Summer Sale- Special Discount Limited Time 65% Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: netdisc

Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 31
Total 305 questions

Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

Question 2

Audits should be robustly designed to reflect best practice, appropriate resources, and tested protocols and standards. They should also use what type of auditors?

Options:

A.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud customer

B.

Independent auditors

C.

Certified by CSA

D.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud provider

E.

None of the above

Question 3

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

Options:

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

Question 4

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

Question 5

Which of the following best describes an aspect of PaaS services in relation to network security controls within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

They override the VNet/VPC's network security controls by default

B.

They do not interact with the VNet/VPC’s network security controls

C.

They require manual configuration of network security controls, separate from the VNet/VPC

D.

They often inherit the network security controls of the underlying VNet/VPC

Question 6

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

Options:

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

Question 7

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

Options:

A.

It reduces hardware costs

B.

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

Question 8

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

Question 9

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

Options:

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a singlecloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities withsimilar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

Question 10

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

Options:

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

Question 11

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Question 12

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

Question 13

What key activities are part of the preparation phase in incident response planning?

Options:

A.

Implementing encryption and access controls

B.

Establishing a response process, training, communication plans, and infrastructure evaluations

C.

Creating incident reports and post-incident reviews

D.

Developing malware analysis procedures and penetration testing

Question 14

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

Options:

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

Question 15

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes

Options:

A.

Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity.

B.

An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters.

C.

An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes.

D.

Attributes are made unique by their identities.

E.

Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

Question 16

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

Options:

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

Question 17

Big data includes high volume, high variety, and high velocity.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 18

What is a key advantage of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in application development?

Options:

A.

It removes the need for manual testing.

B.

It eliminates the need for cybersecurity measures.

C.

It enables version control and rapid deployment.

D.

It ensures zero configuration drift by default.

Question 19

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

Options:

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

Question 20

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

Options:

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

Question 21

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

Question 22

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 23

Which of the following is true about access policies in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They are used to monitor real-time network traffic

B.

They are solely concerned with user authentication methods

C.

They provide data encryption protocols for secure communication

D.

They define permissions and network rules for resource access

Question 24

Which resilience tool helps distribute network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure reliability and availability?

Options:

A.

Redundancy

B.

Auto-scaling

C.

Load balancing

D.

Failover

Question 25

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

Options:

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

Question 26

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 27

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

Options:

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

Question 28

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

Question 29

ENISA: “VM hopping” is:

Options:

A.

Improper management of VM instances, causing customer VMs to be commingled with other customer systems.

B.

Looping within virtualized routing systems.

C.

Lack of vulnerability management standards.

D.

Using a compromised VM to exploit a hypervisor, used to take control of other VMs.

E.

Instability in VM patch management causing VM routing errors.

Question 30

Which approach is commonly used by organizations to manage identities in the cloud due to the complexity of scaling across providers?

Options:

A.

Decentralization

B.

Centralization

C.

Federation

D.

Outsourcing

Question 31

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

Options:

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Question 32

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

Question 33

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Options:

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

Question 34

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

Options:

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

Question 35

Which strategic approach is most appropriate for managing a multi-cloud environment that includes multiple IaaS and PaaS providers?

Options:

A.

Allow each department to manage their own cloud services independently.

B.

Use a single security tool for all providers.

C.

Rely on each provider's native security features with limited additional oversight.

D.

Implement strict governance and monitoring procedures across all platforms.

Question 36

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

Options:

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

Question 37

An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to

Options:

A.

Obtain provider permission for test

B.

Use techniques to evade cloud provider’s detection systems

C.

Use application layer testing tools exclusively

D.

Use network layer testing tools exclusively

E.

Schedule vulnerability test at night

Question 38

What is a key characteristic of serverless functions in terms of execution environment?

Options:

A.

They need continuous monitoring by the user

B.

They run on dedicated long-running instances

C.

They require pre-allocated server space

D.

They are executed in isolated, ephemeral environments

Question 39

What of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Broad Network Access

B.

Measured Service

C.

Third Party Service

D.

Rapid Elasticity

E.

Resource Pooling

Question 40

What is a primary benefit of implementing micro-segmentation within a Zero Trust Architecture?

Options:

A.

Simplifies network design and maintenance

B.

Enhances security by isolating workloads from each other

C.

Increases the overall performance of network traffic

D.

Reduces the need for encryption across the network

Question 41

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

Options:

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

Question 42

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

Options:

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

Question 43

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

Options:

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

Question 44

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

Question 45

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

Options:

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

Question 46

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 47

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

BusOps

C.

DevOps

D.

SecDevOps

E.

Scrum

Question 48

Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity?

Options:

A.

Planned Outages

B.

Resiliency Planning

C.

Expected Engineering

D.

Chaos Engineering

E.

Organized Downtime

Question 49

What is a primary benefit of using Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles/identities provided by cloud providers instead of static secrets?

Options:

A.

They lower storage costs

B.

They reduce the risk of credential leakage

C.

They facilitate data encryption

D.

They improve system performance

Question 50

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

Options:

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

Question 51

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

Options:

A.

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.

Establishing a governance hierarchy

Question 52

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

Question 53

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Options:

A.

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.

Infrastructure Security

C.

Compliance and Audit Management

D.

Information Governance

E.

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Question 54

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

Options:

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

Question 55

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

Options:

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

Question 56

How does cloud adoption impact incident response processes in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

It only affects data storage and not incident response

B.

It has no significant impact on incident response processes

C.

It simplifies incident response by consolidating processes

D.

It introduces different processes, technologies, and governance models

Question 57

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?

Options:

A.

Virtualization

B.

Applistructure

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Metastructure

E.

Orchestration

Question 58

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

Question 59

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

Question 60

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

Options:

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

Question 61

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

Options:

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

Question 62

Which two key capabilities are required for technology to be considered cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Abstraction and orchestration

B.

Abstraction and resource pooling

C.

Multi-tenancy and isolation

D.

Virtualization and multi-tenancy

Question 63

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

Options:

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

Question 64

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.

Hardware Security Modules

C.

Network Access Control Lists

D.

API Gateways

Question 65

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

Options:

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

Question 66

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

Question 67

When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

Options:

A.

The CSP server facility

B.

The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud

C.

The network components controlled by the CSP

D.

The CSP office spaces

E.

Their own virtual instances in the cloud

Question 68

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

Question 69

Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed.

Options:

A.

Rapid elasticity

B.

Resource pooling

C.

Broad network access

D.

Measured service

E.

On-demand self-service

Question 70

What is the purpose of access policies in the context of security?

Options:

A.

Access policies encrypt sensitive data to protect it from disclosure and unrestricted access.

B.

Access policies define the permitted actions that can be performed on resources.

C.

Access policies determine where data can be stored.

D.

Access policies scan systems to detect and remove malware infections.

Question 71

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 72

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

Question 73

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

Options:

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

Question 74

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

Options:

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

Question 75

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

Options:

A.

Forwarding plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Application plane

Question 76

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

Options:

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

Question 77

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

Options:

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Question 78

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

Question 79

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

Question 80

What is a core tenant of risk management?

Options:

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are inplace, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss ofcustomers.

Question 81

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Deploying cloud services

C.

Governing access to cloud resources

D.

Managing software licensing

Question 82

What's the difference between DNS Logs and Flow Logs?

Options:

A.

They represent the logging of different networking solutions, and DNS Logs are more suitable for a ZTA implementation

B.

DNS Logs record domain name resolution requests and responses, while Flow Logs record info on source, destination, protocol

C.

They play identical functions and can be used interchangeably

D.

DNS Logs record all the information about the network behavior, including source, destination, and protocol, while Flow Logs record users' applications behavior

Question 83

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

Question 84

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

Options:

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

Question 85

What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?

Options:

A.

To create isolated virtual networks

B.

To monitor network performance and activity

C.

To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations

D.

To encrypt data for secure transmission

Question 86

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

Options:

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

Question 87

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Question 88

What is a primary benefit of consolidating traffic through a central bastion/transit network in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

It minimizes hybrid cloud sprawl and consolidates security.

B.

It reduces the need for physical network hardware.

C.

It increases network redundancy and fault tolerance.

D.

It decreases the latency of data transfers across the cloud network.

Question 89

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

Options:

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

Question 90

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

Options:

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

Question 91

In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Management plane activity logs

B.

Network perimeter monitoring

C.

Endpoint protection status

D.

Physical hardware access

Page: 1 / 31
Total 305 questions