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Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701 v2.0) Exam Practice Test

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Total 801 questions

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701 v2.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Options:

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Question 2

When a next-generation endpoint security solution is selected for a company, what are two key

deliverables that help justify the implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signature-based endpoint protection on company endpoints

B.

macro-based protection to keep connected endpoints safe

C.

continuous monitoring of all files that are located on connected endpoints

D.

email integration to protect endpoints from malicious content that is located in email

E.

real-time feeds from global threat intelligence centers

Question 3

Which two services are provided by the Cisco Talos Incident Response group? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Security policy authorization

B.

Bug identification

C.

Automatic vulnerability remediation

D.

Threat hunting

E.

Cyber range training

Question 4

In which type of attack does the attacker insert their machine between two hosts that are communicating with each other?

Options:

A.

LDAP injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

insecure API

Question 5

Which policy does a Cisco Secure Web Appliance use to block or monitor URL requests based on the reputation score?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Enforcement Security

C.

Cisco Data Security

D.

Outbound Malware Scanning

Question 6

Which open source tool does Cisco use to create graphical visualizations of network telemetry on Cisco IOS XE devices?

Options:

A.

InfluxDB

B.

Splunk

C.

SNMP

D.

Grafana

Question 7

Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco FTD

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 8

A network engineer must monitor user and device behavior within the on-premises network. This data must be sent to the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud analytics platform for analysis. What must be done to meet this

requirement using the Ubuntu-based VM appliance deployed in a VMware-based hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Configure a Cisco FMC to send syslogs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Deploy the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM sensor that sends data to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

C.

Deploy a Cisco FTD sensor to send network events to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Configure a Cisco FMC to send NetFlow to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Question 9

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco CTA

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 10

Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network architecture dynamically

makes configuration changes on switches within the network?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 11

What are two indications of the Cisco Firepower Services Module configuration?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The module is operating in IDS mode.

B.

Traffic is blocked if the module fails.

C.

The module fails to receive redirected traffic.

D.

The module is operating in IPS mode.

E.

Traffic continues to flow if the module fails.

Question 12

A security test performed on one of the applications shows that user input is not validated. Which security vulnerability is the application more susceptible to because of this lack of validation?

Options:

A.

denial -of-service

B.

cross-site request forgery

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

SQL injection

Question 13

Cisco SensorBase gaihers threat information from a variety of Cisco products and services and performs analytics to find patterns on threats Which term describes this process?

Options:

A.

deployment

B.

consumption

C.

authoring

D.

sharing

Question 14

An organization has a requirement to collect full metadata information about the traffic going through their AWS cloud services They want to use this information for behavior analytics and statistics Which two actions must be taken to implement this requirement? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure Cisco ACI to ingest AWS information.

B.

Configure Cisco Thousand Eyes to ingest AWS information.

C.

Send syslog from AWS to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

D.

Send VPC Flow Logs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

E.

Configure Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud to ingest AWS information

Question 15

A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load on their headend Cisco ASA in order to

ensure that bandwidth is available for VPN users needing access to corporate resources on the10.0.0.0/24 local HQ network. How is this accomplished without adding additional devices to the

network?

Options:

A.

Use split tunneling to tunnel traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network only.

B.

Configure VPN load balancing to distribute traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network,

C.

Configure VPN load balancing to send non-corporate traffic straight to the internet.

D.

Use split tunneling to tunnel all traffic except for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.

Question 16

A financial services firm is concerned about employees inadvertently pasting sensitive customer account information into public generative AI websites. The security team needs to implement a solution that inspects outbound traffic and prevents the transmission of sensitive data to AI platforms. Which two configuration actions must the administrator perform on Cisco Secure Access to achieve the requirement? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Apply an AI Guardrail rule to block uploads to unauthorized AI domains.

B.

Implement a strict firewall rule to block all outbound traffic on port 443 for the entire organization.

C.

Disable all web-browser access for employees to prevent them from navigating to any external websites.

D.

Configure a DLP policy to inspect outbound traffic for sensitive data patterns.

E.

Enable the local endpoint firewall to block all traffic to known AI-service IP addresses.

Question 17

Which Cisco security solution integrates with cloud applications like Dropbox and Office 365 while protecting data from being exfiltrated?

Options:

A.

Cisco Tajos

B.

Cisco Steaithwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

Question 18

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

NTLMSSP

B.

Kerberos

C.

CHAP

D.

TACACS+

E.

RADIUS

Question 19

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices. The default management

port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed. What must be done to ensure

that all devices can communicate together?

Options:

A.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

B.

Set the tunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

C.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTDdevices

D.

Set the tunnel port to 8305

Question 20

What is the function of the Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol in an IPsec VPN?

Options:

A.

Handle packet filtering

B.

Negotiate tunnel parameters

C.

Manage data transfers

D.

Encrypt data packets

Question 21

What is a difference between a DoS attack and a DDoS attack?

Options:

A.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP and UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where multiple systems target a single system with a DoS attack

B.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP and UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood multiple servers that are distributed over a LAN

C.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP packets

D.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with UDP packets

Question 22

Which method must be used to connect Cisco Secure Workload to external orchestrators at a client site when the client does not allow incoming connections?

Options:

A.

source NAT

B.

reverse tunnel

C.

GRE tunnel

D.

destination NAT

Question 23

How does Cisco Secure Endpoint provide next-generation protection?

Options:

A.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

B.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

C.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

D.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Secure Endpoint to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

Question 24

Which posture assessment requirement provides options to the client for remediation and requires the

remediation within a certain timeframe?

Options:

A.

Audit

B.

Mandatory

C.

Optional

D.

Visibility

Question 25

An administrator needs to configure the Cisco ASA via ASDM such that the network management system

can actively monitor the host using SNMPv3. Which two tasks must be performed for this configuration?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Specify the SNMP manager and UDP port.

B.

Specify an SNMP user group

C.

Specify a community string.

D.

Add an SNMP USM entry

E.

Add an SNMP host access entry

Question 26

Which open standard underpins OpenID Connect, enabling Cisco Duo to authorize application access?

Options:

A.

OAuth 2.0

B.

SCEP

C.

RSTP

D.

Kerberos

Question 27

Which solution for remote workers enables protection, detection, and response on the endpoint against known and unknown threats?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Duo

Question 28

A network engineer has been tasked with adding a new medical device to the network. Cisco ISE is being used as the NAC server, and the new device does not have a supplicant available. What must be done in order to securely connect this device to the network?

Options:

A.

Use MAB with profiling

B.

Use MAB with posture assessment.

C.

Use 802.1X with posture assessment.

D.

Use 802.1X with profiling.

Question 29

A network engineer has configured a NTP server on a Cisco ASA. The Cisco ASA has IP reachability to the

NTP server and is not filtering any traffic. The show ntp association detail command indicates that the

configured NTP server is unsynchronized and has a stratum of 16. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

Resynchronization of NTP is not forced

B.

NTP is not configured to use a working server.

C.

An access list entry for UDP port 123 on the inside interface is missing.

D.

An access list entry for UDP port 123 on the outside interface is missing.

Question 30

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 30

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?

Options:

A.

hashing algorithm mismatch

B.

encryption algorithm mismatch

C.

authentication key mismatch

D.

interesting traffic was not applied

Question 31

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

TACACS+

B.

CHAP

C.

NTLMSSP

D.

RADIUS

E.

Kerberos

Question 32

Which function is the primary function of Cisco AMP threat Grid?

Options:

A.

automated email encryption

B.

applying a real-time URI blacklist

C.

automated malware analysis

D.

monitoring network traffic

Question 33

Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight viruses and malware?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Sophos engine

B.

white list

C.

RAT

D.

outbreak filters

E.

DLP

Question 34

An engineer needs to configure an access control policy rule to always send traffic for inspection without

using the default action. Which action should be configured for this rule?

Options:

A.

monitor

B.

allow

C.

block

D.

trust

Question 35

Which capability is provided by application visibility and control?

Options:

A.

reputation filtering

B.

data obfuscation

C.

data encryption

D.

deep packet inspection

Question 36

Which license is required for Cisco Security Intelligence to work on the Cisco Next Generation Intrusion

Prevention System?

Options:

A.

control

B.

malware

C.

URL filtering

D.

protect

Question 37

Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP/TCP flags, and payload length?

Options:

A.

interpacket variation

B.

software package variation

C.

flow insight variation

D.

process details variation

Question 38

Which Cisco cloud security software centrally manages policies on multiple platforms such as Cisco ASA, Cisco Firepower, Cisco Meraki, and AWS?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Configuration Professional

C.

Cisco Secureworks

D.

Cisco DNAC

Question 39

What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?

Options:

A.

It allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just notmaliciously.

B.

It discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company’s corporate environment.

C.

It deletes any application that does not belong in the network.

D.

It sends the application information to an administrator to act on.

Question 40

What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats,

which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

External Threat Feeds

C.

Cisco Threat Grid

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Question 41

How does Cisco Workload Optimization Manager help mitigate application performance issues?

Options:

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

Question 42

Which process is used to obtain a certificate from a CA?

Options:

A.

Registration

B.

Enrollment

C.

Signing

D.

Approval

Question 43

Which industry standard is used to integrate Cisco ISE and pxGrid to each other and with other

interoperable security platforms?

Options:

A.

IEEE

B.

IETF

C.

NIST

D.

ANSI

Question 44

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites

but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

Options:

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

D.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy

Question 45

When network telemetry is implemented, what is important to be enabled across all network infrastructure devices to correlate different sources?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

NTP

C.

syslog

D.

DNS

Question 46

An engineer is implementing NAC for LAN users on a segmented network. The engineer confirms that the device of each user is supported and the Cisco switch configuration is correct.

Which configuration should be made next to ensure there are no authentication issues?

Options:

A.

Disable the host firewall.

B.

Enable TACACS+ on the switch.

C.

Open TCP port 49.

D.

Permit UDP port 1812.

Question 47

What must be configured in Cisco ISE to enforce reauthentication of an endpoint session when an endpoint is

deleted from an identity group?

Options:

A.

posture assessment

B.

CoA

C.

external identity source

D.

SNMP probe

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 48

During the rollout of a new site-to-site VPN between a headquarters Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device and a partner firewall, the tunnel never completes IKEv1 Phase 1 and remains in the MM_WAIT_MSG_6 state. Reachability between the firewalls over the Internet is verified, ISAKMP UDP port 500 is permitted end-to-end, and the IKE Phase 1 policy parameters—including encryption, hashing, DH group, and lifetime—match exactly on both ends. Which configuration action must be performed to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure matching peer-identity values under each tunnel group on both endpoints.

B.

Add the same pre-shared key on both peers within their tunnel-group attributes.

C.

Implement identical Diffie-Hellman group numbers within the active IKEv1 policy.

D.

Apply equivalent transform sets and lifetimes inside the crypto-map entries.

Question 49

Which technology must De used to Implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

Options:

A.

GET VPN

B.

IPsec DVTI

C.

DMVPN

D.

FlexVPN

Question 50

What is an attribute of Cisco Talos?

Options:

A.

Introduction of attributes that use objects and narrative relations

B.

Fast and intelligent responses based on threat data

C.

Cyber threat intelligence interchange and maintenance

D.

Cyber threats posing as authorized users and devices

Question 51

What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded

behavioral indicators for threat analysis?

Options:

A.

deep visibility scan

B.

point-in-time checks

C.

advanced sandboxing

D.

advanced scanning

Question 52

A security engineer must create a policy based on the reputation verdict of a file from a Cisco Secure Email Gateway. The file with an undetermined verdict must be dropped. Which action must the security engineer take to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Configure threshold settings for files with no score to be allowed.

B.

Set up a policy to automatically drop files with no reputation score.

C.

Implement a policy to disable file analysis.

D.

Create a policy to send a file to quarantine.

Question 53

How does a WCCP-configured router identify if the Cisco WSA is functional?

Options:

A.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longer transmitted to the router.

B.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longertransmitted to the WSA.

C.

The WSA sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the router acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

D.

The router sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the WSA acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

Question 54

Which security principle advocates rapid cryptographic algorithm replacement to defend against quantum-computing threats?

Options:

A.

Crypto agility

B.

Zero trust

C.

Network slicing

D.

Key escrow

Question 55

Which solution supports high availability in routed or transparent mode as well as in northbound and

southbound deployments?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD with Cisco ASDM

B.

Cisco FTD with Cisco FMC

C.

Cisco Firepower NGFW physical appliance with Cisco. FMC

D.

Cisco Firepower NGFW Virtual appliance with Cisco FMC

Question 56

How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise owned storage?

Options:

A.

by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs

B.

by sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server

C.

by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal

D.

by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket

Question 57

Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing

environments?

Options:

A.

Cisco SDA

B.

Cisco Firepower

C.

Cisco HyperFlex

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 58

A network engineer is testing NTP authentication and realizes that any device synchronizes time with this router and that NTP authentication is not enforced What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The key was configured in plain text.

B.

NTP authentication is not enabled.

C.

The hashing algorithm that was used was MD5. which is unsupported.

D.

The router was not rebooted after the NTP configuration updated.

Question 59

Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

Options:

A.

transparent

B.

redirection

C.

forward

D.

proxy gateway

Question 60

How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?

Options:

A.

per policy

B.

in the Reporting settings

C.

in the Security Settings section

D.

per network in the Deployments section

Question 61

Which DoS attack uses fragmented packets in an attempt to crash a target machine?

Options:

A.

teardrop

B.

smurf

C.

LAND

D.

SYN flood

Question 62

What are two characteristics of Cisco DNA Center APIs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Postman is required to utilize Cisco DNA Center API calls.

B.

They do not support Python scripts.

C.

They are Cisco proprietary.

D.

They quickly provision new devices.

E.

They view the overall health of the network

Question 63

What is an advantage of network telemetry over SNMP pulls?

Options:

A.

accuracy

B.

encapsulation

C.

security

D.

scalability

Question 64

A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Third-party systems need to be able to feed host data into Cisco Firepower. What must be configured to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

a Network Discovery policy to receive data from the host

B.

a Threat Intelligence policy to download the data from the host

C.

a File Analysis policy to send file data into Cisco Firepower

D.

a Network Analysis policy to receive NetFlow data from the host

Question 65

Question # 65

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a certificate-based VPN. What is the result of the existing configuration?

Options:

A.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is encrypted when the OU is set to MANGLER.

B.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is used as the identity when matching an IKEv2 authorization policy.

C.

Only an IKEv2 peer that has an OU certificate attribute set to MANGLER establishes an IKEv2 SA successfully.

D.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is set to MANGLER.

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 66

The DHCP snooping database resides on router R1, and dynamic ARP inspection is configured only on switch SW2. Which ports must be configured as untrusted so that dynamic ARP inspection operates normally?

Options:

A.

P2 and P3 only

B.

P5, P6, and P7 only

C.

P1, P2, P3, and P4 only

D.

P2, P3, and P6 only

Question 67

What is a functional difference between a Cisco ASA and a Cisco IOS router with Zone-based policy firewall?

Options:

A.

The Cisco ASA denies all traffic by default whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall starts out by allowing all traffic, even on untrusted interfaces

B.

The Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall can be configured for high availability, whereas the Cisco ASA cannot

C.

The Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall denies all traffic by default, whereas the Cisco ASA starts out by allowing all traffic until rules are added

D.

The Cisco ASA can be configured for high availability whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall cannot

Question 68

Which API technology with SDN architecture is used to communicate with a controller and network devices such as routers and switches?

Options:

A.

REST APIs

B.

Northbound APIs

C.

Unprotected APIs

D.

Southbound APIs

Question 69

An engineer is securing access to data served by a cloud-based application. The data must be protected from modification in transit, and its integrity must be validated. The following security measures have been implemented:

• Governance with role-based access control based on the principle of least privilege

• TLS 1.3 with signed certificates

• AES-256 with MD5

What must be configured to complete the secure implementation?

Options:

A.

3DES instead of AES

B.

DES instead of TLS 1.3

C.

SHA-512 instead of MD5

D.

SSLv3 instead of MD5

Question 70

Why is it important to have a patching strategy for endpoints?

Options:

A.

to take advantage of new features released with patches

B.

so that functionality is increased on a faster scale when it is used

C.

so that known vulnerabilities are targeted and having a regular patch cycle reduces risks

D.

so that patching strategies can assist with disabling nonsecure protocols in applications

Question 71

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 71

A Cisco Secure Endpoint malware event shows that a file was convicted as malicious and that its remediation status is Quarantine Failed. Before escalating the incident, the analyst must determine what can be concluded from the available event data. What is occurring based on the logs?

Options:

A.

The event data does not establish whether the threat remains present or was remediated through another mechanism.

B.

The failed-quarantine status proves that the endpoint was unable to apply the configured remediation policy.

C.

The failed-quarantine status proves that the file remained accessible to the operating system after the remediation attempt.

D.

The failed-quarantine status proves that the threat continued executing after the remediation attempt.

Question 72

Which action configures the IEEE 802.1X Flexible Authentication feature lo support Layer 3 authentication mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Identity the devices using this feature and create a policy that allows them to pass Layer 2 authentication.

B.

Configure WebAuth so the hosts are redirected to a web page for authentication.

C.

Modify the Dot1x configuration on the VPN server lo send Layer 3 authentications to an external authentication database

D.

Add MAB into the switch to allow redirection to a Layer 3 device for authentication.

Question 73

Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the

deployment?

Options:

A.

NGFW

B.

AMP

C.

WSA

D.

ESA

Question 74

What are two ways that Cisco Container Platform provides value to customers who utilize cloud service providers? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Allows developers to create code once and deploy to multiple clouds

B.

helps maintain source code for cloud deployments

C.

manages Docker containers

D.

manages Kubernetes clusters

E.

Creates complex tasks for managing code

Question 75

How does a cloud access security broker function?

Options:

A.

It is an authentication broker to enable single sign-on and multi-factor authentication for a cloud solution

B.

lt integrates with other cloud solutions via APIs and monitors and creates incidents based on events from the cloud solution

C.

It acts as a security information and event management solution and receives syslog from other cloud solutions.

D.

It scans other cloud solutions being used within the network and identifies vulnerabilities

Question 76

Which key feature of Cisco ZFW is unique among other Cisco IOS firewall solutions?

Options:

A.

Security levels

B.

Stateless inspection

C.

Security zones

D.

SSL inspection

Question 77

DoS attacks are categorized as what?

Options:

A.

phishing attacks

B.

flood attacks

C.

virus attacks

D.

trojan attacks

Question 78

How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?

Options:

A.

up to 2

B.

up to 4

C.

up to 8

D.

up to 16

Question 79

What is a benefit of using GET VPN over FlexVPN within a VPN deployment?

Options:

A.

GET VPN supports Remote Access VPNs

B.

GET VPN natively supports MPLS and private IP networks

C.

GET VPN uses multiple security associations for connections

D.

GET VPN interoperates with non-Cisco devices

Question 80

Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

user input validation in a web page or web application

B.

Linux and Windows operating systems

C.

database

D.

web page images

Question 81

What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

biometric factor

B.

time factor

C.

confidentiality factor

D.

knowledge factor

E.

encryption factor

Question 82

Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?

Options:

A.

DNS tunneling

B.

DNSCrypt

C.

DNS security

D.

DNSSEC

Question 83

Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?

Options:

A.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

B.

aaa new-model

C.

auth-type all

D.

ip device-tracking

Question 84

II

An engineer musí set up 200 new laptops on a network and wants to prevent the users from moving their laptops around to simplify administration Which switch port MAC address security setting must be used?

Options:

A.

sticky

B.

static

C.

aging

D.

maximum

Question 85

What is the purpose of threat intelligence in the Cisco Security Reference Architecture?

Options:

A.

To assist with threat monitoring and incident response

B.

To manage access control and authentication mechanisms

C.

To analyze network traffic and identify potential vulnerabilities

D.

To ensure compliance with industry regulations

Question 86

A logistics company issues corporate laptops that must automatically establish a Cisco Secure Client VPN tunnel whenever users are outside the office and connected to an untrusted external network. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense is the VPN headend and is already configured with remote-access profiles, address pools, and a PKI that distributes both machine and user certificates to endpoints. Management requires the tunnel to come up unattended before any user signs in to a laptop. Device-based authentication must be used, and the client must distinguish the corporate LAN from outside networks. The VPN must be connected when a user is outside the corporate network. Which configuration action must be performed to meet the requirements?

Options:

A.

Configure a Management VPN tunnel with user-certificate authentication for unattended connectivity.

B.

Configure Trusted Network Detection and Start Before Login with machine-certificate authentication for the client.

C.

Configure Trusted Network Detection using cached domain credentials for client authentication.

D.

Implement Start Before Login paired with user-certificate authentication in the profile.

Question 87

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

Options:

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

Question 88

Which MDM configuration provides scalability?

Options:

A.

pushing WPA2-Enterprise settings automatically to devices

B.

enabling use of device features such as camera use

C.

BYOD support without extra appliance or licenses

D.

automatic device classification with level 7 fingerprinting

Question 89

How does Cisco AMP for Endpoints provide next-generation protection?

Options:

A.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

B.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

C.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Cisco AMP to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

D.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

Question 90

Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

put

B.

options

C.

get

D.

push

E.

connect

Question 91

Which solution should be leveraged for secure access of a CI/CD pipeline?

Options:

A.

Duo Network Gateway

B.

remote access client

C.

SSL WebVPN

D.

Cisco FTD network gateway

Question 92

Which two global commands must the network administrator implement to limit the attack surface of an internet-facing Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

no service password-recovery

B.

no cdp run

C.

service tcp-keepalives-in

D.

no ip http server

E.

ip ssh version 2

Question 93

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 93

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are

authenticating with dot1x or mab?

Options:

A.

show authentication registrations

B.

show authentication method

C.

show dot1x all

D.

show authentication sessions

Question 94

A web hosting company must upgrade its older, unsupported on-premises servers. The company wants a cloud solution in which the cloud provider is responsible for:

Server patching

Application maintenance

Data center security

Disaster recovery

Which type of cloud meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

IaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 95

An engineer enabled SSL decryption for Cisco Umbrella intelligent proxy and needs to ensure that traffic is inspected without alerting end-users.

Options:

A.

Upload the organization root CA to the Umbrella admin portal

B.

Modify the user ' s browser settings to suppress errors from Umbrella.

C.

Restrict access to only websites with trusted third-party signed certificates.

D.

Import the Umbrella root CA into the trusted root store on the user ' s device.

Question 96

What is a benefit of using Cisco Tetration?

Options:

A.

It collects telemetry data from servers and then uses software sensors to analyze flowinformation.

B.

It collects policy compliance data and process details.

C.

It collects enforcement data from servers and collects interpacket variation.

D.

It collects near-real time data from servers and inventories the software packages that exist onservers.

Question 97

What is a feature of NetFlow Secure Event Logging?

Options:

A.

It exports only records that indicate significant events in a flow.

B.

It filters NSEL events based on the traffic and event type through RSVP.

C.

It delivers data records to NSEL collectors through NetFlow over TCP only.

D.

It supports v5 and v8 templates.

Question 98

How is data sent out to the attacker during a DNS tunneling attack?

Options:

A.

as part of the UDP/53 packet payload

B.

as part of the domain name

C.

as part of the TCP/53 packet header

D.

as part of the DNS response packet

Question 99

In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint

Protection Platform?

Options:

A.

when there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection

B.

when there is no need to have the solution centrally managed

C.

when there is no firewall on the network

D.

when there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities

Question 100

What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

Options:

A.

CMX

B.

WMI

C.

Prime Infrastructure

D.

Telemetry

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 101

Consider that any feature of DNS requests, such as the length off the domain name

and the number of subdomains, can be used to construct models of expected behavior to which

observed values can be compared. Which type of malicious attack are these values associated with?

Options:

A.

Spectre Worm

B.

Eternal Blue Windows

C.

Heartbleed SSL Bug

D.

W32/AutoRun worm

Question 102

Which Cisco firewall solution supports configuration via Cisco Policy Language?

Options:

A.

CBAC

B.

ZFW

C.

IPS

D.

NGFW

Question 103

An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that traffic is being routed

through the Cisco Umbrella network. Which action tests the routing?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the client computers are pointing to the on-premises DNS servers.

B.

Enable the Intelligent Proxy to validate that traffic is being routed correctly.

C.

Add the public IP address that the client computers are behind to a Core Identity.

D.

Browse to http://welcome.umbrella.com/ to validate that the new identity is working.

Question 104

Which type of data does the Cisco Stealthwatch system collect and analyze from routers, switches, and firewalls?

Options:

A.

NTP

B.

syslog

C.

SNMP

D.

NetFlow

Question 105

An engineer is configuring their router to send NetfFow data to Stealthwatch which has an IP address of 1 1 11 using the flow record Stea!thwatch406397954 command Which additional command is required to complete the flow record?

Options:

A.

transport udp 2055

B.

match ipv4 ttl

C.

cache timeout active 60

D.

destination 1.1.1.1

Question 106

Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA uses it to decrypt application traffic? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It must include the current date.

B.

It must reside in the trusted store of the WSA.

C.

It must reside in the trusted store of the endpoint.

D.

It must have been signed by an internal CA.

E.

it must contain a SAN.

Question 107

Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor, and secure mobile devices on Windows and Mac computers from a centralized dashboard?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Question 108

Which attack type attempts to shut down a machine or network so that users are not able to access it?

Options:

A.

smurf

B.

bluesnarfing

C.

MAC spoofing

D.

IP spoofing

Question 109

Which service allows a user export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility

and control?

Options:

A.

SNORT

B.

NetFlow

C.

SNMP

D.

802.1X

Question 110

A large organization wants to deploy a security appliance in the public cloud to form a site-to-site VPN

and link the public cloud environment to the private cloud in the headquarters data center. Which Cisco

security appliance meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloud Orchestrator

B.

Cisco ASAV

C.

Cisco WSAV

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Question 111

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to deploy it in transparent mode. Which configuration component must be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

MDA on the router

B.

PBR on Cisco WSA

C.

WCCP on switch

D.

DNS resolution on Cisco WSA

Question 112

What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

blocked ports

B.

simple custom detections

C.

command and control

D.

allowed applications

E.

URL

Question 113

What are two functionalities of northbound and southbound APIs within Cisco SDN architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Southbound APIs are used to define how SDN controllers integrate with applications.

B.

Southbound interfaces utilize device configurations such as VLANs and IP addresses.

C.

Northbound APIs utilize RESTful API methods such as GET, POST, and DELETE.

D.

Southbound APIs utilize CLI, SNMP, and RESTCONF.

E.

Northbound interfaces utilize OpenFlow and OpFlex to integrate with network devices.

Question 114

Which two request methods of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

GET

B.

CONNECT

C.

PUSH

D.

OPTIONS

E.

PUT

Question 115

Which two Cisco ISE components must be configured for BYOD? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

local WebAuth

B.

central WebAuth

C.

null WebAuth

D.

guest

E.

dual

Question 116

With which components does a southbound API within a software-defined network architecture communicate?

Options:

A.

controllers within the network

B.

applications

C.

appliances

D.

devices such as routers and switches

Question 117

Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; theIPsec configuration is copied automatically

B.

The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the sametype of device.

C.

The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device

D.

Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device;the IKE configuration is copied automatically.

E.

The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be thesame type of device

Question 118

A network administrator is modifying a remote access VPN on an FTD managed by an FMC. The administrator wants to offload traffic to certain trusted domains. The administrator wants this traffic to go out of the client ' s local internet and send other internet-bound traffic over the VPN Which feature must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

dynamic split tunneling

B.

local LAN access

C.

dynamic access policies

D.

reverse route injection

Question 119

An engineer must modify an existing remote access VPN using a Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility client solution and a Cisco Secure Firewall. Currently, all the traffic generate by the user Is sent to the VPN tunnel and the engineer must now exclude some servers and access them directly instead. Which element must be modified to achieve this goat?

Options:

A.

NAT exemption

B.

encryption domain

C.

routing table

D.

group policy

Question 120

Which Cisco platform provides an agentless solution to provide visibility across the network including encrypted traffic analytics to detect malware in encrypted traffic without the need for decryption?

Options:

A.

Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

D.

Cisco AnyConnect

Question 121

Which benefit does DMVPN provide over GETVPN?

Options:

A.

DMVPN supports QoS, multicast, and routing, and GETVPN supports only QoS.

B.

DMVPN is a tunnel-less VPN, and GETVPN is tunnel-based.

C.

DMVPN supports non-IP protocols, and GETVPN supports only IP protocols.

D.

DMVPN can be used over the public Internet, and GETVPN requires a private network.

Question 122

An email administrator is setting up a new Cisco ESA. The administrator wants to enable the blocking of greymail for the end user. Which feature must the administrator enable first?

Options:

A.

File Analysis

B.

IP Reputation Filtering

C.

Intelligent Multi-Scan

D.

Anti-Virus Filtering

Question 123

Which two functions does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution perform in trying to protect from phishing attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

blocks malicious websites and adds them to a block list

B.

does a real-time user web browsing behavior analysis

C.

provides a defense for on-premises email deployments

D.

uses a static algorithm to determine malicious

E.

determines if the email messages are malicious

Question 124

An engineer must implement an external application that authenticates against the Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense API to perform automated message searches. The application already presents a user bearer token, but the API requires an additional authentication header with each request. The engineer must configure the external application to include the required header alongside the bearer token so that the API calls are accepted. Which header must be configured?

Options:

A.

x-api-key

B.

token-id

C.

client_secret

D.

x-auth-token

Question 125

Which feature enables a Cisco ISR to use the default bypass list automatically for web filtering?

Options:

A.

filters

B.

group key

C.

company key

D.

connector

Question 126

Which term describes when the Cisco Secure Firewall downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Tables?

Options:

A.

analysis

B.

sharing

C.

authoring

D.

consumption

Question 127

A healthcare organization is deploying Cisco Secure Access to prevent protected health information from being shared with generative AI services. The security team requires real-time DLP inspection only for traffic destined for AI applications, with minimal false positives during general web browsing. The policy must permit tuning based on the proximity and match counts of PHI identifiers. Which configuration action must the engineer perform?

Options:

A.

Configure a real-time DLP rule referencing a built-in PHI data classification with default thresholds, scoped to a web profile that includes all Internet traffic.

B.

Implement an API-based DLP rule referencing a custom PHI data classification with tuned proximity and match-count thresholds, scoped to the generative AI application category.

C.

Deploy a real-time DLP rule referencing a built-in PHI data classification with tuned match-count thresholds, scoped to a web profile filtered by destination lists for known AI vendors.

D.

Apply a real-time DLP rule referencing a custom PHI data classification with tuned proximity and match-count thresholds, scoped to a web profile filtered by the generative AI application category.

Question 128

Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?

Options:

A.

per-interface stats

B.

SNMP trap notification

C.

Layer 2 device discovery

D.

central syslog system

Question 129

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast

packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to

address this issue?

Options:

A.

Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard

B.

embedded event monitoring

C.

storm control

D.

access control lists

Question 130

Which two types of policies are used by ZTNA to provide access to an application? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Context

B.

Access

C.

Site-to-site

D.

Identity

E.

Remote access

Question 131

What are two workloaded security models? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

IaaS

C.

on-premises

D.

off-premises

E.

PaaS

Question 132

Which two solutions help combat social engineering and phishing at the endpoint level? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco TrustSec

E.

Cisco Duo Security

Question 133

In a federated single sign-on environment, which protocol exchanges XML-based assertions between an identity provider and a service provider for authentication?

Options:

A.

SAML

B.

OAuth 2.0

C.

LDAP

D.

RADIUS

Question 134

A security engineer requires social-media websites to be blocked through Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense. Which configuration action must the engineer apply to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Enable global settings with default URL filtering.

B.

Configure a file policy in an access control policy.

C.

Apply web filtering in an access control policy.

D.

Block the social-media URL category in the destination-network condition of an access control rule.

Question 135

An engineer must implement a file transfer solution between a company ' s data center and branches. The company has numerous servers hosted in a hybrid cloud implementation. The file transfer protocol must support authentication, protect the data against unauthorized access, and ensure that users cannot list directories or remove files remotely. Which protocol must be used?

Options:

A.

SCP

B.

SSH

C.

FTPS

D.

SFTP

Question 136

What is a feature of an endpoint detection and response solution?

Options:

A.

Preventing attacks by identifying harmful events with machine learning and conduct-based defense

B.

Rapidly and consistently observing and examining data to mitigate threats

C.

Capturing and clarifying data on email, endpoints, and servers to mitigate threats

D.

Ensuring the security of network devices by choosing which devices are allowed to reach the network

Question 137

An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

Options:

A.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor, .

B.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

C.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality

Question 138

What limits communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

microsegmentation

B.

container orchestration

C.

microservicing

D.

Software-Defined Access

Question 139

What are two workload security models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

off-premises

D.

on-premises

E.

IaaS

Question 140

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

Options:

A.

HMAC

B.

SHA-1

C.

MD5

D.

SISHA-2

Question 141

Which two parameters are used to prevent a data breach in the cloud? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DLP solutions

B.

strong user authentication

C.

encryption

D.

complex cloud-based web proxies

E.

antispoofing programs

Question 142

What is a benefit of using Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

DNS queries are resolved faster.

B.

Attacks can be mitigated before the application connection occurs.

C.

Files are scanned for viruses before they are allowed to run.

D.

It prevents malicious inbound traffic.

Question 143

What are two benefits of workload security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tracked application security

B.

Automated patching

C.

Reduced attack surface

D.

Scalable security policies

E.

Workload modeling

Question 144

Which Cisco solution integrates industry-leading artificial intelligence and machine learning analytics and an assurance database to review the security posture and maintain visibility of an organization’s cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cisco CSR1000v

B.

Cisco Secure Workload

C.

Cisco DNA

D.

Cisco FTD

Question 145

Which ESA implementation method segregates inbound and outbound email?

Options:

A.

one listener on a single physical Interface

B.

pair of logical listeners on a single physical interface with two unique logical IPv4 addresses and one IPv6 address

C.

pair of logical IPv4 listeners and a pair Of IPv6 listeners on two physically separate interfaces

D.

one listener on one logical IPv4 address on a single logical interface

Question 146

An engineer is configuring cloud logging on Cisco ASA and needs events to compress. Which component must be configured to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

CDO event viewer

B.

SWC service

C.

Cisco analytics

D.

SDC VM

Question 147

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must configure a sender group that decides which mail policy will process the mail. The configuration must accept incoming mails and relay the outgoing mails from the internal server. Which component must be configured to accept the connection to the listener and meet these requirements on a Cisco Secure Email Gateway?

Options:

A.

RAT

B.

HAT

C.

Sender list

D.

Access list

Question 148

Question # 148

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance.

B.

Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

C.

The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

D.

Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

Question 149

What is a characteristic of an EDR solution and not of an EPP solution?

Options:

A.

stops all ransomware attacks

B.

retrospective analysis

C.

decrypts SSL traffic for better visibility

D.

performs signature-based detection

Question 150

Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?

Options:

A.

Anycast IP

B.

AMP Threat grid

C.

Cisco Talos

D.

BGP route reflector

Question 151

Which CoA response code is sent if an authorization state is changed successfully on a Cisco IOS device?

Options:

A.

CoA-NCL

B.

CoA-NAK

C.

СоА-МАВ

D.

CoA-ACK

Question 152

An organization received a large amount of SPAM messages over a short time period. In order to take action on the messages, it must be determined how harmful the messages are and this needs to happen dynamically.

What must be configured to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Configure the Cisco WSA to modify policies based on the traffic seen

B.

Configure the Cisco ESA to receive real-time updates from Talos

C.

Configure the Cisco WSA to receive real-time updates from Talos

D.

Configure the Cisco ESA to modify policies based on the traffic seen

Question 153

When a transparent authentication fails on the Web Security Appliance, which type of access does the end user get?

Options:

A.

guest

B.

limited Internet

C.

blocked

D.

full Internet

Question 154

Which two activities are performed using Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Provision

D.

DNS

E.

Accounting

Question 155

A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3

Question 156

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 156

What will happen when this Python script is run?

Options:

A.

The compromised computers and malware trajectories will be received from Cisco AMP

B.

The list of computers and their current vulnerabilities will be received from Cisco AMP

C.

The compromised computers and what compromised them will be received from Cisco AMP

D.

The list of computers, policies, and connector statuses will be received from Cisco AMP

Question 157

Which metric is used by the monitoring agent to collect and output packet loss and jitter information?

Options:

A.

WSAv performance

B.

AVC performance

C.

OTCP performance

D.

RTP performance

Question 158

Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and Control?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

802.1X

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNORT

Question 159

Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.

B.

Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.

C.

Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.

D.

An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.

E.

Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls

Question 160

Which two products are used to forecast capacity needs accurately in real time? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Workload

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Workload Optimization Manager

D.

Cisco AppDynamics

E.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 161

Which Cisco platform onboards the endpoint and can issue a CA signed certificate while also automatically configuring endpoint network settings to use the signed endpoint certificate, allowing the endpoint to gain network access?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco NAC

C.

Cisco TACACS+

D.

Cisco WSA

Question 162

Which solution stops unauthorized access to the system if a user ' s password is compromised?

Options:

A.

VPN

B.

MFA

C.

AMP

D.

SSL

Question 163

Drag and drop the posture assessment flow actions from the left into a sequence on the right.

Question # 163

Options:

Question 164

Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.

B.

Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.

C.

Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.

D.

Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.

E.

Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

Question 165

An engineer is configuring cloud logging using a company-managed Amazon S3 bucket for Cisco Umbrella logs. What benefit does this configuration provide for accessing log data?

Options:

A.

It is included m the license cost for the multi-org console of Cisco Umbrella

B.

It can grant third-party SIEM integrations write access to the S3 bucket

C.

No other applications except Cisco Umbrella can write to the S3 bucket

D.

Data can be stored offline for 30 days.

Question 166

An engineer is trying to decide whether to use Cisco Umbrella, Cisco CloudLock, Cisco Stealthwatch, or Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring for visibility into data transfers as well as protection against data exfiltration Which solution best meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco CloudLock

B.

Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Question 167

Which Cisco solution provides a comprehensive view of Internet domains. IP addresses, and autonomous systems to help pinpoint attackers and malicious infrastructures?

Options:

A.

Cisco Threat Indication Database

B.

Cisco Advanced Malware Investigate

C.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

D.

Cisco Secure Workload Cloud

Question 168

What is the purpose of a NetFlow version 9 template record?

Options:

A.

It specifies the data format of NetFlow processes.

B.

It provides a standardized set of information about an IP flow.

C.

lt defines the format of data records.

D.

It serves as a unique identification number to distinguish individual data records

Question 169

Question # 169

Refer to the exhibit. All servers are in the same VLAN/Subnet. DNS Server-1 and DNS Server-2 must communicate with each other, and all servers must communicate with default gateway multilayer switch. Which type of private VLAN ports should be configured to prevent communication between DNS servers and the file server?

Options:

A.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as promiscuous ports.

B.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as promiscuous port, Gigabit Ethernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports C. Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as community ports

C.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as community port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports.

Question 170

A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Cisco ESA is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold

C.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold

D.

The policy was created to disable file analysis

Question 171

Which method of attack is used by a hacker to send malicious code through a web application to an unsuspecting user to request that the victim ' s web browser executes the code?

Options:

A.

buffer overflow

B.

browser WGET

C.

SQL injection

D.

cross-site scripting

Question 172

Which option is the main function of Cisco Firepower impact flags?

Options:

A.

They alert administrators when critical events occur.

B.

They highlight known and suspected malicious IP addresses in reports.

C.

They correlate data about intrusions and vulnerability.

D.

They identify data that the ASA sends to the Firepower module.

Question 173

Drag and drop the cryptographic algorithms for IPsec from the left onto the cryptographic processes on the right.

Question # 173

Options:

Question 174

Refer to the exhibit.

aaa new-model

aaa authentication dot1x default group ISE-SERVERS

aaa authorization network default group ISE-SERVERS

aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group ISE-SERVERS

!

radius server RADIUS_SRV

address ipv4 172.16.10.12 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813

key shared-secret C1sc0123

!

aaa group server radius ISE-SERVERS

server name RADIUS_SRV

radius-server vsa send authentication

radius-server vsa send accounting

radius-server attribute 6 on-for-login-auth

radius-server attribute 8 include-in-access-req

radius-server attribute 25 access-request include

ip device tracking

!

interface range GigabitEthernet1/0/1 - 48

switchport

switchport host

authentication priority dot1x mab

authentication order dot1x mab

A security engineer is integrating a new Cisco Catalyst access switch with Cisco ISE to enforce port-based network access control using 802.1X. The AAA RADIUS server group and access interfaces are configured on the Cisco Catalyst switch. Cisco ISE has authentication and authorization policies, the workstation supplicants are configured as expected, and connectivity between the switch and ISE is working. During testing, the workstations fail to trigger authentication sessions, and no RADIUS requests appear in the ISE logs or on the switch interfaces. Which two configuration commands must be added to the Cisco Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the dot1x system-auth-control command globally.

B.

Implement the aaa server radius dynamic-author command globally.

C.

Apply the dot1x pae authenticator command under interfaces that require 802.1X.

D.

Configure the ip radius source-interface command globally.

E.

Add the mab command under all switch interfaces.

Question 175

A large enterprise is currently managing a hybrid environment consisting of a private data center and multiple public cloud providers. The security engineering team is concerned about “Shadow IT” and the lack of visibility into unauthorized cloud services being used by various departments. The architect must select a solution that provides comprehensive discovery of cloud application usage and assesses the risk of each service based on industry certifications. Which technical solution must be used to provide cross-environment visibility?

Options:

A.

EDR

B.

CASB

C.

Secure Firewall

D.

CWPP

Question 176

What do tools like Jenkins, Octopus Deploy, and Azure DevOps provide in terms of application and

infrastructure automation?

Options:

A.

continuous integration and continuous deployment

B.

cloud application security broker

C.

compile-time instrumentation

D.

container orchestration

Question 177

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

Question 178

Which attribute has the ability to change during the RADIUS CoA?

Options:

A.

NTP

B.

Authorization

C.

Accessibility

D.

Membership

Question 179

A networking team must harden an organization ' s network from VLAN hopping attacks. The team disables Dynamic Trunking Protocol and puts any unused ports in an unused VLAN. A trunk port is used as a trunk link. What must the team configure next to harden the network against VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

disable STP on the network devices

B.

dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports

C.

DHCP snooping on all the switches

D.

enable port-based network access control

Question 180

What are two differences between a Cisco Secure Web Appliance that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

B.

When the Cisco Secure Web Appliance is running in transparent mode, it uses the Secure Web Appliance ' s own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

C.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

D.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

Question 181

In which two ways does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution protect users? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It prevents use of compromised accounts and social engineering.

B.

It prevents all zero-day attacks coming from the Internet.

C.

It automatically removes malicious emails from users ' inbox.

D.

It prevents trojan horse malware using sensors.

E.

It secures all passwords that are shared in video conferences.

Question 182

Which type of information does threat intelligence gather to identify potential threats using common adversary techniques?

Options:

A.

User browsing history and personal data

B.

Aggregated firewall syslogs and routing tables

C.

Network traffic statistics and performance metrics

D.

Data on known malware signatures and IP addresses

Question 183

A network administrator is setting up Cisco FMC to send logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging (SaaS). The network administrator is anticipating a high volume of logging events from the firewalls and wants lo limit the strain on firewall resources. Which method must the administrator use to send these logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging?

Options:

A.

SFTP using the FMCCLI

B.

syslog using the Secure Event Connector

C.

direct connection using SNMP traps

D.

HTTP POST using the Security Analytics FMC plugin

Question 184

What is an advantage of the Cisco Umbrella roaming client?

Options:

A.

the ability to see all traffic without requiring TLS decryption

B.

visibility into IP-based threats by tunneling suspicious IP connections

C.

the ability to dynamically categorize traffic to previously uncategorized sites

D.

visibility into traffic that is destined to sites within the office environment

Question 185

Question # 185

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must enable secure SSH protocols and enters this configuration. What are two results of running this set of commands on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Labels the key pair to be used for SSH

B.

Uses the FQDN with the label command

C.

Generates AES key pairs on the router

D.

Generates RSA key pair on the router

E.

Enables SSHv1 on the router

Question 186

Which standard is used to automate exchanging cyber threat information?

Options:

A.

TAXII

B.

MITRE

C.

IoC

D.

STIX

Question 187

Which solution is more secure than the traditional use of a username and password and encompasses at least two of the methods of authentication?

Options:

A.

single-sign on

B.

RADIUS/LDAP authentication

C.

Kerberos security solution

D.

multifactor authentication

Question 188

An engineer is configuring Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance security by preventing the execution of certain files by users. The engineer needs to ensure that the specific executable file name Cisco_Software_0505446151.exe is blocked from running while never being quarantined. What must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Create advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure application control blocked applications list.

C.

Implement simple custom detection list.

D.

Enable scheduled scans to detect and block the executable files.

Question 189

How does Cisco Umbrella protect clients when they operate outside of the corporate network?

Options:

A.

by modifying the registry for DNS lookups

B.

by using Active Directory group policies to enforce Cisco Umbrella DNS servers

C.

by using the Cisco Umbrella roaming client

D.

by forcing DNS queries to the corporate name servers

Question 190

Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?

Options:

A.

multiple context mode

B.

user deployment of Layer 3 networks

C.

IPv6

D.

clustering

Question 191

Drag and drop the security responsibilities from the left onto the corresponding cloud service models on the right.

Question # 191

Options:

Question 192

What is the purpose of the Trusted Automated exchange cyber threat intelligence industry standard?

Options:

A.

public collection of threat intelligence feeds

B.

threat intelligence sharing organization

C.

language used to represent security information

D.

service used to exchange security information

Question 193

A security engineer is deploying an IPsec site-to-site VPN between headquarters and a remote plant, protected by Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense managed by Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center. The following configurations have already been completed:

    Matching IKEv2 proposals, preshared keys, and IPsec transform sets

    Access control rules permitting the traffic

    Crypto maps applied to the outside interfaces

    VPN traffic exempted from inspection

During a packet capture on the firewall, the engineer observes that the traffic is translated to the public IP address, preventing tunnel establishment. Which configuration action must be performed next?

Options:

A.

Configure NAT exemption for traffic between the interesting subnet pairs.

B.

Create a tunnel group with preshared-key authentication under connection profiles.

C.

Enable IKEv2 fragmentation on both peers to reduce packet size.

D.

Attach the new VPN policy to the global prefilter default action.

Question 194

Using Cisco Firepower’s Security Intelligence policies, upon which two criteria is Firepower block based?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

URLs

B.

protocol IDs

C.

IP addresses

D.

MAC addresses

E.

port numbers

Question 195

What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Duo Security provide to an

organization? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

flexibility of different methods of 2FA such as phone callbacks, SMS passcodes, and push notifications

B.

single sign-on access to on-premises and cloud applications

C.

integration with 802.1x security using native Microsoft Windows supplicant

D.

secure access to on-premises and cloud applications

E.

identification and correction of application vulnerabilities before allowing access to resources

Question 196

A security engineer must configure a Splunk Universal Forwarder to send network traffic logs from Cisco Catalyst switches to a Splunk indexer cluster. Strict compliance requirements require all network traffic logs to be ingested into Splunk as an audit trail. The environment includes thousands of forwarders, and the data must be distributed across all indexers. Which two configuration actions must be performed? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure outputs.conf with the DNS names and indexing ports of all indexers within the cluster.

B.

Implement a large output queue in outputs.conf and disable automatic load balancing.

C.

Configure the forwarder to write logs to a local file share and schedule a batch job to copy the data into the indexers.

D.

Use a deployment server to push an application containing outputs.conf to all Universal Forwarders.

E.

Configure a single primary indexer in outputs.conf and enable a forced connection.

Question 197

A hacker initiated a social engineering attack and stole username and passwords of some users within a company. Which product should be used as a solution to this problem?

Options:

A.

Cisco NGFW

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

D.

Cisco Duo

Question 198

An organization wants to secure users, data, and applications in the cloud. The solution must be API-based and

operate as a cloud-native CASB. Which solution must be used for this implementation?

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 199

An engineer implements Cisco CloudLock to secure a Microsoft Office 365 application in the cloud. The engineer must configure protection for corporate files in case of any incidents. Which two actions must be taken to complete the implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Expire the public share URL

B.

Send Cisco Webex message to specified users when an incident is triggered

C.

Transfer ownership of the files to a specified owner and folder

D.

Remove all users as collaborators on the files

E.

Disable the ability for commenters and viewers to download and copy the files

Question 200

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

Question 201

Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

Options:

A.

TLSv1.2

B.

TLSv1.1

C.

BJTLSv1

D.

DTLSv1

Question 202

Which Cisco security solution determines if an endpoint has the latest OS updates and patches installed on the system?

Options:

A.

Cisco Endpoint Security Analytics

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Endpoint Compliance Scanner

D.

Security Posture Assessment Service

Question 203

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 203

An engineer configures an IPsec VPN between two Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense devices named FTD1 and FTD2. However, the hosts behind FTD1 and FTD2 cannot communicate with each other. The engineer runs a debug command to troubleshoot the issue. What must be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Transform set

B.

Crypto access control list

C.

NAT traversal

D.

Preshared secret

Question 204

What are two Trojan malware attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Frontdoor

B.

Rootkit

C.

Smurf

D.

Backdoor

E.

Sync

Question 205

Which problem Is solved by deploying a multicontext firewall?

Options:

A.

overlapping IP addressing plan

B.

more secure policy

C.

resilient high availability design

D.

faster inspection

Question 206

When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security findings and

vulnerabilities, which name is used?

Options:

A.

Common Security Exploits

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

C.

Common Exploits and Vulnerabilities

D.

Common Vulnerabilities, Exploits and Threats

Question 207

When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Security Category Blocking

C.

Content Category Blocking

D.

File Analysis

Question 208

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize

applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

Options:

A.

Cisco Security Intelligence

B.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

C.

Cisco Model Driven Telemetry

D.

Cisco DNA Center

Question 209

Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct connection?

Options:

A.

Malware installation

B.

Command-and-control communication

C.

Network footprinting

D.

Data exfiltration

Question 210

What provides total management for mobile and PC including managing inventory and device tracking, remote view, and live troubleshooting using the included native remote desktop support?

Options:

A.

mobile device management

B.

mobile content management

C.

mobile application management

D.

mobile access management

Question 211

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch offices, and cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Secure Network Analytics

Question 212

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

Question # 212

Options:

Question 213

An organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and would like to customize the action assigned for

violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a message added to flag it as a

DLP violation. Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?

Options:

A.

deliver and send copies to other recipients

B.

quarantine and send a DLP violation notification

C.

quarantine and alter the subject header with a DLP violation

D.

deliver and add disclaimer text

Question 214

A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for analysis. The network

is congested and is affecting communication. How will the Cisco ESA handle any files which need analysis?

Options:

A.

AMP calculates the SHA-256 fingerprint, caches it, and periodically attempts the upload.

B.

The file is queued for upload when connectivity is restored.

C.

The file upload is abandoned.

D.

The ESA immediately makes another attempt to upload the file.

Question 215

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

Question 216

In an IaaS cloud services model, which security function is the provider responsible for managing?

Options:

A.

Internet proxy

B.

firewalling virtual machines

C.

CASB

D.

hypervisor OS hardening

Question 217

A company has 5000 Windows users on its campus. Which two precautions should IT take to prevent WannaCry ransomware from spreading to all clients? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Segment different departments to different IP blocks and enable Dynamic ARp inspection on all VLANs

B.

Ensure that noncompliant endpoints are segmented off to contain any potential damage.

C.

Ensure that a user cannot enter the network of another department.

D.

Perform a posture check to allow only network access to (hose Windows devices that are already patched.

E.

Put all company users in the trusted segment of NGFW and put all servers to the DMZ segment of the Cisco NGFW. ni

Question 218

What are two benefits of using Cisco Secure Access Secure Web Gateway in addition to DNS-layer protection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enforcing URL-based filtering

B.

Blocking malware before DNS lookup

C.

Data loss prevention

D.

Routing traffic through internal mail filters

E.

Caching DNS queries at the firewall

Question 219

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

B.

Connect to ITSM platforms

C.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

D.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

E.

Third party reporting

Question 220

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 220

What is a result of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Traffic from the DMZ network is redirected

B.

Traffic from the inside network is redirected

C.

All TCP traffic is redirected

D.

Traffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected

Question 221

Which two actions does the Cisco identity Services Engine posture module provide that ensures endpoint security?(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The latest antivirus updates are applied before access is allowed.

B.

Assignments to endpoint groups are made dynamically, based on endpoint attributes.

C.

Patch management remediation is performed.

D.

A centralized management solution is deployed.

E.

Endpoint supplicant configuration is deployed.

Question 222

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right.Question # 222

Options:

Question 223

An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is configuring the

organization’s public cloud to send telemetry using the cloud provider’s mechanisms to a security device. Which

mechanism should the engineer configure to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

mirror port

B.

Flow

C.

NetFlow

D.

VPC flow logs

Question 224

An organization wants to implement a cloud-delivered and SaaS-based solution to provide visibility and threat detection across the AWS network. The solution must be deployed without software agents and rely on AWS VPC flow logs instead. Which solution meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

NetFlow collectors

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 225

Which type of attack is MFA an effective deterrent for?

Options:

A.

ping of death

B.

phishing

C.

teardrop

D.

syn flood

Question 226

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console?

Options:

A.

Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

B.

Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

C.

Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal.

D.

Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal.

Question 227

Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?

Options:

A.

Group Policy

B.

Access Control Policy

C.

Device Management Policy

D.

Platform Service Policy

Question 228

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an access rule for URL filtering, a network engineer adds certain categories and individual URLs to block. What is the result of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Only URLs for botnets with reputation scores of 1-3 will be blocked.

B.

Only URLs for botnets with a reputation score of 3 will be blocked.

C.

Only URLs for botnets with reputation scores of 3-5 will be blocked.

D.

Only URLs for botnets with a reputation score of 3 will be allowed while the rest will be blocked.

Question 229

Which two devices support WCCP for traffic redirection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Web Appliance

B.

Cisco IOS

C.

proxy server

D.

Cisco ASA

E.

Cisco IPS

Question 230

Which functionality does Incident Manager provide in Cisco XDR?

Options:

A.

It calculates the time usually required for incident identification.

B.

It determines the time required to resolve an issue.

C.

It enables backup activities when a threat has been misidentified.

D.

It prioritizes the steps required to recover from an incident.

Question 231

Refer to the exhibit,

Question # 231

which command results in these messages when attempting to troubleshoot an iPsec VPN connection?

Options:

A.

debug crypto isakmp

B.

debug crypto ipsec endpoint

C.

debug crypto Ipsec

D.

debug crypto isakmp connection

Question 232

Which two methods must be used to add switches into the fabric so that administrators can control how switches are added into DCNM for private cloud management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloud Director

B.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

C.

PowerOn Auto Provisioning

D.

Seed IP

E.

CDP AutoDiscovery

Question 233

A security engineer is tasked with configuring TACACS on a Cisco ASA firewall. The engineer must be able to access the firewall command line interface remotely. The authentication must fall back to the local user database of the Cisco ASA firewall. AAA server group named TACACS-GROUP is already configured with TACACS server IP address 192.168.10.10 and key C1sc0512222832!. Which configuration must be done next to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication ssh console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

B.

aaa authentication ssh console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

C.

aaa authentication serial console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

D.

aaa authentication http console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

Question 234

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

intent-based APIs

B.

automation adapters

C.

domain integration

D.

application adapters

Question 235

Which solution offers automated blocking of known threats and visibility into zero-day attack behavior, with the ability to respond directly from the console?

Options:

A.

EPP solution with an HIDS integration

B.

Cloud-native antivirus with offline update support

C.

EDR with behavioral analytics and remote containment

D.

Secure Email Gateway with phishing sandboxing

Question 236

After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations.

Which task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?

Options:

A.

Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.

B.

Generate a system report.

C.

Review the log files.

D.

Perform a trace.

Question 237

An engineer must deploy Cisco Secure Email with Cloud URL Analysis and must meet these requirements:

To protect the network from large-scale virus outbreaks

To protect the network from non-viral attacks such as phishing scams and malware distribution

To provide active analysis of the structure of the URL and information about the domain and page contents

Which two prerequisites must the engineer ensure are configured? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Scanning enabled for each Verdict, Prepend Subject and Deliver.

B.

Outbreak Filters must be enabled globally.

C.

Enable TLS by setting to Preferred to the Default Domain.

D.

Service Logs must be enabled.

E.

Enable Rejected Connection Logging.

Question 238

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Question # 238

Options:

Question 239

A network engineer must enable DHCP snooping on the corporate switches only for VLAN 2. Management requires DHCP traffic from unauthorized servers to be dropped. DHCP snooping is already enabled globally, and the uplink interface toward the authorized DHCP server is already trusted. Which configuration command must be applied to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

ip dhcp snooping trust vlan 2

B.

ip dhcp relay information trusted vlan 2

C.

ip dhcp snooping information option vlan 2

D.

ip dhcp snooping vlan 2

Question 240

What is the difference between EPP and EDR?

Options:

A.

EPP focuses primarily on threats that have evaded front-line defenses that entered the environment.

B.

Having an EPP solution allows an engineer to detect, investigate, and remediate modern threats.

C.

EDR focuses solely on prevention at the perimeter.

D.

Having an EDR solution gives an engineer the capability to flag offending files at the first sign of malicious behavior.

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Total 801 questions