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Cisco 200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Exam Practice Test

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Total 1242 questions

Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 1

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.128 10.10.10.6R2(config)#lp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.5

C.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.6R2(config)#tp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.5

D.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

Question 2

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

Options:

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

Question 3

What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?

Options:

A.

Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path.

B.

Allow multiple VLAN to be used in the data path.

C.

Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management.

D.

Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management.

Question 4

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

Options:

A.

broadcast to all ports on the switch

B.

flooded to all ports except the origination port

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

inspected and dropped by the switch

Question 5

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abcd.abcd.abcd on voice VLAN 4?

Options:

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 6

A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

Options:

A.

Device(config)# netconf lock-time 500

B.

Device(config)# netconf max-message 1000

C.

Device(config)# no netconf ssh acl 1

D.

Device(config)# netconf max-sessions 100

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 7

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

Options:

A.

S 192.168.0.0/20 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

B.

S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

C.

S 192.168.2.0/28 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

D.

S 192.168.1.0/30 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

Question 8

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

assigns DNS locally and then forwards request to DHCP server

B.

permits one IP helper command under an individual Layer 3 interface

C.

allows only MAC-to-IP reservations to determine the local subnet of a client

D.

minimizes the necessary number of DHCP servers

E.

configured under the Layer 3 interface of a router on the client subnet

Question 9

Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

Question # 9

Options:

Question 10

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

Question # 10

Options:

Question 11

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

Options:

A.

applies 802.1x authentication

B.

uses TKIP

C.

employs PKI to identify access points

D.

protects against brute force attacks

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 12

Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.

Question # 12

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?

Options:

A.

It creates a broadcast storm.

B.

It drops the frame from the MAC table of the switch.

C.

It shuts down the source port and places It In err-disable mode.

D.

It floods the frame out of every port except the source port.

Question 13

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

Question # 13

B)

Question # 13

C)

Question # 13

D)

Question # 13

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 14

Question # 14

A)

Question # 14

B)

Question # 14

C)

Question # 14

D)

Question # 14

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 15

Which property is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?

Options:

A.

Both require fiber cable media for transmission.

B.

Both require UTP cable media for transmission.

C.

Both use the single-mode fiber type.

D.

Both use the multimode fiber type.

Question 16

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

Options:

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

Question 17

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

::ffff:1014:1011/96

B.

2001:701:1046:1111::1/64

C.

;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d

D.

2002:5121:204b:1111::1/64

E.

FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104

Question 18

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

Question # 18

Options:

Question 19

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

Options:

A.

UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.

B.

TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out- of-order.

C.

TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.

D.

UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 20

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

Options:

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

Question 21

What is the definition of backdoor malware?

Options:

A.

malicious code that is installed onto a computer to allow access by an unauthorized user

B.

malicious code with the main purpose of downloading other malicious code

C.

malicious program that is used to launch other malicious programs

D.

malicious code that infects a user machine and then uses that machine to send spam

Question 22

Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

802.1X

D.

Kerberos

Question 23

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

Options:

A.

user training

B.

user awareness

C.

vulnerability verification

D.

physical access control

Question 24

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 24

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.240

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.248.

D.

255.255.255.248

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 25

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-GHz clients connect? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Broadcast SSID option

B.

Enable the Status option.

C.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11g Only.

D.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

E.

Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

Question 26

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 26

An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided

• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports

• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3

• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

Question # 26

B)

Question # 26

C)

Question # 26

D)

Question # 26

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 27

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 27

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?

Options:

A.

Uncheck the Guest User check box

B.

Check the Guest User Role check box

C.

Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0

D.

Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 28

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 10.0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

longest prefix match

B.

highest administrative distance

C.

highest metric

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 29

What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?

Options:

A.

Reconfigure the static NAT entries that overlap the NAT pool

B.

configure the NAT outside interface

C.

Modify the access list for the internal network on e0/1

D.

Apply the ACL to the pool configuration

Question 30

Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?

Options:

A.

multicast

B.

private

C.

loopback

D.

public

Question 31

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

Question # 31

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

Question 32

What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?

Options:

A.

It serves as a sequence tag on SNMP traffic messages.

B.

It serves as a password to protect access to MIB objects.

C.

It passes the Active Directory username and password that are required for device access

D.

It translates alphanumeric MIB output values to numeric values.

Question 33

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 33

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a preshared key for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x

B.

Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK

C.

Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK

D.

Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK

Question 34

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configuredd in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interface of the WLC.

E.

configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

Question 35

Question # 35

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must transtate the PC1 IIP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?

A)

Question # 35

B)

Question # 35

C)

Question # 35

D)

Question # 35

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 36

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

Options:

A.

the 10.0.0.0 network

B.

a single destination address

C.

the source 10.0.1.100

D.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

Question 37

Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?

Options:

A.

AES256

B.

AES

C.

RC4

D.

SHA

Question 38

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

Options:

A.

to secure physical access to a data center

B.

to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram

C.

to securely manage and deploy network devices

D.

to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 39

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168.1.0/24 and why?

Options:

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Question 40

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 40

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?

A)

Question # 40

B)

Question # 40

C)

Question # 40

D)

Question # 40

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 41

A)

Question # 41

B)

Question # 41

C)

Question # 41

D)

Question # 41

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 42

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

Options:

A.

The QoS policy is dropping traffic.

B.

There is a duplex mismatch.

C.

The link is over utilized.

D.

The MTU is not set to the default value.

Question 43

Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?

Options:

A.

Header Checksum

B.

Type of service

C.

DSCP

D.

ECN

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 44

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

Options:

A.

The permit command fails and returns an error code.

B.

The router accepts all incoming traffic to Serial0 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0.

C.

The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255 is allowed on Serial0.

D.

The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 45

Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

B.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

C.

It discards the packets.

D.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address.

Question 46

Why implement VRRP?

Options:

A.

to provide end users with a virtual gateway in a multivendor network

B.

to leverage a weighting scheme to provide uninterrupted service

C.

to detect link failures without the overhead of Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

D.

to hand over to end users the autodiscovery of virtual gateways

Question 47

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

Options:

A.

to rate-limit messages for different severity levels from each device

B.

to set the severity of syslog messages from each device

C.

to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D.

to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

Question 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 48

What is represented by the word " switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

Options:

A.

array

B.

key

C.

value

D.

object

Question 49

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

Options:

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

anti-replay

D.

accounting

Question 50

PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?

Options:

A.

MAC address aging

B.

MAC address table

C.

frame flooding

D.

spanning-tree protocol

Question 51

What is a characteristic of a collapsed-core network topology?

Options:

A.

It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.

B.

It enables the core and access layers to connect to one logical distribution device over an EtherChannel.

C.

It enables all workstations in a SOHO environment to connect on a single switch with internet access.

D.

It allows wireless devices to connect directly to the core layer, which enables faster data transmission.

Question 52

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

Options:

A.

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.

Point-to-Point Protocol

Question 53

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

Question 54

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

Question # 54

Options:

Question 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 55

Which configuration for RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

Question # 55

B)

Question # 55

C)

Question # 55

D)

Question # 55

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 56

Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?

Options:

A.

multicast address

B.

loopback IP address

C.

virtual IP address

D.

broadcast address

Question 57

Which channel-group mode must be configuredd when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

Options:

A.

Channel-group mode passive.

B.

Channel-group mode on.

C.

Channel-group mode desirable.

D.

Channel-group mode active.

Question 58

Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?

object

value

Options:

A.

key

B.

array

Question 59

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 59

Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?

Options:

A.

SW2, because its MAC address is the highest

B.

SW3, because its priority is the highest

C.

SW4, because its priority is highest and its MAC address is lower

D.

SW1, because its priority is the lowest and its MAC address is higher

Question 60

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 60

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router.

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

B.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

C.

ipv6 route 2000:3 123 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

Question 61

Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.

Question # 61

Options:

Question 62

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 62

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?

A)

Question # 62

B)

Question # 62

C)

Question # 62

D)

Question # 62

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 63

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Question 64

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

Question # 64

Options:

Question 65

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 66

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

Options:

A.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

B.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

C.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

D.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

Question 67

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

It supports protocol discovery

Question 68

What is a function of a remote access VPN?

Options:

A.

used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

B.

used exclusively when a user is connected to a company ' s internal network

C.

establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

D.

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

Question 69

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

Question 70

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

Options:

A.

It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

B.

It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

C.

It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

D.

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

Question 71

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

Question 72

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

Options:

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Question 73

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

Question 74

An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure IEEE 802.1p

B.

configure IEEE 802.1q

C.

configure ISL

D.

configure DSCP

Question 75

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

Options:

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

Question 76

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Question 77

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 78

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

Question 79

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Question # 79

Options:

Question 80

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 80

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.0/27

B.

10.10.10.0/28

C.

0.0.0.0/0

D.

10.10.13.0/24

Question 81

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Question 82

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

Options:

A.

1.544 Mbps

B.

2.048 Mbps

C.

34.368 Mbps

D.

43.7 Mbps

Question 83

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

B.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

C.

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

D.

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

E.

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

Question 84

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

Options:

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

Question 85

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Question # 85

Options:

Question 86

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

Options:

A.

enforcing routing policies

B.

marking interesting traffic for data polices

C.

attaching users to the edge of the network

D.

applying security policies

Question 87

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

network-as-a-service

D.

infrastructure-as-a-service

Question 88

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

Options:

A.

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

B.

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

C.

It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

D.

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

Question 89

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 89

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

Options:

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

Question 90

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 90

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Question 91

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

Options:

A.

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Question 92

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

Options:

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

Question 93

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

Options:

A.

lldp timer

B.

lldp holdtime

C.

lldp reinit

D.

lldp tlv-select

Question 94

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

Question # 94

Options:

Question 95

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

Options:

A.

redundancy

B.

console

C.

distribution system

D.

service

Question 96

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

B.

a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

C.

usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

D.

a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

Question 97

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Question 98

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

Question 99

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Options:

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

Question 100

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 100

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.

Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport access vlan 67

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

C.

switchport private-vlan association host 67

D.

switchport trunk native vlan 67

Question 101

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

A TCP connection has been torn down

B.

An ICMP connection has been built

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A certificate has expired.

Question 102

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

Options:

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

Question 103

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

Options:

A.

overlay

B.

northbound

C.

underlay

D.

southbound

Question 104

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 104

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?

Options:

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

Question 105

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

Options:

A.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

B.

Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

C.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

D.

Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Question 106

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

Options:

A.

Reassociation Request

B.

Probe Request

C.

Authentication Request

D.

Association Request

Question 107

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

Options:

A.

5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.

B.

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.

C.

5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

D.

Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

E.

Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.

Question 108

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

Options:

A.

Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

B.

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

C.

allows application developers to interact with the network

D.

integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

Question 109

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

Options:

A.

WPA2 + AES

B.

WPA + AES

C.

WEP

D.

WPA + TKIP

Question 110

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 110

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

Options:

A.

The port transitions to STP blocking

B.

The port transitions to the root port

C.

The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

D.

The port goes into error-disable state

Question 111

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Options:

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Question 112

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

Options:

A.

BPDUfilter

B.

PortFast

C.

Backbonefast

D.

BPDUguard

Question 113

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

Question 114

In software-defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

Options:

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

Question 115

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 115

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

Question # 115

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 116

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 116

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

Question # 116

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 117

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

Options:

A.

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

B.

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

C.

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

D.

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

Question 118

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ASCII

B.

base64

C.

binary

D.

decimal

E.

hexadecimal

Question 119

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

Question 120

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Question 121

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Question # 121

Options:

Question 122

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Question 123

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

Question # 123

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 124

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

Options:

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

Question 125

Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the matching HSRP state on the right.

Question # 125

Options:

Question 126

Question # 126

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

Options:

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

Question 127

What describes a northbound REST API for SDN?

Options:

A.

application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests

B.

network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods

C.

network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes

D.

application-facing interface for GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

Question 128

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 128

Options:

Question 129

Question # 129

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination addresss of 10.10.10.147?

Options:

A.

Serial 0/0

B.

FastEthernet 0/2

C.

FastEthernet 0/0

D.

FastEthernet 0/1

Question 130

Which authentication method requires the user to provide a physical attribute to authenticate successfully?

Options:

A.

password

B.

muftifactor

C.

biometric

D.

certificate

Question 131

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?

Options:

A.

QinQ

B.

ISL

C.

PAgP

D.

LAG

Question 132

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

Question 133

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 133

What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?

Options:

A.

value

B.

object

C.

key

D.

array

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 134

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A)

Question # 134

B)

Question # 134

C)

Question # 134

D)

Question # 134

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 135

How does automation affect network management processes?

Options:

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

Question 136

Question # 136

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?

A)

Question # 136

B)

Question # 136

C)

Question # 136

D)

Question # 136

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 137

Question # 137

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

Question 138

What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP tracks segments being transmitted or received by assigning segment numbers, and UDP adjusts data flow according to network conditions.

B.

TCP establishes a connection with the device on the other end before transferring, and UDP transfers without establishing a connection.

C.

TCP sends data at a constant rate with error checking on upper protocol layers, and UDP provides error-checking and sequencing.

D.

TCP immediately transmits data without waiting for a handshake, and UDP awaits a response froin the receiver before sending additional data.

Question 139

What does the term " spirt MAC” refer to in a wirelesss architecture?

Options:

A.

divides data link layer functions between the AP and WLC

B.

combines the management and control functions froin the data-forwarding functions

C.

uses different MAC addressses for 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands on the same AP

D.

leverages two APs to handle control and data traffic

Question 140

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

Options:

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

Question 141

Which capability does TFTP provide?

Options:

A.

loads configuration files on systems without data storage devices

B.

provides authentication for data communications over a private data network

C.

provides encryption mechanisms for file transfer across a WAN

D.

provides secure file access within the LAN

Question 142

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

Options:

A.

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

Question 143

Question # 143

Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:

Handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections

Minimizes consumption of public IP addresssses

Which configuration meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat inside source list HQC interface gigabitEthernet0/0 overload

B.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.200.225 209.165.200.226 netmask 255.255.255.252ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

C.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.3 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat inside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

D.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.248 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

Question 144

Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?

Options:

A.

Containers

B.

Cloud computing

C.

Application hosting

D.

Virtualization

Question 145

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation froin the let into the order on the right.

Question # 145

Options:

Question 146

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?

Options:

A.

Virtual Route Forwarding

B.

Virtual Switch System

C.

IPsec Transport Mode

D.

Time Division Multiplexer

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 147

Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP addressss 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.1

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.10.10.14

Question 148

Which protocol is implemented when an organization must verify network performance, troubleshoot issues, and use an agent to communicate between monitoring tools and end devices?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

FTP

C.

NTP

D.

NFS

Question 149

Question # 149

Refer to the exhibit. With a reference bandwidth of 100 Gb on all routers, which path does router Y use to get to network 192.168.1.0/24?

Options:

A.

router C > D > A > B > F

B.

router C > D > A > F

C.

router E > F

D.

router E > B > F

Question 150

Question # 150

A)

Question # 150

B)

Question # 150

C)

Question # 150

D)

Question # 150

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 151

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addresssing?

Options:

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addressses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP addressss

Question 152

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 152

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a static password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Crable PSKEnable iod 1s

B.

Select WPA2 PolicyDisable PMFEnable PSK

C.

Select WPA PolicyEnable PSK

D.

Select WPA PolicySelect WRAS Policy

Question 153

Question # 153

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.

Question # 153

Options:

Question 154

Question # 154

SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PC1 to the SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?

A)

Question # 154

B)

Question # 154

C)

Question # 154

D)

Question # 154

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 155

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Options:

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

Question 156

Question # 156

Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP addressss 100.100.100.100?

Options:

A.

If will choose the route with the longest match.O 100.100.100.100 ' 32 (110/21) via 192.168.1.1. 00:05:57. EmernetO/1.

B.

It will always prefer the static route over dynamic routes and choose the routeS 100.100.0.0/16(1/0] via 192.168.4.1.

C.

It will choose the route with the highest metric.D 100.100.100.0/24 (90/435200) via 192.168.2.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/2.

D.

It will choose the route with the lowest metric,R 100.0.0.0/8 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/3.

Question 157

What should a network administrator consider when deciding to implement automation?

Options:

A.

Automated systems may have difficulty expanding network changes at scale.

B.

Network automation typically is limited to the configuration and management of virtual devices within a network.

C.

Network automation typically increases enterprise management operating costs.

D.

Manual changes frequently lead to configuration errors and inconsistencies.

Question 158

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 158

Options:

Question 159

What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3.

B.

The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover.

C.

The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network.

D.

The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair.

Question 160

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC addresss storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

Question 161

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

rewrites the source and destination MAC addresss

B.

adds unknown source MAC addressses to the CAM table

C.

sends the frame back to the source to verify availability

D.

drops received MAC addressses not listed in the addresss table

Question 162

What is the default interface for in-band wirelesss network management on a WLC?

Options:

A.

Redundant port

B.

Out-of-band

C.

Service port

D.

Wireless management

Question 163

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresssses to hosts

B.

a router that statically assigns IP addresssses to hosts

C.

a host that is configured to request an IP addressss automatically

D.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP addressss

Question 164

Question # 164

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration for RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

Options:

A.

access list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23access list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0ip access-group 100 in

B.

access list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22access list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0ip access-group 100 in

C.

access list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22access list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15access-class 100 in

D.

access list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23access list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15access-class 100 in

Question 165

What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast addresss and an IPv6 anycast addresss?

Options:

A.

A packet sent to an IPv6 multicast addresss is delivered to one or more destinations at once, but a packet sent to an IPv6 anycast addresss is routed to the closest interface with that addresss.

B.

An IPv6 multicast addresss uses the prefix 2002::/15 and forwards to one destination, and an IPv6 anycast addresss uses the prefix ff00::/8 and forwards to any destination in a group.

C.

IPv6 multicast addressses are used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6, and IPv6 anycast addressses are used for addresss aggregation in an IPv6-only environment.

D.

An IPv6 multicast addresss is assigned to numerous interfaces within a subnet, but an IPv6 anycast addresss is used for a predefined group of nodes in an all-IPv6 routers group.

Question 166

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 166

Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary addresss must be advertised in OSPF?

Options:

A.

10.1.40.0/25

B.

10.1.40.0/24

C.

10.1.40.0/23

D.

10.1.41.0/25

Question 167

A wirelesss access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• " zero-touch " deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

Question 168

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

Options:

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wirelesss network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wirelesss network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

Question 169

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group.

B.

Increases security on the management VLAN.

C.

Rewrites the source and destination MAC addresss.

D.

Associates the MAC addresss with the port on which it is received.

Question 170

Question # 170

Refer to the exhibit. Company A wants to use a RADIUS server to service all user and device authentication attempts with a more secure and granular authentication approach. Not all client devices support dot1x authentication. Which two configuration changes must be made to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable AutoConfig IPSK under the Layer 2 tab.

B.

Select Authentication server under the AAA servers tab.

C.

Configure Enterprise Security type under the Layer 2 tab.

D.

Set Authentication under the Layer 3 tab.

E.

Enable WPA2 Policy under the Layer 2 tab.

Question 171

Question # 171

Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addressses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated addresss self-assignment on the IPv6 network?

Options:

A.

ipv6 addresss 2001:db8:1:0FFA:0::/64

B.

ipv6 addresss 2001:db8:0:0FFA::1/64

C.

ipv6 addresss 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 addresss 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 anycast

Question 172

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PBR

B.

FRTS

C.

PQ

D.

CBWFQ

E.

CAR

Question 173

Drag and drop the characteristic froin the left onto the IPv6 addresss type on the right.

Question # 173

Options:

Question 174

Question # 174

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

interface port-channel 2channel-group 2 mode desirable

B.

interface fasteinernet 1/1channel-group 2 mode active

C.

interface fasteinernet 1/1channel-group 2 mode on

D.

interface port-channel 2channel-group 2 mode auto

Question 175

What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local addresss and a unique local addresss?

Options:

A.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local addresss is limited to a loopback addresss, and an IPv6 unique local addresss is limited to a directly attached interface.

B.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local addresss can be used throughout a company site or network, but an IPv6 unique local addresss is limited to a loopback addresss.

C.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local addresss is global, but the scope of an IPv6 unique local addresss is limited to a loopback addresss.

D.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local addresss is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local addresss is used throughout a company site or network.

Question 176

Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics froin the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.

Question # 176

Options:

Question 177

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 177

A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.25.25 0 255 255 255.0 192.168.2.1

B.

ip route 172.25.25 1 255 255 255 255 g0/1

C.

ip route 172.25.25.0.255.255.255.0.192.168.2.2

Question 178

Question # 178

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

Options:

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Question 179

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

Options:

A.

Re-Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

OEAP Split Tunnel

C.

11ac MU-MIMO

D.

Client Band Select

Question 180

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

Question 181

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Question 182

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Provides a single broadcast domain for all connected devices

B.

Performs packet fragmentation and reassembly

C.

Tracks the number of active TCP connections

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

Question 183

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 183

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A)

Question # 183

B)

Question # 183

C)

Question # 183

D)

Question # 183

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 184

Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?

Options:

A.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

B.

It exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

Question 185

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

C.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Question 186

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

Question 187

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Question 188

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

Question 189

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

Question 190

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

Options:

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

Question 191

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Question 192

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Question 193

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Question 194

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

Options:

A.

200

B.

301

C.

404

D.

500

Question 195

Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

Options:

A.

0050.0c05.ad81

B.

0007.c061.bc01

C.

0000.5E00.0101

D.

0500.3976.6401

Question 196

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 196

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Question 197

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

Options:

A.

Device(Config)#lldp run

B.

Device(Config)#cdp run

C.

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D.

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Question 198

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Question # 198

Question # 198

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 199

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 199

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet3/1/4 port on a switch?

Options:

A.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity

B.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

C.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connectivity

D.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1

Question 200

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 200

An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

Options:

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Question 201

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

Question 202

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

Question 203

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 203

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Question 204

What is the function of a server?

Options:

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Question 205

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

unique local

C.

link-local

D.

multicast

Question 206

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 206

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Question # 206

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 207

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

Question 208

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4 GHz channels and lower usage on the 5 GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5 GHz access points?

Options:

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Question 209

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 209

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

Question # 209

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 210

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

Options:

A.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Question 211

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

Question 212

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

Options:

A.

Each device is separated by the same number of hops

B.

It provides variable latency

C.

It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.

D.

Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Question 213

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

Options:

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

Question 214

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

Question 215

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 215

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Question # 215

Options:

Question 216

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 216

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

C.

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

D.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Question 217

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 217

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

Options:

A.

modify helto interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Question 218

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Question 219

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 219

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

Question 220

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

Question 221

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

Options:

A.

Unicode

B.

base64

C.

decimal

D.

ASCII

Question 222

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

Options:

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Question 223

which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/12

Question 224

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

Options:

A.

802.1q trunks

B.

Cisco vPC

C.

LLDP

D.

LACP

Question 225

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 225

Question # 225

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

Question 226

What must be considered when using 802:11 a?

Options:

A.

It is compatible with 802.11b and 802.11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Question 227

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

Question # 227

Options:

Question 228

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

Question 229

What are network endpoints?

Options:

A.

act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network

B.

a threat to the network if they are compromised

C.

support inter-VLAN connectivity

D.

enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

Question 230

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 230

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

Options:

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Question 231

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 231

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

Options:

A.

the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110

B.

the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

C.

the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

D.

the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

Question 232

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

Options:

A.

ntp authenticate

B.

ntp server

C.

ntp peer

D.

ntp master

Question 233

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 233

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Options:

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Question 234

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Question # 234

Options:

Question 235

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 235

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Question 236

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Question # 236

Options:

Question 237

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

Question # 237

Options:

Question 238

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

Options:

A.

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

B.

broadcast to all ports

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

Question 239

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 239

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

Options:

A.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

B.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

C.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmetrical

D.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Question 240

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

Options:

A.

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

Question 241

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 241

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

192.168.1.17

B.

192.168.1.61

C.

192.168.1.64

D.

192.168.1.127

E.

192.168.1.254

Question 242

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 242

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

Options:

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

Question 243

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

Question 244

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

Options:

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

Question 245

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Management

C.

Data

D.

application

Question 246

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Options:

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Question 247

Refer to Exhibit.

Question # 247

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Question # 247

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 248

Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?

Options:

A.

conserve public IPv4 addressing

B.

preserve public IPv6 address space

C.

reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses

D.

support the NAT protocol

Question 249

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 249

Options:

Question 250

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 250

Options:

Question 251

Question # 251

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Question # 251

Options:

Question 252

Question # 252

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Question # 252

Options:

Question 253

Question # 253

Question # 253

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

Question 254

Question # 254

Question # 254

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

Question 255

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Question # 255Question # 255

Options:

Question 256

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Question # 256Question # 256

Options:

Question 257

Topology:

Question # 257

Configure OSPF routing for the network by completing the following tasks:

Task 1

Configure OSPF on R2. Ensure that R1 and R3 become neighbors.

    Use process ID 30.

    Use 10.22.22.22 as the router ID.

    Under the OSPF process, advertise the following specific prefixes:

      10.0.23.0/28

      10.0.12.0/30

Task 2

Ensure that R2 always becomes the designated router (DR).

Options:

Question 258

Question # 258

Question # 258

Question # 258

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Question 259

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 259

Options:

Question 260

Topology:

Question # 260

All relevant ports are preconfigured as IEEE 802.1Q trunks.

Task 1

Configure SW-1 port Ethernet0/0 to permit only VLANs 5 and 6.

Task 2

Configure ports Ethernet0/1 on SW-1 and SW-2 to use VLAN 77 as the native VLAN.

Task 3

Configure SW-2 port Ethernet0/2 to permit only VLAN 6.

Task 4

Using LACP, create a Port-Channel between SW-3 and SW-4.

    Combine Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 into a Port-Channel while leaving the existing trunk configurations intact.

    Assign Port-Channel number 34.

    Only SW-3 must initiate LACP negotiations.

Options:

Question 261

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Question # 261Question # 261

Options:

Question 262

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 262

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

Question # 262

B)

Question # 262

C)

Question # 262

D)

Question # 262

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 263

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 263

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Question 264

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Question 265

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 265

Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment.

Which command must be used to configure the route?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.2

B.

route add 10.0.3.0 mask 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3

C.

ip route 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3

D.

route add 10.0.3.0 0.255.255.255 10.0.4.2

Question 266

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 266

The administrator must configure a floating static default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

Options:

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

B.

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2

Question 267

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Question # 267

Options:

Question 268

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

Options:

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

Question 269

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

Options:

A.

move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B.

transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively

C.

forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses

D.

flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

Question 270

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 270

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Options:

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

Question 271

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

B.

It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.

C.

It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network

D.

It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.

Question 272

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 272

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Options:

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Question 273

What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

authorizing potentially compromised wireless traffic

B.

inspecting specific files and file types for malware

C.

authenticating end users

D.

URL filtering

Question 274

How does authentication differ from authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

B.

Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access

C.

Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network

D.

Authentication is used to verify a person ' s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

Question 275

What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Question 276

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Question # 276

Options:

Question 277

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Question 278

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

Options:

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

Question 279

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Question 280

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

Options:

A.

implemented over a dedicated WAN

B.

located in the same data center as the users

C.

all hosted on physical servers

D.

accessed over the Internet

Question 281

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 281

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Question 282

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 282

Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?

Options:

A.

192.168.7.4

B.

192.168.7.7

C.

192.168.7.35

D.

192.168.7.40

Question 283

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 283

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

Question # 283

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

Question 284

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 284

A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

Change the Server Status to Disabled

B.

Select Enable next to Management

C.

Select Enable next to Network User

D.

Change the Support for CoA to Enabled.

Question 285

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 285

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

Question 286

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 286

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Question 287

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 287

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

Question # 287

Question # 287

Question # 287

Question # 287

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

option D

Question 288

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

Options:

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Question 289

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 289

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?

Options:

A.

Configure the no lldp tlv-select-management-address command globally on Cat9K-2

B.

Configure the no lldp transmit command on interface G1/0/21 in Cat9K-1

C.

Configure the no lldp receive command on interface G1/0/21 on Cat9K-1

D.

Configure the no lldp mac-phy-cfg command globally on Cat9K-2

Question 290

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

Question 291

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYN flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Question 292

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 292

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Question 293

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Question 294

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the VLAN 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fe80:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Question 295

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

Question # 295

B)

Question # 295

C)

Question # 295

D)

Question # 295

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 296

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 296

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growith. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

Question # 296

B)

Question # 296

C)

Question # 296

D)

Question # 296

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 297

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 297

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

Question 298

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 298

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

Question # 298

B)

Question # 298

C)

Question # 298

D)

Question # 298

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 299

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 299

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

Question # 299

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 300

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

Options:

A.

when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy

B.

to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache

C.

to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free

D.

to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices

Question 301

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Question 302

An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?

A)

Question # 302

B)

Question # 302

C)

Question # 302

D)

Question # 302

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 303

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 303

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

Question # 303

B)

Question # 303

C)

Question # 303

D)

Question # 303

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 304

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 304

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

Question 305

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

Options:

A.

propagates VLAN information between switches

B.

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

C.

provides DDoS mitigation

D.

rate-limits certain traffic

Question 306

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 306

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Question 307

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

Options:

A.

VLAN ID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

Question 308

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 308

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernet0/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Question 309

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 309

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Question 310

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

Options:

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

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Total 1242 questions