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Cisco 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Exam Practice Test

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Total 843 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which Cisco FlexConnect state allows wireless users that are connected to the network to continue working after the connection to the WLC has been lost?

Options:

A.

Authentication Down/Switching Down

B.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Local

C.

Authentication- Down/Switch-Local

D.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Central

Question 2

Question # 2

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an eBGP neighborship to Router B on Router A. The network that is connected to GO/1 on Router A must be advertised to Router B. Which configuration should be applied?

A)

Question # 2

B)

Question # 2

C)

Question # 2

D)

Question # 2

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 3

Question # 3

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker can advertise OSPF fake routes from 172.16.20.0 network to the OSPF domain and black hole traffic. Which action must be taken to avoid this attack and still be able to advertise this subnet into OSPF?

Options:

A.

Configure 172.16.20.0 as a stub network.

B.

Apply a policy to filter OSPF packets on R2.

C.

Configure a passive Interface on R2 toward 172.16.20.0.

D.

Configure graceful restart on the 172.16.20.0 interface.

Question 4

What is a characteristics of traffic policing?

Options:

A.

lacks support for marking or remarking

B.

must be applied only to outgoing traffic

C.

can be applied in both traffic directions

D.

queues out-of-profile packets until the buffer is full

Question 5

What is a TLOC in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

value that identifies a specific tunnel within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

B.

identifier that represents a specific service offered by nodes within the Cisco SD-WAN overlay

C.

attribute that acts as a next hop for network prefixes

D.

component set by the administrator to differentiate similar nodes that offer a common service

Question 6

What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?

Options:

A.

15

B.

20

C.

25

D.

10

Question 7

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment types on the right.

Question # 7

Options:

Question 8

An engineer must configure an EXEC authorization list that first checks a AAA server then a local username. If both methods fail, the user is denied. Which configuration should be applied?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization exec default local group tacacs+

B.

aaa authorization exec default local group radius none

C.

aaa authorization exec default group radius local none

D.

aaa authorization exec default group radius local

Question 9

A Cisco DNA Center REST API sends a PUT to the /dna/intent/api/v1/network-device endpoint A response code of 504 is received What does the code indicate?

Options:

A.

The response timed out based on a configured interval

B.

The user does not have authorization to access this endpoint.

C.

The username and password are not correct

D.

The web server is not available

Question 10

An engineer must configure an ACL that permits packets which include an ACK in the TCP header Which entry must be included in the ACL?

Options:

A.

access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack

B.

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack

C.

access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

D.

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 11

How should the script be completed so that each device configuration is saved into a JSON-formatted file under the device name?

A)

Question # 11

B)

Question # 11

C)

Question # 11

D)

Question # 11

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 12

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router. The engineer wants to prevent having a route to 177.16.0.0/16 learned via OSPF. In the routing table and configures a prefix list using the command ip prefix-list OFFICE seq S deny 172.16.0.0/16. Winch two identical configuration commands must be applied to accomplish the goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

distribute-list prefix OFFICE in under the OSPF process

B.

Ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 Ie 32

C.

ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ge 32

D.

distribute-list OFFICE out under the OSPF process

E.

distribute-list OFFICE in under the OSPF process

Question 13

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

Options:

A.

a predetermined string that is passed from client to server

B.

a one-time encrypted token

C.

a username that is stored in the local router database

D.

a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Question 14

Refer the exhibit.

Question # 14

Which configuration elects SW4 as the root bridge for VLAN 1 and puts G0/2 on SW2 into a blocking state?

A)

Question # 14

B)

Question # 14

C)

Question # 14

D)

Question # 14

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 15

Question # 15

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer checks connectivity between two routers. The engineer can ping the remote endpoint but cannot see an ARP entry. Why is there no ARP entry?

Options:

A.

The ping command must be executed in the global routing table.

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/0 Is configured in VRF CUST-A, so the ARP entry is also in that VRF.

C.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol must be enabled In each VRF.

D.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol is disabled in the global routing table.

Question 16

Question # 16

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer tries to log in to router R1. Which configuration enables a successful login?

A)

Question # 16

B)

Question # 16

C)

Question # 16

D)

Question # 16

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 17

An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, WHICH VIRTUAL IP address must be used in this configuration?

Options:

A.

192.0.2.1

B.

172.20.10.1

C.

1.1.1.1

D.

192.168.0.1

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 18

An engineer entered the command no spanning-tree bpduguard enable on interface Fa 1/0/7. What is the effect of this command on Fa 1/0/7?

Options:

A.

It remains in err-disabled state until the shutdown/no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

B.

It remains in err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery cause failed-port-state command is entered in the global configuration mode.

C.

It remains in err-disabled state until the no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

D.

It remains in err-disabled state until the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard disable command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

Question 19

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

applications

B.

disk

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 20

What is the result of the API request?

Options:

A.

The "params" variable sends data fields to the network appliance.

B.

The native interface information is read from the network appliance.

C.

The Information for all interfaces is read from the network appliance.

D.

The "params" variable reads data fields from the network appliance

Question 21

Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be added to enable GigabitEthemet 0/1 to participate in OSPF?

Options:

A.

SF_router (config-router)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B.

SF_rouier (conng)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

C.

SF_router (conflg-routerp) network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

D.

SF_rouler (contlg-rouler)# network 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 22

Which command set must be applied on R1 to establish a BGP neighborship with R2 and to allow communication from R1 to reach the networks?

A)

Question # 22

B)

Question # 22

C)

Question # 22

D)

Question # 22

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 23

A large campus network has deployed two wireless LAN controllers to manage the wireless network. WLC1 and WLC2 have been configured as mobility peers. A client device roams from AP1 on WLC1 to AP2 on WLC2, but the controller's client interfaces are on different VLANs. How do the wireless LAN controllers handle the inter-subnet roaming?

Options:

A.

WLC1 marks me diem with an anchor entry In Its own database. The database entry is copied to the new controller and marked with a foreign entry on VVLC2.

B.

WLC2 marks the client with an anchor entry In Its own database. The database entry Is copied to the new controller and marked with a foreign entry on WLC1

C.

WLCl marks the client with a foreign entry in its own database. The database entry is copied to the new controller and marked with an anchor entry on WLC2.

D.

WLC2 marks the client with a foreign entry In its own database. The database entry Is copied to the new controller and marked with an anchor entry on WLC1.

Question 24

What is one benefit of adopting a data modeling language?

Options:

A.

augmenting management process using vendor centric actions around models

B.

refactoring vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations

C.

augmenting the use of management protocols like SNMP for status subscriptions

D.

deploying machine-friendly codes to manage a high number of devices

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 25

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP-enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02 Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

A)

Question # 25

B)

Question # 25

C)

Question # 25

D)

Question # 25

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 26

Question # 26

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30 seconds and continue until stopped?

Options:

A.

ip sla schedule 100 start-time now life forever

B.

ip sla schedule 30 start-time now life forever

C.

ip sla schedule 100 start-time now life 30

D.

ip sla schedule 100 life forever

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 27

After configuring the BGP network, an engineer verifies that the path between Servers and Server2 Is functional. Why did RouterSF choose the route from RouterDAL instead of the route from RouterCHI?

Options:

A.

The Router-ID Tor Router DAL is lower than the Roter-ID for RouterCHI.

B.

The route from RouterOAL has a lower MED.

C.

BGP is not running on RouterCHI.

D.

There is a static route in RouterSF for 10.0.0.0/24.

Question 28

Which IPv4 packet field carries the QoS IP classification marking?

Options:

A.

ID

B.

TTL

C.

FCS

D.

ToS

Question 29

What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

Options:

A.

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

B.

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

C.

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

D.

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

Question 30

Question # 30

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured RSPAN to troubleshoot an issue between switch1 and switch2. The switches are connected using interface GigabitEthernet 1/1. An external packet capture device is connected is switch2 interface GigabitEthernet 1/2. Which two commands must be added to complete this configuration? (Choose two)

Question # 30

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 31

Which type of tunnel Is required between two WLCs to enable Intercontroller roaming?

Options:

A.

mobility

B.

LWAPP

C.

CAPWAP

D.

iPsec

Question 32

An administrator is configuring NETCONF using the following XML string. What must the administrator end the request with?

Question # 32

Options:

A.

]]>]]>

B.

C.

D.

Question 33

Which option must be used to support a WLC with an IPv6 management address and 100 Cisco Aironet 2800 Series access points that will use DHCP to register?

Options:

A.

43

B.

52

C.

60

D.

82

Question 34

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Question # 34

Options:

Question 35

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 35

The port channel between the switches does not work as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Gi0/0 on Switch2 must be configured as passive.

B.

Interface Gi0/1 on Switch1 must be configured as desirable.

C.

interface Gi0/1 on Switch2 must be configured as active.

D.

Trucking must be enabled on both Interfaces on Switch2.

Question 36

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients'?

Question # 36

A)

Question # 36

B)

Question # 36

C)

Question # 36

D)

Question # 36

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 37

What happens when a FlexConnect AP changes to standalone mode?

Options:

A.

All controller-dependent activities stop working except the DFS.

B.

All client roaming continues to work

C.

Only clients on central switching WLANs stay connected.

D.

All clients on an WLANs are disconnected

Question 38

Question # 38

Question # 38

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be implemented to establish EBGP peering between R1 and R2?

Question # 38

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 39

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

Options:

A.

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

Question 40

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

A)

Question # 40

B)

Question # 40

C)

Question # 40

D)

Question # 40

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 41

What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

Options:

A.

The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server.

B.

The number of hops it takes to reach the authoritative time source.

C.

The amount of offset between the device clock and true time.

D.

The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.

Question 42

Which function does a fabric wireless LAN controller perform In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

manages fabric-enabled APs and forwards client registration and roaming information to the Control Plane Node

B.

coordinates configuration of autonomous nonfabric access points within the fabric

C.

performs the assurance engine role for both wired and wireless clients

D.

is dedicated to onboard clients in fabric-enabled and nonfabric-enabled APs within the fabric

Question 43

What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

Options:

A.

EIRP

B.

mW

C.

dBm

D.

dBi

Question 44

Refer to The exhibit.

Question # 44

Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

Options:

A.

VRF VFN_A

B.

VRF VPN_B

C.

management VRF

D.

default VRF

Question 45

Which benefit is provided by the Cisco DNA Center telemetry feature?

Options:

A.

provides improved network security

B.

inventories network devices

C.

aids In the deployment network configurations

D.

improves the user experience

Question 46

Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit. What is achieved by this code?

Options:

A.

It unshuts the loopback interface

B.

It renames the loopback interface

C.

It deletes the loopback interface

D.

It displays the loopback interface

Question 47

What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

Options:

A.

Container

B.

Mainframe

C.

Host

D.

virtual machine

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block Telnet traffic from hosts in the range of 10.100 2.248 to 10.100.2 255 to the network 10.100.3.0 and permit everything else. Which configuration must the engineer apply'?

Question # 48

A)

Question # 48

B)

Question # 48

C)

Question # 48

D)

Question # 48

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 49

Which two characteristics apply to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detect and black ransomware in email attachments

B.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

C.

user context analysis

D.

blocking of fileless malware in real time

E.

cloud-based analysis of threats

Question 50

An engineer must configure a router to leak routes between two VRFs Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Question # 50

Question # 50

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 51

What is a characteristic of a Type I hypervisor?

Options:

A.

It is installed on an operating system and supports other operating systems above it.

B.

It is referred to as a hosted hypervisor.

C.

Problems in the base operating system can affect the entire system.

D.

It is completely independent of the operating system.

Question 52

Which option works with a DHCP server to return at least one WLAN management interface IP address during the discovery phase and is dependent upon the VCI of the AP?

Options:

A.

Option 42

B.

Option 15

C.

Option 125

D.

Option 43

Question 53

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

ideal for data center

B.

complicated deployment

C.

ideal for client/end-user system

D.

referred to as bare-metal

Question 54

Question # 54

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A)

Question # 54

B)

Question # 54

C)

Question # 54

D)

Question # 54

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 55

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the appropriate tools on the right.

Question # 55

Options:

Question 56

Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Question # 56

Options:

Question 57

What are the main components of Cisco TrustSec?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE and Enterprise Directory Services

B.

Cisco ISE. network switches, firewalls, and routers

C.

Cisco ISE and TACACS+

D.

Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense

Question 58

What is used to validate the authenticity of the client and is sent in HTTP requests as a JSON object?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

JWT

D.

TLS

Question 59

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture which device manages endpoint ID to edge node bindings?

Options:

A.

fabric control plane node

B.

fabric wireless controller

C.

fabric border node

D.

fabric edge node

Question 60

In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

Options:

A.

NSF/NSR

B.

SSO

C.

HSRP

D.

VRRP

Question 61

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the technology types on the right.

Question # 61

Options:

Question 62

What is one main REST security design principle?

Options:

A.

separation of privilege

B.

password hashing

C.

confidential algorithms

D.

OAuth

Question 63

What is one characteristic of the Cisco SD-Access control plane?

Options:

A.

It is based on VXLAN technology.

B.

Each router processes every possible destination and route

C.

It allows host mobility only in the wireless network.

D.

It stores remote routes in a centralized database server

Question 64

Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH traffic that a router accepts to 100 kbps?

A)

Question # 64

B)

Question # 64

C)

Question # 64

D)

Question # 64

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 65

What is a client who is running 802.1x for authentication reffered to as?

Options:

A.

supplicant

B.

NAC device

C.

authenticator

D.

policy enforcement point

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 66

Assuming all links are functional, which path does PC1 take to reach DSW1?

Options:

A.

PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to CORE to DSW1.

B.

PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to DSW1.

C.

PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW1.

D.

PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to ALSW2 to DSW1.

Question 67

Simulation 04

Question # 67

Question # 67

Options:

Question 68

What is a characteristics of Cisco SD-WAN?

Options:

A.

operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

B.

requires manual secure tunnel configuration

C.

uses unique per-device feature templates

D.

uses control connections between routers

Question 69

Question # 69

Refer to the exhibit Which configuration enables password checking on the console line, using only a password?

A)

Question # 69

B)

Question # 69

C)

Question # 69

D)

Question # 69

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 70

A network engineer wants to configure console access to a router without using AAA so that the privileged exec mode is entered directly after a user provides the correct login credentials. Which action achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

Configure login authentication privileged on line con 0.

B.

Configure a local username with privilege level 15.

C.

Configure privilege level 15 on line con 0.

D.

Configure a RADIUS or TACACS+ server and use it to send the privilege level.

Question 71

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 71

What does the response "204 No Content mean for the REST API request?

Options:

A.

Interface toopback 100 is not removed from the configuration.

B.

Interface toopback 100 is not found in the configuration.

C.

Interface toopback 100 is removed from the configuration.

D.

The DELETE method is not supported.

Question 72

Question # 72

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are directly connected, but the BGP session does not establish. Which action must be taken to build an eBGP session?

Options:

A.

Configure ip route 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 192.168.12.1 on R2.

B.

Configure neighbor 192.168.12.1 activate under R2 BGP process.

C.

Configure neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 65002 under R1 BGP process.

D.

Configure no neighbor 192.168.12.1 shutdown under R2 BGP process.

Question 73

In which way are EIGRP and OSPF similar?

Options:

A.

They both support unequal-cost load balancing

B.

They both support MD5 authentication for routing updates.

C.

They nave similar CPU usage, scalability, and network convergence times.

D.

They both support autosummarization

Question 74

Where is the wireless LAN controller located in a mobility express deployment?

Options:

A.

There is no wireless LAN controller in the network.

B.

The wireless LAN controller is embedded into the access point.

C.

The wireless LAN controller exists in the cloud.

D.

The wireless LAN controller exists in a server that is dedicated for this purpose.

Question 75

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of this Python code?

Options:

A.

1

B.

0

C.

7

D.

7.5

Question 76

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment models on the right.

Question # 76

Options:

Question 77

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

Options:

A.

0c:5e:ac:07:0c:29

B.

00:05:0c:07:ac:41

C.

004:41:73:18:84:29

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:29

Question 78

What is one being of implementing a data modetag language?

Options:

A.

accuracy of the operations performed

B.

uses XML style of data formatting

C.

machine-oriented logic and language-facilitated processing.

D.

conceptual representation to simplify interpretation.

Question 79

What is a command-line tool for consuming REST APIs?

Options:

A.

Postman

B.

CURL

C.

Firefox

D.

Python requests

Question 80

What is a characteristics of VXLAN?

Options:

A.

It extends Layer 2 and Layer 3 overlay networks over a Layer 2 underlay.

B.

It has a 12-byt packet header.

C.

It frame encapsulation is performed by MAC-In-UDP

D.

It uses TCP for transport

Question 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 81

Which action must be taken to configure a WLAN for WPA2-AES with PSK and allow only 802.l1r-capable clients to connect?

Options:

A.

Change Fast Transition to Adaptive Enabled and enable FT * PSK

B.

Enable Fast Transition and FT + PSK.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and PSK

D.

Enable PSK and FT + PSK.

Question 82

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the corresponding tools on the right.

Question # 82

Options:

Question 83

A company recently decided to use RESTCONF instead of NETCONF and many of their NETCONF scripts contain the operation

(operation=”create”).Which RESTCONF operation must be used to replace these statements?

Options:

A.

POST

B.

GET

C.

PUT

D.

CREATE

Question 84

A company hires a network architect to design a new OTT wireless solution within a Cisco SD-Access Fabric wired network. The architect wants to register access points to the WLC to centrally switch the traffic. Which AP mode must the design include?

Options:

A.

Bridge

B.

Fabric

C.

FlexConnect

D.

local

Question 85

What does a YANG model provide?

Options:

A.

standardized data structure independent of the transport protocols

B.

creation of transport protocols and their interaction with the OS

C.

user access to interact directly with the CLI of the device to receive or modify network configurations

D.

standardized data structure that can be used only with NETCONF or RESTCONF transport protocols

Question 86

: 264

What is a characteristic of para-virtualization?

Options:

A.

Para-virtualization allows direct access between the guest OS and the hypervisor.

B.

Para-virtualization allows the host hardware to be directly accessed.

C.

Para-virtualization guest servers are unaware of one another.

D.

Para-virtualization lacks support for containers.

Question 87

Which Python library is used to work with YANG data models via NETCONF?

Options:

A.

Postman

B.

requests

C.

nccllent

D.

cURL

Question 88

Question # 88

Refer to the exhibit What does this Python script do?

Options:

A.

enters the RAOIUS username for a specific IP address

B.

writes the username for a specific IP address into a light database

C.

enters the TACACS* username for a specific IP address

D.

reads the username for a specific IP address from a light database

Question 89

Which signal strength and noise values meet the minimum SNR for voice networks?

Options:

A.

signal strength -67 dBm, noise 91 dBm

B.

signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm

C.

signal strength -68 dBm, noise 89 dBm

D.

signal strength -66 dBm, noise 90 dBm

Question 90

Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the Python script to print the device model to the screen and write JSON data to a file Not all options are used

Question # 90

Options:

Question 91

A script contains the statement "while loop != 999:" Which value terminates the loop?

Options:

A.

A value equal to 999.

B.

A value less than or equal to 999.

C.

A value not equal to 999.

D.

A value greater than or equal to 999.

Question 92

What is an advantage of utilizing data models in a multivendor environment?

Options:

A.

lowering CPU load incurred to managed devices

B.

improving communication security with binary encoded protocols

C.

facilitating a unified approach to configuration and management

D.

removing the distinction between configuration and runtime state data

Question 93

Question # 93

Refer to the exhibit. Why was the response code generated?

Options:

A.

The resource was unreachable

B.

Access was denied based on the user permissions.

C.

The resource 15 no longer available on the server.

D.

There Is a conflict in the current stale of the resource.

Question 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 94

Which configuration enables fallback to local authentication and authorization when no TACACS+ server is available?

Options:

A.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login default local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec default local

B.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ local

C.

Router(config)# aaa fallback local

D.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login FALLBACK local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec FALLBACK local

Question 95

Which two methods are used by an AP that is typing to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbour

B.

broadcasting on the local subnet

C.

DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.localdomain

D.

DHCP Option 43

E.

querying other APs

Question 96

Drag the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Question # 96

Options:

Question 97

Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set enables router R2 to be configured via NETCONF?

A)

Question # 97

B)

Question # 97

C)

Question # 97

D)

Question # 97

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 98

How does Protocol Independent Multicast function?

Options:

A.

In sparse mode, it establishes neighbor adjacencies and sends hello messages at 5-second intervals.

B.

It uses the multicast routing table to perform the multicast forwarding function.

C.

It uses unicast routing information to perform the multicast forwarding function.

D.

It uses broadcast routing information to perform the multicast forwarding function.

Question 99

Which activity requires access to Cisco DNA Center CLI?

Options:

A.

provisioning a wireless LAN controller

B.

creating a configuration template

C.

upgrading the Cisco DNA Center software

D.

graceful shutdown of Cisco DNA Center

Question 100

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

Options:

A.

logging buffer

B.

service timestamps log uptime

C.

logging host

D.

terminal monitor

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 101

Which statement is needed to complete the EEM applet and use the Tel script to store the backup file?

Options:

A.

action 2.0 cli command "write_backup.tcl tcl"

B.

action 2.0 cli command "flash:write_backup.tcl"

C.

action 2.0 cli command "write_backup.tcl"

D.

action 2.0 cli command "telsh flash:write_backup.tcl"

Question 102

Why would a small or mid-size business choose a cloud solution over an on-premises solution?

Options:

A.

Cloud provides higher data security than on-premises.

B.

Cloud provides more control over the implementation process than on-premises.

C.

Cloud provides greater ability for customization than on-premises.

D.

Cloud provides lower upfront cost than on-premises.

Question 103

Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?

Options:

A.

CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER local

B.

CAPWAP-CONTROLLER local

C.

CISCO-CONTROLLER local

D.

CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER local

Question 104

: 194

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 104

Which type of antenna is shown on the radiation patterns?

Options:

A.

Yagi

B.

dipole

C.

patch

D.

omnidirectional

Question 105

Question # 105

Refer to the exhibit An engineer is troubleshooting a newly configured BGP peering that does not establish What is the reason for the failure?

Options:

A.

BGP peer 10 255 255 3 is not configured for peenng wth R1

B.

Mandatory BOP parameters between R1 and 10 255 255 3 are mismatched

C.

A firewall is blocking access to TCP port 179 on the BGP peer 10 255 255.3

D.

Both BGP pern are configured for passive TCP transport

Question 106

Simulation 01

BGP connectivity exists between Headquarters and both remote sites; however, Remote Site 1 cannot communicate with Remote Site 2. Configure BGP according to the topology to

goals:

1. Configure R1 and R3 under the BGP process to provide reachability between Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2. No configuration changes are permitted on R2.

2. Ensure that the /32 networks at Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2 can ping each other.

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

R1

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

R3

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

Question # 106

Options:

Question 107

Which JSON script is properly formatted?

A)

Question # 107

B)

Question # 107

C)

Question # 107

D)

Question # 107

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 108

Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to store the changed interface configuration to a local JSON-formatted file?

Question # 108

Question # 108

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 109

Which configuration protects the password for the VTY lines against over-the-shoulder attacks?

Options:

A.

username admin secret 7 6j809j23kpp43883500N7%e$

B.

service password-encryption

C.

line vty 04 password $25$FpM7182!

D.

line vty 0 15

password $25$FpM71f82!

Question 110

Question # 110

Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.

B.

A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.

C.

R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.

D.

R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.

E.

R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Question 111

Which device is responsible for finding EID-to-RLOC mappings when traffic is sent to a LISP-capable site?

Options:

A.

map server

B.

map resolver

C.

ingress tunnel router

D.

egress tunnel router

Question 112

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 112

Which GRE tunnel configuration command is missing on R2?

Options:

A.

tunnel source 192.181.2

B.

tunnel source 172.16.1.0

C.

tunnel source 200.1.1.1

D.

tunnel destination 200.1.1.1

Question 113

What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically

B.

pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers

C.

onboarding of SD-WAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay

D.

gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers

Question 114

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

Options:

A.

TCP connect

B.

ICMP echo

C.

ICMP jitter

D.

UDP jitter

Question 115

Question # 115

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an ERSPAN tunnel that mirrors traffic from linux1 on Switch1 to Linux2 on Switch2. Which command must be added to the destination configuration to enable the ERSPAN tunnel?

Options:

A.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# origin ip address 172.16.10.10

B.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# erspan-id 172.16.10.10

C.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# no shut

D.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# erspan-id 110

Question 116

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 116

Which result Is achieved by the CoPP configuration?

Options:

A.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always allowed.

B.

Class-default traffic is dropped.

C.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always allowed with a limited CIR.

D.

Traffic that matches entry 10 of ACL 100 is always dropped.

Question 117

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching architectures on the right.

Question # 117

Options:

Question 118

When a branch location loses connectivity, which Cisco FlexConnect state rejects new users but allows existing users to function normally?

Options:

A.

Authentication-Down / Switch-Local

B.

Authentication-Down / Switching-Down

C.

Authentication-Local / Switch-Local

D.

Authentication-Central f Switch-Local

Question 119

Simulation 09

Question # 119

Question # 119

Question # 119

Options:

Question 120

Which mobility role is assigned to a client in the client table of the new controller after a Layer 3 roam?

Options:

A.

anchor

B.

foreign

C.

mobility

D.

transparent

Question 121

An engineer must configure Interface and sensor monitoring on a router. The NMS server is located in a trusted zone with IP address 10.15.2.19. Communication between the router and the NMS server must be encrypted and password-protected using the most secure algorithms. Access must be allowed only for the NMS server and with the minimum permission levels needed. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

Question # 121

B)

Question # 121

C)

Question # 121

D)

Question # 121

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 122

Question # 122

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration set implements Control plane Policing for SSH and Telnet?

Question # 122

Question # 122

Question # 122

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 123

Which two features are available only in next-generation firewalls? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

virtual private network

B.

deep packet inspection

C.

stateful inspection

D.

application awareness

E.

packet filtering

Question 124

Question # 124

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is required to summarize the Area 2 networks that are advertised to Area 0?

Question # 124

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 125

Which two security features are available when implementing NTP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

symmetric server passwords

B.

dock offset authentication

C.

broadcast association mode

D.

encrypted authentication mechanism

E.

access list-based restriction scheme

Question 126

When using BFD in a network design, which consideration must be made?

Options:

A.

BFD is used with first hop routing protocols to provide subsecond convergence.

B.

BFD is more CPU-intensive than using reduced hold timers with routing protocols.

C.

BFD is used with dynamic routing protocols to provide subsecond convergence.

D.

BFD is used with NSF and graceful to provide subsecond convergence.

Question 127

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 127

An engineer must configure static NAT on R1 lo allow users HTTP access to the web server on TCP port 80. The web server must be reachable through ISP 1 and ISP 2. Which command set should be applied to R1 to fulfill these requirements?

Options:

A.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 extendable

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 extendable

B.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80

C.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 209.165.201.1 8080

D.

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 no-alias

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 no-alias

Question 128

A network monitoring system uses SNMP polling to record the statistics of router interfaces The SNMP queries work as expected until an engineer installs a new interface and reloads the router After this action, all SNMP queries for the router fail What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The SNMP community is configured incorrectly

B.

The SNMP interface index changed after reboot.

C.

The SNMP server traps are disabled for the interface index

D.

The SNMP server traps are disabled for the link state.

Question 129

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 129

CR2 and CR3 ate configured with OSPF. Which configuration, when applied to CR1. allows CR1 to exchange OSPF Information with CR2 and CR3 but not with other network devices or on new Interfaces that are added to CR1?

A)

Question # 129

B)

Question # 129

C)

Question # 129

D)

Question # 129

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 130

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 130

An engineer must configure HSRP for VLAN 1000 on SW2. The secondary switch must immediately take over the role of active router If the interlink with the primary switch fails. Which command set completes this task?

A)

Question # 130

B)

Question # 130

C)

Question # 130

D)

Question # 130

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 131

Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

MPLS EXP bits

B.

bandwidth

C.

DSCP

D.

ToS

E.

packet size

Question 132

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 132

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

A)

Question # 132

B)

Question # 132

C)

Question # 132

D)

Question # 132

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 133

Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?

Options:

A.

ETR

B.

MR

C.

ITR

D.

MS

Question 134

What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

rogue AP

B.

conventional oven

C.

fire alarm

D.

LED lights

E.

radar

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 135

What is required to configure a second export destination for IP address 192.168.10.1?

Options:

A.

Specify a VRF.

B.

Specify a different UDP port.

C.

Specify a different flow ID

D.

Configure a version 5 flow-export to the same destination.

E.

Specify a different TCP port.

Question 136

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 136

The trunk does not work over the back-to-back link between Switch1 interface Giq1/0/20 and Switch2 interface Gig1/0/20. Which configuration fixes the problem?

A)

Question # 136

B)

Question # 136

C)

Question # 136

D)

Question # 136

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 137

What is a benefit of Type 1 hypervisors?

Options:

A.

Administrators are able to load portable virtual machine packages in OVA or QCOW2 formats.

B.

Network engineers are able to create virtual networks o interconnect virtual machines in Layer 2 topologies

C.

Operators are able to leverage orchestrators to manage workloads that run on multiple Type 1 hypervisors

D.

Storage engineers are able to leverage VMDK files to provide storage to virtual machine.

Question 138

How is a data modeling language used?

Options:

A.

To enable data lo be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated

B.

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed

C.

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure

D.

To provide human readability to scripting languages

Question 139

What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

common exchange point between two different services

B.

attribute to identify a set of services offered in specific places in the SD-WAN fabric

C.

virtualized environment that provides traffic isolation and segmentation in the SD-WAN fabric

D.

virtual channel used to carry control plane information

Question 140

Question # 140

Refer to the exhibit. Which result does the python code achieve?

Options:

A.

The code encrypts a base64 decrypted password.

B.

The code converts time to the "year/month/day" time format.

C.

The code converts time to the yyyymmdd representation.

D.

The code converts time to the Epoch LINUX time format.

Question 141

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 141

What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

Options:

A.

DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+

B.

Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode

C.

Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network

D.

Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode.

Question 142

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters.

  • The first method for authentication is TACACS
  • If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login VTY group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

password 7 0202039485748

R1#sh run | include username

R1#

B.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

R1#sh run | include username

R1#

C.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

password 7 0202039485748

D.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

transport input none

R1#

Question 143

What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC?

Options:

A.

It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller.

B.

It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs.

C.

It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails.

D.

It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between Itself and the primary controller.

Question 144

Which two characteristics define the Intent API provided by Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

northbound API

B.

business outcome oriented

C.

device-oriented

D.

southbound API

E.

procedural

Question 145

What is the structure of a JSON web token?

Options:

A.

three parts separated by dots: header payload, and signature

B.

header and payload

C.

three parts separated by dots: version header and signature

D.

payload and signature

Question 146

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 146

An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?

Options:

A.

The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate

B.

The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate

C.

The connection is using an unsupported protocol

D.

The connection is using an unsupported browser

Question 147

A network engineer is adding an additional 10Gps link to an exiting 2x10Gps LACP-based LAG to augment its capacity. Network standards require a bundle interface to be taken out of service if one of its member links goes down, and the new link must be added with minimal impact to the production network. Drag and drop the tasks that the engineer must perform from the left into the sequence on the right. Not all options are used.

Question # 147

Options:

Question 148

Question # 148

Refer to the exhibit. Router BRDR-1 is configured to receive the 0.0.0.0/0 and 172.17.1.0/24 network via BGP and advertise them into OSPF are 0. An engineer has noticed that the OSPF domain is receiving only the 172.17.1.0/24 route and default route 0.0.0.0/0 is still missing. Which configurating must engineer apply to resolve the problem?

Question # 148

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 149

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 149

An engineers reaching network 172 16 10 0/24 via the R1-R2-R4 path. Which configuration forces the traffic to take a path of R1-R3-R4?

A)

Question # 149

B)

Question # 149

C)

Question # 149

D)

Question # 149

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 150

In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?

Options:

A.

provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic

B.

provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence

C.

provide advanced network security features such as 802. IX, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port security

D.

provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP

Question 151

A vulnerability assessment highlighted that remote access to the switches is permitted using unsecure and unencrypted protocols Which configuration must be applied to allow only secure and reliable remote access for device administration?

Options:

A.

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input none

B.

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input telnet ssh

C.

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input ssh

D.

line vty 0 15

login local

transport input all

Question 152

Question # 152

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is attempting to configure an IS-IS adjacency between two routers, but the adjacency cannot be established. To troubleshoot the problem, the operator collects this debugging output. Which interfaces are misconfigured on these routers?

Options:

A.

The peer router interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the R2 interface is configured as Level 2 only

B.

The R2 interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the Peer router interface is configured as Level 2 only

C.

The R2 interface is configured as point-to-point, and the peer router interface is configured as multipoint.

D.

The peer router interface is configured as point-as-point, and the R2 interface is configured as multipoint.

Question 153

Why would an engineer use YANG?

Options:

A.

to transport data between a controller and a network device

B.

to access data using SNMP

C.

to model data for NETCONF

D.

to translate JSON into an equivalent XML syntax

Question 154

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that configures BGP according to the topology. Not all options are used, and some options may be used twice.

Question # 154

Options:

Question 155

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 155

The network administrator must be able to perform configuration changes when all the RADIUS servers are unreachable. Which configuration allows all commands to be authorized if the user has successfully authenticated?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization exec default group radius none

B.

aaa authentication login default group radius local none

C.

aaa authorization exec default group radius if-authenticated

D.

aaa authorization exec default group radius

Question 156

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Question # 156

Options:

Question 157

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 157

Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102 0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?

Options:

A.

192.168.101.18

B.

192.168.101.6

C.

192.168.101.10

D.

192.168.101.14

Question 158

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 158

After the code is run on a Cisco IOS-XE router, the response code is 204.

What is the result of the script?

Options:

A.

The configuration fails because another interface is already configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24.

B.

The configuration fails because interface GigabitEthernet2 is missing on the target device.

C.

The configuration is successfully sent to the device in cleartext.

D.

Interface GigabitEthernet2 is configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24

Question 159

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how Is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored?

Options:

A.

with IP SLA

B.

ARP probing

C.

using BFD

D.

with OMP

Question 160

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 160

An engineer reconfigures the pot-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1's log.

Which command set resolves this error?

A)

Question # 160

B)

Question # 160

C)

Question # 160

D)

Question # 160

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 161

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 161

Which code results in the working Python script displaying a list of network devices from the Cisco DNA Center?

Question # 161

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 162

What is required for intercontroller Layer 3 roaming?

Options:

A.

Mobility groups are established between wireless controllers.

B.

The management VLAN is present as a dynamic VLAN on the second WLC.

C.

WLCs use separate DHCP servers.

D.

WLCs have the same IP addresses configured on their interfaces.

Question 163

How does a fabric AP fit in the network?

Options:

A.

It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

B.

It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

C.

It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

D.

It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Question 164

What do Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide?

Options:

A.

Interface between the controller and the network devices

B.

NETCONF API interface for orchestration communication

C.

RESful API interface for orchestrator communication

D.

Interface between the controller and the consumer

Question 165

Refer the exhibit.

Question # 165

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

Options:

A.

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B.

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

C.

Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID

D.

Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID

Question 166

How are map-register messages sent in a LISP deployment?

Options:

A.

egress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

B.

ingress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

C.

egress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

D.

ingress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropnate egress tunnel router

Question 167

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Question # 167

Options:

Question 168

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 168

An engineer configures OSPF and wants to verify the configuration Which configuration is applied to this device?

A)

Question # 168

B)

Question # 168

C)

Question # 168

D)

Question # 168

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 169

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, which two functions are performed by OMP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes

B.

configuration of control and data policies

C.

gathering of underlay infrastructure data

D.

delivery of crypto keys

E.

segmentation and differentiation of traffic

Question 170

How does CEF switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?

Options:

A.

CEF switching saves memory by sorting adjacency tables in dedicate memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory

B.

CEF switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table

C.

CEF switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor

D.

CEF switching uses proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses in MAC address table

Question 171

Which element enables communication between guest VMs within a virtualized environment?

Options:

A.

hypervisor

B.

vSwitch

C.

virtual router

D.

pNIC

Question 172

Which technology uses network traffic telemetry, contextual information, and file reputation to provide insight into cyber threats?

Options:

A.

threat defense

B.

security services

C.

security intelligence

D.

segmentation

Question 173

Question # 173

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

Question # 173

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 174

Which threat defence mechanism, when deployed at the network perimeter, protects against zero-day attacks?

Options:

A.

intrusion prevention

B.

stateful inspection

C.

sandbox

D.

SSL decryption

Question 175

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

Options:

A.

Passive

B.

Tap

C.

Inline tap

D.

Inline

Question 176

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.

Question # 176

Options:

Question 177

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Question # 177

Options:

Question 178

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 178

Which two facts does the device output confirm? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The device sends unicast messages to its peers

B.

The device's HSRP group uses the virtual IP address 10.0.3.242

C.

The standby device is configured with the default HSRP priority.

D.

The device is using the default HSRP hello timer

E.

The device is configured with the default HSRP priority

Question 179

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters

  • The first method for authentication it TACACS
  • If TACACS is unavailable login is allowed without any provided credentials

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Question # 179

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 180

Which cisco DNA center application is responsible for group-based accesss control permissions?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Provision

C.

Assurance

D.

Policy

Question 181

A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Fast Transition

B.

Central Web Authentication

C.

Cisco Centralized Key Management

D.

Identity PSK

Question 182

When is the Design workflow used In Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure

B.

in a greenfield or brownfield deployment, to wipe out existing data

C.

in a brownfield deployment, to modify configuration of existing devices in the network

D.

in a brownfield deployment, to provision and onboard new network devices

Question 183

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 183

A company requires that all wireless users authenticate using dynamic key generation. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open wep wep_methods

B.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic wep wep_methods

C.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic open wep_dynamic

D.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open eap eap_methods

Question 184

Drag and drop the tools from the left onto the agent types on the right.

Question # 184

Options:

Question 185

Which access point mode allows a supported AP to function like a WLAN client would, associating and identifying client connectivity issues?

Options:

A.

client mode

B.

SE-connect mode

C.

sensor mode

D.

sniffer mode

Question 186

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 186

Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?

Options:

A.

Yagi

B.

multidirectional

C.

directional patch

D.

omnidirectional

Question 187

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 187

Which command must be applied to Router 1 to bring the GRE tunnel to an up/up state?

Options:

A.

Routed (config if funnel mode gre multipoint

B.

Router1(config-if)&tunnel source Loopback0

C.

Router1(config-if)#tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/1

D.

Router1 (config)#interface tunnel0

Question 188

Refer to the Exhibit.

Question # 188

An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected. Which action will resolve the configuration error?

Options:

A.

configure matching hold and delay timers

B.

configure matching key-strings

C.

configure matching priority values

D.

configure unique virtual IP addresses

Question 189

In which two ways does TCAM differ from CAM? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

CAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions, and TCAM is used for Layer 3 address lookups.

B.

The MAC address table is contained in CAM, and ACL and QoS Information Is stored in TCAM.

C.

CAM Is used by routers for IP address lookups, and TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions.

D.

CAM is used for software switching mechanisms, and TCAM is used for hardware switching mechanisms.

E.

The MAC address table Is contained in TCAM, and ACL and QoS information is stored in CAM.

Question 190

Which characteristic distinguishes Ansible from Chef?

Options:

A.

Ansible lacs redundancy support for the master server. Chef runs two masters in an active/active mode.

B.

Ansible uses Ruby to manage configurations. Chef uses YAML to manage configurations.

C.

Ansible pushes the configuration to the client. Chef client pulls the configuration from the server.

D.

The Ansible server can run on Linux, Unix or Windows. The Chef server must run on Linux or Unix.

Question 191

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 191

MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared?

Options:

A.

The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation.

B.

The packet is discarded on router A

C.

The packet is discarded on router B

D.

The packet arrives on router C fragmented.

Question 192

Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides user and flow context analysis?

Options:

A.

Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT

B.

Cisco Stealth watch system

C.

Advanced Malware Protection

D.

Cisco Web Security Appliance

Question 193

Drag and drop the Qos mechanisms from the left to the correct descriptions on the right

Question # 193

Options:

Question 194

Question # 194

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set must be applied to the NewYork switch to resolve the issue?

A)

Question # 194

B)

Question # 194

C)

Question # 194

D)

Question # 194

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 195

What is the output of this code?

Question # 195

Options:

A.

username Cisco

B.

get_credentials

C.

username

D.

CISCO

Question 196

Which three methods does Cisco DNA Centre use to discover devices? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

LLDP

D.

ping

E.

NETCONF

F.

a specified range of IP addresses

Question 197

Question # 197

Refer to the exhibit How was spanning-tree configured on this interface?

Options:

A.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast trunk in the interface configuration mode.

B.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast in the interface configuration mode

C.

By entering the command spanning-tree mst1 vlan 10,20,30,40 in the global configuration mode

D.

By entering the command spanning-tree vlan 10,20,30,40 root primary in the interface configuration mode

Question 198

Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?

Options:

A.

MTU

B.

Window size

C.

MRU

D.

MSS

Question 199

Question # 199

Refer to the exhibit. External users require HTTP connectivity to an internal company web server that is listening on TCP port 8080. Which command set accomplishes this requirement?

A)

Question # 199

B)

Question # 199

C)

Question # 199

D)

Question # 199

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 200

When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?

Options:

A.

NTP server

B.

PKI server

C.

RADIUS server

D.

TACACS server

Question 201

What is the function of a VTEP in VXLAN?

Options:

A.

provide the routing underlay and overlay for VXLAN headers

B.

dynamically discover the location of end hosts in a VXLAN fabric

C.

encapsulate and de-encapsulate traffic into and out of the VXLAN fabric

D.

statically point to end host locations of the VXLAN fabric

Question 202

What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?

Options:

A.

It creates two entries for each network node, one for Its identity and another for its location on the network.

B.

It allows LISP to be applied as a network visualization overlay though encapsulation.

C.

It allows multiple Instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router.

D.

It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.

Question 203

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 203

An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts, drag and drop the commands into the configuration to achieve these results. Some commands may be used more than once. Not all commands are used.

Question # 203

Options:

Question 204

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

Options:

A.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

Question 205

Which device makes the decision for a wireless client to roam?

Options:

A.

wireless client

B.

wireless LAN controller

C.

access point

D.

WCS location server

Question 206

Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their deceptions on the right.

Question # 206

Options:

Question 207

Which three elements determine Air Time efficiency? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

evert-driven RRM

B.

data rate (modulation density) or QAM

C.

channel bandwidth

D.

number of spatial streams and spatial reuse

E.

RF group leader

F.

dynamic channel assignment

Question 208

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

Question 209

An engineer must provide wireless converge in a square office. The engineer has only one AP and believes that it should be placed it in the middle of the room. Which antenna type should the engineer use?

Options:

A.

directional

B.

polarized

C.

Yagi

D.

omnidirectional

Question 210

Which design principle slates that a user has no access by default to any resource, and unless a resource is explicitly granted, it should be denied?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

fail-safe defaults

C.

economy of mechanism

D.

complete mediation

Question 211

Question # 211

What does the cisco DNA REST response indicate?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center has the Incorrect credentials for cat3850-1

B.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to communicate with cat9000-1

C.

Cisco DNA Center has the incorrect credentials for cat9000-1

D.

Cisco DNA Center has the Incorrect credentials for RouterASR-1

Question 212

Which line must be added in the Python function to return the JSON object {"cat_9k": “FXS193202SE")?

Question # 212

A)

Question # 212

B)

Question # 212

C)

Question # 212

D)

Question # 212

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 213

Which devices does Cisco DNA Center configure when deploying an IP-based access control policy?

Options:

A.

All devices integrating with ISE

B.

selected individual devices

C.

all devices in selected sites

D.

all wired devices

Question 214

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 214

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?

Options:

A.

R4(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

B.

R3(config-router)neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200

C.

R3(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200

D.

R4(config-router)nighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200

Question 215

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 215

An engineer must create a configuration that executes the show run command and then terminates the session when user CCNP legs in. Which configuration change is required?

Options:

A.

Add the access-class keyword to the username command

B.

Add the access-class keyword to the aaa authentication command

C.

Add the autocommand keyword to the username command

D.

Add the autocommand keyword to the aaa authentication command

Question 216

Question # 216

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router r R1 Allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 to addresses in the public space?

A)

Question # 216

B)

Question # 216

C)

Question # 216

D)

Question # 216

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 217

Refer to exhibit.

Question # 217

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?

Options:

A.

SW1 (config)#vtp pruning

B.

SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent

C.

SW2(config)=vtp pruning

D.

SW1 (config >»vtp mode transparent

Question 218

An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which command set is required?

A)

Question # 218

B)

Question # 218

C)

Question # 218

D)

Question # 218

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 219

which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Oracle VM VirtualBox

B.

VMware server

C.

Citrix XenServer

D.

Microsoft Virtual PC

Question 220

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

Options:

A.

switch fabric

B.

VTEP

C.

VNID

D.

host switch

Question 221

An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows:

Question # 221

The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205

B.

configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205

C.

configure dns-server 172.16.50.5

D.

configure dns-server 172.16.100.1

Question 222

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 222

A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec profiles. Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two).

Options:

A.

Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set ACL, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.

B.

Apply the crypto map to the tunnel interface and change the tunnel mode to tunnel mode ipsec ipv4.

C.

Remove all configuration related to crypto map from R1 and R2 and eliminate the ACL.

D.

Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.

E.

Remove the crypto map and modify the ACL to allow traffic between 10.10.0.0/24 to 10.20.0.0/24.

Question 223

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools they describe on the right.

Question # 223

Options:

Question 224

Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic except for http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1?

A)

Question # 224

B)

Question # 224

C)

Question # 224

D)

Question # 224

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 225

What is one benefit of implementing a VSS architecture?

Options:

A.

It provides multiple points of management for redundancy and improved support

B.

It uses GLBP to balance traffic between gateways.

C.

It provides a single point of management for improved efficiency.

D.

It uses a single database to manage configuration for multiple switches

Question 226

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:

Question # 226

Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing

B.

Location D has the strongest RF signal strength

C.

The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than location A

D.

The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than location C

E.

The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than location B

 

Question 227

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 227

An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the loopback interface of router R2 during the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times. Which command accomplish this task?

A)

Question # 227

B)

Question # 227

C)

Question # 227

D)

Question # 227

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 228

What is the function of the LISP map resolver?

Options:

A.

to send traffic to non-LISP sites when connected to a service provider that does not accept nonroutable ElDs as packet sources

B.

to connect a site to the LISP-capable part of a core network publish the EID-to-RLOC mappings for the site, and respond to map-request messages

C.

to decapsulate map-request messages from ITRs and forward the messages to the MS.

D.

to advertise routable non-LISP traffic from one address family to LISP sites in a different address family

Question 229

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 229

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A)

Question # 229

B)

Question # 229

C)

Question # 229

D)

Question # 229

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 230

What is the difference between CEF and process switching?

Options:

A.

CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.

B.

CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.

C.

CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.

D.

Process switching is faster than CEF.

Question 231

In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?

Options:

A.

to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric

B.

to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric

C.

to advertise fabric IP address space to external network

D.

to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric

Question 232

What is a characteristic of a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

It must be aware of other virtual machines, in order to allocate physical resources for them

B.

It is deployable without a hypervisor to host it

C.

It must run the same operating system as its host

D.

It relies on hypervisors to allocate computing resources for it

Question 233

“HTTP/1.1 204 content” is returned when cur –I –x delete command is issued. Which situation has occurred?

Options:

A.

The object could not be located at the URI path.

B.

The command succeeded in deleting the object

C.

The object was located at the URI, but it could not be deleted.

D.

The URI was invalid

Question 234

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.

Question # 234

Options:

Question 235

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Question # 235

Options:

Question 236

What are two characteristics of VXLAN? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It uses VTEPs to encapsulate and decapsulate frames.

B.

It has a 12-bit network identifier

C.

It allows for up to 16 million VXLAN segments

D.

It lacks support for host mobility

E.

It extends Layer 2 and Layer 3 overlay networks over a Layer 2 underlay.

Question 237

Question # 237

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

B.

R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

C.

R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0

D.

R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0

E.

R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

Question 238

Which JSON syntax is valid?

A)

Question # 238

B)

Question # 238

C)

Question # 238

D)

Question # 238

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 239

Which method of account authentication does OAuth 2.0 within REST APIs?

Options:

A.

username/role combination

B.

access tokens

C.

cookie authentication

D.

basic signature workflow

Question 240

If the noise floor is -90 dBm and wireless client is receiving a signal of -75 dBm, what is the SNR?

Options:

A.

15

B.

1.2

C.

-165

D.

.83

Question 241

Question # 241

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a trunk between switch sw1 and switch SW2 using DTP, but the trunk does not form. Which command should the engineer apply to switch SW2 to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport nonegotiate

C.

no switchport

D.

switchport mode access

Question 242

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 242

A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration. Which interface or interface or interface are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthemet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40

B.

only GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

only GigabttEthernet0/0

D.

Gigabit Ethernet0/0 and GigabitEthemet0/1

Question 243

When is an external antenna used inside a building?

Options:

A.

only when using Mobility Express

B.

when it provides the required coverage

C.

only when using 2 4 GHz

D.

only when using 5 GHz

Question 244

What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?

Options:

A.

1500

B.

9100

C.

4464

D.

17914

Question 245

Question # 245

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer troubleshoots an issue with the port channel between SW1 and SW2. which command resolves the issue?

A)

Question # 245

B)

Question # 245

C)

Question # 245

D)

Question # 245

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 246

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?

Options:

A.

It is leveraged for dynamic endpoint to group mapping and policy definition.

B.

It provides GUI management and abstraction via apps that share context.

C.

it is used to analyze endpoint to app flows and monitor fabric status.

D.

It manages the LISP EID database.

Question 247

Drag and drop the threat defense solutions from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

Question # 247

Options:

Question 248

Question # 248

Question # 248

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

Options:

A.

Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.

B.

Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound

C.

Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.

D.

Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Question 249

Where is radio resource management performed in a cisco SD-access wireless solution?

Options:

A.

DNA Center

B.

control plane node

C.

wireless controller

D.

Cisco CMX

Question 250

What is used to perform OoS packet classification?

Options:

A.

the Options field in the Layer 3 header

B.

the Type field in the Layer 2 frame

C.

the Flags field in the Layer 3 header

D.

the TOS field in the Layer 3 header

Question 251

Question # 251

Refer to the exhibit. POSTMAN is showing an attempt to retrieve network device information from Cisco DNA Center API. What is the issue?

Options:

A.

The URI string is incorrect

B.

The token has expired.

C.

Authentication has failed

D.

The JSON payload contains the incorrect UUID

Question 252

Which data is properly formatted with JSON?

A)

Question # 252

B)

Question # 252

C)

Question # 252

D)

Question # 252

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Total 843 questions