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Cisco 200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Exam Practice Test

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Total 476 questions

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Question 1

According to CVSS, which condition is required for attack complexity metrics?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle attack

B.

attackers altering any file

C.

complete loss of protection

D.

total loss of availability

Question 2

A network engineer informed a security team of a large amount of traffic and suspicious activity from an unknown source to the company DMZ server The security team reviewed the data and identified a potential DDoS attempt According to NIST, at which phase of incident response is the security team?

Options:

A.

containment and eradication

B.

preparation

C.

recovery

D.

detection and analysis

Question 3

A CMS plugin creates two files that are accessible from the Internet myplugin html and exploitable php A newly discovered exploit takes advantage of an injection vulnerability m exploitable php To exploit the vulnerability an HTTP POST must be sent with specific variables to exploitable php A security engineer notices traffic to the webserver that consists of only HTTP GET requests to myplugin html Which category does this activity fall under?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

installation

C.

reconnaissance

D.

exploitation

Question 4

Which two attacks are denial-of-service (DoS) attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP flooding

B.

Code Red

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

ping of death

E.

TCP connections

Question 5

Which evasion technique is a function of ransomware?

Options:

A.

extended sleep calls

B.

encryption

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

encoding

Question 6

According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

swap files

B.

temporary files

C.

login sessions

D.

dump files

E.

free space

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 7

Which event is occurring?

Options:

A.

A binary named "submit" is running on VM cuckoo1.

B.

A binary is being submitted to run on VM cuckoo1

C.

A binary on VM cuckoo1 is being submitted for evaluation

D.

A URL is being evaluated to see if it has a malicious binary

Question 8

What is a difference between SI EM and SOAR security systems?

Options:

A.

SOAR ingests numerous types of logs and event data infrastructure components and SIEM can fetch data from endpoint security software and external threat intelligence feeds

B.

SOAR collects and stores security data at a central point and then converts it into actionable intelligence, and SIEM enables SOC teams to automate and orchestrate manual tasks

C.

SIEM raises alerts in the event of detecting any suspicious activity, and SOAR automates investigation path workflows and reduces time spent on alerts

D.

SIEM combines data collecting, standardization, case management, and analytics for a defense-in-depth concept, and SOAR collects security data antivirus logs, firewall logs, and hashes of downloaded files

Question 9

Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the description of that evidence on the right.

Question # 9

Options:

Question 10

How is SQL injection prevented?

Options:

A.

Address space layout randomization

B.

Validate and sanitize user input

C.

...in the web server as a nonprivileged user

D.

...cost profiling

Question 11

Which type of verification consists of using tools to compute the message digest of the original and copied data, then comparing the similarity of the digests?

Options:

A.

evidence collection order

B.

data integrity

C.

data preservation

D.

volatile data collection

Question 12

Which of these is a defense-in-depth strategy principle?

Options:

A.

identify the minimum resource required per employee.

B.

Assign the least network privileges to segment network permissions.

C.

Provide the minimum permissions needed to perform Job functions.

D.

Disable administrative accounts to avoid unauthorized changes.

Question 13

An engineer is analyzing a recent breach where confidential documents were altered and stolen by the receptionist. Further analysis shows that the threat actor connected an externa USB device to bypass security restrictions and steal data. The engineer could not find an external USB device Which piece of information must an engineer use for attribution in an investigation?

Options:

A.

list of security restrictions and privileges boundaries bypassed

B.

external USB device

C.

receptionist and the actions performed

D.

stolen data and its criticality assessment

Question 14

What is a benefit of using asymmetric cryptography?

Options:

A.

decrypts data with one key

B.

fast data transfer

C.

secure data transfer

D.

encrypts data with one key

Question 15

Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports?

Options:

A.

statistical data

B.

session data

C.

connectivity data

D.

alert data

Question 16

What is the advantage of agent-based protection compared to agentless protection?

Options:

A.

easier to manage due to the centralized platform

B.

monitors and detects traffic locally

C.

manages unlimited devices simultaneously

D.

lower resource requirements during implementation

Question 17

Question # 17

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

denial-of-service attack

B.

man-in-the-middle attack

C.

brute-force attack

D.

ARP spoofing attack

Question 18

When communicating via TLS, the client initiates the handshake to the server and the server responds back with its certificate for identification.

Which information is available on the server certificate?

Options:

A.

server name, trusted subordinate CA, and private key

B.

trusted subordinate CA, public key, and cipher suites

C.

trusted CA name, cipher suites, and private key

D.

server name, trusted CA, and public key

Question 19

What is a collection of compromised machines that attackers use to carry out a DDoS attack?

Options:

A.

subnet

B.

botnet

C.

VLAN

D.

command and control

Question 20

What is a difference between a threat and a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a risk of unauthorized actions from a threat actor, and a threat is the actions that malicious actors perform for privilege escalation.

B.

A threat is what an engineer is trying to protect an asset against, and a vulnerability is a weakness in an asset that an engineer is trying to mitigate.

C.

A vulnerability is an asset without hardened protection, and a threat is a weakness that is open to attackers due to misconfiguration.

D.

A threat is a weakness in an asset that an engineer is trying to mitigate, and a vulnerability is an existing risk of possible damage or loss of data.

Question 21

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B.

MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C.

DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D.

DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

Question 22

An engineer discovered a breach, identified the threat’s entry point, and removed access. The engineer was able to identify the host, the IP address of the threat actor, and the application the threat actor targeted. What is the next step the engineer should take according to the NIST SP 800-61 Incident handling guide?

Options:

A.

Recover from the threat.

B.

Analyze the threat.

C.

Identify lessons learned from the threat.

D.

Reduce the probability of similar threats.

Question 23

Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

session duration

B.

total throughput

C.

running processes

D.

listening ports

E.

OS fingerprint

Question 24

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Question # 24

Options:

Question 25

Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?

Options:

A.

Biba

B.

Object-capability

C.

Take-Grant

D.

Zero Trust

Question 26

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 26

Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

corroborating evidence

B.

circumstantial evidence

C.

best evidence

D.

direct evidence

Question 27

A cyberattacker notices a security flaw in a software that a company is using They decide to tailor a specific worm to exploit this flaw and extract saved passwords from the software To which category of the Cyber Kill Cham model does this event belong?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

delivery

C.

weaponization

D.

exploitation

Question 28

What are two denial-of-service (DoS) attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

port scan

B.

SYN flood

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

phishing

E.

teardrop

Question 29

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

Question 30

What describes the difference when comparing attack surface and vulnerability in practice?

Options:

A.

Updating the OS reduces the attack surface, and installing separate optional patches remediates and solves vulnerabilities within the system.

B.

Patching SMB vulnerability is an attack surface reduction, and the open unused ports are the vulnerabilities within the system.

C.

A SMB server that can allow remote code execution is a vulnerability, and closing port 139 is an attack surface reduction.

D.

The attack surface is the SQL injection targeted on the database, and the database tables are the vulnerabilities that might be exploited.

Question 31

How can TOR impact data visibility inside an organization?

Options:

A.

increases data integrity

B.

increases security

C.

decreases visibility

D.

no impact

Question 32

What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

Options:

A.

Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B.

Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.

C.

Tampered images are used as evidence.

D.

Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

Question 33

What is used to maintain persistent control of an exploited device?

Options:

A.

rootkit

B.

ARP spoof

C.

DDoS

D.

encryption

Question 34

If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?

Options:

A.

input validation

B.

hash collision

C.

integer overflow

D.

command injection

Question 35

According to CVSS, what is attack complexity?

Options:

A.

existing exploits available in the wild exploiting the vulnerability

B.

existing circumstances beyond the attacker's control to exploit the vulnerability

C.

number of actions an attacker should perform to exploit the vulnerability

D.

number of patches available for certain attack mitigation and how complex the workarounds are

Question 36

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

Options:

A.

threat intelligence

B.

risk scores

C.

vendor suggestions

D.

vulnerability exposure

Question 37

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 37

What is occurring in this network?

Options:

A.

ARP cache poisoning

B.

DNS cache poisoning

C.

MAC address table overflow

D.

MAC flooding attack

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 38

What is the outcome of the command?

Options:

A.

TCP rule that detects TCP packets with the SYN flag in an external FTP server

B.

TCP rule that detects TCP packets with a SYN flag in the internal network

C.

TCP rule that detects TCP packets with a ACK flag in the internal network

D.

TCP rule that detects TCP packets with the ACK flag in an external FTP server

Question 39

An employee reports that someone has logged into their system and made unapproved changes, files are out of order, and several documents have been placed in the recycle bin. The security specialist reviewed the system logs, found nothing suspicious, and was not able to determine what occurred. The software is up to date; there are no alerts from antivirus and no failed login attempts. What is causing the lack of data visibility needed to detect the attack?

Options:

A.

The threat actor used a dictionary-based password attack to obtain credentials.

B.

The threat actor gained access to the system by known credentials.

C.

The threat actor used the teardrop technique to confuse and crash login services.

D.

The threat actor used an unknown vulnerability of the operating system that went undetected.

Question 40

An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.

What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

Options:

A.

queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed

B.

deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion

C.

is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory

D.

has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

Question 41

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage7

Options:

A.

Run "ps -ef to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources

B.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server

C.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap

D.

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion

Question 42

Which HTTP header field is used in forensics to identify the type of browser used?

Options:

A.

referrer

B.

host

C.

user-agent

D.

accept-language

Question 43

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Deep packet inspection gives insights up to Layer 7, and stateful inspection gives insights only up to Layer 4.

B.

Deep packet inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and stateful inspection requires less human intervention.

C.

Stateful inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and deep packet inspection requires less human intervention.

D.

Stateful inspection verifies data at the transport layer and deep packet inspection verifies data at the application layer

Question 44

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain model?

Options:

A.

Scan a host to find open ports and vulnerabilities

B.

Construct the appropriate malware and deliver it to the victim.

C.

Test and construct the appropriate malware to launch the attack

D.

Research data on a specific vulnerability

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 45

Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

TCP

C.

TLS

D.

HTTP

Question 46

Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit. An employee received an email from an unknown sender with an attachment and reported it as a phishing attempt. An engineer uploaded the file to Cuckoo for further analysis. What should an engineer interpret from the provided Cuckoo report?

Options:

A.

Win32.polip.a.exe is an executable file and should be flagged as malicious.

B.

The file is clean and does not represent a risk.

C.

Cuckoo cleaned the malicious file and prepared it for usage.

D.

MD5 of the file was not identified as malicious.

Question 47

Question # 47

Refer to the exhibit. What type of event is occurring?

Options:

A.

Legitimate web browsing activity

B.

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack

C.

User trying to access a file share

D.

Malware attempting to spread laterally

Question 48

What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

Options:

A.

Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B.

Tampered images are used as evidence.

C.

Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

D.

Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence

Question 49

A user received a targeted spear-phishing email and identified it as suspicious before opening the content. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does to this type of event belong?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

delivery

C.

exploitation

D.

reconnaissance

Question 50

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 50

A security analyst wraps up the shift and passed open ticket notes to the night shift SOC team analyst. The ticket name in question is "Investigating suspicious activity on a Windows Server’’. Which operating system components must the analyst prioritize to uncover the attacker's persistence mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Review the Windows Defender setup and failed login attempts in Event Viewer

B.

Investigate the Task Scheduler entries and Windows Defender settings.

C.

Analyze the Windows Registry changes and Task Scheduler tasks.

D.

Focus on the user account log-ins and delete newly added Run keys in the registry

Question 51

Which difficulty occurs when log messages are compared from two devices separated by a Layer 3 device that performs Network Address Translation?

Options:

A.

IP addresses in the log messages match

B.

Timestamps of the log messages are different.

C.

Log messages contain incorrect information

D.

IP addresses in the log messages do not match

Question 52

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

Inline interrogation is less complex as traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data.

B.

Traffic mirroring copies the traffic rather than forwarding it directly to the analysis tools

C.

Inline replicates the traffic to preserve integrity rather than modifying packets before sending them to other analysis tools.

D.

Traffic mirroring results in faster traffic analysis and inline is considerably slower due to latency.

Question 53

Which risk approach eliminates activities posing a risk exposure?

Options:

A.

risk acknowledgment

B.

risk avoidance

C.

risk reduction

D.

risk retention

Question 54

What describes the concept of data consistently and readily being accessible for legitimate users?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

availability

C.

accessibility

D.

confidentiality

Question 55

Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?

Options:

A.

known-plaintext

B.

replay

C.

dictionary

D.

man-in-the-middle

Question 56

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 56

This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?

Options:

A.

parameter manipulation

B.

heap memory corruption

C.

command injection

D.

blind SQL injection

Question 57

What is the difference between antimalware and antivirus solutions?

Options:

A.

Antimalware applications operate proactively to block ransomware before it can encrypt data, and antivirus cannot resist advanced classes of malware.

B.

Antivirus operates using thousands of pieces of threat intelligence information from existing samples, and antimalware can identify patterns of well-known attack types and detect an attack vector before an attack is successful.

C.

Antivirus applications operate proactively to block ransomware before it can encrypt data, and antimalware cannot resist advanced classes of malware.

D.

Antimalware operates using thousands of pieces of threat intelligence information from existing samples, and antivirus can identify patterns of well-known attack types and detect an attack vector before an attack is successful.

Question 58

What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?

Options:

A.

central key management server

B.

web of trust

C.

trusted certificate authorities

D.

registration authority data

Question 59

Which technology prevents end-device to end-device IP traceability?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

load balancing

C.

NAT/PAT

D.

tunneling

Question 60

Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

context

B.

session

C.

laptop

D.

firewall logs

E.

threat actor

Question 61

Which system monitors local system operation and local network access for violations of a security policy?

Options:

A.

host-based intrusion detection

B.

systems-based sandboxing

C.

host-based firewall

D.

antivirus

Question 62

Which statement describes indicators of attack?

Options:

A.

internal hosts communicate with countries outside of the business range.

B.

Phishing attempts on an organization are blocked by mall AV.

C.

Critical patches are missing.

D.

A malicious file is detected by the AV software.

Question 63

A network engineer noticed in the NetFlow report that internal hosts are sending many DNS requests to external DNS servers A SOC analyst checked the endpoints and discovered that they are infected and became part of the botnet Endpoints are sending multiple DNS requests but with spoofed IP addresses of valid external sources What kind of attack are infected endpoints involved in1?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

DNS flooding

D.

DNS amplification

Question 64

An engineer is sharing folders and files with different departments and got this error: "No such file or directory". What must the engineer verify next?

Options:

A.

memory allocation

B.

symlinks

C.

permission

D.

disk space

Question 65

What is the difference between indicator of attack (loA) and indicators of compromise (loC)?

Options:

A.

loA is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loC allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

B.

loA refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loC refers to the resulting loss.

C.

loC is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loA allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

D.

loC refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loA refers to the resulting loss.

Question 66

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4. and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7.

B.

Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7.

C.

Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4.

D.

Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7, and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4.

Question 67

What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

B.

Tampered images are used in the security investigation process

C.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

D.

Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process

E.

The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

Question 68

Drag and drop the security concept from the left onto the example of that concept on the right.

Question # 68

Options:

Question 69

An engineer configured regular expression “.”\.(pd][Oo][Cc)|[Xx][LI][Ss]|[Pp][Pp][Tt]) HTTP/1 .[01]" on Cisco ASA firewall. What does this regular expression do?

Options:

A.

It captures documents in an HTTP network session.

B.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .pdf files in HTTP v1.0 and v1.1.

C.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .ppt files extensions in HTTP v1.0.

D.

It captures Word, Excel, and PowerPoint files in HTTPv1.0 and v1.1.

Question 70

What is the difference between authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authorization is used by a server when the server needs to know exactly who is accessing resources, and authentication is a process by which a server determines the permissions.

B.

Authorization allows an engineer to control the user access level privileges to the router, and authentication is the process of giving the user-specific permissions.

C.

Authentication is coupled with authorization so that the server knows who the requestor is, and authorization is used by a requestor that knows the server.

D.

Authentication allows an engineer to identify who can connect to a router, and authorization is the function of specifying access rights and privileges to resources.

Question 71

A forensic investigator is analyzing a recent breach case. An external USB drive was discovered to be connected and transmitting the data outside of the organization, and the owner of the USB drive could not be identified. Video surveillance shows six people during a two-month period had close contact with the affected asset. How must this type of evidence be categorized?

Options:

A.

Indirect evidence

B.

Direct evidence

C.

Corroborative evidence

D.

Best evidence

Question 72

What is the difference between a threat and a risk?

Options:

A.

Threat represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system

B.

Risk represents the known and identified loss or danger in the system

C.

Risk represents the nonintentional interaction with uncertainty in the system

D.

Threat represents a state of being exposed to an attack or a compromise, either physically or logically.

Question 73

Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer received a report that a host is communicating with unknown domains on the internet. The network engineer collected packet capture but could not determine the technique or the payload used. What technique is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

amplification

B.

teardrop

C.

session hijacking

D.

tunneling

Question 74

When an event is investigated, which type of data provides the investigate capability to determine if data exfiltration has occurred?

Options:

A.

full packet capture

B.

NetFlow data

C.

session data

D.

firewall logs

Question 75

What is a scareware attack?

Options:

A.

using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials

B.

overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic

C.

gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it

D.

inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors

Question 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 76

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B.

A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C.

There are two active data exfiltration alerts.

D.

A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

Question 77

Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investigate a security breach?

Options:

A.

It captures the TCP flags set within each packet for the engineer to focus on suspicious packets to identify malicious activity

B.

It collects metadata for the engineer to analyze, including IP traffic packet data that is sorted, parsed, and indexed.

C.

It provides the full TCP streams for the engineer to follow the metadata to identify the incoming threat.

D.

It reconstructs the event allowing the engineer to identify the root cause by seeing what took place during the breach

Question 78

Which action prevents buffer overflow attacks?

Options:

A.

variable randomization

B.

using web based applications

C.

input sanitization

D.

using a Linux operating system

Question 79

Drag and drop the event term from the left onto the description on the right.

Question # 79

Options:

Question 80

What is the purpose of a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

to make files inaccessible by encrypting the data

B.

to decrypt encrypted data and disks

C.

to send keystrokes to a threat actor

D.

to escalate privileges

Question 81

A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results:

If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned.

If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process.

Which component results from this operation?

Options:

A.

parent directory name of a file pathname

B.

process spawn scheduled

C.

macros for managing CPU sets

D.

new process created by parent process

Question 82

A compliance analyst receives a complaint from a customer regarding personal data being unlawfully retained despite a deletion request. The company is based in Europe and must comply with GDPR. The only data collected is the email address 0524l9i75@gmail.com. How should the compliance analyst act?

Options:

A.

Do not delete the data — the email address is not considered PII

B.

Delete the data regardless of where the customer is from

C.

Delete the data if the customer is from the EU

D.

Notify the legal team about a data compliance breach

Question 83

Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?

Options:

A.

colo?ur

B.

col[0−8]+our

C.

colou?r

D.

col[0−9]+our

Question 84

A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders After further investigation, the analyst learns that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?

Options:

A.

post-incident activity

B.

detection and analysis

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

Question 85

What does this regular expression do?

192|172).(168|1[6-9]|2[0-9]|3[0-1]).[0-9]{1,3}.[0-9]{1,3}\b

Options:

A.

It searches for private IP addresses except 10.0.0.0/8 IP address range.

B.

It matches any IP addresses within 172.16.0.0/16 IP address range.

C.

It searches for lines with private IP addresses in text.

D.

It extracts lines with 192.168.0.0/16 IP address range from the text.

Question 86

Why is HTTPS traffic difficult to screen?

Options:

A.

HTTPS is used internally and screening traffic (or external parties is hard due to isolation.

B.

The communication is encrypted and the data in transit is secured.

C.

Digital certificates secure the session, and the data is sent at random intervals.

D.

Traffic is tunneled to a specific destination and is inaccessible to others except for the receiver.

Question 87

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 87

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B.

Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C.

Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D.

Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

Question 88

Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data?

Options:

A.

legal

B.

compliance

C.

regulated

D.

contractual

Question 89

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4

B.

Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4 and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7

C.

Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7

D.

Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7 and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4

Question 90

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 90

An analyst was given a PCAP file, which is associated with a recent intrusion event in the company FTP server Which display filters should the analyst use to filter the FTP traffic?

Options:

A.

dstport == FTP

B.

tcp.port==21

C.

tcpport = FTP

D.

dstport = 21

Question 91

An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

incorrect TCP handshake

B.

incorrect UDP handshake

C.

incorrect OSI configuration

D.

incorrect snaplen configuration

Question 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 92

An analyst receives an IDS alert pertaining to a possible data exfiltration attempt. An additional set of logs is collected from different systems and analyzed. Which type of evidence do the logs provide in relation to the primary alert from the IDS?

Options:

A.

corroborative evidence

B.

primary evidence

C.

circumstantial evidence

D.

secondary evidence

Question 93

Which principle is being followed when an analyst gathers information relevant to a security incident to determine the appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

decision making

B.

rapid response

C.

data mining

D.

due diligence

Question 94

Which management concept best describes developing, operating, maintaining, upgrading, and disposing of all resources?

Options:

A.

configuration

B.

vulnerability

C.

asset

D.

patch

Question 95

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs.

Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

application whitelisting/blacklisting

B.

network NGFW

C.

host-based IDS

D.

antivirus/antispyware software

Question 96

An analyst performs traffic analysis to detect data exfiltration and identifies a high frequency of DNS requests in a small period of time Which technology makes this behavior feasible?

Options:

A.

access control list

B.

NAT

C.

tunneling

D.

encryption

Question 97

During a quarterly vulnerability scan, a security analyst discovered unused uncommon ports open and in a listening state. Further investigation showed that the unknown application was communicating with an external IP address on an encrypted channel. A deeper analysis revealed a command and control communication on an infected server. At which step of the Cyber Kill Chain was the attack detected?

Options:

A.

Delivery

B.

Weaponization

C.

Actions on Objectives

D.

Exploitation

Question 98

Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right.

Question # 98

Options:

Question 99

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

Options:

A.

Run "ps -ef to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources

B.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server

C.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap

D.

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion

Question 100

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

Options:

A.

stored

B.

reflective

C.

DOM

D.

CSRF

Question 101

After a large influx of network traffic to externally facing devices, a security engineer begins investigating what appears to be a denial of service attack When the packet capture data is reviewed, the engineer notices that the traffic is a single SYN packet to each port Which type of attack is occurring?

Options:

A.

traffic fragmentation

B.

port scanning

C.

host profiling

D.

SYN flood

Question 102

Which security principle requires more than one person is required to perform a critical task?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

need to know

C.

separation of duties

D.

due diligence

Question 103

What is an example of social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an attachment from someone in the same company

B.

receiving an email from human resources requesting a visit to their secure website to update contact information

C.

sending a verbal request to an administrator who knows how to change an account password

D.

receiving an invitation to the department’s weekly WebEx meeting

Question 104

Which regex matches only on all lowercase letters?

Options:

A.

[a−z]+

B.

[^a−z]+

C.

a−z+

D.

a*z+

Question 105

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 105

What does the output indicate about the server with the IP address 172.18.104.139?

Options:

A.

open ports of a web server

B.

open port of an FTP server

C.

open ports of an email server

D.

running processes of the server

Question 106

An employee of a company receives an email with an attachment. They notice that this email is from a suspicious source, and they decide not to open the attached file. After further investigation, a security analyst concludes that this file is malware. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does this event belong?

Options:

A.

Weaponization

B.

Installation

C.

Exploitation

D.

Delivery

Question 107

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 107

An engineer received an event log file to review. Which technology generated the log?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

proxy

C.

firewall

D.

IDS/IPS

Question 108

What is the purpose of command and control for network-aware malware?

Options:

A.

It contacts a remote server for commands and updates

B.

It takes over the user account for analysis

C.

It controls and shuts down services on the infected host.

D.

It helps the malware to profile the host

Question 109

A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs?

Options:

A.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name

B.

protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port

C.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and username

D.

protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name

Question 110

What is rule-based detection when compared to statistical detection?

Options:

A.

proof of a user's identity

B.

proof of a user's action

C.

likelihood of user's action

D.

falsification of a user's identity

Question 111

An automotive company provides new types of engines and special brakes for rally sports cars. The company has a database of inventions and patents for their engines and technical information Customers can access the database through the company's website after they register and identify themselves. Which type of protected data is accessed by customers?

Options:

A.

IP data

B.

PII data

C.

PSI data

D.

PHI data

Question 112

Which attack is the network vulnerable to when a stream cipher like RC4 is used twice with the same key?

Options:

A.

forgery attack

B.

plaintext-only attack

C.

ciphertext-only attack

D.

meet-in-the-middle attack

Question 113

Question # 113

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of actions must an engineer perform to identify and fix this issue?

Options:

A.

Reinstall the IIS server to reset certificate details to default and try to connect to the server.

B.

Remove the intermediate certificates and install the CA root certificate on each server.

C.

Implement a different version of CA authority and install intermediate certificates.

D.

Add client authentication to the certificate template, reissue, and apply the certificate.

Question 114

The Cisco Zero Trust Architecture simplifies the zero trust journey into three critical areas. Drag and drop the definitions onto the graphic to describe zero trust from the Cisco perspective.

Question # 114

Options:

Question 115

A system administrator is ensuring that specific registry information is accurate.

Which type of configuration information does the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE hive contain?

Options:

A.

file extension associations

B.

hardware, software, and security settings for the system

C.

currently logged in users, including folders and control panel settings

D.

all users on the system, including visual settings

Question 116

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

privilege escalation

B.

DDoS attack

C.

phishing

D.

man-in-the-middle

E.

pharming

Question 117

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 117

Which packet contains a file that is extractable within Wireshark?

Options:

A.

2317

B.

1986

C.

2318

D.

2542

Question 118

Which utility blocks a host portscan?

Options:

A.

HIDS

B.

sandboxing

C.

host-based firewall

D.

antimalware

Question 119

What specific type of analysis is assigning values to the scenario to see expected outcomes?

Options:

A.

deterministic

B.

exploratory

C.

probabilistic

D.

descriptive

Question 120

A suspicious user opened a connection from a compromised host inside an organization. Traffic was going through a router and the network administrator was able to identify this flow. The admin was following 5-tuple to collect needed data. Which information was gathered based on this approach?

Options:

A.

direct path

B.

user name

C.

protocol

D.

NAT

Question 121

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 121

Which tool was used to generate this data?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

dnstools

C.

firewall

D.

tcpdump

Question 122

What is a description of "phishing" as a social engineering attack"?

Options:

A.

Someone without the proper authentication follows an authenticated employee into a restricted area The attacker might impersonate a delivery driver and wait outside a building to get things started

B.

A hacker masquerading as a trusted entity, dupes a victim into opening an email, instant message, or text message The recipient is then tricked into clicking a malicious link.

C.

The attacker focuses on creating a good pretext or a fabricated scenario that is used to try and steal victims' personal information

D.

Fake Social Security Administration personnel contact random individuals inform them that there has been a computer problem on their end and ask that those individuals confirm their Social Security Number, all for the purpose of committing identity theft.

Question 123

Which attack method intercepts traffic on a switched network?

Options:

A.

denial of service

B.

ARP cache poisoning

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

command and control

Question 124

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 124

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Identifying possible malware communications and botnet activity

B.

Monitoring of encrypted and unencrypted web sessions for diagnostics.

C.

Analysis of traffic flows during network capacity testing

D.

Review of session logs for performance optimization in a distributed application environment

Question 125

Which statement describes patch management?

Options:

A.

scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities

B.

managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes

C.

process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates

D.

workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities

Question 126

What is a difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow

B.

Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking

C.

Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation

D.

Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security

Question 127

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

Options:

A.

sandbox

B.

application allow list

C.

application block list

D.

host-based firewall

Question 128

An engineer received a ticket to investigate a potentially malicious file detected by a malware scanner that was trying to execute multiple commands. During the initial review, the engineer discovered that the file was created two days prior. Further analyses show that the file was downloaded from a known malicious domain after a successful phishing attempt on an asset owner. At which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain was this attack mitigated?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

exploitation

C.

installation

D.

delivery

Question 129

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

management and reporting

B.

traffic filtering

C.

adaptive AVC

D.

metrics collection and exporting

E.

application recognition

Question 130

What is a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

It is a component of a malware attack used to establish a remote covert channel.

B.

It is malicious software that steals confidential data.

C.

It encrypts a victim’s data and prevents access to it.

D.

The volume of data exceeds storage capacity.

Question 131

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?

Options:

A.

The computer has a HIPS installed on it.

B.

The computer has a NIPS installed on it.

C.

The computer has a HIDS installed on it.

D.

The computer has a NIDS installed on it.

Question 132

Which items is an end-point application greylist used?

Options:

A.

Items that have been established as malicious

B.

Items that have been established as authorized

C.

Items that have been installed with a baseline

D.

Items before being established as harmful or malicious

Question 133

A security engineer notices confidential data being exfiltrated to a domain "Ranso4134-mware31-895" address that is attributed to a known advanced persistent threat group The engineer discovers that the activity is part of a real attack and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Cyber Kill Chain?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

delivery

C.

action on objectives

D.

weaponization

Question 134

How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?

Options:

A.

An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of an attack.

B.

An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.

C.

An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.

D.

An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 135

An attacker gained initial access to the company s network and ran an Nmap scan to advance with the lateral movement technique and to search the sensitive data Which two elements can an attacker identify from the scan? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

workload and the configuration details

B.

user accounts and SID

C.

number of users and requests that the server is handling

D.

functionality and purpose of the server

E.

running services

Question 136

What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?

Options:

A.

SOAR predicts and prevents security alerts, while SIEM checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

B.

SlEM's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SOAR is more focused on security operations automation and response.

C.

SIEM predicts and prevents security alerts, while SOAR checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

D.

SOAR's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SIEM is more focused on security operations automation and response.

Question 137

Which tool gives the ability to see session data in real time?

Options:

A.

tcpdstat

B.

trafdump

C.

tcptrace

D.

trafshow

Question 138

What is the functionality of an IDS'?

Options:

A.

device or software that detects and blocks suspicious files

B.

endpoint protection software that prevents viruses and malware

C.

forensic tool used to perform an in-depth analysis and debugging

D.

software or device which monitors and identifies malicious network activity

Question 139

Question # 139

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC team member receives a case from his colleague with notes attached. The artifacts and alerts associated with the case must be analyzed and a conclusion must be provided. What is the cause of the alert?

Options:

A.

An insider threat compromised the service account to delete sensitive data.

B.

External attackers gained access and are exfiltrating data stealthily.

C.

A ransomware attack is underway, encrypting files and deleting originals.

D.

A misconfigured backup process malfunctioned, causing unexpected file changes.

Question 140

An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Detection

C.

Eradication

D.

Analysis

Question 141

What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?

Options:

A.

physical location of an object in memory

B.

set of pages that reside in the physical memory

C.

system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system

D.

set of virtual memory addresses that can be used

Question 142

Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?

Options:

A.

timing attack

B.

traffic fragmentation

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

tunneling

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Total 476 questions