CSI IFC Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) Exam Exam Practice Test

In a defined contribution plan, the retirement benefit depends on the performance of the investments within the plan, also known as a money-purchase plan. The feedback from the document states:

"In a defined contribution plan, also known as a money-purchase plan, the eventual benefits at retirement will be based on how the contributions were invested within the plan."

To calculate Firmansyah’s federal tax liability from the investment income, we need to follow these steps:

Step 1: Convert the foreign dividend from USD to CAD using the exchange rate given in the question. The exchange rate is 1.3605 CAD per USD, which means that 1 USD is equivalent to 1.3605 CAD. Therefore, Firmansyah’s foreign dividend in CAD is:

500×1.3605=680.25

Step 2: Calculate Firmansyah’s grossed-up dividend income from both sources. A grossed-up dividend income is the actual dividend received plus a percentage of the dividend that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer. The percentage varies depending on whether the dividend is eligible or non-eligible. According to [this site], an eligible dividend is a dividend paid by a Canadian corporation that meets certain criteria, such as being listed on a designated stock exchange or being a subsidiary of such a corporation. A non-eligible dividend is a dividend that does not meet these criteria, such as a dividend paid by a foreign corporation or a small Canadian business corporation. The gross-up rate for eligible dividends in 2020 was 38%, while the gross-up rate for non-eligible dividends in 2020 was 15%. Therefore, Firmansyah’s grossed-up dividend income from both sources is:

(1800+680.25)×(1+0.38)=3426.35

Step 3: Apply Firmansyah’s federal marginal tax rate to his grossed-up dividend income to get his federal tax before credits. A marginal tax rate is the percentage of tax applied to an additional dollar of income. According to [this site], Firmansyah’s federal marginal tax rate for 2020 was 29%, as his taxable income was between $150,473 and $214,368. Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal tax before credits is:

0.29×3426.35=993.64

Step 4: Subtract Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability from the investment income. A dividend tax credit is a percentage of the grossed-up dividend income that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer and avoids double taxation. The percentage varies depending on whether the dividend is eligible or non-eligible. According to [this site], the federal dividend tax credit rate for eligible dividends in 2020 was 15%, while the federal dividend tax credit rate for non-eligible dividends in 2020 was 9.03%. Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from both sources is:

(1800+680.25)×0.38×0.15=297.88

Step 5: Subtract Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability from the investment income. This is the amount of federal income tax that Firmansyah has to pay or has overpaid from the investment income. Therefore, Firmansyah’s net federal tax liability from the investment income is:

993.64−297.88=695.76

Hence, option C is correct. References: [Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute], [Dividend Tax Credit | TurboTax Canada Tips], [Federal Income Tax Rates for Canada - TurboTax Canada Tips], [Eligible Dividends | TurboTax Canada Tips]

Dividends from both preferred and common shares of Canadian corporations receive preferential tax treatment because they are eligible for the dividend tax credit. This credit reduces the amount of tax payable on dividend income by accounting for the tax that the corporation has already paid on its earnings. Dividends from non-resident corporations do not qualify for this credit and are taxed at the same rate as interest income. Only 50% of capital gains, not dividend income, are subject to tax. References: The Dividend Tax Rate in Canada: What You Need to Know Now - Hardbacon, How are Dividends Taxed in Canada? Exploring the Canadian Dividend Tax Credit

Sector rotation is an investment philosophy that prioritizes weighting industries based on their expected performance during different economic cycles, placing less emphasis on individual security selection. The feedback from the document states:

"Sector rotation is a portfolio manager’s attempt to profit through timing. It is based on the belief that different industries will perform well during certain stages of the economic cycle. Industries expected to outperform would be overweighted. More emphasis is placed on industry weighting than on security selection."

An income trust is an investment trust that holds income-producing assets, such as debt instruments, royalty interests, or real properties. It can be structured as either a personal investment fund or a commercial trust with publicly traded closed-end fund shares. The main attraction of income trusts, in addition to certain tax preferences for some investors, is their stated goal of paying out consistent cash flows for investors, which is especially attractive when cash yields on bonds are low12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 2: Investment Products - Section 2.3: Income Trusts3 and web search results from search_web(query="income trust")12

3: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-2.pdf

A rational investor seeks to maximize return for a given level of risk or minimize risk for a given level of return. The feedback from the document states:

"Given a choice between two investments with the same amount of risk, a rational investor would always take the security with the higher return. Given two investments with the same expected return, the investor would always choose the security with the lower risk. Investors are risk averse, but not all to the same degree. Each investor has a different risk profile."

Specialty funds, due to their focused and often speculative investments, carry the highest expected risk and return among mutual funds. The feedback from the document states:

"The highest risk, highest expected return mutual fund is a specialty fund."

Jasmine realizes interest income of $400 because she bought a strip bond, which is a bond that has its principal and coupon payments separated and sold individually. Jasmine bought the principal-stripped bond, also known as a zero-coupon bond, which pays no interest until maturity. The difference between the purchase price and the face value at maturity is considered interest income and is taxable in the year it is received. References: Strip Bonds: Definition, How They Work, Returns, and Example

The answer that you should tell Harry is that he should hold profitable investments as long as possible. A capital gain is the difference between the selling price and the purchase price of an asset when the selling price is higher than the purchase price. A capital gain is subject to tax only when it is realized, meaning that the asset is sold or disposed of. Therefore, one way to defer paying tax on capital gains is to hold profitable investments as long as possible and delay selling them until a future year. This allows the investor to postpone paying tax on the capital gain and benefit from the compounding effect of the investment returns. Therefore, option A is correct regarding how to defer paying taxes on capital gains. The other options are not correct or effective ways to defer paying taxes on capital gains. Option B is false because investing in mutual funds just before the dividend paying date does not defer paying taxes on capital gains; rather, it increases the taxable income of the investor by adding dividend income, which may be subject to a gross-up and a tax credit depending on the type of dividend. Option C is false because buying and selling investments actively does not defer paying taxes on capital gains; rather, it triggers more taxable events and increases the transaction costs of investing. Option D is false because holding unprofitable investments as long as possible does not defer paying taxes on capital gains; rather, it reduces the potential return of the portfolio and prevents the investor from using capital losses to offset capital gains from other sources. References: [Capital Gains Tax in Canada | Wealthsimple], [Capital Gains Tax: What It Is and How It Works in Canada], [Capital Gains Tax | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

 Hamid is using a bottom-up investment approach, which focuses on the analysis of individual stocks rather than the overall market or industry trends. Hamid is looking for companies that have strong fundamentals and are undervalued by the market, regardless of their sector or macroeconomic factors. References: Investment Strategies to Learn Before Trading

Risk hierarchy in CSC: Common shares (highest risk), Preferred shares, Debentures, Bonds, T-bills (lowest risk) .

Portfolio analysis:

A (Preferred + Common) → Medium-high risk.

B (T-bills + Debentures) → Low-medium risk.

C (Debentures + Common) → Contains common shares (high risk) plus debentures (credit risk), making it highest overall risk.

D (T-bills + Preferred) → Low risk.

Therefore, Portfolio C carries the greatest amount of risk.

The current yield for a money market fund is calculated by annualizing the 7-day yield: (7-day yield × 365 / 7). For a 7-day yield of 0.05% (0.0005), the calculation is: 0.0005 × 365 / 7 = 0.02607 or 2.61%. The feedback from the document states:

"The current yield for a money market fund is calculated as the most recent seven-day yield on the fund, adjusted to an annual rate. The formula is: Current yield = (Seven-day yield × 365 / 7). In this case the current yield is (0.0005 × 365 / 7) = 0.0261."

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, a stock exchange is a centralized and regulated market where securities of listed companies are traded between buyers and sellers. A stock exchange has strict listing requirements that companies must meet in order to be eligible for trading on the exchange. These requirements may include minimum capitalization, number of shareholders, financial reporting, corporate governance, and compliance with securities laws. A stock exchange also provides liquidity, transparency, and efficiency for the trading of securities.

An over-the-counter (OTC) market is a decentralized and unregulated market where securities that are not listed on a stock exchange are traded between dealers and brokers. An OTC market has no physical location, rather the trading is done through phone, email, or computer networks. An OTC market has lower listing requirements than a stock exchange, which makes it easier for smaller or newer companies to access capital. However, an OTC market also has less liquidity, transparency, and efficiency than a stock exchange.

Therefore, if Underground Airways Ltd. wants to take their privately owned corporation public through an initial public offering (IPO), they would have to weigh the pros and cons of listing on a stock exchange or the OTC market. One of the main considerations is that a stock exchange listing would provide them with greater market exposure and public confidence than listing on the OTC market. This is because a stock exchange listing signals that the company has met the high standards of the exchange and is subject to ongoing regulation and oversight. A stock exchange listing also attracts more investors, analysts, and media attention than an OTC listing. A stock exchange listing may also increase the value and liquidity of the company’s shares.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 5: Equity Securities)

In volatile market conditions with rising interest rates, asset allocation fund managers may shift to money market securities to reduce risk. The feedback from the document states:

"Asset allocation funds ideally provide a ‘balanced’ mix of safety, income and capital appreciation… When both bond and stock markets are volatile, they will hold large amounts of money market securities. In other words, asset allocation mutual fund managers attempt to time the market to get the best returns depending on market conditions."

Current yield and effective yield are two ways of measuring the total return for money market funds. Current yield reflects the income earned on a money market fund for the most recent 14 day period, annualized. Effective yield incorporates the compounding effect of reinvesting the income earned on a money market fund over a year. Both current yield and effective yield are displayed in the performance reports of money market funds, as they provide different information to investors.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 4: Money Market Instruments, Section 5.4.3: Total Return for Money Market Funds1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.4.3 2

The marginal tax rate is the percentage of tax that an individual pays on the last dollar of income earned in a given year. It is also the tax rate that applies to any additional income earned in that year. The marginal tax rate varies depending on the individual’s income level and tax bracket. For example, if an individual’s taxable income for the year is $50,000 and the tax rate for that income bracket is 20%, then the marginal tax rate is 20%. This means that the individual pays 20% tax on the last dollar of income earned, as well as on any additional income earned above $50,000.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 6: Taxation, Section 5.6.1: Income Tax 1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.6.1 2

 B is correct because assessing historical differences in the rate of return per unit of risk of similar mutual funds helps a Dealing Representative to compare the performance and risk-adjusted returns of different mutual funds and select the most suitable one for a client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives. Comparing historical rates of return between different types of mutual funds (A) does not account for the risk involved in each type of fund. Referencing the fund code for each mutual fund that is being compared © does not provide any information about the fund’s characteristics, features, or suitability. The rights a client has if there is a desire to cancel the purchased mutual fund (D) are not relevant for determining a suitable mutual fund for a client.

A beta of 1.4 indicates that the Optima Equity Fund is 1.4 times more volatile than the market. If the market rises by 5%, the fund is expected to rise by 5% × 1.4 = 7%. The feedback from the document states:

"One way to measure market risk is by calculating a portfolio’s beta. Beta shows how much a portfolio fluctuates when the market as a whole fluctuates. A higher beta means that the portfolio is exposed to more risk. The market has a beta of 1.0. In this example: The Optima Equity Fund has a beta of 1.4, which means the Fund is expected to be 1.4 times more volatile than the market as a whole. If the S&P/TSX Composite Index is used to measure the performance of the Optima Fund, then if the Index rose by 10% you would expect to see the Optima Fund rise by 14% (1.4 × 10%)."

Loss aversion bias causes investors to hold onto unprofitable investments due to a stronger desire to avoid losses than to seek gains. The feedback from the document states:

"Loss aversion bias states that people generally feel a stronger impulse to avoid losses than to acquire gains. Loss aversion can prevent people from unloading unprofitable investments, even when they see little to no prospect of a turnaround."

The information that is typically included in the Letter of Engagement is the client’s responsibilities. A Letter of Engagement is a document that formalizes the relationship between a registered firm and its client by specifying the duties, responsibilities, and level of service that both parties agree to. It also outlines the fees and charges that apply to the client’s account, the scope and frequency of reporting and communication, and the process for resolving disputes or terminating the relationship. The client’s responsibilities may include providing accurate and complete information, reviewing statements and reports, informing of any changes in circumstances or objectives, and complying with applicable laws and regulations. Therefore, option A is correct regarding what information is typically included in the Letter of Engagement. The other options are not correct or relevant to the Letter of Engagement. Option B is false because the process for complaints is not typically included in the Letter of Engagement; rather, it is part of the Relationship Disclosure Information (RDI) that is provided to clients at account opening and updated as necessary. Option C is false because the investment objective is not typically included in the Letter of Engagement; rather, it is part of the Know Your Client (KYC) information that is collected from clients at account opening and updated as necessary. Option D is false because the payee for deposits is not typically included in the Letter of Engagement; rather, it is part of the account documentation that specifies how clients can deposit or withdraw funds from their accounts. References: [Letter of Engagement | IFIC], [Relationship Disclosure Information | IFIC], [Know Your Client (KYC) | IFIC]

 A commodity pool is a type of mutual fund that can invest in specified derivatives and forward contracts for commodities, such as grains, meats, metals, energy products, and coffee. A commodity pool allows investors to gain exposure to the commodity markets without having to buy or sell the physical commodities themselves. A commodity pool may also use leverage and hedging strategies to enhance returns and reduce risks. Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Commodity Pool: Definition and How It Works - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

Retractable preferred shares are a type of preferred stock that lets the issuer force the redemption of the shares at a set price and time. The issuer can pay cash or common shares to the retractable preferred shareholders.

References = Retractable Preferred Shares: What it is, How it Works, Example, What are Retractable Preferred Shares? Definition, And How Does it Work? - CFAJournal, Retractable Preferred Shares | Example | Feature - Accountinguide

A registrant adds value by helping clients match mutual fund solutions to their needs and objectives, not by making promises or pushing products.

B (low MERs) is one factor, but not the entire scope of advice.

C (guaranteeing performance) is unethical and prohibited.

D (cross-selling) prioritizes the dealer, not the client.

Treasury bills (T-bills) have short maturities and are sold at a discount, with the return being the difference between the purchase price and par value at maturity, without coupon interest. Marketable bonds, however, pay coupon interest. The feedback from the document states:

"Because T-bills have such short maturities, they do not pay any coupon interest; instead, they are sold to investors at a discount from par value. When the T-bill matures, you receive par value. The difference between the price paid and the par value represents your return."

The purpose of holding money market instruments for non-money market mutual funds is to provide liquidity for the fund. If the portfolio manager has an immediate need for cash, such as to pay expenses or meet redemption requests, money market instruments are relatively easy to liquidate because they have short maturities and low credit risk. Money market instruments do not primarily generate investment income that provides investors with preferential tax treatment, as interest income from money market instruments is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate. Money market instruments are not purchased by non-money market funds to satisfy the regulatory requirement of fund diversification, as there is no such requirement for mutual funds. Money market instruments do not ensure that the fair market value of a mutual fund will not drop below a minimal market value, as money market instruments can also fluctuate in value depending on interest rate changes and supply and demand factors. References: Money Market Instruments

The amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC is $950,000. The IPC is a not-for-profit corporation that provides coverage to eligible clients of insolvent members of the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA). The IPC covers up to $1 million per account type per client for losses of securities, cash, and other property held by the insolvent member. The account types include RRSPs, RRIFs, TFSAs, RESPs, and non-registered accounts. Therefore, the client will be eligible for coverage of $950,000 for his RRSP account, which is the value of his securities and cash held by Tradewell Mutual Funds in his RRSP account. The client will not be eligible for any coverage for his non-registered account, as it is held in nominee name, meaning that the securities and cash are registered in the name of Tradewell Mutual Funds on behalf of the client. Nominee name accounts are not covered by the IPC, as they are not considered to be at risk in the event of insolvency. Therefore, option B is correct regarding the amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC. The other options are not correct regarding the amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC. Option A is false because the client will be eligible for some coverage, as his RRSP account is covered by the IPC. Option C is false because the client will not be eligible for coverage of $1.5 million, as his non-registered account is not covered by the IPC. Option D is false because the client will not be eligible for coverage of $550,000, as his non-registered account is not covered by the IPC. References: [IPC Coverage | IFIC], [IPC - Home], [IPC - Coverage]

 A fund of funds is a mutual fund that invests in other mutual funds. This means that there are two levels of management fees: one for the fund of funds itself and one for the underlying funds. Therefore, fund of funds have higher fees than traditional mutual funds that invest directly in securities.

To make a suitable recommendation, Solomon needs to identify how the proposed investment is in alignment with the investor’s profile and holdings. A suitable recommendation is one that meets the investor’s needs, goals, risk tolerance, time horizon, and personal circumstances. It also considers the investor’s existing portfolio and how the new investment would affect its diversification, performance, and risk. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what Solomon needs to do to make a suitable recommendation. The other options are not correct or sufficient to make a suitable recommendation. Option A is false because mutual fund costs are important regardless of the past fund performance, as they reduce the net returns and compound over time. Option B is false because relying on the risk rating of the mutual fund is not enough to offer an investment solution, as it does not reflect the investor’s return expectations, liquidity needs, tax situation, or personal preferences. Option D is false because matching the past rates of return of the mutual fund with what is the anticipated rate of return is not a reliable way to make a recommendation, as past performance does not guarantee future results and may not be consistent with the investor’s risk tolerance or time horizon. References: [Suitability | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Mutual Fund Fees | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Risk Rating | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

Kerry’s taxable income would be $98,000 ($100,000 - $2,000). Using the federal tax rates provided in the image, the first $48,535 of her income would be taxed at 15%, the next $48,534 at 20.5%, and the remaining $931 at 26%. This would result in a total federal tax payable of $18,754. You can see the calculation in detail below:

Taxable Income

Marginal Tax Rate

Federal Tax Payable

$0 - $48,535

15%

$7,280.25

$48,536 - $97,069

20.5%

$9,934.47

$97,070 - $98,000

26%

$539.80

Total

$18,754.52

Note: The final answer is rounded to the closest whole dollar.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 8, Section 8.2; [4]

Sean’s distribution is reinvested at a NAVPU of $19.75 and he receives approximately 31.65 additional units. When a mutual fund declares a distribution, it reduces its NAVPU by the amount of the distribution per unit. In this case, the NAVPU drops from $21 to $19.75 after the distribution of $1.25 per unit. Sean’s distribution is $625 ($1.25 x 500 units), which he reinvests in the mutual fund at the new NAVPU of $19.75. He receives

additional units. The total value of Sean’s mutual fund holdings after the distribution and reinvestment is

(500+31.65)×19.75=$10,500

, not $9,875. The NAVPU of the mutual fund does change after the distribution, regardless of whether Sean reinvests his distribution or not. References: [Unit 7: Mutual Funds Administration]

Factors that increase a mutual fund’s management expense ratio (MER) include investing in foreign equities and paying trailer fees, as these add to operational costs. The feedback from the document states:

"Four factors primarily affect the management expense ratio. Funds that invest in foreign equities; are small in size; are managed by an outside specialist firm; and charge trailer fees will have higher management expense ratios."

Trailer fees are ongoing fees that are paid by mutual fund managers to mutual fund dealers for providing ongoing services to their clients who hold units of their funds. Trailer fees are calculated as a percentage of the value of assets under management (AUM) of the clients who hold units of the fund. Trailer fees are paid out of the management fee that is charged by the mutual fund manager to cover the costs of operating and administering the fund. Therefore, option C is correct regarding mutual fund fees. The other options are incorrect. Option A is false because redemptions are not made from units held by investors to pay trailer fees; rather, trailer fees are paid out of the management fee that is deducted from the net asset value (NAV) of the fund. Option B is false because trailer fees are not only paid to mutual fund dealers when a purchase is made; rather, trailer fees are paid on an ongoing basis as long as the clients hold units of the fund. Option D is false because trading commissions are not paid from the management fee; rather, trading commissions are paid from the trading expense ratio (TER) that reflects the costs of buying and selling securities within the fund. References: [Mutual Fund Fees Explained | Wealthsimple], [Mutual Fund Fees | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Understanding Mutual Fund Fees | Investopedia]

Target-date funds (also called life-cycle funds) automatically adjust their asset allocation (glide path) over time. They start with a growth-oriented strategy (more equities) and gradually shift towards conservative allocations as the target date approaches.

This matches the father’s goal: minimal management required while allowing for growth in earlier years and reduced risk later.

Balanced equity, high-yield income, and global equity funds do not automatically shift allocations over time.

Thus, the most appropriate choice is Target date fund.

The Management Reports of Fund Performance (MRFP) are documents that provide information about a mutual fund’s financial performance, portfolio composition, risk profile, and management expenses. The MRFP are prepared by the fund manager and filed with the securities regulators twice a year, for the semi-annual and annual periods. The MRFP are also made available to the investors on the fund manager’s website or upon request. The MRFP include the following sections:

Financial Highlights: This section summarizes the key financial data of the fund, such as net assets, net asset value per unit, total return, ratios and supplemental data.

Past Performance: This section shows the historical returns of the fund over different time periods and compares them with a benchmark index or category average.

Summary of Investment Portfolio: This section provides a breakdown of the fund’s portfolio by asset class, sector, geographic region, and top holdings. It also shows how the portfolio has changed over the reporting period.

Management Discussion of Fund Performance: This section explains the fund’s investment objectives, strategies, and risks, and analyzes the factors that affected the fund’s performance during the reporting period. It also discloses the fund’s management expense ratio (MER), trading expense ratio (TER), and turnover rate.

Financial Statements: This section presents the fund’s statement of financial position, statement of comprehensive income, statement of changes in net assets attributable to holders of redeemable units, and statement of cash flows. It also includes notes to the financial statements that provide additional information and disclosures.

The MRFP would provide Beatrice with comprehensive information regarding the analysis of financial statements and fund management expenses as it relates to her current mutual fund investment.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 6: Fund Operations and Regulations1

Orel’s goal is to build emergency savings, which means he needs a flexible and accessible account that does not penalize withdrawals. A TFSA is more suitable for this purpose, as it allows tax-free withdrawals at any time and does not affect other income-tested benefits. An RRSP, on the other hand, is designed for long-term retirement savings, and withdrawals are subject to income tax and withholding tax. Moreover, RRSP withdrawals reduce the contribution room permanently, and may affect eligibility for government benefits such as the Canada Child Benefit or the Guaranteed Income Supplement.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 3: Registered Plans - Section 3.1: Registered Retirement Savings Plan (RRSP)1 and Section 3.2: Tax-Free Savings Account (TFSA)2

1: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-3.pdf 2: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-3.pdf

A corporation’s charter specifies the maximum number of authorized shares it may issue. The Registrar (provincial securities administrator) ensures compliance so that a public corporation does not issue more shares than authorized.

Trustees oversee debt obligations.

Portfolio managers manage investments.

Distributors sell securities but do not regulate share issuance.

Thus, the responsible party is the Registrar.

The OTC (dealer) market is a negotiated market where investment dealers (market makers) post bid and ask quotations via electronic platforms.

Mutual fund companies and issuing companies do not post quotes directly.

Retail investors place orders through dealers, but they do not set bid-ask spreads.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Dealers.

A company’s retained earnings statement is a financial statement that shows how the company’s net income is distributed between dividends paid to shareholders and retained earnings, which are the amount of profit that is reinvested in the company. Retained earnings are part of the company’s equity, and they reflect the accumulated earnings that the company has generated over its history, minus any dividends or distributions. Retained earnings can be used by the company for various purposes, such as expanding its operations, developing new products, paying off debt, or buying back shares1

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 3: Equity Securities, Section 5.3.4: Financial Statements

Guaranteed Income Supplement (GIS) and Allowance for the Survivor are both income-tested benefits that are part of the Old Age Security (OAS) program. They are designed to provide financial assistance to low-income seniors who meet certain eligibility criteria. GIS is a monthly payment that supplements the OAS pension for seniors whose income is below a certain threshold. Allowance for the Survivor is a monthly payment for low-income seniors aged 60 to 64 whose spouse or common-law partner has died and who have not remarried or entered into another common-law relationship. The benefit amounts for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depend on the income level of the recipient and are adjusted quarterly based on the Consumer Price Index. The higher the income, the lower the benefit amount, until it reaches zero at a certain income limit. Therefore, eligibility for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depends on income level.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans1

The endowment bias occurs when investors place a higher value on assets they already own compared to the market value, simply because of ownership.

Dave overvalues his property relative to the market.

Farida = representativeness bias.

Kendra = availability bias.

Peter = status quo bias.

Thus, Dave demonstrates endowment bias.

The federal tax on eligible Canadian dividends is calculated as follows:

First, the dividend amount is grossed up by 38%, which means multiplying it by 1.38. This is to account for the corporate tax that has already been paid by the company. Eleanora’s grossed-up dividend is $500 x 1.38 = $690.

Second, the grossed-up dividend is multiplied by the federal marginal tax rate to get the gross federal tax. Eleanora’s gross federal tax is $690 x 0.29 = $200.10.

Third, the grossed-up dividend is multiplied by the federal dividend tax credit rate to get the federal tax credit. This is to avoid double taxation of the dividend income. Eleanora’s federal tax credit is $690 x 0.1502 = $103.64.

Fourth, the federal tax credit is subtracted from the gross federal tax to get the net federal tax. Eleanora’s net federal tax is $200.10 - $103.64 = $96.46.

Therefore, Eleanora will pay $96.46 in federal tax on her dividend. References: How Dividends Are Taxed and Reported on Tax Returns - Investopedia, Dividend Tax Credit in Canada - TurboTax

A bond fund is a mutual fund that invests primarily in bonds and other debt securities. Income from a bond fund will primarily be interest but may also be capital gains if the fund sells bonds that have appreciated in value. Bond funds are not very low risk because they can fluctuate in value depending on interest rate changes and credit risk. If interest rates rise, the value of a bond fund will tend to fall because existing bonds will become less attractive than new bonds with higher rates. Securities regulation does not specify that bond funds must invest in investment grade bonds, although some funds may have this as an investment objective or policy. References: What Is a Bond Fund?

The “Client’s Interest First” standard requires that Dealing Representatives act in the best interest of their clients and place their clients’ interests before their own or their employer’s interests. This means that they must provide clear, accurate, and complete information to their clients about the mutual funds they recommend, including the costs and fees associated with them and how they affect the investment performance. Presenting a fund’s historical performance to anticipate its future return is misleading and does not serve the client’s interest. Using a risk-based approach to select a mutual fund is part of the suitability assessment, but it does not necessarily put the client’s interest first. Accurately documenting the KYC information is important for compliance purposes, but it does not ensure that the recommendation is in the client’s best interest.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8: Suitability and Know Your Client1

Market risk, or systematic risk, arises from factors affecting the entire market, such as changes in inflation or interest rates, and cannot be fully eliminated through diversification. The feedback from the document states:

"Once a portfolio becomes well diversified, the only remaining risk to be concerned about is market risk. Market risk is defined as the variability of a stock or a portfolio in relation to the market as a whole. The process of diversification cancels out much firm-specific risk, so market risk is less than the total risk you would calculate if you looked at each stock separately. Market risk is also referred to as systematic risk and arises from such things as inflation, the business cycle, and interest rates."

Global equity funds are a type of investment fund that invests in equity securities of companies from different countries around the world, including the investment fund manager’s home country. Global equity funds aim to provide diversification and growth potential by taking advantage of the opportunities and risks in various markets and regions. Global equity funds may have different geographic, sectoral, or thematic focuses, depending on their investment objectives and strategies. Global equity funds are different from international equity funds, which invest only in countries outside of the investment fund manager’s home country. Global equity funds are also different from regional or country-specific equity funds, which specialize in one or a few countries or regions. Global equity funds may have higher risk than domestic equity funds, as they are exposed to currency risk, foreign market risk, political risk, and regulatory risk.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

Gerard’s investment time horizon is the length of time he plans to hold his investment until he needs to use the money for his specific goal. In this case, Gerard’s goal is to use his mutual fund portfolio to meet the 20% down payment requirement to buy a house for $650,000. Therefore, his investment time horizon is determined by how long it will take him to accumulate enough money in his portfolio to cover the down payment amount. Assuming that Gerard does not withdraw any money from his portfolio and that his portfolio earns a constant annual rate of return of 6%, we can use the following formula to calculate how long it will take him to reach his goal:

FV=PV×(1+r)n+PMT×r(1+r)n−1​

where:

FV is the future value of the portfolio

PV is the present value of the portfolio

r is the annual interest rate

n is the number of years

PMT is the monthly payment

We can rearrange the formula to solve for n:

n=log(1+r)logPV+PMT×r1​FV−PMT×r1​​​

Plugging in the given values, we get:

n=log(1+0.06)log40,000+1,500×0.061​130,000−1,500×0.061​​​

n=4.98

Therefore, Gerard’s investment time horizon is approximately 5 years, not considering market fluctuations. This means that he will need to invest his money in a way that matches his risk tolerance and expected return for this time period.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.6: Asset Allocation and Diversification, page 4-271

Future Value of an Annuity Definition - Investopedia2

Fund XYZ’s more consistent annual returns (less variation) reduce the likelihood of selling at a loss, especially in volatile markets. The feedback from the document states:

"After finding comparable funds with good long-term performance, look for funds with the best performance from year to year. In comparing two funds, the one with less variation in simple rates of return from year to year is a more consistent performer. Although equity funds are intended for the long-term, if liquidity is needed, the fund with a more consistent performance is less likely to be sold at a loss."

An individual can legally sell mutual funds only after receiving notification of registration from the securities administrator, not merely after completing exams or filing applications. The feedback from the document states:

"Despite receiving notification of successful completion of the required proficiency examination, filing a registration application and paying the required fee, an individual is not officially registered to sell mutual funds until notice has been received from the applicable securities administrator."

Dave invested in a U.S.-dollar denominated mutual fund. Even though the unit price increased (US$15 → US$16), he lost money when converted back to Canadian dollars. This loss was caused by fluctuations in the exchange rate between the Canadian dollar and the U.S. dollar, not the fund’s performance itself.

This is a clear example of exchange rate (currency) risk.

Fund wraps are managed portfolios with pre-selected asset allocation models, where the wrap sponsor is responsible for allocation decisions. The feedback from the document states:

"A fund wrap program provides a series of portfolios with multiple mutual funds to reflect pre-selected asset allocation models. Each model is designed to meet the needs of a group of investors sharing a similar client profile. Responsibility for the asset allocation decision falls to the wrap sponsor."

To protect against a market decline, purchasing put options on an index fund like the iShares S&P/TSX 60 allows the portfolio to offset losses by gaining value if the market falls. The feedback from the document states:

"A fund manager may have experienced a rapid growth in the value of her portfolio, but is concerned that the market may fall. To protect herself against a fall in value, she purchases put options on the iShares S&P/TSX 60 Index Fund (i60s). If the market declines, the fall in value of the portfolio is offset by an increase in the value of the put options."

The Do Not Call List (DNCL) is a national registry of personal telephone numbers that consumers can register to reduce the number of unsolicited telemarketing calls they receive. Telemarketers are required to subscribe to the DNCL and avoid calling the numbers on the list, unless they have an exemption. One of the exemptions is for existing business relationships, which means that a telemarketer can call a consumer who has purchased a product or service from them or their employer within the last 18 months, or who has made an inquiry or application within the last six months. Therefore, Kendrick is still eligible to contact Chandra, who is an existing client of Oak Solid Financial, even if she is on the DNCL registry. However, Kendrick must respect Chandra’s right to request that he stop calling her and remove her number from his contact list.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 1: The Canadian Financial Services Industry1, National Do Not Call List - Canada.ca2

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with Investment Funds in Canada Course References:

The custodian of a mutual fund is responsible for safekeeping assets and handling cash inflows and outflows.

According to CSC, an independent financial organization, usually a trust company, serves as custodian. The custodian collects funds from investors, receives portfolio income, and arranges for distributions and redemptions.

Thus, the correct answer is A. A trust company.

 Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder a right to share in the issuer’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. This means that participating preferred shareholders may receive additional dividends if the issuer performs well. Iliana owns participating preferred shares in the First Canadian Bank, which means she has a right to share in the bank’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

Beta is a measure of the systematic risk of an investment, which is the risk that is related to the movements of the market as a whole. Beta compares the volatility of an investment to the volatility of the market. A beta of 1 means that the investment has the same level of risk as the market, and it tends to move in the same direction and magnitude as the market. A beta of 0 means that the investment has no correlation with the market, and it is unaffected by market fluctuations. A beta greater than 1 means that the investment is more risky than the market, and it tends to amplify the market movements. A beta less than 1 means that the investment is less risky than the market, and it tends to dampen the market movements. Therefore, if an investor was looking for an investment with a risk equal to that of the market, she would want a beta of 1. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.5: Risk and Return of Mutual Funds, page 4-231

Beta Definition - Investopedia2

An annuity provides a steady income stream until the client’s death, suitable for someone with uncertain income sources and no interest in leaving a legacy. The feedback from the document states:

"The client needs a steady source of income from his investment. This rules out a ratio withdrawal plan and a life withdrawal plan. With a fixed-dollar withdrawal plan his capital could be exhausted before he dies. He should choose an annuity that will pay a fixed amount every year until his death. If he lives beyond the guaranteed term, the annuity will cease with his death, but this fact is not important as he does not wish to leave a legacy."

Strategic asset allocation involves selecting a long-term asset mix, monitoring it, and rebalancing as needed to maintain the desired allocation. The feedback from the document states:

"When a portfolio manager develops a strategy to maximize portfolio returns, he or she does so with a particular asset mix or allocation in mind… This base policy mix is called the strategic asset allocation. This is the long-term mix that will be adhered to by monitoring and, when necessary, rebalancing."

A conflict of interest is a situation where an individual or a firm has competing or incompatible interests that may affect their ability to act fairly, honestly, and in the best interest of their clients. A material conflict of interest is a conflict of interest that a reasonable person would expect to know about and that may influence the client’s decision to enter into or maintain a business relationship with the individual or the firm. According to the MFDA rules, Barend has an obligation to identify and address material conflicts of interest in a manner that prioritizes the client’s interest over his own or the firm’s interest1. If a material conflict of interest cannot be addressed in the best interest of the client, Barend must disclose it to the client before opening an account, providing advice, or executing a transaction. The disclosure must be clear, meaningful, and timely, and it must explain the nature and extent of the conflict of interest and how it could affect the client’s interests2. Barend must also obtain the client’s written consent to proceed with the account opening, advice, or transaction despite the conflict of interest. Barend must avoid material conflicts of interest that are prohibited by law or that would result in a breach of his fiduciary duty to the client. Barend must also report any material conflicts of interest to his firm and comply with the firm’s policies and procedures for managing conflicts of interest3. References:

MFDA Rule 2.1.4 - Conflicts of Interest1

MFDA Policy No. 2 - Minimum Standards for Account Supervision2

MFDA Policy No. 9 - Disclosure of Conflicts of Interest (Outside Business Activities)3

Commercial paper is a type of money market security that is issued by corporations and financial institutions to raise short-term funds. Commercial paper has a maturity of less than one year, typically between 30 and 90 days. Commercial paper is unsecured, meaning that it is not backed by any collateral or guarantee. Therefore, commercial paper has the highest degree of risk for the investor among the four types of money market securities listed, as it depends on the creditworthiness and liquidity of the issuer. If the issuer defaults or faces financial difficulties, the investor may lose part or all of their principal. Commercial paper also has a higher interest rate than other money market securities to compensate for the higher risk.

The other types of money market securities are:

Bankers’ acceptances: These are negotiable instruments that are issued by a bank on behalf of a client who needs to finance international trade transactions. Bankers’ acceptances have a maturity of less than one year, usually between 30 and 180 days. Bankers’ acceptances are secured by the bank’s guarantee and the underlying goods or services that are being traded. Therefore, bankers’ acceptances have a lower degree of risk for the investor than commercial paper, as they are backed by the bank’s creditworthiness and the value of the trade transaction.

Treasury bills: These are short-term debt obligations that are issued by the federal government to finance its operations and programs. Treasury bills have a maturity of less than one year, usually between 3 and 12 months. Treasury bills are considered risk-free investments, as they are backed by the full faith and credit of the government. Therefore, treasury bills have the lowest degree of risk for the investor among the four types of money market securities listed, as they have virtually no default risk or liquidity risk. Treasury bills also have the lowest interest rate among the four types of money market securities, as they reflect the risk-free rate of return.

Municipal short-term paper: These are short-term debt instruments that are issued by municipalities or other local governments to finance their capital projects or operating expenses. Municipal short-term paper has a maturity of less than one year, usually between 30 and 270 days. Municipal short-term paper is secured by the taxing power and revenue sources of the issuing municipality or government. Therefore, municipal short-term paper has a lower degree of risk for the investor than commercial paper, as it is backed by the ability and willingness of the issuer to levy taxes and collect revenues.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 5: Fixed-Income Securities, Section 5.1: Money Market Securities, page 5-21

Money Market Definition - Investopedia2

Commercial Paper Definition - Investopedia3

Bankers’ Acceptance (BA) Definition - Investopedia4

Treasury Bill (T-Bill) Definition - Investopedia

Municipal Bond Definition - Investopedia

A registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) is a type of tax-deferred account that allows individuals to save for retirement. Contributions to an RRSP are deductible from taxable income, which means that they reduce the amount of income tax payable for the year. The amount of tax savings from an RRSP contribution depends on the individual’s marginal tax rate, which is the tax rate applied to the next dollar earned. Leira has a marginal tax rate of 45% and may deduct $5,000 in RRSP contributions on her income tax return. If she decides to use her available deduction and assuming this does not reduce her taxable income to a lower tax bracket, by how much will it reduce her tax payable? To answer this question, we can use the following formula: $$(Tax savings = RRSP contribution \times Marginal tax rate)

Segregated funds offer some protection of the capital invested but there is an added cost for the protection. Segregated funds are contracts issued by life insurance companies that invest in underlying funds, similar to mutual funds. Segregated funds have a maturity guarantee and a death benefit guarantee, which ensure that the investor or their beneficiary will receive a certain percentage of their initial investment, regardless of market fluctuations. However, these guarantees come at a cost, which is reflected in higher management fees and insurance fees than mutual funds. Segregated funds do not have high returns, as they depend on the performance of the underlying funds. Segregated funds can be redeemed before the maturity date of the contract, but they may be subject to early redemption fees or market value adjustments. Segregated funds do not flow through capital losses to investors, as they are not considered owners of the underlying fund. Segregated funds are subject to insurance regulation, not securities regulation, because they are distributed by life insurance agents. References: Segregated Funds

Government of Canada Bonds are fixed income securities issued by the federal government that pay a fixed rate of interest (coupon) and return the principal amount (par value) at maturity. They are considered low risk investments, as they are backed by the full faith and credit of the government. They also provide regular income to investors, as they pay interest semi-annually. For Sheldon, who has a low risk profile and an investment objective of receiving regular income, 3% Government of Canada Bonds at par would be an appropriate investment recommendation, as they would match his time horizon of 5 years and provide him with a stable and predictable income stream. The other options are not suitable for Sheldon, as they involve higher risk, volatility, or complexity.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 2: Fixed Income Securities, Section 5.2.1: Government Bonds1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.2.1 2

A target date fund is a type of mutual fund that adjusts its asset allocation and risk level according to a predetermined future date, such as retirement or college education. A target date fund typically starts with a higher proportion of stocks and a lower proportion of bonds and cash, and gradually shifts to a more conservative mix as the target date approaches. This is called the fund’s glide path, which shows the asset mix through the life of the fund until the future date. Russell is permitted to include this information on his website, as it is factual and relevant to the fund’s characteristics and suitability. Russell is also permitted to include information about the expected decline in the fund’s risk level as the fund reaches its target date, as this is part of the fund’s objective and strategy. However, Russell is not permitted to include any information that implies or suggests that the target date fund offers a guaranteed return or a promised growth on the future date, as this would be misleading and inaccurate. Target date funds are not guaranteed investments, and their performance depends on the market conditions and the fund manager’s decisions. Russell must not make any false or exaggerated claims about the target date fund’s benefits or returns on his website.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 7: Know Your Product1

Lenny would qualify for a partial OAS pension, because he meets the following criteria:

•He is 65 years old or older.

•He is a Canadian citizen or a legal resident at the time of his OAS pension application.

•He has resided in Canada for at least 10 years since the age of 18.

The amount of his partial OAS pension would be proportional to the number of years he has lived in Canada after the age of 18, divided by 40. For example, if he has lived in Canada for 15 years, he would receive 15/40 or 37.5% of the full OAS pension1

References = web search results from search_web(query="Old Age Security pension eligibility")

 Daisy could seek permission from her dealer to request a client mobility exemption with the Alberta Securities Commission. This exemption allows a registered individual in one jurisdiction to service a client who moves to another jurisdiction, without having to register in the new jurisdiction, subject to certain conditions. Some of these conditions are that the individual must be registered with a dealer that is registered in both jurisdictions, the individual must not have more than five clients in the new jurisdiction, and the individual must notify the regulator in the new jurisdiction of the exemption. References: Client Mobility Exemption

 A lifecycle fund is a type of asset-allocation fund that automatically adjusts its portfolio composition according to the investor’s age and risk tolerance. As the investor gets closer to their retirement date or target date, the fund shifts from more risky assets, such as stocks, to less risky assets, such as bonds and cash. This is done to reduce the volatility and preserve the capital of the fund as the investor approaches their withdrawal phase. Therefore, statement A is true about lifecycle funds. Statement B is false because different lifecycle funds may have different initial allocations depending on their target dates and risk profiles. Statement C is false because the asset allocation of a lifecycle fund changes over time according to a predetermined glide path that gradually reduces risk. Statement D is false because investor income is not the only basis for changing the asset allocation of a lifecycle fund; other factors, such as age, risk tolerance, investment objectives, and time horizon, are also considered. References: Life-Cycle Fund: How They Work, Examples, Lifecycle Funds | The Thrift Savings Plan (TSP), What Is a Lifecycle Fund? | The Motley Fool

A front-end load is a sales charge paid at the time of purchase, calculated as a percentage of the investment amount.

A. $1,500 × 3% = $45

B. $1,000 × 4% = $40

C. $5,000 × 1% = $50

D. $3,000 × 2% = $60

✅ Most expensive = $60 (Option D)

Correction: Answer = D. Purchase $3,000 at 2% front-end load

Explicit costs of operating a mutual fund include:

Management fees,

Operating expenses,

Custodial fees,

Record-keeping,

Marketing/distribution.

These costs are embedded in the MER (Management Expense Ratio) and are borne by the investors, as they reduce fund returns.

The manager (B) oversees operations but does not personally cover costs.

The sponsor (C) establishes the fund, and the distributor (D) sells units, but neither pays the ongoing operating costs.

The holding out rule is a regulatory requirement that prohibits registered individuals from using any title or designation other than their registration category when dealing with clients or potential clients. The purpose of this rule is to prevent misleading or confusing representations about the qualifications, roles, and responsibilities of registered individuals. According to Section 4.4 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), individuals who are registered to sell mutual funds must use the title “dealing representative” when holding out to clients or potential clients. Therefore, Ai Fen must prominently note “dealing representative” on her business card to comply with the holding out rule. The other options are not valid registration categories for selling mutual funds. Option B is a generic term that does not specify the type of securities that can be sold. Option C is a registration category for individuals who trade securities on behalf of an investment dealer. Option D is a professional designation that does not indicate registration status. References: [Holding Out Rule], [Registration Categories], [Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations]

The duty of care includes Know Your Client (KYC) and due diligence. Due diligence means ensuring that product recommendations are suitable, unbiased, and based on a careful review of the product’s risks, costs, and client needs.

Jane violated due diligence by recommending a fund based on a sales incentive ($50 bonus) rather than analyzing suitability for her clients.

The correct answer is A. Indicates how much an investment’s performance fluctuates around its average historical return.

Standard deviation is a measure of how spread out the data points are from the mean value. It is calculated as the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences from the mean. Standard deviation can be used to assess the volatility or risk of an investment by showing how much the returns deviate from the expected or average return. A higher standard deviation means that the investment has a wider range of possible outcomes, which implies more uncertainty and risk. A lower standard deviation means that the investment has a narrower range of possible outcomes, which implies more stability and consistency.

B. A standard deviation greater than one indicates a higher level of volatility than the market. This statement is incorrect because the standard deviation of an investment is not directly comparable to the standard deviation of the market, unless they have the same mean return. The standard deviation of an investment only measures the absolute variation of the returns, not the relative variation to the market. A better measure of the relative volatility of an investment to the market is beta, which is the ratio of the covariance of the investment and the market to the variance of the market.

C. Measures the systematic risk of an investment relative to a benchmark index. This statement is incorrect because the standard deviation of an investment does not distinguish between the systematic risk and the unsystematic risk. The systematic risk is the risk that affects the entire market or a large segment of the market, such as inflation, interest rates, or political events. The unsystematic risk is the risk that affects a specific investment or a small group of investments, such as management decisions, product quality, or lawsuits. The standard deviation of an investment captures both types of risk, whereas the beta of an investment only captures the systematic risk.

D. Standard deviation is also referred to as beta. This statement is incorrect because standard deviation and beta are different measures of risk. Standard deviation measures the absolute variation of the returns of an investment, whereas beta measures the relative variation of the returns of an investment to the market. Standard deviation is a measure of total risk, whereas beta is a measure of systematic risk.

The Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA) is the self-regulatory organization (SRO) that regulates mutual fund dealers in Canada, except in Québec. The MFDA is responsible for setting and enforcing rules and standards of conduct for its members and their representatives, as well as conducting compliance reviews and investigations. Rashad works for a mutual fund dealer that is registered in all provinces and territories of Canada, including Alberta, where he is based. Therefore, his client files will be part of a compliance review by the MFDA, which is the applicable SRO for his firm and jurisdiction.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7: The Regulatory Environment, Lesson 1: The Regulatory Framework, Section 7.1.2: Self-Regulatory Organizations (SROs) 1; MFDA website 2

Fixed assets are long-term tangible assets used in business operations, not held for resale (e.g., land, buildings, machinery, equipment, computers).

Marketable securities (A) are current assets (short-term investments).

Inventories (B) are current assets.

Trade receivables (D) are current assets (accounts receivable).

The 2-year simple return is calculated as:

Return = (Price at the end of the period + total cash flow earned during the period - Price at the beginning of the period) / Price at the beginning of the period.

Total cash flow = $0.25 (Year 1) + $0.25 (Year 2) = $0.50.

Return = ($10.20 + $0.50 - $10.00) / $10.00 = $0.70 / $10.00 = 7.00%.

The feedback from the document confirms:

"Return = (Price at the end of the period + cash flow earned during the period - Price at the beginning of the period) / Price at the beginning of the period. In this case, ($10.20 + $0.50 - $10.00) / $10.00 = 7.00%."

A balanced mutual fund is a type of fund that invests in a mix of equities and fixed income securities, with the aim of achieving both growth and income objectives. A balanced fund typically has a target asset allocation that is specified in its mandate, and may vary within a certain range depending on market conditions. A balanced fund may also distribute interest, dividends, and capital gains to its unitholders. The Laurentian Fund is an example of a balanced fund, as it limits its equity exposure to 60% and holds between 40 - 60% in fixed income at all times.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6: Mutual Funds, Lesson 1: Mutual Funds Overview, Section 6.1.3: Types of Mutual Funds 1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 6: Mutual Funds, Question 6.1.3 2

 A vulnerable client is a client who, due to their personal circumstances, is especially susceptible to harm or disadvantage when dealing with financial services. Vulnerability can be permanent or temporary, and can arise from various factors, such as physical or mental health conditions, cognitive impairments, low financial literacy, language barriers, abuse, or discrimination. A vulnerable client may have different needs and challenges than other clients, and may require more support and protection from their adviser. Ginger would be categorized as a vulnerable client because she has reached retirement age and is easily confused, which may affect her ability to understand and make informed decisions about her financial situation. She may also be at risk of being exploited or misled by others who may take advantage of her confusion. Therefore, Ginger’s adviser should take extra care to ensure that she is treated fairly and that her best interests are served.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8: Suitability and Know Your Client1

Scarcity is a characteristic of investment capital that refers to the limited availability of capital relative to the demand for it. Scarcity affects the price and return of capital, as well as the allocation of capital among different issuers and sectors. When capital is scarce, issuers have to compete for it by offering higher returns or lower prices, or by adjusting their financing strategies. When capital is abundant, issuers have more access to it at lower costs or higher prices, or by diversifying their sources of capital. In this case, Raybert has a very short-term investment objective and has decided to purchase money market instruments. There are plenty of 90-day money market securities available for him to choose from, but he can only afford to purchase one. This means that the issuers of these securities are exposed to the scarcity of capital, as they have to attract Raybert and other investors with similar objectives by offering competitive rates or discounts.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 1: Economic Factors and Financial Markets, Section 5.1.1: Characteristics of Investment Capital1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.1.1 2

When an investor purchases a mutual fund, the price is based on the next NAVPS (Net Asset Value Per Share) calculated after the order is entered. Orders placed before 4:00 p.m. ET are priced at that day’s closing NAV; orders after 4:00 p.m. are priced using the next business day’s NAV.

Since the order was placed at 2:30 p.m. ET, today’s NAV applies.

To fulfill the know your client (KYC) obligation, an advisor must collect and document information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. The KYC rule is a regulatory requirement that ensures that the advisor understands the client’s needs and goals, and provides suitable recommendations that match the client’s profile. In this case, Cosmo has provided some information about his personal and financial situation, such as his age, occupation, income, assets, and inheritance. He has also given some indication of his investment objectives, such as saving for retirement, and his investment knowledge, such as making his own investment decisions and preferring balanced funds. However, he has not disclosed his risk tolerance, which is his willingness and ability to accept fluctuations in the value of his investments. Risk tolerance is an important factor that affects the choice of investment strategies and products. Therefore, to complete the KYC process, the advisor needs to obtain additional information about Cosmo’s risk tolerance. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 1: The Investment Funds Industry, Section 1.4: The Know Your Client (KYC) Rule, page 1-111

Know Your Client (KYC) Definition - Investopedia2

 Underwriting is the process through which an individual or institution takes on financial risk for a fee. This risk most typically involves loans, insurance, or investments. In the case of securities, underwriting involves conducting research and assessing the degree of risk each applicant or entity brings to the table before assuming that risk. During the underwriting process, investment bankers raise investment capital from investors on behalf of corporations and governments issuing securities. They also help determine the company’s underlying value compared to the risk of funding its IPO. References: Underwriting: Definition and How the Various Types Work - Investopedia, The future of insurance underwriting | Deloitte Insights

A Trusted Contact Person (TCP) is someone that an investor authorizes their brokerage firm to contact in limited circumstances, such as if the broker has trouble reaching the investor or has a reasonable belief that the investor’s account may be exposed to possible financial exploitation. A TCP does not have the authority to make changes to the investor’s account or direct trading, unlike a Power of Attorney (POA). A TCP also does not have the power to place a temporary hold on the investor’s account, which is a decision made by the brokerage firm. Therefore, C is the correct answer. References: What is a Trusted Contact Person and why you should name one, Do You Need A ‘Trusted Contact’ To Help Protect You?, Investor Bulletin: Please Consider Adding a Trusted Contact Person to Your Account

Fixed-income securities, including mortgage funds, decrease in value when interest rates rise because existing mortgages with lower rates become less attractive compared to new, higher-yielding mortgages. The feedback from the document states:

"Fixed-income securities move in the opposite direction to market interest rates… Let’s assume you are the fund manager for a mortgage mutual fund, which has mortgages paying 5%. If mortgage rates suddenly increase to 6%, only the interest rates on newly negotiated mortgages would increase… The investor would not pay you par for a 5% rate. If you wished to sell the mortgages, then you would have to lower your price until the price paid—given the 5% fixed payments to be made—results in a return to the buyer of 6%, the ‘going rate’ on mortgages. In other words, the market value of your par value mortgages must fall."

Contractionary monetary policy is used when the economy is overheating or facing inflationary pressure.

The Bank of Canada increases interest rates, which leads to reduced borrowing and lending.

This action decreases the money supply in circulation and reduces the availability of credit to consumers and businesses.

Therefore, the correct effect of contractionary monetary policy is that it reduces both money supply and credit in the economy.

Interest income distribution is a type of income that a mutual fund pays to its investors from the interest earned on its fixed-income investments, such as bonds and mortgages. Interest income distribution is taxed as ordinary income at the investor’s top marginal tax rate, which is the highest tax rate that applies to their income bracket. Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Interest Income and Taxes - Fidelity, Topic No. 403, Interest Received | Internal Revenue Service

The inflation rate is calculated by subtracting the previous year’s CPI from the current year’s CPI, dividing by the previous year’s CPI, and multiplying by 100. In this case:

(146.9 - 140.6) / 140.6 = 6.3 / 140.6 ≈ 0.0448 or 4.48%.

The feedback from the document confirms:

"To calculate the rate of inflation over a period of time one must subtract the CPI at the beginning of the period from the CPI at the end of the period and then divide the result by the CPI at the beginning of the period. In this example, the solution can be derived as follows: (146.9 - 140.6) / 140.6."

Taline’s risk profile should be “low” because her risk capacity is low and she cannot afford large investment losses. Risk capacity is the degree of risk that an investor must take in order to achieve their financial goals, while risk tolerance is the degree of risk that an investor is willing to take. Risk capacity is more important than risk tolerance in determining an investor’s risk profile1. Taline has a low risk capacity because she lives on a low, fixed income and cannot afford to lose money. Her risk tolerance may be high, but that does not mean she should take more risk than she can handle. Faruq should not override Taline’s risk capacity or assess her risk profile based on the higher of her risk tolerance and risk capacity, as that would be unsuitable and unethical. References: Unit 3: Suitability

Standard equity funds focus on capital gains and may include dividend income, but unlike dividend funds, they do not prioritize capital preservation. The feedback from the document states:

"A standard equity fund seeks to earn some combination of dividend income and capital gains from investment in Canadian common stocks. This objective appears to be similar to that of a preferred dividend fund. The difference between the two is that an equity fund usually has a much stronger capital gains focus. Note as well that equity funds make no specific attempt to preserve capital; in other words, equity funds are willing to put capital at substantially greater risk than preferred dividend funds."

Misrepresenting risks violates the MFDA Rule No. 2 requirement to deal fairly, honestly, and in good faith with clients. The feedback from the document states:

"MFDA Rule No 2 ‘Business Conduct’ sets out the standards applicable to all MFDA members and their respective dealing representatives. In this case, the representative has not dealt honestly with the client by misrepresenting information."

An RRSP must be terminated by the end of the calendar year in which the holder turns 71. At that time, assets must either be:

Withdrawn in full (taxable),

Converted to a Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF), or

Used to purchase an annuity.

Thus, the correct age is 71.

Adele has a high-risk profile and an excellent understanding of equities. Therefore, it would be appropriate for Danny to recommend growth funds. However, since Adele has $1,000,000 to invest, it would be prudent to diversify her investments and invest equally in all 3 funds. This way, she can benefit from the exposure to different regions and sectors, and reduce the impact of market fluctuations on her portfolio. Based on the table, all 3 funds have the same 5-year annualized returns net of MER, which is 15%. However, they have different MERs and Sharpe ratios. The MER is the fee charged by the fund manager for managing the fund, and the Sharpe ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return. A lower MER means a lower cost for the investor, and a higher Sharpe ratio means a higher return per unit of risk. Therefore, investing equally in all 3 funds would allow Adele to achieve a balanced trade-off between cost and performance. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.2: Types of Mutual Funds, page 4-6

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 5: Fixed-Income Securities, Section 5.5: Risk-Return Trade-Offs, page 5-14

Sharpe Ratio Definition - Investopedia

The standard of integrity requires dealing honestly, fairly, and with good faith in all personal and professional interactions with clients, including personal financial dealings.

Compliance (B) ensures adherence to laws, regulations, and firm policies.

Professionalism (C) relates to competence and ethical conduct.

Confidentiality (D) relates to safeguarding client information.

The statement that is correct about Maalik’s identification requirements is option A. According to Section 7 of the Proceeds of Crime (Money Laundering) and Terrorist Financing Act (PCMLTFA), registered firms and individuals must report any suspicious transactions or attempted transactions to FINTRAC, which is Canada’s financial intelligence unit that collects, analyzes, and discloses information related to money laundering and terrorist financing activities. A suspicious transaction or attempted transaction is one that there are reasonable grounds to suspect that it is related to a money laundering or terrorist financing offence. Therefore, if Maalik determines that there is anything suspicious about John’s transaction, he must report the matter to his dealer, who must report it to FINTRAC within 30 days of making the determination. The other statements are not correct about Maalik’s identification requirements. Option B is false because Maalik does not need to report John as a PEFP to his dealer; rather, he must take reasonable measures to determine whether John is a PEFP or a family member or close associate of a PEFP, and if so, he must obtain senior management approval before opening an account for John, take enhanced measures to verify John’s identity, and conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of John’s account activity. Option C is false because Maalik does not need to collect personal information about John and report it to his dealer if John wants to make a large cash deposit; rather, he must verify John’s identity using an original, valid, and current document or information from a reliable source, keep a record of John’s name and address and the date and amount of the deposit, and report any large cash transactions of $10,000 or more in Canadian currency or its equivalent to FINTRAC within 15 days of receiving the cash. Option D is false because Maalik does not need to report the attempt to his dealer if John attempts to make a suspicious deposit; rather, he must report the attempt directly to FINTRAC within 30 days of detecting the suspicion, regardless of whether the transaction was completed or not. References: [FINTRAC - Home], [FINTRAC - Reporting], [FINTRAC - Guideline 2: Suspicious Transactions], [FINTRAC - Guideline 6A: Record Keeping and Client Identification for Financial Entities]

The original capital contributed to a Registered Educational Savings Plan (RESP) is not taxed upon withdrawal, while other amounts, such as income or grants, are taxable to the beneficiary. The feedback from the document states:

"The original capital withdrawn from an RESP is not taxed; all other amounts are taxed in the hands of the beneficiary."

Implied needs of your clients are needs reflected by statements made by clients regarding problems and dissatisfactions1. For example, a client may say “I’m worried about outliving my savings” or “I don’t understand how this investment works”. These statements imply that the client has a need for retirement planning or financial education, respectively. Implied needs are different from explicit needs, which are statements of wants and needs made by clients1. For example, a client may say “I want to save for my child’s education” or “I need a low-risk investment”. These statements express the client’s goals and preferences clearly. Statements made by you showing readiness to solve a client’s problem are not implied needs, but rather responses to implied needs1. For example, you may say “I can help you create a retirement plan that suits your lifestyle” or “I can explain how this investment works and what are the benefits and risks”. Statements made by clients expressing the desire for lower commissions are not implied needs, but rather objections or concerns that may arise during the sales process2. For example, a client may say “Your fees are too high” or “I can get a better deal elsewhere”. These statements may indicate that the client is not convinced of the value of your service or product, or that they are trying to negotiate a lower price. References: Unit 2: Know Your Client, Unit 10: Sales Process

 Relationship Disclosure Information (RDI) is a document that provides important information about the nature and scope of the relationship between a registered firm and its clients. It covers topics such as the products and services offered by the firm, the fees and charges applicable to the client’s account, the risks associated with investing, the conflict of interest management policies of the firm, and the dispute resolution services available to the client. According to Section 14.2 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), registered firms must provide RDI to their clients before they purchase or sell securities for them or advise them to do so. Registered firms must also update RDI in a timely manner if there are any significant changes to it. To evidence that they have satisfied their RDI obligation, registered firms may retain a copy of the RDI in the client file with detailed notes to confirm that they have provided and explained RDI to their clients. This is one of the acceptable methods suggested by Alberta Securities Commission (ASC) in its presentation on RDI1. Delivering RDI only upon request or using a letter of engagement are not sufficient methods to comply with NI 31-103. Providing and explaining Fund Facts is a separate obligation under NI 31-101 Mutual Fund Distribution Rules. References: Relationship Disclosure Information August 2021, Relationship Disclosure Information, Relationship Disclosure Information

A position of influence is an outside activity that places the Dealing Representative in a position of power or influence over a client or potential client, such as a trustee, executor, or director of a charitable organization. A position of influence may create a conflict of interest or a potential conflict of interest between the Dealing Representative and the client. Therefore, the MFDA rules require that a Dealing Representative must report any position of influence to the dealer and obtain the dealer’s approval before engaging in such activity. The dealer must also ensure that the position of influence does not impair the Dealing Representative’s ability to act in the best interests of the client and that the client is aware of the nature and extent of the position of influence12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 1: The Financial Services Industry - Section 1.3: Know Your Client (KYC)3 and web search results from search_web(query="positions of influence and mutual fund dealers association rules")12

3: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-1.pdf

A conflict of interest is a situation in which a person’s personal interests conflict with their professional duties or responsibilities. A conflict of interest should be avoided or disclosed to prevent harm to the client or the registrant. In this case, Arilla’s client, Gwen, wants to co-invest with Arilla in units of a real estate limited partnership. This is a conflict of interest because Arilla may have a personal interest in the investment that could influence her advice to Gwen or affect her ability to act in Gwen’s best interest. For example, Arilla may benefit from the investment at Gwen’s expense, or she may have access to information that Gwen does not have. Therefore, this is a conflict of interest that should be avoided by Arilla. She should decline Gwen’s offer and explain that it would compromise her professional obligations and fiduciary duty to Gwen.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 2, Section 2.3

Gross profit is calculated as sales minus the cost of goods sold. For Widget Inc.: $200,000 - $80,000 = $120,000. The feedback from the document states:

"Sales are reduced by the expenses that were incurred in order to generate the goods sold (cost of goods sold). These expenses include the cost of inventories used to produce the goods as well as the labour that went into their production. The sales revenue, net of the cost of producing those goods, is known as gross profit. In this case, gross profit = $200,000 - $80,000 = $120,000."

D is correct because a passive portfolio management strategy is based on the assumption that the markets are efficient and that it is impossible or very difficult to consistently find mis-priced securities that can generate abnormal returns. A passive portfolio manager aims to replicate the performance of a market index or benchmark by holding a diversified portfolio of securities that mirrors the index or benchmark. A passive portfolio manager does not believe in using active strategies such as market timing, security selection, or sector rotation. The manager does not need to use benchmarks (A), as they are essential for measuring and evaluating the performance of a passive portfolio. The manager does not wish to create capital gains in the mutual fund by frequently buying and selling stocks (B), as this would incur higher transaction costs and taxes, and deviate from the index or benchmark. The manager does not believe he or she can outperform the market with his or her stock picking skills ©, as this would imply an active portfolio management strategy. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

A yield curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the interest rates (or yields) and the term to maturity of different fixed income securities, such as bonds or debentures. A normal yield curve is upward sloping, meaning that the interest rates increase as the term to maturity increases. This is because investors typically demand higher compensation for lending their money for longer periods of time, as they face more uncertainty and risk. Therefore, a normal yield curve implies that short term rates are lower than long term rates.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5, Section 5.2

A normal yield curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the interest rates and the maturities of different fixed income securities. It slopes upward to the right, meaning that longer-term bonds have higher yields than shorter-term bonds. This reflects the fact that investors demand higher compensation for lending money for longer periods of time and taking on more risk. A normal yield curve indicates that investors expect the economy to grow steadily and inflation to remain stable.

The management expense ratio (MER) is the percentage of a fund’s assets that is paid to the fund manager for operating and managing the fund. A higher MER means that more of the fund’s returns are eaten up by fees, leaving less for the investors. Therefore, Fontaine Equity Fund’s higher MER of 2.99% contributes to its lower 5-year annualized return of 11.25%, compared to Chamberlain Equity Fund’s MER of 2.57% and 5-year annualized return of 13.42%. Therefore, D is the correct answer. , Management Expense Ratio (MER): Definition and How It Works - Investopedia

Mortgage funds have lower interest rate sensitivity than bond funds because mortgage rates change less frequently, and interest is paid monthly rather than semi-annually, reducing the impact of rate changes. The feedback from the document states:

"Interest rate sensitivity is expected to be lower for mortgage funds than for bond funds for two reasons. First, mortgage rates change much less frequently than interest rates on bonds… Second, mortgages by nature have less interest rate risk than bonds. The reason, in part, is that interest on mortgages is paid monthly, while interest on bonds is paid semi-annually."

The correct answer is D. If Jacinta shares the list with Saabir without obtaining the clients’ prior consent, she will be in breach of the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA).

PIPEDA is the federal privacy law for private-sector organizations in Canada. It sets out the ground rules for how businesses must handle personal information in the course of their commercial activity. One of the key principles of PIPEDA is consent. This means that organizations must obtain meaningful consent from individuals before collecting, using, or disclosing their personal information, unless an exception applies. Consent must be obtained for the original purpose of collecting the information, and for any new purpose that arises later. Consent can be express or implied, depending on the sensitivity of the information and the reasonable expectations of the individual.

In this scenario, Jacinta’s clients’ personal information is sensitive, as it relates to their financial situation and investment goals. Jacinta’s clients would not reasonably expect that their information would be shared with Saabir, who is not affiliated with WealthSource Partners Inc., for the purpose of marketing insurance products. Therefore, Jacinta must obtain express consent from her clients before disclosing their information to Saabir. If she does not, she will violate PIPEDA and risk legal action from her clients or from the Office of the Privacy Commissioner (OPC).

Interest rate risk is the primary risk for fixed-income securities, as their value decreases when interest rates rise due to fixed cash flows. The feedback from the document states:

"Interest rate risk is the fundamental risk factor for fixed-income securities such as bonds, mortgages and preferred shares. As interest rates move up, the value of a fixed-income security falls. This is because the cash flow from the fixed-income security is fixed."

Ian, as a Stage 1 – Early Earning Years investor, has no family or financial commitments, allowing for a higher risk tolerance. An asset allocation with a heavy equity weighting, such as 80% in equity funds, is suitable. The feedback from the document states:

"Ian would be considered a Stage 1 – Early Earning Years investor. Stage 1 investors, in general, are free of family and financial commitments, and would typically have a higher ability to tolerate risk. Thus, with its higher level of risk and lower component of income-based investments, 10% in a bond fund, 80% in equity funds and 10% in a money market fund would be most likely to be suitable."

A DPSP is a type of registered plan that allows employers to share their profits with their employees. Employees do not contribute to a DPSP, and they do not pay taxes on the contributions until they withdraw them. Employers can deduct their contributions to a DPSP from their taxable income, subject to certain limits and conditions.

References = IFSE CIFC Module 6: Registered Plans, page 6-12. Contributing to a deferred profit sharing plan - Canada.ca

The statement that is true about Marta’s situation is option D. A registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered account that provides income in retirement by converting savings from an RRSP or other sources. A RRIF holder must withdraw a minimum amount from their RRIF each year, starting from the year after they open their RRIF. The minimum amount is calculated based on a percentage factor set by the Canada Revenue Agency (CRA) and the value of the RRIF at the beginning of each year. However, due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the CRA has reduced the required minimum withdrawals from RRIFs by 25% for 2020 and 2021. Therefore, Marta does not have to withdraw the minimum amount this year if she chooses to take advantage of this temporary measure. Therefore, option D is true about Marta’s situation. The other statements are not true about Marta’s situation. Option A is false because she will not be able to continue contributing to her RRIF and be subject to the same annual limits as her RRSP; rather, she will not be able to make any further contributions to her RRIF once she converts her RRSP to a RRIF. Option B is false because she will not incur a tax liability when she converts her RRSP to a RRIF; rather, she will only pay tax on the amount that she withdraws from her RRIF each year. Option C is false because she will not be subject to annual maximum withdrawal limits; rather, she will be able to withdraw any amount from her RRIF as long as she meets the minimum withdrawal requirement. References: [Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Making RRIF withdrawals | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [RRIF minimum withdrawal factors], [RRIFs: Temporary 25% reduction in minimum withdrawals for 2020 and 2021]

A negative Sharpe ratio indicates that the fund’s return is less than the risk-free rate, as the numerator (Fund Return - T-bill Rate) is negative. The feedback from the document states:

"The Sharpe ratio is calculated as (Fund Return - T-bill Rate) ÷ Fund Standard Deviation. A negative Sharpe ratio means the mutual fund has a return less than the risk-free rate, as the numerator of the ratio would be negative."

Unique risk, also known as firm-specific risk, is reduced through diversification, as it relates to volatility caused by information specific to individual securities. The feedback from the document states:

"If a security’s price is affected by new information, and if new information arrives frequently, then its price will tend to be volatile and so will the returns that it generates. This source of volatility is specific to a given security and is known as unique risk. Diversifying a portfolio reduces unique risk."

The S&P 500 is the appropriate benchmark for researching the largest listed public companies in the US market. The feedback from the document provides:

"Index: S&P 500, Description: The 500 largest publicly held companies that trade on U.S. markets, Performance uses: U.S. equity funds."

MFDA Policy No. 3 requires that all written client complaints, including emails, be acknowledged in writing. The feedback from the document states:

"MFDA Policy No. 3 specifies the minimum procedures for dealing with written client complaints (including emails). All written client complaints must be acknowledged in writing."

Back-end load funds often have a decreasing redemption fee (deferred sales charge) schedule, which reduces the longer the investor holds the fund. The feedback from the document states:

"Fund sponsors use a decreasing redemption fee (deferred sales charges) schedule to recover their costs from investors who opt out of the fund early. In most cases, redemption fees on a back-end load fund decrease the longer the investor holds the fund."

Mutual fund orders placed after the market closes are processed using the next business day's net asset value per unit (NAVPU). Since Derek submitted his sell order at 8:00 p.m. EST on Friday, January 6 (after the close of the markets), his proceeds will be based on the NAVPU for Monday, January 9, the next business day.