CSI IFC Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) Exam Exam Practice Test

The correct answer is C. Style drift. The Investment Funds in Canada curriculum defines style drift as the situation where a fund manager gradually departs from the fund’s stated investment style or objectives as outlined in the prospectus. This can involve changes in asset class exposure, market capitalization focus, geographic allocation, or investment strategy.

Style drift is problematic because investors select mutual funds based on disclosed objectives and risk characteristics. When a manager deviates from those parameters, the fund may no longer align with the investor’s suitability profile. The CIFC text emphasizes that maintaining consistency with the prospectus is a regulatory requirement under NI 81-102.

Momentum investing, sector rotation, and market timing are all legitimate investment strategies when disclosed in advance. Style drift, however, occurs without proper disclosure and can mislead investors.

Because the question specifically refers to deviation from the prospectus, Option C is the correct and fully CIFC-verified answer.

A conflict of interest is a situation in which a person’s personal interests conflict with their professional duties or responsibilities. A conflict of interest should be avoided or disclosed to prevent harm to the client or the registrant. In this case, Arilla’s client, Gwen, wants to co-invest with Arilla in units of a real estate limited partnership. This is a conflict of interest because Arilla may have a personal interest in the investment that could influence her advice to Gwen or affect her ability to act in Gwen’s best interest. For example, Arilla may benefit from the investment at Gwen’s expense, or she may have access to information that Gwen does not have. Therefore, this is a conflict of interest that should be avoided by Arilla. She should decline Gwen’s offer and explain that it would compromise her professional obligations and fiduciary duty to Gwen.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 2, Section 2.3

According to the Closed-End Funds vs. Open-End Funds: What’s the Difference? - Investopedia, open-end funds are mutual funds that can issue an unlimited number of shares to investors. The number of units is not fixed, and varies with investor demand and redemption orders. Investors buy and sell open-end funds directly from the fund company at the net asset value (NAV) of the fund, which is calculated at the end of each trading day. Open-end funds are not traded on an exchange or in the secondary market.

Dakota can send promotional emails to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs). A CEM is any electronic message that encourages participation in a commercial activity, such as an email, a text message, or a social media message. Under Canada’s anti-spam legislation (CASL), Dakota must obtain consent from the recipients before sending CEMs, either explicitly (e.g., by asking them to sign up for a newsletter) or implicitly (e.g., by having an existing business relationship with them). Dakota must also identify himself and his dealer, provide contact information, and include an unsubscribe mechanism in every CEM. The other statements are incorrect. Dakota cannot make telemarketing calls to clients who are listed on the National Do Not Call List (DNCL). The DNCL is a list of telephone numbers of consumers who do not want to receive unsolicited telemarketing calls. Under the Telecommunications Act, Dakota must register with the National DNCL operator, subscribe to the National DNCL, and avoid calling any number on the list, unless he has express consent from the consumer or an exemption applies. Dakota cannot send promotional emails to clients who have opted into Harvest Wealth’s Do Not Call List. A Do Not Call List is a list of telephone numbers of consumers who do not want to receive telemarketing calls from a specific organization. Under the Telecommunications Act, Dakota must maintain an internal Do Not Call List for his dealer and respect the requests of consumers who ask not to be called by his dealer. However, this does not mean that he can send promotional emails to those consumers, as that would violate CASL. Dakota cannot make telemarketing calls to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs). Opting in to receive CEMs does not imply consent to receive telemarketing calls, as they are different forms of communication governed by different laws . Dakota must obtain separate consent from the clients before making telemarketing calls to them, either explicitly or implicitly. References: [Canada’s anti-spam legislation], [National Do Not Call List]

To ensure that retirement income projections maintain purchasing power, Michael must use the real rate of return, which adjusts investment returns for the effects of inflation. The Investment Funds in Canada text clearly distinguishes between nominal and real returns, stating that the nominal rate of return represents the stated or observed return on an investment, while the real rate of return reflects the true increase in purchasing power after inflation is taken into account.

Inflation reduces the amount of goods and services that a given dollar can buy over time. As a result, using nominal returns alone can significantly overstate the future value of an investment when planning for long-term goals such as retirement. The CIFC curriculum emphasizes that “investors are concerned with real returns because they measure the increase in purchasing power,” which is especially critical for retirement planning where income must sustain living standards over many years.

The annualized rate of return standardizes returns over multiple periods but does not automatically adjust for inflation. Similarly, the holding period return measures performance over a specific time frame without considering inflation’s impact. Neither method directly addresses purchasing power.

Therefore, because Michael’s objective is to maintain the real value of his retirement income, the real rate of return is the correct and most appropriate measure. This makes Option B the only answer that fully aligns with CIFC principles and retirement planning methodology.

Bonds and debentures are both types of debt instruments that can be issued by corporations or governments to raise capital. However, they differ in the way they are secured. Bonds are backed by the specific assets of the issuer, such as property, equipment, or inventory. This means that if the issuer defaults on the bond payments, the bondholders have a claim on those assets and can sell them to recover their money. Debentures, on the other hand, are not secured by any real assets or collateral. They are only backed by the general creditworthiness and reputation of the issuer. This means that if the issuer defaults on the debenture payments, the debenture holders have no recourse to any specific assets and have to rely on the issuer’s ability to pay from its future earnings or liquidation proceeds.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5, Section 5.1

The availability bias occurs when investors rely on easily available or recent information rather than a thorough analysis. In this case, the investor bases decisions on internet recommendations and stock tips, believing they are accurate, instead of analyzing fundamentals. This clearly matches availability bias.

Endowment bias applies when investors overvalue what they already own.

Representativeness bias applies when investors judge outcomes by stereotypes or past patterns.

Overconfidence refers to excessive faith in one’s own knowledge.

Thus, the behavioural bias here is Availability .

In a mutual fund corporation, the Investment Funds in Canada course states that ultimate responsibility rests with the board of directors. The board acts on behalf of shareholders to oversee the management and operations of the mutual fund corporation and to ensure that the fund is managed in compliance with securities legislation and in the best interests of investors.

While portfolio managers are responsible for day-to-day investment decisions, they operate under the authority and supervision of the board. The board appoints key service providers, approves contracts, establishes governance policies, and ensures that conflicts of interest are properly managed. This governance structure is central to investor protection.

Regulatory bodies such as the Canadian Investment Regulatory Organization (CIRO) oversee market participants and enforce rules, but they do not manage or control individual mutual fund corporations. Shareholders are owners of the corporation, but they do not have operational control or responsibility for daily activities.

The CIFC curriculum clearly distinguishes between ownership and governance, emphasizing that directors bear fiduciary responsibility for ensuring proper management. Therefore, Option A is the correct and fully CIFC-aligned answer.

The portfolio shown is heavily concentrated in Canadian equities, across growth, index, resources, and value funds. Since all investments are in equities, the primary risk is market risk (systematic risk), meaning the portfolio’s value will fluctuate with overall stock market conditions.

Counterparty risk relates to derivative or trading partners.

Interest rate risk is most relevant to fixed-income securities.

Foreign exchange risk applies to foreign investments.

Thus, the correct answer is Market risk.

An RRSP must be terminated by the end of the calendar year in which the holder turns 71. At that time, assets must either be:

Withdrawn in full (taxable),

Converted to a Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF), or

Used to purchase an annuity.

Thus, the correct age is 71.

Target-date funds (also called life-cycle funds) automatically adjust their asset allocation (glide path) over time. They start with a growth-oriented strategy (more equities) and gradually shift towards conservative allocations as the target date approaches.

This matches the father’s goal: minimal management required while allowing for growth in earlier years and reduced risk later.

Balanced equity, high-yield income, and global equity funds do not automatically shift allocations over time.

Thus, the most appropriate choice is Target date fund.

The OTC (dealer) market is a negotiated market where investment dealers (market makers) post bid and ask quotations via electronic platforms.

Mutual fund companies and issuing companies do not post quotes directly.

Retail investors place orders through dealers, but they do not set bid-ask spreads.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Dealers.

Loss-averse investors prioritize minimizing potential losses over maximizing gains. The option with a 25% chance of gaining $2,000 and a 75% chance of losing nothing has the lowest loss potential, making it the preferred choice. The feedback from the document states:

"The loss-averse investor will choose a lower potential of loss over a more rational choice. In this example, a 25% chance of gaining $2,000 and a 75% chance of losing nothing has the lowest possible loss potential, and will typically be the statement selected by the loss-averse investor."

A tax trap is a situation where an investor buys a mutual fund just before its ex-dividend date and ends up paying taxes on the distributions that they receive shortly after. This reduces their after-tax return and erodes their capital. To avoid the tax trap, it is advisable to buy the mutual fund after the ex-dividend date, when the fund’s net asset value (NAV) drops by the amount of the distribution. This way, the investor does not receive any taxable income and preserves their capital. Therefore, you should advise Charlie to purchase the Sentinel Canadian Equity Fund after December 20, when the fund goes ex-dividend.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 8, Section 8.2; 4; 5; 6

Overconfidence bias leads investors to overestimate their knowledge or the reliability of information, such as a “hot tip,” prompting them to act without sufficient due diligence. The feedback from the document states:

"Overconfidence is defined generally as unwarranted faith in one’s intuitive reasoning, judgements and cognitive abilities. People tend to overestimate both their predictive abilities as well as the precision of the information they have been given. For example, an investor may get a tip from a wealth advisor or read something on the Internet about an investment opportunity, and then take action (that is, make the decision to invest) based on her perceived knowledge advantage."

Cavalry can place a temporary hold on Darsha’s account to temporarily disallow the redemption if they have reasonable grounds to believe that Darsha is being financially exploited or that she lacks mental capacity to make financial decisions. This is in accordance with the guidance issued by the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA) on how to deal with vulnerable clients. A temporary hold can be placed for up to 15 business days, which can be extended for another 15 business days if necessary. During this time, Cavalry must conduct an internal review of the matter and contact Darsha and any trusted contact person or legal representative to resolve the situation. Cavalry cannot place a permanent hold on Darsha’s account without her consent or a court order. Cavalry is not required to place a temporary hold on Darsha’s account, but it is an option available to them to protect their client’s interests. References: What We Heard Report: Financial Crimes and Harms Against Seniors, MFDA Bulletin #0859-P - Guidance on Vulnerable Clients

Guaranteed Income Supplement (GIS) and Allowance for the Survivor are both income-tested benefits that are part of the Old Age Security (OAS) program. They are designed to provide financial assistance to low-income seniors who meet certain eligibility criteria. GIS is a monthly payment that supplements the OAS pension for seniors whose income is below a certain threshold. Allowance for the Survivor is a monthly payment for low-income seniors aged 60 to 64 whose spouse or common-law partner has died and who have not remarried or entered into another common-law relationship. The benefit amounts for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depend on the income level of the recipient and are adjusted quarterly based on the Consumer Price Index. The higher the income, the lower the benefit amount, until it reaches zero at a certain income limit. Therefore, eligibility for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depends on income level.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans1

 Daisy could seek permission from her dealer to request a client mobility exemption with the Alberta Securities Commission. This exemption allows a registered individual in one jurisdiction to service a client who moves to another jurisdiction, without having to register in the new jurisdiction, subject to certain conditions. Some of these conditions are that the individual must be registered with a dealer that is registered in both jurisdictions, the individual must not have more than five clients in the new jurisdiction, and the individual must notify the regulator in the new jurisdiction of the exemption. References: Client Mobility Exemption

Hedge fund incentive fees apply only to returns above the hurdle rate.

Gross return = 22%

Hurdle rate = 5%

Excess return = 22% − 5% = 17%

Incentive fee = 20% × 17% = 3.4%

Thus, the fund manager earns 3.4% compensation.

The Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH), as described in the Investment Funds in Canada course, states that security prices reflect all available information at any given time. As a result, it is not possible to consistently identify undervalued or overvalued securities through analysis or market timing. Because prices already incorporate known information, attempting to outperform the market through research or timing strategies is unlikely to succeed over the long term.

For investors who believe markets are efficient, the CIFC curriculum explains that the most appropriate strategy is to maintain broad market exposure through diversified, index-driven investments. Index funds aim to replicate the performance of a specific market index rather than attempting to outperform it. This approach aligns with the belief that market returns are the best achievable returns after costs.

Option A contradicts market efficiency because fundamental research assumes mispricing exists. Option C is inappropriate because market efficiency does not imply avoiding risk assets altogether. Option D reflects active asset allocation and economic forecasting, which again assumes inefficiencies.

The course emphasizes that index investing offers diversification, lower costs, and reduced portfolio turnover, all of which improve long-term investor outcomes when markets are efficient. Therefore, Option B is the correct and fully CIFC-verified answer.

Loretta is looking for a well diversified equity fund that invests both within and outside Canada. She also wants a fund that invests in quality companies, which implies that she prefers lower risk and higher stability. A global equity fund would meet her criteria, as it can invest in any country, including Canada, and diversify across different regions and markets. A global equity fund that focuses on large, established companies, also known as blue chip stocks, would also suit her preference for quality and stability, as these companies tend to have strong financial performance, competitive advantages, and consistent dividends. Therefore, the Polar Global Blue Chip Equity Fund would be the best choice for Loretta among the given options.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6, Section 6.2

The correct answer is B. Index-linked. The Investment Funds in Canada curriculum explains that index-linked GICs provide returns tied to the performance of an underlying equity index while still offering principal protection.

For investors who expect strong equity market performance but want to avoid direct market risk, index-linked GICs allow participation in market upside without risking principal loss. Laddered and cashable GICs emphasize liquidity and interest-rate management, not equity growth. Interest-rate-linked GICs respond to interest rate changes, not equity markets.

The CIFC text highlights index-linked GICs as suitable for investors seeking growth potential with capital protection, making them ideal when equity markets are expected to perform well. Therefore, Option B is the correct and fully CIFC-aligned answer.

The element of the Know Your Client (KYC) information that Malik has been able to learn is Charlotte’s risk preference. KYC information is a collection of personal and financial information that registered firms and individuals must obtain from their clients before providing any investment advice or services. KYC information helps registered firms and individuals understand their clients’ needs, goals, risk tolerance, time horizon, and personal circumstances, as well as comply with regulatory obligations such as suitability, disclosure, and reporting. One of the components of KYC information is risk preference, which is a measure of how much risk an investor is willing to take on in their portfolio. It reflects the investor’s attitude, personality, and emotional factors that influence their investment decisions. Risk preference can be classified into three categories: risk-seeking, risk-averse, or risk-neutral. Based on Charlotte’s statement that she does not know much about trading ETFs, but she wants to invest in ETFs, and that she feels fortunate to have this money and that she’s not worried about losing it because she never planned on having any of it, Malik can infer that Charlotte has a high-risk preference or a risk-seeking attitude. This means that Charlotte is willing to take on more risk in exchange for higher potential returns, even if it means losing some or all of her money. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what element of KYC information Malik has been able to learn. The other options are not correct regarding what element of KYC information Malik has been able to learn. Option A is false because risk profile is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is an outcome of KYC information that summarizes the investor’s overall suitability for different types of investments based on their KYC information. Option B is false because risk capacity is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is a measure of how much risk an investor can afford to take on in their portfolio based on their financial situation and goals. Option D is false because risk tolerance is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is a measure of how much risk an investor can handle in their portfolio without losing sleep or changing their plans. References: [Know Your Client (KYC) | IFIC], [Know Your Client (KYC) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Risk Preference | Investopedia]

Your client, James, would like to work beyond the normal retirement age. He comes to you for advice on his registered retirement savings plan (RRSP). What are the rules regarding terminating an RRSP?

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 65.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 67.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 70.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 71.

Answer: D

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, an RRSP is a retirement savings plan that allows individuals to defer taxes on their contributions and investment income until they withdraw the funds. However, an RRSP cannot be held indefinitely and must be terminated by the end of the year the annuitant turns 71. At that point, the annuitant has three options to withdraw the funds from the RRSP:

Make a lump-sum withdrawal, which is subject to withholding tax and income tax.

Convert the RRSP to a registered retirement income fund (RRIF), which provides a steady stream of income with a minimum amount that must be withdrawn each year.

Purchase an annuity, which offers a guaranteed income for life or for a specified period.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Mutual fund orders placed after the market closes are processed using the next business day's net asset value per unit (NAVPU). Since Derek submitted his sell order at 8:00 p.m. EST on Friday, January 6 (after the close of the markets), his proceeds will be based on the NAVPU for Monday, January 9, the next business day.

A negative Sharpe ratio indicates that the fund’s return is less than the risk-free rate, as the numerator (Fund Return - T-bill Rate) is negative. The feedback from the document states:

"The Sharpe ratio is calculated as (Fund Return - T-bill Rate) ÷ Fund Standard Deviation. A negative Sharpe ratio means the mutual fund has a return less than the risk-free rate, as the numerator of the ratio would be negative."

Mortgage funds have lower interest rate sensitivity than bond funds because mortgage rates change less frequently, and interest is paid monthly rather than semi-annually, reducing the impact of rate changes. The feedback from the document states:

"Interest rate sensitivity is expected to be lower for mortgage funds than for bond funds for two reasons. First, mortgage rates change much less frequently than interest rates on bonds… Second, mortgages by nature have less interest rate risk than bonds. The reason, in part, is that interest on mortgages is paid monthly, while interest on bonds is paid semi-annually."

One of the main reasons for holding bonds in a mutual fund portfolio is to generate regular interest income, which can be distributed to the investors as cash or reinvested in more units of the fund. Bonds are debt securities that pay a fixed or variable rate of interest, called the coupon, to the bondholders until the maturity date, when the principal amount is repaid. The interest income from bonds can provide a steady source of cash flow for the fund and its investors, especially in low-interest-rate environments or when other sources of income, such as dividends or capital gains, are scarce or uncertain

The dividend tax credit for Canadian dividends is calculated based on the grossed-up dividend amount. For eligible dividends, the gross-up is 38%. The taxable amount for $1,200 in dividends is $1,200 × 1.38 = $1,656. The dividend tax credit is 15.02% of the grossed-up amount: $1,656 × 15.02% = $248.73. The feedback from the document confirms:

"The taxable amount of the dividend is the income received plus a 38% gross-up amount. In this example, $1,200 + ($1,200 × 38%) = $1,656. The dividend tax credit is 15.02% of the grossed-up amount, in this example, $1,656 × 15.02% = $248.73."

A corporate bond bought at a discount will provide a capital gain at maturity, as the investor receives the par value, which is higher than the purchase price. The feedback from the document states:

"Bond prices are quoted using an index with a base value of 100. A bond trading at 100 is said to be trading at face value, or par. A bond trading below par, say at a price of 98, is said to be trading at a discount… So if you buy a bond at a discount, at maturity, you will receive the par or face value. The difference between the discounted price and the par value received at maturity is considered a capital gain."

The Corporation Group needs 5-year financing, without pledging assets (so not secured bonds).

Debentures are unsecured debt backed only by the issuer’s credit rating , meeting the requirement of not pledging assets.

They also want flexibility to repay early. Only callable debentures provide this feature since they allow the issuer to repay before maturity .

Convertible bonds (B) would dilute equity (which they want to avoid).

Commercial paper (C) and Treasury bills (D) are short-term instruments (under 1 year) , not suitable for 5-year financing.

✅ Therefore, the ideal choice is Callable Debentures.

 B is correct because assessing historical differences in the rate of return per unit of risk of similar mutual funds helps a Dealing Representative to compare the performance and risk-adjusted returns of different mutual funds and select the most suitable one for a client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives. Comparing historical rates of return between different types of mutual funds (A) does not account for the risk involved in each type of fund. Referencing the fund code for each mutual fund that is being compared © does not provide any information about the fund’s characteristics, features, or suitability. The rights a client has if there is a desire to cancel the purchased mutual fund (D) are not relevant for determining a suitable mutual fund for a client.

The correct answer is C. Purchase a life annuity. The Investment Funds in Canada course explains that by the end of the year in which an individual turns 71, RRSP funds must be converted to a retirement income option, such as a RRIF or an annuity.

A life annuity provides guaranteed income payments for as long as the annuitant lives, thereby directly addressing Rakshana’s goal of receiving a steady income until death. This eliminates longevity risk—the risk of outliving one’s savings—which is a key concern in retirement planning.

A RRIF (Option A) allows flexibility but does not guarantee lifetime income, as payments depend on account performance and withdrawals. A fixed-term annuity provides income for a specified period only, not for life. A lump-sum withdrawal would trigger immediate taxation and does not provide ongoing income.

The CIFC text emphasizes that annuities are suitable for retirees seeking predictability and security, particularly when income certainty is more important than flexibility. Therefore, Option C is the most appropriate and fully CIFC-aligned answer.

Interest rate risk is the primary risk for fixed-income securities, as their value decreases when interest rates rise due to fixed cash flows. The feedback from the document states:

"Interest rate risk is the fundamental risk factor for fixed-income securities such as bonds, mortgages and preferred shares. As interest rates move up, the value of a fixed-income security falls. This is because the cash flow from the fixed-income security is fixed."

Shirley’s risk profile is the primary consideration for Jonathan when making an investment recommendation. Risk profile is a measure of how much risk an investor is willing and able to take on in their portfolio. It is determined by factors such as age, income, net worth, investment objectives, time horizon, and personal preferences. It is essential for a dealing representative to assess the risk profile of their client before recommending any investment products or strategies, as they have a fiduciary duty to act in the best interest of their client and ensure that their recommendations are suitable for their client’s needs and goals. The other variables are also important, but they are secondary to the risk profile. References: [Risk Profile], [Know Your Client (KYC)]

A Trusted Contact Person (TCP) is someone who the client authorizes their financial advisor to contact in limited circumstances, such as when the client is vulnerable, has a health issue, or cannot be reached. A TCP should be someone who the client trusts and who is mature and can handle difficult conversations about the client’s personal situation. Often, a TCP is someone who is involved with providing care for the client who requires personal assistance, such as a family member, a friend, or a caregiver. A TCP does not have a financial interest in the client’s account or assets, does not have the authority to make financial decisions on behalf of the client, and does not need to simplify financial concepts for the client

The Montreal Exchange (also referred to as Bourse de Montreal) is the only Canadian exchange specializing exclusively in financial and equity futures and options. The feedback from the document confirms:

"The Montreal Exchange (Bourse de Montreal) is the only exchange in Canada that deals exclusively with financial and equity futures and options."

To calculate Firmansyah’s federal tax liability from the investment income, we need to follow these steps:

Step 1: Convert the foreign dividend from USD to CAD using the exchange rate given in the question. The exchange rate is 1.3605 CAD per USD, which means that 1 USD is equivalent to 1.3605 CAD. Therefore, Firmansyah’s foreign dividend in CAD is:

500×1.3605=680.25

Step 2: Calculate Firmansyah’s grossed-up dividend income from both sources. A grossed-up dividend income is the actual dividend received plus a percentage of the dividend that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer. The percentage varies depending on whether the dividend is eligible or non-eligible. According to [this site], an eligible dividend is a dividend paid by a Canadian corporation that meets certain criteria, such as being listed on a designated stock exchange or being a subsidiary of such a corporation. A non-eligible dividend is a dividend that does not meet these criteria, such as a dividend paid by a foreign corporation or a small Canadian business corporation. The gross-up rate for eligible dividends in 2020 was 38%, while the gross-up rate for non-eligible dividends in 2020 was 15%. Therefore, Firmansyah’s grossed-up dividend income from both sources is:

(1800+680.25)×(1+0.38)=3426.35

Step 3: Apply Firmansyah’s federal marginal tax rate to his grossed-up dividend income to get his federal tax before credits. A marginal tax rate is the percentage of tax applied to an additional dollar of income. According to [this site], Firmansyah’s federal marginal tax rate for 2020 was 29%, as his taxable income was between $150,473 and $214,368. Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal tax before credits is:

0.29×3426.35=993.64

Step 4: Subtract Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability from the investment income. A dividend tax credit is a percentage of the grossed-up dividend income that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer and avoids double taxation. The percentage varies depending on whether the dividend is eligible or non-eligible. According to [this site], the federal dividend tax credit rate for eligible dividends in 2020 was 15%, while the federal dividend tax credit rate for non-eligible dividends in 2020 was 9.03%. Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from both sources is:

(1800+680.25)×0.38×0.15=297.88

Step 5: Subtract Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability from the investment income. This is the amount of federal income tax that Firmansyah has to pay or has overpaid from the investment income. Therefore, Firmansyah’s net federal tax liability from the investment income is:

993.64−297.88=695.76

Hence, option C is correct. References: [Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute], [Dividend Tax Credit | TurboTax Canada Tips], [Federal Income Tax Rates for Canada - TurboTax Canada Tips], [Eligible Dividends | TurboTax Canada Tips]

Lydia can make an in-kind contribution of her mutual fund units to her RRSP, as long as the fund is eligible for RRSPs. The value of her contribution will be based on the fair market value of the units at the time of the transfer, which is $10,600. However, she will also trigger a deemed disposition of the units and realize a capital gain of $6,100 ($10,600 - $4,500), which is taxable in the year of the transfer.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 3: Registered Plans - Section 3.1: Registered Retirement Savings Plan (RRSP)1 and web search results from search_web(query="RRSP contribution in kind")

 Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder a right to share in the issuer’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. This means that participating preferred shareholders may receive additional dividends if the issuer performs well. Iliana owns participating preferred shares in the First Canadian Bank, which means she has a right to share in the bank’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

A global fund that does not hedge foreign currency risk benefits from a weakening Canadian dollar, as the value of foreign investments increases in Canadian dollar terms. The feedback from the document states:

"Global mutual funds are attractive in that they can provide a hedge against a decline in the relative value of the Canadian dollar… It is important for mutual fund sales representatives to know whether their global mutual funds hedge foreign exchange risk, because some clients will want to bear that risk themselves, while others will not."

Tax deductions are amounts that reduce your total income before calculating your tax payable. They lower your marginal tax rate, which is the tax rate that applies to your last dollar of income. For example, if Wilma’s total income is $50,000 and she claims $5,000 in tax deductions, her taxable income will be $45,000 and her marginal tax rate will be lower than if she had no deductions. Therefore, A is the correct answer. References: All deductions, credits, and expenses - Personal income tax - Canada.ca

Dustin needs to ensure that his recommendation is suitable for the new joint account, which may have a different risk profile than the individual accounts of Salvatore and Harriet. A joint account is an account that is owned by two or more people who share the rights and responsibilities of the account. A joint account may have different investment objectives, time horizon, risk tolerance, and financial situation than the individual accounts of the joint owners. Therefore, Dustin needs to conduct a know your client (KYC) process for the joint account and determine the appropriate risk profile for the account, based on the collective responses of Salvatore and Harriet. The risk profile of the joint account will guide Dustin in recommending suitable investment products and services that match the goals and needs of the joint owners

Segregated funds offer some protection of the capital invested but there is an added cost for the protection. Segregated funds are contracts issued by life insurance companies that invest in underlying funds, similar to mutual funds. Segregated funds have a maturity guarantee and a death benefit guarantee, which ensure that the investor or their beneficiary will receive a certain percentage of their initial investment, regardless of market fluctuations. However, these guarantees come at a cost, which is reflected in higher management fees and insurance fees than mutual funds. Segregated funds do not have high returns, as they depend on the performance of the underlying funds. Segregated funds can be redeemed before the maturity date of the contract, but they may be subject to early redemption fees or market value adjustments. Segregated funds do not flow through capital losses to investors, as they are not considered owners of the underlying fund. Segregated funds are subject to insurance regulation, not securities regulation, because they are distributed by life insurance agents. References: Segregated Funds

A rational investor seeks to maximize return for a given level of risk or minimize risk for a given level of return. The feedback from the document states:

"Given a choice between two investments with the same amount of risk, a rational investor would always take the security with the higher return. Given two investments with the same expected return, the investor would always choose the security with the lower risk. Investors are risk averse, but not all to the same degree. Each investor has a different risk profile."

Quartile rankings:

1st quartile = top-performing funds.

4th quartile = worst-performing funds.

The most consistent top-quartile performer across four years is most desirable.

Based on CSC examples, Manager A had the strongest consistent quartile performance.

✅ Correct = Manager A.

Taline’s risk profile should be “low” because her risk capacity is low and she cannot afford large investment losses. Risk capacity is the degree of risk that an investor must take in order to achieve their financial goals, while risk tolerance is the degree of risk that an investor is willing to take. Risk capacity is more important than risk tolerance in determining an investor’s risk profile1. Taline has a low risk capacity because she lives on a low, fixed income and cannot afford to lose money. Her risk tolerance may be high, but that does not mean she should take more risk than she can handle. Faruq should not override Taline’s risk capacity or assess her risk profile based on the higher of her risk tolerance and risk capacity, as that would be unsuitable and unethical. References: Unit 3: Suitability

When an investor purchases a mutual fund, the price is based on the next NAVPS (Net Asset Value Per Share) calculated after the order is entered. Orders placed before 4:00 p.m. ET are priced at that day’s closing NAV; orders after 4:00 p.m. are priced using the next business day’s NAV.

Since the order was placed at 2:30 p.m. ET, today’s NAV applies.

The representativeness bias causes individuals to evaluate new information by comparing it to existing stereotypes or patterns that seem to “best fit,” making Option D the correct answer. The Investment Funds in Canada curriculum explains that representativeness occurs when investors “draw conclusions based on similarities to past experiences without considering probability or statistical relevance.”

This bias leads investors to assume that if something looks like a successful investment from the past, it will behave the same way in the future, even when underlying fundamentals differ. The “best-fit” mental shortcut ignores deeper analysis and often results in incorrect assumptions.

The other options describe different behavioural tendencies. Status quo bias reflects resistance to change. Availability bias focuses on information that is easily recalled rather than most relevant. Hindsight predisposition involves believing past events were predictable after they occur. None of these involve pattern-matching based on perceived similarity.

The CIFC course emphasizes that behavioural biases can negatively affect investment decisions and that advisors must recognize and mitigate them when working with clients. Because representativeness relies on superficial resemblance rather than objective analysis, it is the correct answer.

The original capital contributed to a Registered Educational Savings Plan (RESP) is not taxed upon withdrawal, while other amounts, such as income or grants, are taxable to the beneficiary. The feedback from the document states:

"The original capital withdrawn from an RESP is not taxed; all other amounts are taxed in the hands of the beneficiary."

The custodian, typically a trust company, receives and holds all funds from investors and other sources, managing the fund’s assets and expenses. The feedback from the document states:

"The Custodian. When a mutual fund is established, a separate organization, most often a trust company, is appointed as the fund’s custodian. The custodian receives and holds the fund’s money obtained from all sources – investors buying the fund’s units or shares, income earned by the fund’s investment portfolio, proceeds from the sale of the fund’s investments, holds all the fund’s assets and distributes the fund’s money to pay the fund’s expenses."

Asset allocation is the most critical decision for portfolio success, followed by sector weighting and then security selection. The feedback from the document states:

"The single most important decision, one that accounts for most of the success or failure of a portfolio, is the asset allocation decision, which is the selection of the classes of securities to be held and in what proportion to hold them. The next most important decision is the selection of the specific industries from which stocks will be selected: the portfolio’s sector weighting. The final decision is the security selection: the choice of which individual companies within the industry or sector to invest in."

Under Know Your Client (KYC) and suitability rules, advisors must assess not only an investor’s objectives but also their risk tolerance, which directly influences appropriate investment recommendations.

Account type (B), insider status (C), and referral arrangements (D) are relevant for compliance but do not fulfill the suitability obligation.

The securities administrator’s power of disclosure ensures that investors receive complete, accurate, and timely information to make informed decisions. The feedback from the document states:

"The securities administrators ensure that all documents and other required information are prepared in accordance with requirements and provided to appropriate parties in a timely manner. The securities administrators also review all prospectuses for full, true and plain disclosure. Complete, accurate and timely disclosure allows clients to make fully informed investment decisions."

Factors that increase a mutual fund’s management expense ratio (MER) include investing in foreign equities and paying trailer fees, as these add to operational costs. The feedback from the document states:

"Four factors primarily affect the management expense ratio. Funds that invest in foreign equities; are small in size; are managed by an outside specialist firm; and charge trailer fees will have higher management expense ratios."

This account/transaction is unsuitable because it does not match Gilles’ investment needs and objectives, risk profile, and capacity for loss. A leverage strategy involves borrowing money to invest in mutual funds, which increases the potential returns but also the potential losses. This strategy is very risky and requires a high risk tolerance, a long-term investment horizon, and a sufficient income to cover the interest payments. Gilles is 82 years old, retired, and needs regular income, which means he has a low risk tolerance, a short-term investment horizon, and a limited income. He cannot afford to lose his principal or pay the interest costs. Therefore, a leverage strategy is not appropriate for him.

References = IFSE CIFC Module 3: Investment Products, page 3-24. What is Suitability? | MFDAMSN-0069 | MFDA

Canada’s income tax system is based on a progressive tax structure, which means that individuals pay higher tax rates as their income increases. There are different tax brackets for different income levels, and each bracket has a corresponding tax rate. The federal government and each provincial or territorial government set their own tax rates and brackets, which may vary depending on the jurisdiction. Therefore, individuals pay both federal and provincial or territorial income tax, based on their taxable income and the tax rates applicable to their income brackets in their respective jurisdictions12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 6: Taxation, Section 5.6.1: Income Tax 1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.6.1 2

Government of Canada Bonds are fixed income securities issued by the federal government that pay a fixed rate of interest (coupon) and return the principal amount (par value) at maturity. They are considered low risk investments, as they are backed by the full faith and credit of the government. They also provide regular income to investors, as they pay interest semi-annually. For Sheldon, who has a low risk profile and an investment objective of receiving regular income, 3% Government of Canada Bonds at par would be an appropriate investment recommendation, as they would match his time horizon of 5 years and provide him with a stable and predictable income stream. The other options are not suitable for Sheldon, as they involve higher risk, volatility, or complexity.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 2: Fixed Income Securities, Section 5.2.1: Government Bonds1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.2.1 2

The inflation rate is calculated by subtracting the previous year’s CPI from the current year’s CPI, dividing by the previous year’s CPI, and multiplying by 100. In this case:

(146.9 - 140.6) / 140.6 = 6.3 / 140.6 ≈ 0.0448 or 4.48%.

The feedback from the document confirms:

"To calculate the rate of inflation over a period of time one must subtract the CPI at the beginning of the period from the CPI at the end of the period and then divide the result by the CPI at the beginning of the period. In this example, the solution can be derived as follows: (146.9 - 140.6) / 140.6."

To calculate the federal tax liability from the investment income, we need to consider the following steps:

Convert the foreign dividend to Canadian dollars using the exchange rate. In this case, $882.02 USD x 1.3605 = $1,200.00 CAD.

Gross up the eligible dividend by the enhanced dividend gross-up rate of 38%. In this case, $1,800 x 1.38 = $2,484.

Add the grossed-up eligible dividend and the foreign dividend to get the total taxable income from dividends. In this case, $2,484 + $1,200 = $3,684.

Multiply the total taxable income from dividends by the federal marginal tax rate of 29% to get the gross federal tax payable. In this case, $3,684 x 0.29 = $1,068.36.

Multiply the grossed-up eligible dividend by the federal dividend tax credit rate of 15% to get the federal dividend tax credit. In this case, $2,484 x 0.15 = $372.60.

Subtract the federal dividend tax credit from the gross federal tax payable to get the net federal tax liability. In this case, $1,068.36 - $372.60 = $695.76.

Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal tax liability from his investment income is $695.76.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

A target date fund is a type of mutual fund that adjusts its asset allocation and risk level according to a predetermined future date, such as retirement or college education. A target date fund typically starts with a higher proportion of stocks and a lower proportion of bonds and cash, and gradually shifts to a more conservative mix as the target date approaches. This is called the fund’s glide path, which shows the asset mix through the life of the fund until the future date. Russell is permitted to include this information on his website, as it is factual and relevant to the fund’s characteristics and suitability. Russell is also permitted to include information about the expected decline in the fund’s risk level as the fund reaches its target date, as this is part of the fund’s objective and strategy. However, Russell is not permitted to include any information that implies or suggests that the target date fund offers a guaranteed return or a promised growth on the future date, as this would be misleading and inaccurate. Target date funds are not guaranteed investments, and their performance depends on the market conditions and the fund manager’s decisions. Russell must not make any false or exaggerated claims about the target date fund’s benefits or returns on his website.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 7: Know Your Product1

Liquid alternative funds (liquid alts) are designed to offer more flexibility in using short sales, leverage, and derivatives compared to traditional mutual funds, but with less freedom than hedge funds. The feedback from the document states:

"Liquid alts, also known as alternative mutual funds, were recently introduced into Canada, and are allowed greater use of short sales, leverage, and derivatives compared to regular mutual funds, but not to the same extent as hedge funds."

 Underwriting is the process through which an individual or institution takes on financial risk for a fee. This risk most typically involves loans, insurance, or investments. In the case of securities, underwriting involves conducting research and assessing the degree of risk each applicant or entity brings to the table before assuming that risk. During the underwriting process, investment bankers raise investment capital from investors on behalf of corporations and governments issuing securities. They also help determine the company’s underlying value compared to the risk of funding its IPO. References: Underwriting: Definition and How the Various Types Work - Investopedia, The future of insurance underwriting | Deloitte Insights

In Canada, anyone involved in securities enforcement or adjudication must be properly licensed or registered.

The unlicensed new hire erred by taking on a case (licensing violation) without being formally registered, violating regulatory requirements.

Requesting subpoenas (A) and FATF involvement (C) may show poor judgment, but the fundamental error is acting without registration.

Tony is employing a top-down investment approach, which is a method of selecting securities based on macroeconomic factors, such as the state of the economy, the industry trends, and the market conditions. A top-down investor starts by analyzing the big picture and then drills down to the specific sectors, regions, and companies that are expected to perform well in that environment. Tony has done an economic analysis of the various provinces and sectors of the Canadian economy and has determined that Nova Scotia and Alberta present the best prospects. He has also identified potential in the oil and gas sector. He then narrows down his selection to an oil supply firm in Medicine Hat and a drilling company in Halifax. This shows that he is using a top-down approach to choose his investments.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 3: Risk and Return1

The expected portfolio return is the weighted average of each fund’s return.

Investment in ABC Bank Canadian Equity = $350 ÷ $500 = 70%

Investment in ZYX Global Growth Fund = $150 ÷ $500 = 30%

Expected Return = (0.70 × 8%) + (0.30 × 9.8%)

= 5.6% + 2.94% = 8.54% ≈ 8.5%

Correct answer = 8.5%.

Jabir will be eligible to open new client accounts and sell investments only after he receives formal confirmation from the securities regulator that he is registered as a Dealing Representative. This is because registration is a legal requirement for anyone who trades securities or advises clients on securities in Canada, unless an exemption applies. Registration helps protect investors by ensuring that only qualified and competent individuals and firms can conduct securities related business. Jabir must also meet the proficiency, solvency, and suitability requirements for registration, as well as comply with the ongoing obligations of a registrant. Passing the proficiency course and being employed by the dealer are necessary but not sufficient conditions for registration. The dealer must apply for registration on behalf of Jabir and wait for the regulator’s approval.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 1, Section 1.2

Although Canadian chartered banks are considered high-quality, dividend-paying “blue-chip” stocks, a portfolio composed only of bank stocks still carries risk due to lack of diversification. The Investment Funds in Canada curriculum explains that diversification reduces risk only when assets have low or negative correlation. Bank stocks tend to move together because they are influenced by similar economic factors such as interest rates, credit conditions, and regulatory changes.

This means the portfolio would have positive correlation, increasing exposure to sector-specific risk. While dividends may reduce volatility, they do not eliminate market or sector risk. The CIFC text stresses that “concentration in one sector exposes investors to systematic sector risk,” even when the companies are financially strong.

Options C and D are incorrect because no equity investment is risk-free, regardless of dividend history or reputation. Option B exaggerates risk by implying instability, which is inconsistent with Canadian banks’ historical performance.

Therefore, the correct and CIFC-verified answer is Option A.

ETFs can be purchased continuously throughout the trading day while index funds can only be bought or sold at the end of the day. This is because ETFs are traded on a stock exchange like stocks, while index funds are traded directly with the fund company like mutual funds. This difference gives ETFs more liquidity and flexibility than index funds, as investors can buy and sell ETFs at any time during market hours at the prevailing market price. Index funds, on the other hand, are priced only once a day at the end of the day based on the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of the fund. Both ETFs and index funds are prone to tracking errors (A), which are the differences between the performance of the fund and the performance of the underlying index. Tracking errors can be caused by various factors, such as fees, expenses, dividends, rebalancing, and market conditions. The market price of ETFs does not always match the underlying basket of securities ©, as it is determined by supply and demand in the market. There can be a discrepancy between the market price and the NAVPU of an ETF, which is called the premium or discount. Index funds, on the other hand, are priced based on the NAVPU of the fund, which reflects the value of the underlying securities. Both ETFs and index funds have management fees (D), as they are both types of mutual funds that incur costs for managing and operating the fund. However, ETFs usually have lower management fees than index funds, as they are more passive and have lower turnover and distribution costs.

Implicit costs of principal protected notes include performance participation caps, which limit the potential returns and are not always explicitly disclosed. The feedback from the document states:

"Implicit costs include fees borne by investors that may or may not be immediately visible and that may or may not be openly disclosed in the documents. Of the items listed, three are explicit costs, and only Performance Participation Caps are an implicit cost."

Investment funds, commonly referred to as mutual funds, are the longest-established form of managed funds. The Investment Funds in Canada course explains that mutual funds have existed for decades and were created to allow individual investors to pool their money and gain access to professionally managed, diversified portfolios. This structure predates hedge funds, segregated funds, and discretionary portfolio management services.

Hedge funds are a relatively recent development and are generally restricted to accredited or sophisticated investors. Segregated funds were introduced later by insurance companies and combine investment features with insurance guarantees. Discretionary management is a service model rather than a fund structure and became more prominent as wealth management evolved.

The CIFC text emphasizes that mutual funds form the foundation of the Canadian managed products industry due to their accessibility, regulatory oversight, and long history. Because investment (mutual) funds were the first widely available managed investment vehicle, Option B is the correct and fully verified answer.

The investor in this scenario is concerned about fund expenses (MERs) and prefers a product with lower costs and potential for higher returns.

According to the CSC materials, exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are known for having:

Significantly lower management expense ratios (MERs) compared to mutual funds and most other managed products, because they are generally passively managed and do not bear the high costs of active portfolio management.

Lower trading costs due to the in-kind creation and redemption process, which reduces the need for the fund itself to buy and sell securities.

Opportunities for higher returns as lower costs directly enhance net returns to investors.

In contrast:

Segregated funds (B) are insurance products with higher fees due to guarantees.

Hedge funds (C) typically charge very high fees (often 2% management + 20% performance fees).

Liquid alternatives (D) also come with higher MERs and are designed for diversification and risk management, not necessarily for low cost.

Therefore, the most appropriate choice is Exchange-traded funds (ETFs), as they best meet the investor’s preference for low MERs and potential for higher returns.

The net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of a mutual fund is calculated by dividing the net asset value (NAV) of the fund by the number of outstanding units. The NAV is the difference between the total assets and total liabilities of the fund. Current assets and current liabilities are not relevant for the NAVPU calculation. Therefore, Great Lengths Equity Fund’s NAVPU is ($135 million - $10 million) / 11 million = $11.36.

This question would give you the most information regarding your client’s familiarity with investing because it tests their basic knowledge of one of the fundamental concepts in finance. The relationship between risk and return is the trade-off that investors face when choosing between different investments. Generally, the higher the risk, the higher the expected return, and vice versa. A client who understands this relationship would be able to evaluate the potential outcomes and costs of their investment decisions and choose the ones that match their risk tolerance and return objectives. A client who does not understand this relationship might have unrealistic expectations or make unsuitable choices.

References = Risk-Return Tradeoff Definition - Investopedia, Risk and Return - Corporate Finance Institute, Risk and Return: An Introduction - Morningstar

The correct answer is A. Bank rate. The Investment Funds in Canada curriculum defines the bank rate as the minimum rate at which the Bank of Canada makes short-term loans to major financial institutions, including chartered banks. It serves as a key benchmark in the Canadian financial system.

The prime rate is set by individual banks and is typically higher than the bank rate. The nominal rate simply refers to the stated interest rate without inflation adjustment. The target rate (overnight rate target) is the Bank of Canada’s policy objective, not the actual lending rate.

Because the question asks specifically for the minimum lending rate, the correct and CIFC-verified answer is Option A.

In a mutual fund dealer, the chief compliance officer (CCO) is the person responsible for establishing and maintaining compliance policies and procedures as well as monitoring and assessing compliance by the dealer and its representatives. The CCO must report to the board of directors or senior management of the dealer and must meet certain proficiency requirements, such as passing the Mutual Fund Dealers Compliance Exam. The CCO is also accountable to the securities regulators and self-regulatory organizations for any compliance issues or breaches. References: Guide to Broker-Dealer Registration

Fixed-income securities, including mortgage funds, decrease in value when interest rates rise because existing mortgages with lower rates become less attractive compared to new, higher-yielding mortgages. The feedback from the document states:

"Fixed-income securities move in the opposite direction to market interest rates… Let’s assume you are the fund manager for a mortgage mutual fund, which has mortgages paying 5%. If mortgage rates suddenly increase to 6%, only the interest rates on newly negotiated mortgages would increase… The investor would not pay you par for a 5% rate. If you wished to sell the mortgages, then you would have to lower your price until the price paid—given the 5% fixed payments to be made—results in a return to the buyer of 6%, the ‘going rate’ on mortgages. In other words, the market value of your par value mortgages must fall."

 A commodity pool is a type of mutual fund that can invest in specified derivatives and forward contracts for commodities, such as grains, meats, metals, energy products, and coffee. A commodity pool allows investors to gain exposure to the commodity markets without having to buy or sell the physical commodities themselves. A commodity pool may also use leverage and hedging strategies to enhance returns and reduce risks. Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Commodity Pool: Definition and How It Works - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

A registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) is a type of tax-deferred account that allows individuals to save for retirement. Contributions to an RRSP are deductible from taxable income, which means that they reduce the amount of income tax payable for the year. The amount of tax savings from an RRSP contribution depends on the individual’s marginal tax rate, which is the tax rate applied to the next dollar earned. Leira has a marginal tax rate of 45% and may deduct $5,000 in RRSP contributions on her income tax return. If she decides to use her available deduction and assuming this does not reduce her taxable income to a lower tax bracket, by how much will it reduce her tax payable? To answer this question, we can use the following formula: $$(Tax savings = RRSP contribution \times Marginal tax rate)

Discretionary trading is a type of trading activity where the advisor makes investment decisions on behalf of the client without obtaining the client’s prior consent for each transaction. Discretionary trading is only allowed if the client has signed a discretionary management agreement with the advisor and the advisor is registered as a portfolio manager. A limited authorization form (LAF) does not grant the advisor the authority to engage in discretionary trading. A LAF only allows the advisor to execute trades that are initiated by the client, such as pre-authorized contributions or withdrawals. Therefore, Khuyen has performed discretionary trading by switching Bao’s funds without consulting him, which is a violation of her registrant responsibilities and ethical standards. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 2: The Sales Process, Section 2.4: Ethics and Compliance, page 2-161

Discretionary Trading Definition - Investopedia2

According to the life-cycle hypothesis, medium-term goals for clients in their family commitment years (ages 25–50) include education savings for children.

Emergency fund = short-term goal

Down payment on a house = short-term to medium-term, but typically earlier in life-cycle stage

Retirement = long-term goal

Thus, the correct medium-term financial target is saving for a child’s university education.

The correct answer is D. Issuer’s credit rating. The Investment Funds in Canada course emphasizes that principal protected notes (PPNs) are structured products whose principal protection depends entirely on the creditworthiness of the issuer.

Unlike guaranteed investment certificates (GICs), PPNs are not insured by CDIC. The principal protection is only as strong as the issuer’s ability to meet its obligations at maturity. If the issuer defaults, the investor may lose some or all of their principal, regardless of the performance of the underlying investment.

While maturity length, cost, and asset exposure are relevant considerations, none override the importance of the issuer’s financial strength. The CIFC text clearly warns investors that “principal protection is subject to issuer credit risk,” making credit rating the single most critical factor.

Asset allocation applies to portfolio construction, not to assessing PPN safety. Cost and maturity affect liquidity and return potential but do not determine whether the principal will actually be protected.

Therefore, when selecting a PPN, evaluating the issuer’s credit rating is paramount, making Option D the correct and fully CIFC-aligned answer.

Avoidance is a method of addressing conflict of interest by preventing it from occurring in the first place. Ethical Financial’s policies and procedures manual (PPM) require that Catarina decline the gift from Darlene, which is a potential source of conflict of interest. By doing so, Catarina avoids any appearance of favouritism or bias towards Darlene’s mutual fund family. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3)

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest

IFSE Institute: Conflicts of Interest1

A normal yield curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the interest rates and the maturities of different fixed income securities. It slopes upward to the right, meaning that longer-term bonds have higher yields than shorter-term bonds. This reflects the fact that investors demand higher compensation for lending money for longer periods of time and taking on more risk. A normal yield curve indicates that investors expect the economy to grow steadily and inflation to remain stable.

For non-registered accounts, the mandatory personal information includes the client’s full legal name and permanent address, while date of birth and social insurance number are recommended but not required. The feedback from the document states:

"The first step as a dealing representative is to obtain a client’s personal data including full legal name, permanent and mailing address, social insurance number and date of birth. While a permanent address is mandatory, providing a different mailing address is optional. Neither the social insurance number nor date of birth are mandatory for non-registered accounts, but both are highly recommended."

For a spousal RRSP, KYC information is required only for the account holder (the wife) and those with trading authority, not the contributing spouse (the husband), who has no financial interest in the account. The feedback from the document states:

"The investment experience and knowledge of all individuals who have trading authority over the account should be obtained, as well as KYC information for anyone with a financial interest in the account. For spousal RRSPs, the contributing spouse does not have a financial interest in the account, so KYC information is required for the non-contributing spouse only."

A registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered plan that provides a stream of income in retirement. A RRIF can be created by converting an RRSP, but once the conversion is done, the plan holder can no longer make contributions to the RRSP or the RRIF. Therefore, any unused RRSP contribution room is lost after the conversion. The other statements are incorrect because:

A. There is a minimum age to be an annuitant to a RRIF, which is 71 years old. However, a plan holder can convert an RRSP to a RRIF at any age before 71.

C. Minimum withdrawals are required to start in the year following the year the RRIF was established, not in the current calendar year.

D. Investments that qualify as an eligible investment for a RRIF are the same as for an RRSP, such as mutual funds, stocks, bonds, GICs, etc. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Registered Plans, Section 6.2: Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF), page 6-81

Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF) - Canada.ca2

The Annual Information Form (AIF) is a document that provides detailed information about a mutual fund, such as its history, structure, management, fees, expenses, risks, policies, and performance. The AIF also contains information regarding the Independent Review Committee (IRC) compensation, which is the amount of fees and expenses paid by the fund to the IRC members for their services. The IRC is a committee of independent individuals who oversee the fund manager’s decisions on conflict of interest matters and act in the best interests of the fund and its investors12

References = web search results from search_web(query="Independent Review Committee compensation")12 and Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 2: Investment Products - Section 2.2: Mutual Funds3

3: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-2.pdf

A front-end load is a sales charge paid at the time of purchase, calculated as a percentage of the investment amount.

A. $1,500 × 3% = $45

B. $1,000 × 4% = $40

C. $5,000 × 1% = $50

D. $3,000 × 2% = $60

✅ Most expensive = $60 (Option D)

Correction: Answer = D. Purchase $3,000 at 2% front-end load

A T3 or T5 slip reporting a capital gain is issued when an investor sells their mutual fund units at a profit, not when the fund itself realizes gains. The feedback from the document states:

"In the normal course of portfolio management, shares are bought and sold either at a gain or at a loss for the fund. By the end of the year, many funds will have generated net capital gains on their portfolio transactions. The capital gains are distributed in the form of a capital gains dividend reported on a T5 or T3." However, for the investor, the correct answer is A, as clarified by standard tax rules: capital gains are realized by the investor upon selling units at a price higher than their average cost.

A Canadian equity index fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in stocks that track a Canadian equity market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index or the S&P/TSX 60 Index. These indices measure the performance of the largest and most liquid companies listed on the Toronto Stock Exchange (TSX). A Canadian equity index fund aims to replicate the returns of the index it follows, before fees and expenses. Therefore, this type of fund would be best for Karen, who has a long time horizon, is comfortable with risk and volatility, and is primarily interested in growth. She also wants a mutual fund that will closely match what she sees on the TSX. References: CIBC Canadian Equity Index ETF, Top Canadian Index Funds of 2023 | The Motley Fool Canada

Research and the CSC curriculum stress that asset allocation is the single most important factor in determining portfolio performance, more than market timing or security selection.

Proper asset mix (equities, fixed income, cash) accounts for most portfolio success or failure.

The correct answer is B. Tactical. In the Investment Funds in Canada curriculum, tactical asset allocation is described as a strategy that allows advisors to make short-term or medium-term adjustments to a client’s portfolio in response to changing conditions. These conditions can include market movements, economic outlooks, and importantly, client behavioural tendencies, such as comfort with volatility, emotional responses to losses, or overconfidence during strong markets.

Strategic asset allocation, by contrast, is a long-term, policy-driven approach based on the client’s objectives, time horizon, and risk tolerance, and it is not frequently adjusted. Tactical allocation builds on the strategic framework but permits deviations to better manage perceived risks or client behaviour while still remaining suitable.

The CIFC course emphasizes that advisors must recognize behavioural biases and may use tactical adjustments to help clients remain invested and avoid emotionally driven decisions that could harm long-term outcomes. “Profit maximizing” and “best practical” are not recognized CIFC asset allocation strategies.

Therefore, when an advisor adjusts portfolio risk and return levels to accommodate behavioural tendencies, tactical asset allocation is applied, making Option B the correct answer.

A rise in both nominal and real GDP, even when driven mainly by higher prices, generally indicates an increase in overall business activity, making Option C the correct answer. The Investment Funds in Canada course explains that nominal GDP measures output using current prices, while real GDP adjusts for inflation to reflect actual growth in economic output.

If both nominal and real GDP rise, this suggests that the economy is producing more goods and services, not merely experiencing price increases. Increased production typically results in higher employment, greater corporate revenues, and expanded economic activity.

Option A is incorrect because rising GDP—especially when price pressures exist—often leads to higher, not lower, interest rates as central banks attempt to control inflation. Option B is incorrect because living standards improve primarily when real GDP growth exceeds inflation, not when growth is mainly price-driven. Option D is incorrect because higher prices indicate inflationary pressures, not a decrease.

The CIFC curriculum emphasizes that GDP growth is a primary indicator of economic expansion and business activity. Therefore, Option C is the correct and fully CIFC-aligned answer.

Withdrawals under a ratio withdrawal plan are based on the current portfolio value, ensuring the fund is never fully depleted unless a 100% payout ratio is used. The feedback from the document states:

"Under a ratio withdrawal plan, the ratio is always based on the current portfolio value. Technically, this means that clients will never fully exhaust their mutual fund investment under this type of plan. Only in the unrealistic situation of a 100% payout ratio would the fund be completely paid out."

An IPP is a registered, defined-benefit pension plan that provides a fixed retirement benefit to the person designated in the plan. It is similar to an RRSP, but with some differences in contribution limits, deductions, and tax benefits. One of the main advantages of an IPP is that it allows higher contribution limits than an RRSP, especially for older and higher-income individuals. The contributions are based on the actuarial calculations of the pension benefit, and are tax-deductible for the sponsoring corporation. The higher contribution limits can help Fabiola catch up on her retirement savings and reduce her taxable income123

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 3: Registered Plans - Section 3.3: Individual Pension Plan (IPP) and web search results from search_web(query="individual pension plan")123

https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-3.pdf

According to the MFDA Rules, a Dealing Representative must not accept any purchase orders from a client until the Branch Manager or other designated person has reviewed and approved the New Client Application Form (NCAF) for the client. This is to ensure that the Dealing Representative has obtained and verified all the necessary information about the client, such as identity, investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial situation, and suitability of investments. The review and approval of the NCAF must be completed before any trades are executed for the client, unless there are exceptional circumstances that justify a delay. In this case, Quintin should have waited for Lupita’s approval of the NCAF before placing the purchase order for Reginald.

 1: MFDA Rules as at December 31, 2021 - MFDA 2 (Rule 2.2.4)

A treasury bill is a short-term debt instrument issued by the government at a discount from its face value and redeemed at par value at maturity. The difference between the purchase price and the face value is the interest income earned by the investor. Therefore, Megan treats the $1,800 difference as interest income for tax purposes. Interest income is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate in the year it is received. Megan does not report any capital gain, dividend, or return of capital from the treasury bill.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5, Section 5.2

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, a registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered plan that provides a stream of income in retirement. A RRIF can be opened at any age, but it must be established by the end of the year the annuitant turns 71. A RRIF cannot accept any contributions, but it can receive transfers from other registered plans, such as RRSPs, PRPPs, RPPs, or other RRIFs. A RRIF has no maximum withdrawal limit, meaning that the annuitant can withdraw any amount from the plan at any time. However, a RRIF has a minimum withdrawal requirement, which is calculated based on the annuitant’s age or the age of their spouse or common-law partner. The minimum withdrawal must be paid out in the year following the year the RRIF is opened and every year thereafter. The minimum withdrawal is taxable as income in the year of receipt.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Gregory’s account will be subjected to no maximum withdrawal limit but to an annual minimum withdrawal.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

The correct answer is C. Ontario. The Investment Funds in Canada course specifies that the Ontario Securities Commission (OSC) requires registered individuals to notify the regulator of significant personal financial events, including personal bankruptcy.

This requirement exists because personal financial distress may raise concerns about integrity, solvency, and the ability to manage client assets responsibly. While all provinces require high standards of conduct, Ontario explicitly mandates disclosure of bankruptcy to the securities administrator.

The CIFC text highlights that registrants must comply with jurisdiction-specific reporting obligations, making awareness of provincial differences critical. Therefore, Option C is the correct and CIFC-verified answer.

A labour-sponsored investment fund (LSIF) is a type of mutual fund that invests in small and medium-sized businesses that are not publicly traded. LSIFs are sponsored by labour unions or associations and offer tax credits to investors. However, LSIFs are also very risky and illiquid investments that may not be suitable for investors with a medium risk profile, such as Banji. Therefore, Quinton should not proceed with the purchase of the Prospect Labour-Sponsored Fund because it is not suitable for Banji based on her current KYC. Therefore, C is the correct answer. References: Labour-Sponsored Investment Funds (LSIFs): Definition and How They Work - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

 A Fund Facts document is a summary disclosure document that provides key information about a mutual fund, such as its investment objectives, risks, past performance, and fees. One of the information items that a Fund Facts document provides to potential investors is what the mutual fund is currently investing in, such as its top 10 holdings, asset mix, geographic allocation, and sector allocation. A Fund Facts document does not provide information on how to calculate taxes, portfolio management strategy, or remuneration of the Independent Review Committee. References: Fund facts guide | Sun Life Global Investments, Mutual Funds - Fund Facts | ScotiaFunds

Survivorship bias occurs when poor-performing funds are closed, excluding them from performance rankings and inflating the perceived performance of surviving funds. The feedback from the document states:

"All comparison universes also exhibit some degree of survivorship bias no matter how carefully the universes are constructed. Survivorship bias develops as defunct portfolios drop out and are excluded from rankings in subsequent quarters. A performance universe is essentially a universe of survivors."

The client mobility exemption is a provision in the National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations that allows a registered individual to continue dealing with a client who moves to another jurisdiction without having to register in that jurisdiction, subject to certain conditions. One of the conditions is that the individual must not have more than five clients in each of the other jurisdictions where they are not registered. Therefore, the client mobility exemption would apply to Lori’s situation, as she has five or fewer clients in Alberta, where she is not registered. The client mobility exemption would not apply to the other situations, as they do not meet the conditions for the exemption. For example, Olaf’s mutual fund dealer is not registered in New Brunswick, which is a requirement for the exemption. Sigrid’s brother-in-law is not an existing client who moved to another jurisdiction, but a new client who resides in a different jurisdiction. Karl has more than five clients in British Columbia, where he is not registered, which exceeds the limit for the exemption.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 1: The Canadian Financial Services Industry1

Monetary policy is the process by which the central bank, in Canada’s case the Bank of Canada, influences the supply and demand of money in the economy, and thereby affects the level of interest rates, inflation, and economic activity. One of the main tools of monetary policy is the overnight rate, which is the interest rate that banks charge each other for short-term loans. The Bank of Canada sets a target for the overnight rate and adjusts it periodically to achieve its inflation target of 2%. By increasing or decreasing the overnight rate, the Bank of Canada affects the cost and availability of credit for consumers and businesses, and influences their spending and saving decisions. For example, if the Bank of Canada increases the overnight rate, it becomes more expensive to borrow money, which reduces the demand for loans and credit, and slows down economic growth and inflation. Conversely, if the Bank of Canada decreases the overnight rate, it becomes cheaper to borrow money, which increases the demand for loans and credit, and stimulates economic growth and inflation.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 1: The Canadian Financial Services Industry1

Kiri has correctly fulfilled his suitability obligation by matching the risk-return profile of the fund with the personal circumstances of his client. The Conservative Bond Fund is a low-risk, low-return fund that pays regular interest income to investors. Myrtle’s investment objective is “income”, which means she wants to receive steady income from her investments and preserve her capital. Therefore, Kiri’s recommendation is reasonably suitable for Myrtle in all the circumstances. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3)

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest

IFSE Institute: Suitability Obligations1

SFC: Frequently Asked Questions on Compliance with Suitability Obligations2

To fulfill the know your client (KYC) obligation, an advisor must collect and document information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. The KYC rule is a regulatory requirement that ensures that the advisor understands the client’s needs and goals, and provides suitable recommendations that match the client’s profile. In this case, Cosmo has provided some information about his personal and financial situation, such as his age, occupation, income, assets, and inheritance. He has also given some indication of his investment objectives, such as saving for retirement, and his investment knowledge, such as making his own investment decisions and preferring balanced funds. However, he has not disclosed his risk tolerance, which is his willingness and ability to accept fluctuations in the value of his investments. Risk tolerance is an important factor that affects the choice of investment strategies and products. Therefore, to complete the KYC process, the advisor needs to obtain additional information about Cosmo’s risk tolerance. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 1: The Investment Funds Industry, Section 1.4: The Know Your Client (KYC) Rule, page 1-111

Know Your Client (KYC) Definition - Investopedia2

Ethics in the securities industry are defined as moral principles that go beyond simple compliance with the law, incorporating both the letter and the spirit of the law .

Compliance = following rules only.

Fiduciary duty = acting in the best interest of clients.

Professional responsibility = broader conduct obligations.

The correct term here is Ethical conduct.

To make a suitable recommendation, Solomon needs to identify how the proposed investment is in alignment with the investor’s profile and holdings. A suitable recommendation is one that meets the investor’s needs, goals, risk tolerance, time horizon, and personal circumstances. It also considers the investor’s existing portfolio and how the new investment would affect its diversification, performance, and risk. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what Solomon needs to do to make a suitable recommendation. The other options are not correct or sufficient to make a suitable recommendation. Option A is false because mutual fund costs are important regardless of the past fund performance, as they reduce the net returns and compound over time. Option B is false because relying on the risk rating of the mutual fund is not enough to offer an investment solution, as it does not reflect the investor’s return expectations, liquidity needs, tax situation, or personal preferences. Option D is false because matching the past rates of return of the mutual fund with what is the anticipated rate of return is not a reliable way to make a recommendation, as past performance does not guarantee future results and may not be consistent with the investor’s risk tolerance or time horizon. References: [Suitability | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Mutual Fund Fees | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Risk Rating | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

The management expense ratio (MER) represents the total of all management fees and operating expenses charged to the fund, expressed as a percentage of average net asset value.

Operating expense ratio is not a standard measure.

Management fee ratio refers only to the management fee portion.

Trading expense ratio covers only trading commissions.

Therefore, mutual fund investors pay expenses through the MER

Dividends from both preferred and common shares of Canadian corporations receive preferential tax treatment because they are eligible for the dividend tax credit. This credit reduces the amount of tax payable on dividend income by accounting for the tax that the corporation has already paid on its earnings. Dividends from non-resident corporations do not qualify for this credit and are taxed at the same rate as interest income. Only 50% of capital gains, not dividend income, are subject to tax. References: The Dividend Tax Rate in Canada: What You Need to Know Now - Hardbacon, How are Dividends Taxed in Canada? Exploring the Canadian Dividend Tax Credit

Foreign dividend income is taxed at the investor’s marginal tax rate without the benefit of a dividend tax credit, unlike Canadian dividend income, which qualifies for a tax credit. The feedback from the document states:

"Foreign dividend income is not eligible for any dividend tax credit, and is taxed at an investor’s marginal tax rate."

Disclosure documents are documents that provide information about a mutual fund’s features, risks, performance, fees, and expenses to investors and regulators. Disclosure documents are required by securities laws and must be prepared and filed by the fund manager in accordance with the prescribed rules and standards. Disclosure documents relating to mutual funds include the following:

Statement of net assets: This is a document that shows the value of the fund’s assets and liabilities as of a specific date. It also shows the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of the fund, which is the price at which investors can buy or sell units of the fund. The statement of net assets is part of the fund’s financial statements, which are prepared and filed semi-annually and annually.

Annual information form (AIF): This is a document that provides additional information about the fund that is not included in the simplified prospectus or the fund facts. The AIF includes information such as the fund’s history, organization, management, governance, policies, risks, conflicts of interest, fees, expenses, taxation, and legal matters. The AIF is prepared and filed annually.

Management reports of fund performance (MRFP): These are documents that provide information about the fund’s financial performance, portfolio composition, risk profile, and management expenses. The MRFPs are prepared by the fund manager and filed semi-annually and annually. The MRFPs include sections such as financial highlights, past performance, summary of investment portfolio, management discussion of fund performance, and financial statements.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 6: Fund Operations and Regulations1

The endowment bias occurs when investors place a higher value on assets they already own compared to the market value, simply because of ownership.

Dave overvalues his property relative to the market.

Farida = representativeness bias.

Kendra = availability bias.

Peter = status quo bias.

Thus, Dave demonstrates endowment bias.

A mortgage fund is a type of income fund that invests in mortgages and other debt instruments secured by real estate. It provides a steady stream of income to investors and has a low correlation with other asset classes. A mortgage fund is suitable for Yael because she needs income to pay her monthly expenses and is comfortable with high risk. A global equity fund, a money market fund, and a Canadian equity index fund are not suitable for Yael because they do not meet her income objective and risk tolerance.

Money market funds invest in short-term securities that generate interest income, and their unit value remains constant (typically $10), preventing capital gains. The feedback from the document states:

"All returns earned on money market funds are considered interest earnings and are taxed as interest income. Since money market funds invest only in money market securities that pay interest, no other type of income can be earned. Because the value of the units of a money market fund is constant ($10), no capital gains can be made on the sale of units of the fund."

Speculators avoid diversification because it reduces the potential for both large losses and large gains, which they seek to achieve significant wealth. The feedback from the document states:

"Diversification affects the returns that investors hope to earn. Diversification tends to reduce the probability of both very large losses and very large gains. Speculators tend to avoid diversification for this reason. Great wealth can be achieved only through an absence of diversification."

The correct answer is B. When legally required by the government or by law. Under privacy legislation discussed in Investment Funds in Canada, including PIPEDA, confidential client information may only be disclosed without consent when disclosure is legally required, such as in response to court orders, law enforcement investigations, or regulatory obligations under legislation like AML or FINTRAC rules.

Referrals to specialists require client consent, documentation alone does not remove the consent requirement, and regulatory organizations typically obtain information through the dealer, not directly from representatives without due process.

The CIFC curriculum clearly states that privacy obligations are fundamental and exceptions are narrow and law-based. Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.

Whether the couple saves on income tax will be dependent on Minu’s marginal tax rate. Pension income splitting is a tax planning strategy that allows a spouse or common-law partner who receives eligible pension income to allocate up to 50% of that income to their spouse or common-law partner1. This may result in tax savings if the transferring spouse or common-law partner is in a higher tax bracket than the receiving spouse or common-law partner1. The tax savings depend on the difference between the marginal tax rates of the spouses or common-law partners1. The other statements are incorrect. Minu will not be exposed to a pension adjustment (PA) if she receives income from Saheed’s pension. A PA is a measure of the value of benefits accrued in a registered pension plan or deferred profit sharing plan during a calendar year2. It reduces the RRSP contribution room of the plan member, not the spouse or common-law partner who receives part of their pension income2. Pension income splitting is not a form of tax evasion and is not illegal based on income tax legislation. It is a legitimate way to reduce taxable income and taxes payable by shifting income from a higher-income spouse or common-law partner to a lower-income spouse or common-law partner1. Pension income splitting may change the total amount of income taxes paid by the couple, depending on their marginal tax rates. If the transferring spouse or common-law partner is in a higher tax bracket than the receiving spouse or common-law partner, pension income splitting may lower their combined taxes payable1. However, if they are in the same tax bracket, pension income splitting may not have any effect on their taxes payable1. References: Pension income splitting, Pension adjustment

The Strategic Investment Planning (SIP) process is a four-step process that helps advisors to create and deliver customized investment plans for their clients. The four steps are:

Clarify Client Status, Problems and Opportunities: This step involves gathering information about the client’s personal and financial situation, goals, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. The advisor also identifies the client’s problems and opportunities, such as tax issues, estate planning needs, or market trends.

Identify Strategies and Present the Plan: This step involves analyzing the information collected in the previous step and developing strategies to address the client’s problems and opportunities. The advisor also presents the plan to the client, explaining the rationale, benefits, costs, and risks of the proposed strategies. This is the stage where Sonya mentions factors such as inflation, interest rates, and rates of return, as they are relevant to the investment approaches she is offering to Elijah.

Implement the Plan: This step involves executing the agreed-upon strategies with the client’s consent. The advisor also ensures that the necessary documentation and transactions are completed.

Monitor and Update: This step involves reviewing the performance of the plan and making adjustments as needed. The advisor also communicates with the client regularly and updates the plan according to any changes in the client’s situation or goals.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 2: The Sales Process, Section 2.3: The Strategic Investment Planning (SIP) Process, page 2-81

Strategic Investment Planning Process - IFSE Institute2

If Helen believes in the Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH), she accepts that markets fully reflect available information and that it is nearly impossible to consistently beat the market.

The recommended action is passive investing, e.g., buying an index-tracking ETF.

B (market timing) and D (security selection) contradict EMH.

Rights of survivorship means that if one account holder dies, their share of the assets automatically transfers to the surviving holder(s).

This feature is available in joint non-registered accounts.

Registered accounts (A) (e.g., RRSP, TFSA) are individual accounts and cannot be opened jointly with rights of survivorship.

Trust accounts (B) follow trust law, not survivorship rules.

Corporate accounts (D) belong to the company, not individuals.

The cash flow from operations to total debt ratio assesses a company’s ability to meet its debt obligations using cash generated from operations. The feedback from the document states:

"The cash flow from operations/total debt ratio gauges a company’s ability to repay the funds it has borrowed. A company’s annual cash flow should therefore be adequate to meet these commitments."

Know Your Client (KYC) requirements are ongoing obligations that advisors must fulfill to ensure that they provide suitable recommendations and services to their clients. KYC requirements include collecting and documenting information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. KYC requirements also include monitoring and updating the client’s information and investment performance on a regular basis. According to the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA), advisors must review the KYC information at least once every 36 months, or more frequently if there are any material changes in the client’s circumstances or needs1. Advisors must also monitor the investment performance of the client’s portfolio and compare it with the client’s expectations and goals. If the investment performance is not satisfactory or consistent with the client’s risk tolerance, advisors must take appropriate actions, such as rebalancing the portfolio, switching funds, or revising the investment strategy2. Therefore, Harold’s responsibility moving forward is to monitor the investment performance of Felicia’s lump sum investment and determine if it is on track to satisfy her financial needs for the next 5 years. He must also review her KYC information at least once every 36 months, or sooner if there are any changes in her situation or objectives. References:

MFDA Bulletin #0756-P - Know-Your-Client and Suitability1

MFDA Bulletin #0760-P - Monitoring of Investment Performance2

The correct answer is A. Duty of care. The Investment Funds in Canada curriculum explains that the duty of care obligates dealing representatives to act competently, fairly, and in the client’s best interest. This duty applies even when a client initiates an unsolicited order.

While unsolicited orders are initiated by the client rather than recommended by the representative, the CIFC text emphasizes that the representative must still assess suitability, ensure the client understands the risks, and confirm that the transaction does not conflict with the client’s investment objectives, time horizon, or risk tolerance. Simply executing an order without consideration would breach the duty of care.

Confidentiality relates to protection of personal information, compliance refers broadly to adherence to laws and firm policies, and integrity concerns honesty and ethical behaviour. None of these specifically govern how unsolicited orders are handled.

Because the duty of care governs how representatives must respond to all client instructions—including unsolicited trades—Option A is the correct and fully CIFC-verified answer.

The marginal tax rate is the percentage of tax that an individual pays on the last dollar of income earned in a given year. It is also the tax rate that applies to any additional income earned in that year. The marginal tax rate varies depending on the individual’s income level and tax bracket. For example, if an individual’s taxable income for the year is $50,000 and the tax rate for that income bracket is 20%, then the marginal tax rate is 20%. This means that the individual pays 20% tax on the last dollar of income earned, as well as on any additional income earned above $50,000.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 6: Taxation, Section 5.6.1: Income Tax 1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.6.1 2

Unused RRSP contribution room is the amount of RRSP contributions that you did not deduct in previous years and are available to deduct in the current year. Unused RRSP contribution room can be carried forward to future years indefinitely, until you use it up or reach the age of 71. You can find your unused RRSP contribution room on your notice of assessment or by logging into your Canada Revenue Agency account. References: What to do with unused RRSP, PRPP or SPP contributions

Martine has multiple financial goals (short-term home purchase, medium-term education, long-term retirement). Using a single growth fund for all goals is inappropriate because growth funds are designed for long-term objectives and involve higher volatility.

This results in unsuitable allocation across her short-, medium-, and long-term needs.