Big Halloween Sale Limited Time Flat 70% Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70spcl

Cisco 200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 120
Total 1197 questions

Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Question # 1

Refer to the exhibit. The loopback IP of R3 has been learned via the two interfaces on R1. R1 is configured with a reference bandwidth of 10 Gbps. Based on the metric calculations, which next hop IP would be used for outgoing routing?

Options:

A.

10.12.0.5

B.

10.12.0.2

C.

10.12.0.1

D.

10.12.0.6

Question 2

How does automation affect network management processes?

Options:

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

Question 3

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverses the Internet when an outbound ACL Is applied

B.

used without allocation from a regional Internet authority

C.

shared address space between an ISP and subscriber

D.

reduces the need for isolated networks

Question 4

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Question # 4 Question # 4

Options:

Question 5

What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?

Question # 5

Options:

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

Question 6

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

Question # 6

Options:

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

queueing

C.

bad NIC

D.

broadcast storm

Question 7

Question # 7

Question # 7

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

Question 8

What is a function of Layer 3 switches?

Options:

A.

They route traffic between devices in different VLANs.

B.

They forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses.

C.

They move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses.

D.

They transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively.

Question 9

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

Options:

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

Question 10

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

Reduces the forwarding table on network routers

B.

Used on the external interface of a firewall

C.

Used by ISPs when only one IP is needed to connect to the internet

D.

Address space which is isolated from the internet

Question 11

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

Options:

A.

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

Question 12

Question # 12

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

Options:

A.

via 10.0.4.2

B.

via 10.0.0.2

C.

via FastEthernet0/1

D.

via FastEthernet1/1

Question 13

How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?

Options:

A.

Reduces the response time for specific requests to devices with many interfaces

B.

Categorizes traffic and provides insights

C.

Allows the controller to be vendor-agnostic

D.

Streamlines monitoring using SNMP and other polling tools

Question 14

Question # 14

Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?

Options:

A.

Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.

B.

Select a correctly configured Layer 2 ACL.

C.

Set the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy to Not-Allow.

D.

Set the MFP Client Protection to Required.

Question 15

Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

distribution

B.

service

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual

Question 16

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 16

Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?

Options:

A.

Enable AutoConfig iPSK.

B.

SetCCMP128(AES).

C.

Configure PSK Format HEX with key string.

D.

Configure PSK-SHA2.

Question 17

Question # 17

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport private-vlan association host 5

B.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation negotiate

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan add 5

D.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk pruning vlan add 5

Question 18

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

Question 19

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?

Options:

A.

Virtual Route Forwarding

B.

Virtual Switch System

C.

IPsec Transport Mode

D.

Time Division Multiplexer

Question 20

Question # 20

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

Question 21

Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

Question 22

Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?

Options:

A.

10

B.

0

C.

1

D.

110

Question 23

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 23

Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

A)

Question # 23

B)

Question # 23

C)

Question # 23

D)

Question # 23

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 24

Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

Question 25

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

Question 26

Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?

Options:

A.

Use an access list to filter out the syslog messages.

B.

Turn off the logging monitor in global configuration mode.

C.

Disable logging to the console.

D.

Set the logging trap severity level to informational.

Question 27

Question # 27

Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?

Options:

A.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point

B.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf cost 5

C.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf 1 area 2

D.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1

Question 28

Question # 28

Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.

Which set of actions corrects the configuration?

Options:

A.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.248.

B.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the DNS servers to 172.16.1.12 and 172.16.1.13.

C.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the default gateway to 172.16.1.7.

D.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the DNS server to 172.16.1.12 only.

Question 29

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

Options:

A.

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

Question 30

Question # 30

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

Options:

A.

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

Question 31

Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/0

C.

GigabitEthernet2/0

D.

Null0

Question 32

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

Options:

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

Question 33

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?

Options:

A.

Content-Type: application/json

B.

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.

Accept: application/json

D.

Accept-Language: application/json

Question 34

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addresses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP address

Question 35

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

Options:

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

Question 36

Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

Options:

A.

Shaping

B.

Policing

C.

Weighted fair queuing

D.

FIFO

Question 37

Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.2

B.

10.10.2.2

C.

10.10.3.2

D.

10.10.4.2

Question 38

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Question 39

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

Options:

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

Question 40

What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It uses a single router to route traffic between sites.

B.

It leverages a dedicated connection.

C.

It connects remote networks through a single line.

D.

t delivers redundancy between the central office and branch offices.

E.

It provides direct connections between each router in the topology.

Question 41

What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?

Options:

A.

provides protection against spyware

B.

eliminates network piggybacking

C.

associates a name to a wireless network

D.

allows easy file sharing between endpoints

Question 42

Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.

Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table

Question # 42

How does the switch handle the frame?

Options:

A.

It ages out the frame until the MAC address becomes known.

B.

It drops the frame to avoid unnecessary network congestion.

C.

It switches the frame to a predetermined port based on settings.

D.

It floods the frame to all ports except the incoming port.

Question 43

In which way does generative AI aid network simulations?

Options:

Question 44

What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?

Options:

A.

SDN security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS, and traditional networking security policies are created based on telemetry data.

B.

SDN exposes an API to configure locally per device for security policies, and traditional networking uses northbound API for network admin interface for configuring security policies.

C.

SDN creates a unified control point making security policies consistent across all devices, and traditional networking must be configured device by device, leaving room for error.

D.

SDN devices communicate with each other to establish a security policy, and in traditional networking, devices communicate upstream to a central location to establish a security policy.

Question 45

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group.

B.

Increases security on the management VLAN.

C.

Rewrites the source and destination MAC address.

D.

Associates the MAC address with the port on which it is received.

Question 46

Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

D.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: l4/64 fd00:12::2

E.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/64 fd00:12::2

Question 47

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Question # 47

Options:

Question 48

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Question # 48

Options:

Question 49

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

Question 50

An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?

Options:

A.

Asset identification

B.

User training

C.

Physical access control

D.

Vulnerability control

Question 51

What is the function of generative AI in network operations?

Options:

A.

It disables unused services.

B.

It deploys network firmware updates.

C.

It creates synthetic network configurations.

D.

It computes optimal data storage solutions.

Question 52

Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate, register, and accept terms before accessing the internet?

Options:

A.

Whole Home

B.

Hotspot

C.

One-Click

D.

Enhanced Bluetooth

Question 53

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7

10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6

10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4

10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5

Options:

A.

F0/7

B.

F0/5

C.

F0/4

D.

F0/6

Question 54

What is represented in line 3 within this JSON schema?

Question # 54

Options:

A.

object

B.

key

C.

array

D.

value

Question 55

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 55

Options:

Question 56

A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?

Options:

A.

ipconfig /renew

B.

ipconfig

C.

ipconfig /all

D.

ipconfig /displaydns

Question 57

Question # 57

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

Options:

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

Question 58

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 58

Options:

Question 59

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport mode trunk

C.

switchport nonegotiate

D.

switchport mode dynamic auto

Question 60

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Question # 60 Question # 60

Options:

Question 61

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses

D.

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

Question 62

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

Options:

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Question 63

What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

Identifying permissions for end users using three authentication factors

B.

Authenticating and authorizing end users using two authentication factors

C.

Confirming end-user identity using two or more authentication factors

D.

Verifying end-user access permissions using two authentication factors

Question 64

Question # 64

Question # 64

Question # 64

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Question 65

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

Question 66

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.174.208.210/28 [110/2708] via G0/21

10.174.208.210/28 [110/25445] via G0/20

10.174.208.210/28 [120/1] via G0/12

10.174.208.210/28 [120/4] via G0/16

Options:

A.

G0/12

B.

G0/20

C.

G0/21

D.

G0/16

Question 67

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PBR

B.

FRTS

C.

PQ

D.

CBWFQ

E.

CAR

Question 68

Question # 68

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Option A68

B.

B. Option B68

C.

C. Option C68

D.

D. Option D68

Question 69

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

Forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

C.

Overwrites the known source MAC address in the address table

D.

Protects against denial of service attacks

Question 70

Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST

C.

OpFlex

D.

SOAP

E.

NETCONF

Question 71

Question # 71

Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)

Options:

A.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

B.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to FTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

C.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

D.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

Question 72

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Question # 72 Question # 72

Options:

Question 73

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

B.

support standalone or controller-based architectures

C.

serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

D.

provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

Question 74

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 74

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

C.

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25

D.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

Question 75

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

Question 76

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Question 77

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 78

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

JSON

C.

Chef

D.

Puppet

Question 79

An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

Question # 79

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 80

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

Question 81

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Management

C.

Data

D.

application

Question 82

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B.

Administratively shut down the ports

C.

Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

D.

Configure the ports as trunk ports

E.

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Question 83

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Options:

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

Question 84

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

Options:

A.

1.544 Mbps

B.

2.048 Mbps

C.

34.368 Mbps

D.

43.7 Mbps

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 85

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

Question 86

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

Question 87

Question # 87

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Question 88

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

password-encrypt

B.

enable password-encryption

C.

enable secret

D.

service password-encryption

Question 89

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

Options:

A.

5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoveriapping channels.

B.

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.

C.

5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

D.

Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

E.

Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoveriapping channels.

Question 90

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

Options:

A.

reduced management overhead on network routers

B.

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.

higher degree of availability

D.

reduced ARP traffic on the network

Question 91

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

Question 92

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

Options:

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

Question 93

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Even: Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

Question 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 94

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

Question # 94

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

Question 95

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

Options:

A.

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

B.

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

C.

It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

D.

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

Question 96

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Question 97

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Question 98

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Question 99

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

Options:

A.

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Question 100

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Question 101

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Question 102

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

Options:

A.

worm

B.

malware

C.

DDoS

D.

man-in-the-middle

Question 103

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Question 104

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 104

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

Question # 104

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 105

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 105

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

Options:

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

Question 106

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

Options:

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

Question 107

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

Options:

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

Question 108

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

Question 109

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

Options:

A.

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

B.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

C.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

D.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

E.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

Question 110

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

Question # 110

Options:

Question 111

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Options:

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Question 112

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address dhcp

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Question 113

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

Options:

A.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

B.

Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

C.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

D.

Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Question 114

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

B.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

C.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

D.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

E.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

Question 115

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Options:

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Question 116

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

Options:

A.

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

B.

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

C.

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

D.

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

Question 117

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

Options:

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

Question 118

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

Options:

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

Question 119

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

Question 120

Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

Question # 120

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 121

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

Options:

A.

lt drops the frame immediately.

B.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

C.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

D.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

Question 122

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

Options:

A.

overlay

B.

northbound

C.

underlay

D.

southbound

Question 123

in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

Options:

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

Question 124

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

Options:

A.

1729.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

Question 125

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Question # 125

Options:

Question 126

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 126

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Question 127

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

latency

B.

port security violation

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

nothing plugged into the port

Question 128

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

Options:

A.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

C.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.

D.

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

Question 129

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Options:

A.

ISATAP

B.

GRE over iPsec

C.

iPsec over ISATAP

D.

GRE

Question 130

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

Question 131

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

Options:

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

Question 132

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

Question # 132

Options:

Question 133

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 133

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

Question # 133

B)

Question # 133

C)

Question # 133

D)

Question # 133

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 134

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

serves as the network aggregation point

B.

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

C.

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

D.

is the backbone for the network topology

E.

physical connection point for a LAN printer

Question 135

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Question # 135

Options:

Question 136

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a rooter that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

Question 137

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

Options:

A.

role-based access control

B.

biometrics

C.

multifactor authentication

D.

physical access control

Question 138

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

Options:

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Question 139

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Options:

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Question 140

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

Question 141

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

Options:

A.

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

B.

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

C.

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

D.

physical workstations are configured to share resources

Question 142

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 142

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

Question 143

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

Options:

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

Question 144

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 144

Which command provides this output?

Options:

A.

show ip route

B.

show ip interface

C.

show interface

D.

show cdp neighbor

Question 145

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Question # 145

Options:

Question 146

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

Question 147

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

Question 148

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 148

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

Question # 148

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 149

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Options:

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

Question 150

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 150

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

Question # 150

B)

Question # 150

C)

Question # 150

D)

Question # 150

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 151

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

Question 152

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

Question 153

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

Question # 153

Options:

Question 154

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

Options:

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Question 155

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 155

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Question # 155

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 156

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Question 157

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 157

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Question 158

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 158

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

Question 159

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 159

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

Options:

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

Question 160

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

Question 161

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Question 162

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

Question 163

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 163

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

Question 164

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Question # 164

Question # 164

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 165

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 165

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Options:

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Question 166

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

Options:

A.

802.1q trunks

B.

Cisco vPC

C.

LLDP

D.

LACP

Question 167

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

Question # 167

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

Question 168

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

Options:

A.

encrypts data before sending between data resources

B.

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

C.

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

D.

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

Question 169

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Question 170

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 170

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Question 171

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

Question 172

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

Options:

A.

collision

B.

CRC

C.

runt

D.

late collision

Question 173

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 173

Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )

Question # 173

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 174

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 174

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

Question # 174

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

Options:

A.

Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

B.

Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

C.

Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

D.

Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

Question 175

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Question 176

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Question 177

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

Options:

A.

1,6,11

B.

1,5,10

C.

1,2,3

D.

5,6,7

Question 178

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

Question 179

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Question # 179

Options:

Question 180

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

Options:

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Question 181

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 181

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

Options:

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

Question 182

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 182

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

Question 183

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable NTP authentication.

B.

Verify the time zone.

C.

Disable NTP broadcasts

D.

Specify the IP address of the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP server private key

Question 184

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 184

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

Question 185

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 185

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

Options:

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

Question 186

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 186

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

Options:

A.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

B.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

C.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical

D.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Question 187

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

link-local

C.

unique local

D.

multicast

Question 188

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

Options:

A.

configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

B.

enable SLAAC on an interface

C.

disable the EUI-64 bit process

D.

explicitly assign a link-local address

Question 189

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

Question 190

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Question # 190

Options:

Question 191

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 191

What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Question 192

which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/12

Question 193

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Question 194

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

Options:

A.

Device(Config)#lldp run

B.

Device(Config)#cdp run

C.

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D.

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Question 195

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

Options:

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

Question 196

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Options:

A.

FIFO

B.

WFQ

C.

PQ

D.

WRED

Question 197

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 197

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Question 198

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

Question 199

How does WPA3 improve security?

Options:

A.

It uses SAE for authentication.

B.

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

C.

It uses RC4 for encryption.

D.

It uses TKIP for encryption.

Question 200

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 200

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

Question 201

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

Question 202

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 202

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Options:

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

Question 203

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 203

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

Question # 203

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 204

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

Options:

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

Question 205

What is the function of a server?

Options:

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Question 206

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

unique local

C.

link-local

D.

multicast

Question 207

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 207

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

Question 208

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 208

Question # 208

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

Question 209

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

Options:

A.

It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

B.

For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.

C.

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

D.

It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

Question 210

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Question 211

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 211

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

Question 212

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

Options:

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Question 213

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

Options:

A.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Question 214

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support LP connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Question 215

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 215

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

Options:

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

Question 216

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 216

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

Question 217

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Question 218

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 218

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

Question # 218

B)

Question # 218

C)

Question # 218

D)

Question # 218

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 219

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 219

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Question 220

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 220

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Question 221

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Question 222

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 222

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Question 223

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Question 224

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Question 225

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Question # 225

Options:

Question 226

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

Question 227

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 227

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Question 228

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 228

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Question 229

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 229

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Question 230

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 230

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Question 231

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

Question 232

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

Question 233

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Question 234

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 234

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Question 235

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 235

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

Question # 235

B)

Question # 235

C)

Question # 235

D)

Question # 235

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 236

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Question 237

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

Question # 237

Options:

Question 238

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

Question # 238

B)

Question # 238

C)

Question # 238

D)

Question # 238

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 239

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Question 240

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Question 241

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 241

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

Question # 241

B)

Question # 241

C)

Question # 241

D)

Question # 241

E)

Question # 241

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 242

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 242

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

Question 243

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 243

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

Question # 243

B)

Question # 243

C)

Question # 243

D)

Question # 243

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 244

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Question # 244

Options:

Question 245

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

Question # 245

B)

Question # 245

C)

Question # 245

D)

Question # 245

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 246

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 246

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Question 247

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Question 248

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 248

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Question 249

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 249

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

Options:

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Question 250

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Question 251

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 251

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Question 252

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 252

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Question 253

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Question 254

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 254

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

Question 255

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Question # 255

Options:

Question 256

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Question # 256

Options:

Question 257

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Question 258

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 258

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Question 259

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 259

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

Question # 259

B)

Question # 259

C)

Question # 259

D)

Question # 259

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 260

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Question 261

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Options:

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

Question 262

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Question 263

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 263

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Question 264

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 264

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Question 265

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 265

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Question 266

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

Question # 266

B)

Question # 266

C)

Question # 266

D)

Question # 266

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 267

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Question 268

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 268

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Question 269

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 269

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Question 270

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 270

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

Question 271

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 271

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Question 272

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 272

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Question 273

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 273

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

Question # 273

B)

Question # 273

C)

Question # 273

D)

Question # 273

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 274

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 274

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Question 275

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Question 276

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Question 277

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Question 278

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Options:

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Question 279

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Question # 279

Options:

Question 280

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 280

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Question 281

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Question 282

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

Question 283

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 283

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Question 284

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

Question # 284

B)

Question # 284

C)

Question # 284

D)

Question # 284

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 285

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 285

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Options:

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Question 286

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 286

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Question 287

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Question # 287

Options:

Question 288

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 288

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Question 289

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 289

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

Options:

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Question 290

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 290

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23.0. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

Options:

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 265.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

Question 291

What is the put method within HTTP?

Options:

A.

It is a read-only operation.

B.

It is a nonldempotent operation.

C.

It replaces data at the destination.

D.

It displays a web site.

Question 292

Question # 292

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. A network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet passes through R2.

Which command must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

B.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

C.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

D.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

Question 293

A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

Options:

A.

/29

B.

/30

C.

/27

D.

/28

Question 294

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 294

Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?

A)

Question # 294

B)

Question # 294

C)

Question # 294

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

Question 295

What is a valid IPv6 address record in DNS?

Options:

A.

A

B.

MX

C.

AAAA

D.

CNAME

Question 296

Question # 296

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

192.168.20.1

B.

10.10.10.5

C.

192.168.30.1

D.

10.10.10.6

Question 297

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

::ffif 1014 1011/96

B.

2001 7011046:1111:1/64

C.

;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d

D.

2002 5121204b 1111:1/64

E.

FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104

Question 298

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 298

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID.

Question 299

Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Question # 299

Options:

Question 300

What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?

Options:

A.

location of the virtual machines within the data center environment

B.

whether to leverage VSM to map multiple virtual processors to two or more virtual machines

C.

resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory

D.

support for physical peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, and mice

Question 301

What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?

Options:

A.

location of the virtual machines within the data center environment

B.

whether to leverage VSM to map multiple virtual processors to two or more virtual machines

C.

resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory

D.

support for physical peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, and mice

Question 302

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

out-of-band management

B.

secure in-band connectivity for device administration

C.

unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers

D.

HTTP-based GUI connectivity

Question 303

Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

Question # 303

Options:

Question 304

Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?

Options:

A.

Alert

B.

Error

C.

Emergency

D.

Critical

Question 305

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 305

All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

MDF-DC-4:08:E0:19: 08:B3:19

B.

MDF-DC-3:08:0E:18::1A:3C:9D

C.

MDF-DC-08:0E:18:22:05:97

D.

MDF-DC-1:DB:E:44:02:54:79

Question 306

Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.

Question # 306

Options:

Question 307

Which is a fact related to FTP?

Options:

A.

It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

B.

It always operates without user authentication

C.

It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.

D.

It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

Question 308

When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

for small networks with minimal need for growth

B.

the access and distribution layers must be on the same device

C.

for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites

D.

only when using VSS technology

Question 309

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 309

How many JSON objects are presented?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 310

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 310

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?

Options:

A.

A point-to-point network type is configured.

B.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.

C.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface.

D.

The interface is not participating in OSPF.

Question 311

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

Options:

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

Question 312

How does frame switching function on a switch?

Options:

A.

forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

B.

modifies frames that contain a known source VLAN

C.

inspects and drops frames from unknown destinations

D.

forwards known destinations to the destination port

Question 313

Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?

Options:

A.

AES256

B.

AES

C.

RC4

D.

SHA

Question 314

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Question # 314

Options:

Question 315

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 315

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.240

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.248.

D.

255.255.255.248

Question 316

What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.

It enables dynamic flow identification.

B.

It enables policy-based routing.

C.

It provides best-effort service.

D.

It limits bandwidth usage.

Question 317

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 317

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

Options:

A.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

Question 318

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 318

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

Options:

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

Question 319

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Question # 319

Options:

Question 320

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 320

All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

MDF-DC-4:08:E0:19: 08:B3:19

B.

MDF-DC-3:08:0E:18::1A:3C:9D

C.

MDF-DC-08:0E:18:22:05:97

D.

MDF-DC-1:DB:E:44:02:54:79

Question 321

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 321

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Under Protected Management Frames, set the PMF option to Required.

B.

Enable CCKM under Authentication Key Management.

C.

Set the Fast Transition option and the WPA gtk-randomize State to disable.

D.

Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management.

Question 322

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

Question # 322

Options:

Question 323

Which part of the HTTP request is used in REST API basic authentication to carry credentials?

Options:

A.

cookie

B.

content-type

C.

authorization

D.

accept

Question 324

Question # 324

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

Question # 324

B)

Question # 324

C)

Question # 324

D)

Question # 324

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 325

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 325

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

Options:

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Question 326

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Question # 326

Options:

Question 327

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 327

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?

Options:

A.

Port security

B.

High throughput

C.

Cable disconnect

D.

duplex mismatch

Question 328

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

Options:

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

Question 329

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.

B.

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

Question 330

What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

VLAN trunking

B.

tunneling

C.

first hop redundancy

D.

link aggregation

Question 331

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 331

Which types of JSON data is shown

Options:

A.

Object

B.

Sequence

C.

String

D.

boolean

Question 332

Refer to the exhibit.

PC A and the file server. Which commend must be configured on switch A to prevent interruption of other communications?

Question # 332

Options:

A.

switch port trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

switch port trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Question 333

A network administrator wants the syslog server to filter incoming messages into different files based on their Importance. Which filtering criteria must be used?

Options:

A.

level

B.

message body

C.

process ID

D.

facility

Question 334

Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Control

C.

Application

D.

Services

Question 335

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

console

B.

Telnet

C.

Bash

D.

SSH

Question 336

Which command creates a static NAT binding for a PC address of 10.1.1.1 to the public routable address 209.165.200.225 assigned to the PC?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.1.1.1 209.165.200.225

B.

R1(config)#ip nat inside source static 209.165.200.225 10.1.1.1

C.

R1(config)#ip nat outside source static 10.1.1.1 209.165.200.225

D.

R1(config)#ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.1.1.1

Question 337

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 337

What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

Options:

A.

It continues to use a statically assigned IPv4 address

B.

It forces the DNS server to provide the same IPv4 address at each renewal.

C.

It requests the same IPv4 address when it renews its lease with the DHCP server.

D.

It prefers a pool of addresses when renewing the IPv4 host IP address

Question 338

Question # 338

Options:

Question 339

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

Options:

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configurator

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

Question 340

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100.

C.

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

Question 341

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

Options:

A.

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

ip ospf dead-interval 40

C.

ip ospf network point-to-point

D.

ip ospf priority 0

Question 342

Question # 342

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

192.168.20.1

B.

10.10.10.5

C.

192.168.30.1

D.

10.10.10.6

Question 343

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 343

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

255.255.254.0

B.

255.255.255.240

C.

255.255.255.248

D.

255.255.255.252

Question 344

What is a function performed by a web server?

Options:

A.

provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

B.

send and retrieve email from client devices

C.

authenticate and authorize a user's identity

D.

securely store flies for FTP access

Question 345

What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

to enable the number of MAC addresses learned on the port to l

B.

to protect the operation of the port from topology change processes

C.

to enable the pod to enter the forwarding state immediately when the host boots up

D.

to prevent the port from participating in Spanning Tree Protocol operations

E.

to block another switch or host from communicating through the port

Question 346

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 346

A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

Change the Server Status to Disabled

B.

Select Enable next to Management

C.

Select Enable next to Network User

D.

Change the Support for CoA to Enabled.

Question 347

What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?

Options:

A.

to reduce interference

B.

to allow for channel bonding

C.

to stabilize the RF environment

D.

to increase bandwidth

Question 348

Which mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Options:

A.

GRE over IPsec

B.

IPsec over ISATAP

C.

GRE

D.

ISATAP

Question 349

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

Options:

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configurator

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

Question 350

When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

Options:

A.

Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC

B.

Re-associate the WLC with the access point.

C.

Re-enable the WLC interfaces

D.

Reboot the WLC

Question 351

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.

B.

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

Question 352

Question # 352

Refer to the exhibit. Which functionalities will this SSID have while being used by wireless clients?

Options:

A.

decreases network security against offline dictionary attacks and encourages easy access to the network

B.

increases network security against offline dictionary attacks and discourages time-consuming brute force attacks

C.

increases network security against man in the middle attacks and discourages denial of service attacks

D.

decreases network security against air sniffing attacks and discourages the use of complex passwords

Question 353

Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.

Question # 353

Options:

Question 354

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

Question 355

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

Question # 355

Options:

Question 356

A manager asks a network engineer to recommend a cloud service model so that employees do not spend time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

business process as a service

D.

platform-as-a-service

Question 357

Question # 357

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured conrectly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routers. Which set of routes are leamed from neighbors and installed on router 2?

Options:

A.

10.129.9.0/2310.139.2.0/3010.2.191.0/3010.129.9.0/25

B.

10.129.9.0/2310.40.1.0/3010.2.191.0/3010.129.9.0/25

C.

10.40.1.0/3010.139.2.0/3010.2.191.0/3010.129.9.0/25

D.

10.129.9.0/2310.139.2.0/3010.129.9.0/2510.22.1.0/24

Question 358

How does encryption project the wireless network?

Options:

A.

via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame

B.

via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks

C.

via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it

D.

via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network

Question 359

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 359

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

Options:

A.

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

Page: 1 / 120
Total 1197 questions