Cisco 200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Exam Practice Test
Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers
Refer to the exhibit.

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?
When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?
An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abcd.abcd.abcd on voice VLAN 4?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?
What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?
The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements
• Create 8 new subnets
• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet
• A Layer 3 interface is used
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A)

B)

C)

D)


A)

B)

C)

D)

Which property is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?
Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?
Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
What is the definition of backdoor malware?
Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?
To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-GHz clients connect? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided
• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports
• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3
• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 10.0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?
Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?
Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a preshared key for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?
SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configuredd in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must transtate the PC1 IIP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?
What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168.1.0/24 and why?
Refer to the exhibit.

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?
Why implement VRRP?
What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by the word " switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?
PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?
What is a characteristic of a collapsed-core network topology?
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration for RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?
Which channel-group mode must be configuredd when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?
object
value
Refer to the exhibit.

Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?
Refer to the exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router.
Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
What is a function of a remote access VPN?
What is a DHCP client?
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
Which network action occurs within the data plane?
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
In software-defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

What describes the operation of virtual machines?
Which output displays a JSON data representation?

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the matching HSRP state on the right.


Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
What describes a northbound REST API for SDN?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.


Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination addresss of 10.10.10.147?
Which authentication method requires the user to provide a physical attribute to authenticate successfully?
Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?
Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?
A)

B)

C)

D)

How does automation affect network management processes?

Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?
A)

B)

C)

D)


Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)
What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?
What does the term " spirt MAC” refer to in a wirelesss architecture?
Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?
Which capability does TFTP provide?
What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:
Handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections
Minimizes consumption of public IP addresssses
Which configuration meets the requirements?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?
Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation froin the let into the order on the right.

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP addressss 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?
Which protocol is implemented when an organization must verify network performance, troubleshoot issues, and use an agent to communicate between monitoring tools and end devices?

Refer to the exhibit. With a reference bandwidth of 100 Gb on all routers, which path does router Y use to get to network 192.168.1.0/24?

A)

B)

C)

D)

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addresssing?
Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a static password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.


SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PC1 to the SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP addressss 100.100.100.100?
What should a network administrator consider when deciding to implement automation?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
How does MAC learning function?
What is the default interface for in-band wirelesss network management on a WLC?
What is a DHCP client?

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration for RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast addresss and an IPv6 anycast addresss?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary addresss must be advertised in OSPF?
A wirelesss access point is needed and must meet these requirements:
• " zero-touch " deployed and managed by a WLC
• process only real-time MAC functionality
• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?
What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?
How does MAC learning function?

Refer to the exhibit. Company A wants to use a RADIUS server to service all user and device authentication attempts with a more secure and granular authentication approach. Not all client devices support dot1x authentication. Which two configuration changes must be made to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addressses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated addresss self-assignment on the IPv6 network?
Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the characteristic froin the left onto the IPv6 addresss type on the right.


Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?
What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local addresss and a unique local addresss?
Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics froin the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?
Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?
What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?


Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet3/1/4 port on a switch?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?
Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?
What is the function of a server?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4 GHz channels and lower usage on the 5 GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5 GHz access points?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.


A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?
What must be considered when using 802:11 a?
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
What are network endpoints?
Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?
Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.


All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.


Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.



IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.


Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.


Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.


Topology:

Configure OSPF routing for the network by completing the following tasks:
Task 1
Configure OSPF on R2. Ensure that R1 and R3 become neighbors.
Use process ID 30.
Use 10.22.22.22 as the router ID.
Under the OSPF process, advertise the following specific prefixes:
10.0.23.0/28
10.0.12.0/30
Task 2
Ensure that R2 always becomes the designated router (DR).



IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Topology:

All relevant ports are preconfigured as IEEE 802.1Q trunks.
Task 1
Configure SW-1 port Ethernet0/0 to permit only VLANs 5 and 6.
Task 2
Configure ports Ethernet0/1 on SW-1 and SW-2 to use VLAN 77 as the native VLAN.
Task 3
Configure SW-2 port Ethernet0/2 to permit only VLAN 6.
Task 4
Using LACP, create a Port-Channel between SW-3 and SW-4.
Combine Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 into a Port-Channel while leaving the existing trunk configurations intact.
Assign Port-Channel number 34.
Only SW-3 must initiate LACP negotiations.
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.


Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment.
Which command must be used to configure the route?
Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator must configure a floating static default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?
Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?
Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?
How does authentication differ from authorization?
What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?
Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.

Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?




Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the VLAN 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growith. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernet0/1 on router R4?
Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?














































