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CISI UAE-Financial-Rules-and-Regulations CISI UAE Financial Rules and Regulations Exam Exam Practice Test

CISI UAE Financial Rules and Regulations Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

When a firm applies for a licence, it is only necessary to provide an exit strategy plan covering contract termination with an outsourced party if the firm intends to:

Options:

A.

Use cloud computing services

B.

Use a service based outside the State

C.

Enter into a contract for five or more years

D.

Enter into a contract which is not legally enforceable

Question 2

The last trading day for an India Gold Quanto Futures contract is:

Options:

A.

one business day prior to the last business day of the delivery month

B.

two business days prior to the last business day of the delivery month

C.

the 25th calendar day of the delivery month

D.

four business days prior to the 25th calendar day of the delivery month

Question 3

To qualify as a big block deal on the ADX’s E-Trading system, the securities to be traded must be a minimum of what proportion of the issuer’s capital?

Options:

A.

0.5%

B.

1.0%

C.

2.0%

D.

2.5%

Question 4

The Authority is permitted to cancel the licence of a licensed body if it fails to practise any financial activity within what prescribed period after obtaining the category licence?

Options:

A.

6 months

B.

12 months

C.

18 months

D.

24 months

Question 5

In cases where securities are bought and sold during the same trading session, the client must have in its cash account enough:

Options:

A.

credit to cover the value of purchase

B.

credit to cover the value of sale

C.

credit to cover the value of any losses

D.

securities to the value of purchase

Question 6

Why would the Authority board resolve temporarily to halt trading in the shares of any company?

Options:

A.

A written complaint is made relating to a market activity

B.

A threat to the proper and regular working of that market arises

C.

It transpires that the spouse of a board member is a director of that entity

D.

It does not have the technical equipment necessary to conduct its activity electronically

Question 7

Where an individual opens a trading account with a broker in order to trade securities listed on the ADX, the investor number allocated will be subdivided according to:

Options:

A.

The tax status of the investor

B.

The nationality of the investor

C.

The size of the investor's portfolio

D.

The status of the investor's bank account

Question 8

The summary of an in-kind shares evaluation report must state the:

Options:

A.

Book value of the asset

B.

Fair value of the asset

C.

Qualifications of the evaluator

D.

Evaluator's company

Question 9

An error was made by a broker which led to a trade being conducted using the wrong trading account number. If the trader submitted a request to have the number amended 40 minutes after the end of the trading session, the amendment would only be made if:

Options:

A.

an alteration fee is paid at the same time

B.

the correction is within a 5% error margin

C.

an impact assessment gives acceptable results

D.

the circumstances are considered to be exceptional

Question 10

Unless otherwise agreed, a broker must submit to the client a statement of account that outlines the client’s balance of securities and cash, and all transactions executed every:

Options:

A.

month

B.

3 months

C.

6 months

D.

12 months

Question 11

As part of its obligations under the Authority regulations, a commodities CCP carries out periodic back tests. Why are these tests required?

Options:

A.

To avoid the need for regular stress testing

B.

To ensure stress-test scenarios are adequate

C.

To establish the extreme limits of default-fund tolerance

D.

To find the correct level of default-fund contributions

Question 12

When collecting data from official authorities, evaluators of investment fund in-kind shares are required to abide by the principles of honesty, justice and:

Options:

A.

confidentiality

B.

governance

C.

equality

D.

prudence

Question 13

A key reason why the regulator applies financial promotion rules is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

the market is kept competitive

B.

the customers are treated fairly

C.

the impact of operational risk is avoided

D.

the available product range is maximised

Question 14

What rule applies to a foreign brokerage company applying for remote access to the ADX if it has previously been refused a licence by a regulator equivalent to the Authority?

Options:

A.

The company will be required to provide additional collateral

B.

The company will only be granted limited privileges

C.

The application will be reviewed by the board of the ADX

D.

The application will automatically be rejected

Question 15

An Insiders Register should be prepared for securities issued by:

Options:

A.

The company concerned only

B.

The company and parent company only

C.

The company, the parent company and its subsidiaries only

D.

The company, the parent company, its subsidiaries or related companies

Question 16

The last trading day for a West Texas Intermediate (WTI) Light Sweet Oil Futures contract is:

Options:

A.

Two business days prior to the last business day of the delivery month

B.

The 15th calendar day of the delivery month

C.

Four business days prior to the 25th calendar day of the month preceding the delivery month

D.

The second-last business day of the second month preceding the delivery month

Question 17

If the perpetrator of a money laundering crime is a repeat offender, what impact does this have on the minimum fine compared to a first offence?

Options:

A.

It is increased by 50%

B.

It is doubled

C.

It is tripled

D.

It is quadrupled

Question 18

When promoting private funds, related materials must:

Options:

A.

advise that the funds cannot be transferred to a third party

B.

receive prior approval of the content from the Authority

C.

refrain from using public advertisement media of certain types, including audio and video, with the exception of read media

D.

clarify the private fund's specific nature and include the required disclaimer laid down by the Authority

Question 19

The semi-annual financial report for a local investment fund must be audited by an external auditor within what maximum period following the end of the reporting period?

Options:

A.

35 days

B.

45 days

C.

2 months

D.

3 months

Question 20

Applicants for an Authority licence must supply details covering the retention of employee data for what minimum period from the date of the last update?

Options:

A.

Three years

B.

Five years

C.

Seven years

D.

Ten years

Question 21

What is the minimum fine that can be levied on a person found guilty of financing an illegal organisation?

Options:

A.

AED 150,000

B.

AED 200,000

C.

AED 250,000

D.

AED 300,000

Question 22

When applying for an Authority licence to operate a crypto fundraising platform, the need to demonstrate the independence of its fundraising functions is required only if the operator:

Options:

A.

Intends conducting other financial services activities

B.

Plans to issue security tokens

C.

Is a subsidiary of another financial institution

D.

Owns crypto assets as a separate entity

Question 23

The regulations regarding Key Investor Information Documents for self-managed funds will be breached if the document includes:

Options:

A.

Reference to any guarantees

B.

Reference to any evaluation

C.

Disposal information

D.

Complaints information

Question 24

Under what circumstances must licensed entities provide the Authority with copies of appropriateness reports issued to clients?

Options:

A.

Routinely on a monthly basis

B.

Routinely on a quarterly basis

C.

Only if a complaint is made

D.

Only if requested by them to do so

Question 25

Where an applicant for a financial activities licence uses a cloud-based server, they must set out provisions to ensure the outsourced party can operate with zero data loss for what stated period?

Options:

A.

Three years

B.

Five years

C.

Seven years

D.

Ten years

Question 26

If there is a material change in the nature of the relevant software, the regulations state that investors who have accepted an offer of crypto assets must be notified:

Options:

A.

promptly in advance

B.

immediately after implementation

C.

within no less than 7 days

D.

within no less than 14 days

Question 27

What action will the CSD Department take shortly after uploading a shareholders' register onto the ADX's electronic systems?

Options:

A.

Issue e-registration slips to all the shareholders

B.

Notify the Authority that this process has been completed

C.

Send a copy of the e-register to the issuer for reconciliation purposes

D.

Place a back-up copy off-site for disaster-recovery purposes

Question 28

What is the minimum fine that can be levied on someone who commits a money laundering crime through an organised crime group?

Options:

A.

AED 200,000

B.

AED 300,000

C.

AED 400,000

D.

AED 500,000

Question 29

Which of the following is an administrative penalty that can be imposed on financial institutions that violate the law and regulations in relation to money laundering and terrorism financing?

Options:

A.

A penalty of no less than AED 5,000 and no more than AED 1,000,000 for each violation

B.

A penalty of no less than AED 15,000 and no more than AED 5,000,000 for each violation

C.

A penalty of no less than AED 50,000 and no more than AED 5,000,000 for each violation

D.

A penalty of no less than AED 100,000 and no more than AED 10,000,000 for each violation

Question 30

Which of the following financial activities comes under the fifth category licence?

Options:

A.

Arrangement and advice

B.

Credit rating agencies

C.

Dealing in securities

D.

Dealing in investments

Question 31

An in-kind shares evaluation report must be based on data covering what maximum period before the evaluation date?

Options:

A.

One month

B.

Two months

C.

Three months

D.

Four months

Question 32

Which of the following customer due diligence measures should be taken if a client is a foreign politically exposed person?

Options:

A.

Conduct a prescribed risk / benefit analysis

B.

Seek Authority approval to proceed

C.

Examine the latest Interpol watch list

D.

Attempt to establish the source of the funds

Question 33

Where a brokerage firm on the DFM has a client with a debit balance, the regulations prevent the firm from:

Options:

A.

accepting new orders from the client

B.

providing investment advice to the client

C.

paying any cash to the client

D.

selling securities on the client’s behalf

Question 34

The DFM's Professional Code of Conduct requires brokerage firms to take reasonable steps to determine the identity of their clients. For corporate persons, this should include:

Options:

A.

Full name and nationality of any portfolio manager

B.

Profession, exact address, PO Box and phone number

C.

Commercial register number and commercial licence

D.

Nature of the entity, its legal form, type and capital

Question 35

Following an IPO, within how many business days from the date of the registration certificate issued by the Authority must the Special Purpose Acquisition Company submit a request to the market to list the shares and warrants issued by it?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Five

Question 36

An appropriateness report must state:

Options:

A.

The professional status of the author

B.

The consequences of ignoring the advice

C.

The validity period of the decision

D.

The reasoning behind the assessment

Question 37

The disclosure of a licensed body’s legal status, including the fact that it is licensed by the Authority, is important because:

Options:

A.

it ensures that no clients suffer from perceived or actual misbehaviour at the hands of a firm which is regulated

B.

it enables those that might suffer from perceived or actual misbehaviour at the hands of a firm to raise their concerns with the regulator

C.

it forces firms to disclose their regulatory status and that they are subject to the Authority’s control and supervision

D.

it allows third party firms to use, utilise, or copy the Authority’s logo for any reason and this reassures clients

Question 38

A brokerage firm’s records include client agreements, selling orders and accounts. Under the Professional Code of Conduct, which of these does the DFM have the right to access and review?

Options:

A.

Client agreements and selling orders only

B.

Selling orders and accounts only

C.

Accounts and client agreements only

D.

Client agreements, selling orders and accounts

Question 39

A good-till-cancelled order on the DFM will remain available for execution unless it is cancelled by:

Options:

A.

the investor

B.

the broker

C.

the clearing member

D.

the market committee

Question 40

On the Dubai Gold & Commodities Exchange, how many delivery months are available for trading in Dubai India Quanto Crude Oil futures?

Options:

A.

2

B.

6

C.

12

D.

18

Question 41

Where a financial analyst wants to conduct a personal transaction which relates to investment research being undertaken, what additional requirement is normally imposed?

Options:

A.

Signing of a non-conflict disclaimer

B.

Approval from the firm’s legal or compliance department

C.

Approval from the Authority or Central Bank

D.

Signing of a guarantee undertaking

Question 42

What is the maximum term of imprisonment that can be imposed on a person who attempts to commit the crime of money laundering?

Options:

A.

Three years

B.

Five years

C.

Seven years

D.

Ten years

Question 43

When an application is made to list a crypto asset on a crypto asset exchange, the documentation provided to the Authority must include details of:

Options:

A.

The methods of disaster recovery proposed

B.

The confidentiality agreement with the software provider

C.

Any hacking vulnerabilities of the underlying technology

D.

Any losses previously incurred by the applicant

Question 44

What happens to a day order to sell on the DFM if it is not executed by the end of that day?

Options:

A.

The seller can choose to cancel it or hold it over until the next trading session

B.

The trader can choose to cancel it or hold it over until the next trading session

C.

It automatically expires

D.

It is automatically held over

Question 45

Order cancellation can be carried out on the trading system. What happens if the order has already been traded?

Options:

A.

The original order is recovered

B.

The request is rejected

C.

Execution priority is given

D.

An adjustment is made

Question 46

The DFM’s Professional Code of Conduct requires brokerage firms to take reasonable steps to determine the identity of their clients. For natural persons, this should include:

Options:

A.

full name of portfolio manager

B.

profession, exact address, PO Box and phone number

C.

commercial register number and commercial licence

D.

nature of the entity, its legal form, type and capital

Question 47

Membership of an Authority regulated market is obligatory for which of the following entities?

Options:

A.

Licensed brokers

B.

Listed joint-stock companies and licensed brokers

C.

Listed joint-stock companies, licensed brokers and other listed entities

D.

Listed joint-stock companies, licensed brokers and any other type of business entity

Question 48

A firm offering custody, clearing and recording, is required to have a minimum paid-up capital of:

Options:

A.

AED 30 million

B.

AED 50 million

C.

AED 100 million

D.

AED 150 million

Question 49

The minimum paid-up capital requirement for credit rating agencies is:

Options:

A.

AED 5 million

B.

AED 10 million

C.

AED 30 million

D.

AED 50 million

Question 50

In order to be authorised to provide custody, clearing and recording services, which of the following professional roles would the Authority expect to see within a firm acting as registrar of a private joint-stock company?

Options:

A.

Category Manager

B.

Investment Manager

C.

Operations Manager

D.

Broker Representative

Question 51

When debt securities are offered through a public subscription, the offeror will be required to announce any replacement of the trustee:

Options:

A.

immediately

B.

within a maximum of 48 hours

C.

within a maximum of 72 hours

D.

after 5 working days

Question 52

If an error in the final cash settlement price of an equity index comes to the attention of the Exchange more than 30 minutes after the publication of the final cash settlement price, what happens?

Options:

A.

No correction will be made

B.

The provider will correct it

C.

It will be re-determined

D.

Liability is apportioned

Question 53

What happens if a listed company has its shares suspended for six months or more?

Options:

A.

They are moved to a second category of listing

B.

They are moved to a first category of listing

C.

They face a potential fine from the Authority

D.

They are placed under greater regulatory scrutiny

Question 54

Brokers must pay the value of securities sold on behalf of their clients, after deducting commissions and fees, before:

Options:

A.

The end of one day or the end of the settlement period set by the DFM

B.

The end of two days or the end of the settlement period set by the DFM

C.

The end of three days or the end of the settlement period set by the DFM

D.

The end of four days or the end of the settlement period set by the DFM

Question 55

Under what circumstances, if any, may financial analysts commit to providing favourable research coverage to issuers of securities?

Options:

A.

Only if the research is provided free or for a nominal charge

B.

Only if the issuer belongs to the same parent group as the analyst's company

C.

Only if the analyst signs a non-disclosure agreement with the issuer

D.

Not under any circumstances