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Checkpoint 156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 Exam Practice Test

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Total 400 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 Questions and Answers

Question 1

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Three

C.

Two

D.

Infinite

Question 2

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

Question 3

An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.

B.

These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.

C.

A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.

D.

Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

Question 4

Which command shows the installed licenses?

Options:

A.

cplic print

B.

print cplic

C.

fwlic print

D.

show licenses

Question 5

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole installed device

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

Question 6

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Question 7

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 8

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

Question 9

Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Options:

A.

Down

B.

No Response

C.

Inactive

D.

Failed

Question 10

When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

Question 11

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

C.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server's Mgmt-interface and has no dependency

on the gateway.

D.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server

dependency.

Question 12

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

Options:

A.

SmartView Web Application

B.

SmartTracker

C.

SmartMonitor

D.

SmartReporter

Question 13

When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Options:

A.

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

B.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

C.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

D.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

Question 14

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

Options:

A.

In the system SMEM memory pool.

B.

In State tables.

C.

In the Sessions table.

D.

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

Question 15

Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

Options:

A.

SHA-256

B.

SHA-200

C.

MD5

D.

SHA-128

Question 16

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

Question 17

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

Options:

A.

Application Independence

B.

High Performance

C.

Scalability

D.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

Question 18

What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

Options:

A.

A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

B.

A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.

C.

To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

D.

A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

Question 19

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Next-Generation Firewall

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

Question 20

When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Options:

A.

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

B.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

C.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

D.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

Question 21

When an Admin logs into SmartConsole and sees a lock icon on a gateway object and cannot edit that object, what does that indicate?

Options:

A.

The gateway is not powered on.

B.

Incorrect routing to reach the gateway.

C.

The Admin would need to login to Read-Only mode

D.

Another Admin has made an edit to that object and has yet to publish the change.

Question 22

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

B.

On-premise and Public Cloud

C.

Central and Local.

D.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

Question 23

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge Mode

D.

Targeted

Question 24

Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Options:

A.

Connection Cache

B.

State Cache

C.

State Table

D.

Network Table

Question 25

Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as _______.

Options:

A.

User Center

B.

User Administration

C.

User Directory

D.

UserCheck

Question 26

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Options:

A.

cpconfig

B.

Management Command Line

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate

Question 27

Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

Question 28

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

Question 29

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Options:

A.

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

B.

There is Load Sharing solution set up

C.

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

D.

There is High Availability solution set up

Question 30

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After a device upgrade.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

Question 31

When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

Options:

A.

Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

B.

Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers

C.

R81.10 does not support Layers

D.

Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

Question 32

When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.

Options:

A.

Publish database

B.

Activate policy

C.

Install policy

D.

Save changes

Question 33

In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Logging & Monitoring

B.

None - the data is available by default

C.

Monitoring Blade

D.

SNMP

Question 34

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Options:

A.

The firewall topologies

B.

NAT Rules

C.

The Rule Base

D.

The VPN Domains

Question 35

Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

Options:

A.

Explicit Drop

B.

Implied Drop

C.

Explicit Cleanup

D.

Implicit Drop

Question 36

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write

Question 37

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

Question 38

How do logs change when the "Accounting" tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?

Options:

A.

Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.

B.

Provides log details view email to the Administrator.

C.

Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.

D.

Provides additional information to the connected user.

Question 39

In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

Options:

A.

Upgrade the software version

B.

Open WebUI

C.

Open SSH

D.

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

Question 40

Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.

Options:

A.

675, 389

B.

389, 636

C.

636, 290

D.

290, 675

Question 41

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

Question 42

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

Question 43

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Question 44

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

Options:

A.

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

B.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

C.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

D.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

Question 45

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

Question 46

What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Application Control, DLP

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

C.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

D.

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

Question 47

Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?

Options:

A.

Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files

B.

cp.macro

C.

Contract file (.xml)

D.

license File (.lie)

Question 48

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

B.

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

C.

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

D.

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

Question 49

Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.

Options:

A.

Five

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Four

Question 50

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by ?

Options:

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

Question 51

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Question 52

What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

Options:

A.

To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

B.

To reduce the number of rules in the database.

C.

To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.

D.

To hide the gateway from the Internet.

Question 53

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

Question 54

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

Question 55

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

Question 56

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

Options:

A.

cphaprob state

B.

cphaprob status

C.

cphaprob

D.

cluster state

Question 57

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Application Control

C.

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.

Anti-Virus

Question 58

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

Question 59

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Complete

D.

Light

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

Question 61

The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.

B.

When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

C.

Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).

D.

When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.

Question 62

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

Question 63

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

B.

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

C.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

D.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

Question 64

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

Options:

A.

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

B.

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

C.

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

D.

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

Question 65

Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

snapshot

C.

Database Revision

D.

migrate export

Question 66

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

Options:

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

Question 67

A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time. What tool can you use to block this traffic?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot protection

B.

Anti-Malware protection

C.

Policy-based routing

D.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

Question 68

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

Options:

A.

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

B.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

C.

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

D.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

Question 69

Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.

Options:

A.

AdminRole, and MonitorRole

B.

ReadWriteRole, and ReadyOnly Role

C.

AdminRole, cloningAdminRole, and Monitor Role

D.

AdminRole

Question 70

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Options:

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

Question 71

Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

Options:

A.

Application Control rule

B.

Manual NAT rule

C.

IPS bypass rule

D.

Firewall rule

Question 72

Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Microsoft Publisher

B.

JSON

C.

Microsoft Word

D.

RC4 Encryption

Question 73

If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network what is the best way to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Create an inline layer where the destination is the target network resource Define sub-rules allowing only specific sources to access the target resource

B.

Use a "New Legacy User at Location", specifying the LDAP user group that the users belong to, at the desired location

C.

Create a rule allowing only specific source IP addresses access to the target network resource.

D.

Create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined Use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule

Question 74

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.

add rba user roles

B.

add user

C.

add rba user

D.

add user roles

Question 75

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

Firewall

C.

Global Properties

D.

Object Explorer

Question 76

URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time. What is the name of that technology?

Options:

A.

WebCheck

B.

UserCheck

C.

Harmony Endpoint

D.

URL categorization

Question 77

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

Options:

A.

Access Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Threat Prevention

D.

QoS

Question 78

Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)

Options:

A.

Partial log

B.

Log

C.

Network log

D.

Full log

Question 79

Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot

B.

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

Question 80

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

C.

Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

D.

Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway

Question 81

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

Question 82

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

Question 83

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

Options:

A.

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

B.

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

D.

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

Question 84

Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Options:

A.

Formal; corporate

B.

Local; formal

C.

Local; central

D.

Central; local

Question 85

You can see the following graphic:

Question # 85

What is presented on it?

Options:

A.

Properties of personal. p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

C.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

D.

Expired. p12 certificate properties for user John.

Question 86

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

Question 87

Which SmartConsole application shows correlated logs and aggregated data to provide an overview of potential threats and attack patterns?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartLog

D.

SmartView Monitor

Question 88

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

Options:

A.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

B.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

C.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

D.

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

Question 89

Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

C.

Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication

D.

RADIUS and Account Logon

Question 90

Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

B.

Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

C.

Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

D.

Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Question 91

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

Options:

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

Question 92

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Application Control and URL Filtering

C.

Threat Emulation

D.

Anti-virus

Question 93

In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

Options:

A.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.

B.

A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.

C.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.

D.

A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

Question 94

Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Save Policy

B.

Install Database

C.

Save session

D.

Install Policy

Question 95

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

Question 96

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage & Settings

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway & Servers

D.

Logs & Monitor

Question 97

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Options:

A.

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

Question 98

True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

Options:

A.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

B.

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

C.

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

D.

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

Question 99

Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Question 100

Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Control Policy.

B.

Desktop Firewall Policy

C.

Mobile Access Policy.

D.

Threat Prevention Policy.

Question 101

Choose what BEST describes a Session

Options:

A.

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

B.

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

C.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

D.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

Question 102

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Options:

A.

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

D.

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

Question 103

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

Question 104

What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

Options:

A.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

B.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server

C.

Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package

D.

Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

Question 105

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Options:

A.

Windows only

B.

Gaia only

C.

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

D.

SecurePlatform only

Question 106

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

Question 107

What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R8I.20 and higher?

Options:

A.

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation

B.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

C.

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS

D.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

Question 108

Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Logging and Status

D.

Monitoring

Question 109

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management container

C.

Management server

D.

Security Gateway container

Question 110

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection ‘Host Port Scan’ from ‘Medium’ to ‘High’ Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

Options:

A.

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

B.

The Access Control Policy.

C.

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

D.

The Threat Prevention Policy.

Question 111

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.

Options:

A.

Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security

B.

Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway

C.

Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

D.

Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management

Question 112

You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

logswitch

C.

Database Revision

D.

snapshot

Question 113

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

Question # 113

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

Options:

A.

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

Question 114

Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

Options:

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

Question 115

To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Protections

B.

IPS Protections

C.

Profiles

D.

ThreatWiki

Question 116

Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

B.

WebUI. CLI. or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI. SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartConsole, WebUI. or CLI

Question 117

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

Question 118

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

Options:

A.

Application database

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application-Forensic Database

D.

Application Library

Question 119

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Question 120

When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.

B.

Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

C.

Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.

D.

Only one rule is required for each connection.

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Total 400 questions