person conducting the second quarter's assessment is currently out of the office and will return to the office in two hours. Based on this information, the Lead Assessor should determine that the evidence is;

Options:

A.

sufficient, and rate the audit finding as MET

B.

insufficient, and rate the audit finding as NOT MET.

C.

sufficient, and re-rate the audit finding after a quarter two assessment report is examined.

D.

insufficient, and re-rate the audit finding after a quarter two assessment report is examined.

Question 23

Which words summarize categories of data disposal described in the NIST SP 800-88 Revision 1, Guidelines for Media Sanitation?

Options:

A.

Clear, purge, destroy

B.

Clear, redact, destroy

C.

Clear, overwrite, purge

D.

Clear, overwrite, destroy

Question 24

A client uses an external cloud-based service to store, process, or transmit data that is reasonably believed to qualify as CUI. According to DFARS clause 252.204-7012. what set of established security requirements MUST that cloud provider meet?

Options:

A.

FedRAMP Low

B.

FedRAMP Moderate

C.

FedRAMP High

D.

FedRAMP Secure

Question 25

Which code or clause requires that a contractor is meeting the basic safeguarding requirements for FCI during a Level 1 Self-Assessment?

Options:

A.

FAR 52.204-21

B.

22CFR 120-130

C.

DFARS 252.204-7011

D.

DFARS 252.204-7021

Question 26

Plan of Action defines the clear goal or objective for the plan. What information is generally NOT a part of a plan of action?

Options:

A.

Completion dates

B.

Milestones to measure progress

C.

Ownership of who is accountable for ensuring plan performance

D.

Budget requirements to implement the plan's remediation actions

Question 27

Which domains are a part of a Level 1 Self-Assessment?

Options:

A.

Access Control (AC), Risk Management < RM), and Media Protection (MP)

B.

Risk Management (RM). Access Control (AC), and Physical Protection (PE)

C.

Access Control (AC), Physical Protection (PE), and Identification and Authentication (IA)

D.

Risk Management (RM). Media Protection (MP), and Identification and Authentication (IA)

Question 28

A CMMC Assessment is being conducted at an OSC's HQ. which is a shared workspace in a multi-tenant building. The OSC is renting four offices on the first floor that can be locked individually. The first-floor conference room is shared with other tenants but has been reserved to conduct the assessment. The conference room has a desk with a drawer that does not lock. At the end of the day, an evidence file that had been sent by email is reviewed. What is the BEST way to handle this file?

Options:

A.

Review it. print it, and put it in the desk drawer.

B.

Review it, and make notes on the computer provided by the client.

C.

Review it, print it, make notes, and then shred it in cross-cut shredder in the print room.

D.

Review it. print it, and leave it in a folder on the table together with the other documents.

Question 29

Who will verify the adequacy and sufficiency of evidence to determine whether the practices and related components for each in-scope Host Unit, Supporting Organization/Unit, or enclave have been met?

Options:

A.

OSC

B.

Assessment Team

C.

Authorizing official

D.

Assessment official

Question 30

In the Code of Professional Conduct, what does the practice of Professionalism require?

Options:

A.

Do not copy materials without permission to do so.

B.

Do not make assertions about assessment outcomes.

C.

Refrain from dishonesty in all dealings regarding CMMC.

D.

Ensure the security of all information discovered or received.

Question 31

An OSC receives an email with "CUI//SP-PRVCY//FED Only" in the body of the message Which organization's website should the OSC go to identify what this marking means?

Options:

A.

NARA

B.

CMMC-AB

C.

DoD Contractors FAQ page

D.

DoD 239.7601 Definitions page

Question 32

Which CMMC Levels meet the standards of protecting FCI (Federal Contract Information) ?

Options:

A.

Level 1

B.

Level 2

C.

Levels 2 and 3

D.

Levels 1, 2, and 3

Question 33

As defined in the CMMC-AB Code of Professional Conduct, what term describes any contract between two legal entities?

Options:

A.

Union

B.

Accord

C.

Alliance

D.

Agreement

Question 34

The practices in CMMC Level 2 consists of the security requirements specified in:

Options:

A.

NISTSP 800-53.

B.

NISTSP 800-171.

C.

48 CFR 52.204-21.

D.

DFARS 252.204-7012.

Question 35

When executing a remediation review, the Lead Assessor should:

Options:

A.

help OSC to complete planned remediation activities.

B.

plan two consecutive remediation reviews for an OSC.

C.

submit a delta assessment remediation package for C3PAO's internal quality review.

D.

validate that practices previously listed on the POA & M have been removed on an updated Risk Assessment.

Question 36

During a Level 1 Self-Assessment, a smart thermostat was identified. It is connected to the Internet on the OSC's WiFi network. What type of asset is this?

Options:

A.

FCI Asset

B.

CUI Asset

C.

In-scope Asset

D.

Specialized Asset

Question 37

A contractor stores security policies, system configuration files, and audit logs in a centralized file repository for later review. According to CMMC terminology, the file repository is being used to:

Options:

A.

protect CUI.

B.

transmit CUI.

C.

store CUI.

D.

generate CUI

Question 38

In the CMMC Model, how many practices are included in Level 1?

Options:

A.

15 practices

B.

17 practices

C.

72 practices

D.

110 practices

Question 39

What is the LAST step when developing an assessment plan for an OSC?

Options:

A.

Verify the readiness to conduct the assessment.

B.

Perform certification assessment readiness review.

C.

Update the assessment plan and schedule as needed

D.

Obtain and record commitment to the assessment plan.

Question 40

Which term describes assessing the ability of a unit equipped with a system to support its mission while withstanding cyber threat activity representative of an actual adversary?

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Black hat testing

C.

Red cell assessment

D.

Adversarial assessment

Question 41

While developing an assessment plan for an OSC. it is discovered that the certified assessor will be interviewing a former college roommate. What is the MOST correct action to take?

Options:

A.

Do not inform the OSC and the C3PAO of the possible conflict of interest, and continue as planned.

B.

Inform the OSC and the C3PAO of the possible conflict of interest, and start the entire process over without the conflicted team member.

C.

Inform the OSC and the C3PAO of the possible conflict of interest but since it has been an acceptable amount of time since college, no conflict of interest exists, and continue as planned.

D.

Inform the OSC and the C3PAO of the possible conflict of interest, document the conflict and mitigation actions in the assessment plan, and if the mitigation actions are acceptable, continue with the assessment.

Question 42

Which domain references the requirements needed to handle physical or digital assets containing CUI?

Options:

A.

Media Protection (MP)

B.

Physical Protection (PE)

C.

System and Information Integrity (SI)

D.

System and Communications Protection (SC)

Question 43

Which statement BEST describes the key references a Lead Assessor should refer to and use the:

Options:

A.

DoD adequate security checklist for covered defense information.

B.

CMMC Model Overview as it provides assessment methods and objects.

C.

safeguarding requirements from FAR Clause 52.204-21 for a Level 2 Assessment.

D.

published CMMC Assessment Guide practice descriptions for the desired certification level.

Question 44

During an assessment, which phase of the process identifies conflicts of interest?

Options:

A.

Analyze requirements.

B.

Develop assessment plan.

C.

Verify readiness to conduct assessment.

D.

Generate final recommended assessment results.

Question 45

What type of information is NOT intended for public release and is provided by or generated for the government under a contract to develop or deliver a product or service to the government, but not including information provided by the government to the public (such as on public websites) or simple transactional information, such as necessary to process payments?

Options:

A.

CDI

B.

CTI

C.

CUI

D.

FCI

Question 46

Which phase of the CMMC Assessment Process includes developing the assessment plan?

Options:

A.

Phase 1

B.

Phase 2

C.

Phase 3

D.

Phase 4

Question 47

Prior to conducting a CMMC Assessment, the contractor must specify the CMMC Assessment scope by categorizing all assets. Which two asset categories are always assessed against CMMC practices?

Options:

A.

CUI Assets and Specialized Assets

B.

Security Protection Assets and CUI Assets

C.

Specialized Assets and Contractor Risk Managed Assets

D.

Security Protection Assets and Contractor Risk Managed Assets

Question 48

A Lead Assessor and an OSC's Assessment Official have agreed to have the Assessment results presented during the final Daily Checkpoint of the OSC's CMMC Level 2 Assessment. Which document MUST the Lead Assessor use to present assessment findings to the OSC?

Options:

A.

CMMC POA & M Brief

B.

CMMC Findings Brief

C.

CMMC Assessment Tracker Tool

D.

CMMC Recommended Findings template

Question 49

During the review of information that was published to a publicly accessible site, an OSC correctly identifies that part of the information posted should have been restricted. Which item did the OSC MOST LIKELY identify?

Options:

A.

FCI

B.

Change of leadership in the organization

C.

Launching of their new business service line

D.

Public releases identifying major deals signed with commercial entities

Question 50

A company has a government services division and a commercial services division. The government services division interacts exclusively with federal clients and regularly receives FCI. The commercial services division interacts exclusively with non-federal clients and processes only publicly available information. For this company's CMMC Level 1 Self-Assessment, how should the assets supporting the commercial services division be categorized?

Options:

A.

FCI Assets

B.

Specialized Assets

C.

Out-of-Scope Assets

D.

Operational Technology Assets

Question 51

Within how many days from the Assessment Final Recommended Findings Brief should the Lead Assessor and Assessment Team Members, if necessary, review the accuracy and validity of (he OSC's updated POA & M with any accompanying evidence or scheduled collections?

Options:

A.

90 days

B.

180 days

C.

270 days

D.

360 days

Question 52

According to DFARS clause 252.204-7012, who is responsible for determining that Information in a given category should be considered CUI?

Options:

A.

The NARA CUI Executive Agent

B.

The contractor who generated the information

C.

The DoD agency for whom the contractor is performing the work

D.

The military personnel assigned to the contractor for that purpose

Question 53

An Assessment Team is conducting a Level 2 Assessment at the request of an OSC. The team has begun to score practices based on the evidence provided. At a MINIMUM what is required of the Assessment Team to determine if a practice is scored as MET?

Options:

A.

All three types of evidence are documented for every control.

B.

Examine and accept evidence from one of the three evidence types.

C.

Complete one of the following; examine two artifacts, either observe a satisfactory demonstration of one control or receive one affirmation from the OSC personnel.

D.

Complete two of the following: examine one artifact, either observe a satisfactory demonstration of one control or receive one affirmation from the OSC personnel.

Question 54

How are the Final Recommended Assessment Findings BEST presented?

Options:

A.

Using the CMMC Findings Brief template

B.

Using a C3PAO-provided template that is preferred by the OSC

C.

Using a C3PAO-branded version of the CMMC Findings Brief template

D.

Using the proprietary template created by the Lead Assessor after approval from the C3PAO

Question 55

Which principles are included in defining the CMMC-AB Code of Professional Conduct?

Options:

A.

Objectivity, classification, and information accuracy

B.

Objectivity, confidentiality, and information integrity

C.

Responsibility, classification, and information accuracy

D.

Responsibility, confidentiality, and information integrity

Question 56

What is the BEST description of the purpose of FAR clause 52 204-21?

Options:

A.

It directs all covered contractors to install the cyber security systems listed in that clause.

B.

It describes all of the safeguards that contractors must take to secure covered contractor IS.

C.

It describes the minimum standard of care that contractors must take to secure covered contractor IS.

D.

It directs covered contractors to obtain CMMC Certification at the level equal to the lowest requirement of their contracts.

Question 57

A Lead Assessor is ensuring all actions have been completed to conclude a Level 2 Assessment. The final Assessment Results Package has been properly reviewed and is ready to be uploaded. What other materials is the Lead Assessor responsible for maintaining and protecting?

Options:

A.

Any additional notes and information from the Assessment

B.

A final assessment plan, and a Quality Control report from C3PAO

C.

A final assessment plan, and a letter from the Lead Assessor explaining the process

D.

A final assessment plan, a letter from the Lead Assessor explaining the results, and a Quality Control report from C3PAO

Question 58

A Lead Assessor is presenting an assessment kickoff and opening briefing. What topic MUST be included?

Options:

A.

Gathering evidence

B.

Review of the OSC's SSP

C.

Overview of the assessment process

D.

Examination of the artifacts for sufficiency

Question 59

A company is working with a CCP from a contracted CMMC consulting company. The CCP is asked where the Host Unit is required to document FCI and CUI for a CMMC Assessment. How should the CCP respond?

Options:

A.

"In the SSP. within the asset inventory, and in the network diagranY'

B.

"Within the hardware inventory, data (low diagram, and in the network diagram"

C.

"Within the asset inventory, in the proposal response, and in the network diagram"

D.

"In the network diagram, in the SSP. within the base inventory, and in the proposal response'"

Question 60

An OSC needs to be assessed on RA.L2-3.11.1: Periodically assess the risk to organizational operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), organizational assets, and individuals, resulting from the operation of organizational systems and the associated processing, storage, or transmission of CUI. What is in scope for a Level 2 assessment of RA.L2-3.11.1?

Options:

A.

IT systems

B.

Enterprise systems

C.

CUI Marking processes

D.

Processes, people, physical entities, and IT systems in which CUI processed, stored, or transmitted

Question 61

Which resource could BEST help a CEO determine how to identify the category of CUI ?

Options:

A.

NARA

B.

CMMC-AB

C.

DoD DFARS Part 252

D.

CMMC Assessment Guide

Question 62

Which training is a CCI authorized to deliver through an approved CMMC LTP?

Options:

A.

CMMC-AB approved training

B.

DoD DFARS and CMMC-AB approved training

C.

NARA CUI training and CMMC-AB approved training

D.

DoD DFARS, NARA CUI, and CMMC-AB approved training

Question 63

During the planning phase of the Assessment Process. C3PAO staff are reviewing the various entities associated with an OSC that has requested a CMMC Level 2 Assessment. Which term describes the people, processes, and technology external to the HQ Organization that participate in the assessment but will not receive a CMMC Level unless an enterprise Assessment is conducted?

Options:

A.

Host Unit

B.

Organization

C.

Coordinating Unit

D.

Supporting Organization/Unit

Question 64

Which organization is the governmental authority responsible for identifying and marking CUI?

Options:

A.

NARA

B.

NIST

C.

CMMC-AB

D.

Department of Homeland Security

Question 65

What is DFARS clause 252.204-7012 required for?

Options:

A.

All DoD solicitations and contracts

B.

Solicitations and contracts that use FAR part 12 procedures

C.

Procurements solely for the acquisition of commercial off-the-shelf

D.

Commercial off-the-shelf sold in the marketplace without modifications

Question 66

When a conflict of interest is unavoidable, a CCP should NOT:

Options:

A.

Inform their organization

B.

Take action to minimize its impact

C.

Disclose it to affected stakeholders

D.

Conceal it from the Assessment Team lead

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Total 221 questions