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What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
Refer to the exhibit.
Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?
Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?
Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
Refer to Exhibit.
How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If
the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided
• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports
• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3
• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192 1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?
What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?
Which is a fact related to FTP?
Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require
Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?
After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?
What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a controller-based network?
Refer to the exhibit.
What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interlace Seria10. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?
Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.
What is a function performed by a web server?
What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?
Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.
What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?
When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?
A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?
How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?
Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)
Refer lo the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
How many arrays are present in the JSON data?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?
Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.
What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?
Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
How does authentication differ from authorization?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary address must be advertised in OSPF?
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?
When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?
Exhibit.
The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that was successfully tested. The Interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a 'down" status. What is the cause of this issue?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?
What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?
Which output displays a JSON data representation?
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right
What is a benefit of VRRP?
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.
Refer to the exhibit.
When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?
Refer to the exhibit.
What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
What is the purpose of traffic shaping?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
What is a function of a remote access VPN?
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command provides this output?
Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?
Which network action occurs within the data plane?
Which option about JSON is true?
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
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Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
