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BCS ISEB-SWT2 ISTQB-BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Practice Test

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Total 338 questions

ISTQB-BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Question 1

A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.

i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.

ii. Testing is outsourced.

iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.

iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.

v. Testing is performed by the business.

vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.

Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit

Options:

A.

i, ii, iv, vi

B.

ii, i, v, vi

C.

ii, v, i, iii

D.

i, iv, v, vi

Question 2

Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B.

Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.

C.

Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.

D.

Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

Question 3

Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.

B.

Testing is isolated from development.

C.

Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.

D.

Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.

Question 4

Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test planning and control

B.

Test implementation & execution

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D.

Test project closure

Question 5

During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit

Options:

A.

ISO 9126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:

Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions.

B.

ISA 4126-1 ‘Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:

Quality model’ is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions.

C.

BS-7925-2 ‘Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component testing level and on system testing level.

D.

SY-395-01 ‘Standard for East Coast Hospital software’ is a regional standard adapted from a national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be used also by other types of software system in the region.

E.

IEEE 829 ‘standard for software test documentation’ is an international standard to be following mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models.

Question 6

Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Management review

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Audit

E.

Technical review

F.

Informal review

G.

Assessment

Question 7

Which test management control option is most appropriate to adopt under these circumstances? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Introduce mandatory evening and weekend working to retrieve the 3 week slippage.

B.

Reconsider the exit criteria and review the test plan in the context of the current situation.

C.

Advise the user community regarding the reduced scope of requirements and the additional incremental delivery.

D.

Arrange a meeting with the user community representatives to discuss the user interface.

Question 8

Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Testing for performance problems

B.

Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company

C.

Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing

D.

Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment

Question 9

Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Inspections

C.

Expert interviews

D.

Independent assessments

Question 10

Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?

Options:

A.

Functionality

B.

Usability

C.

Supportability

D.

Maintainability

Question 11

Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same. B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved. C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

Options:

A.

A, C and D and E are true; B is false.

B.

A, C and E are true; B and D are false.

C.

C and D are true; A, B and E are false.

D.

B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

Question 12

Complete statement and branch coverage means..?

Options:

A.

That you have tested every statement in the program

B.

That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program

C.

That you have tested every IF statement in the program

D.

That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

Question 13

The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Percentage of business requirements exercised

B.

Percentage of planned hours worked this week

C.

Percentage of countries that have test scenarios

D.

Percentage of test iterations completed

Question 14

As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most appropriate to use? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Decision Table Testing

B.

Boundary Value Analysis

C.

Error Guessing

D.

Exploratory Testing

Question 15

Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits

Options:

A.

It will extend the development team’s abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities.

B.

It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.

C.

Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule.

D.

More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.

Question 16

Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains! 1 credit

Options:

A.

High level of documentation

B.

Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions

C.

Traceability to requirements

D.

Non-functional testing

E.

Master test planning

F.

Test design techniques

G.

Reviews

Question 17

You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Safety

C.

Portability

D.

Reliability

Question 18

You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.

B.

Recommendations for taking controlling actions

C.

Status compared against the started exit criteria

D.

Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved

Question 19

Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits

Options:

A.

If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.

B.

If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.

C.

TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.

D.

TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.

Question 20

Model characteristics:

Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit

Options:

A.

5 maturity levels

B.

Focussed on higher level testing

C.

20 key areas

D.

Highly related to CMMI

E.

Continuous model

F.

Staged model

G.

Focussed on component and integration testing

Question 21

The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit

Options:

A.

ISO 9126

B.

IEEE 829

C.

BS 7925/2

D.

DO-178B

Question 22

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

Question 23

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Options:

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

Question 24

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

Question 25

In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test planning

B.

Test execution

C.

Test management

D.

Test design

Question 26

Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

Options:

A.

Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations

B.

Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system

C.

Activities to deploy the system in the user environment

D.

Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations

E.

Development activities for unit and integration testing

F.

Reviews on requirements documentation

G.

Defining test environment requirements for system testing

Question 27

Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Quality of the specification

B.

Availability of end-users

C.

The costs of hardware and tools

D.

Unknown input quality due to third party development

Question 28

In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit

Options:

A.

The entry and exit criteria for each test phase

B.

Test training needs for the project resources

C.

The test design techniques to be used

D.

Test performance indicators

E.

The test schedule

Question 29

You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit

Options:

A.

A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.

B.

A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.

C.

A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.

D.

A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.

Question 30

Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

Options:

A.

Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing

B.

Targets certain types of faults

C.

Will guide experienced testers to find defects

D.

Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques

E.

More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility

F.

Will make non-systematic testing redundant

G.

Will reduce the need for early reviews

Question 31

Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits

Options:

A.

All supported credit cards

B.

Language localization

C.

Valid and invalid advances

D.

Usability

E.

Response time

Question 32

Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits

Options:

A.

An approach to regression testing

B.

A list of boundary values for “advance amount”

C.

A description of dependencies between test cases

D.

A logical collection of test cases

Question 33

Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.

Question # 33

Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing to verify the business process

B.

Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements

C.

Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance

D.

Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution

Question 34

Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK

B.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK

C.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

D.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

Question 35

The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits

Options:

A.

The bidder’s test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.

B.

The bidder’s project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.

C.

The bidder’s test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.

D.

The bidder’s project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.

Question 36

Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits

Options:

A.

In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.

B.

The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.

C.

The test cases do not cover the key requirements.

D.

The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.

Question 37

Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at least be raised. 1 credit

Options:

A.

Has there been sufficient comparison of tools?

B.

What are the problems we are trying to address?

C.

Do we have a set of tool requirements to validate the tool against?

D.

How will the implementation be organized?

E.

Which project will be selected to perform the tool pilot?

F.

Is customized training available?

G.

How will the change process be managed?

Question 38

Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Integration with other tools

B.

Learning time required to use the new tool

C.

Tool portability

D.

Evaluation of suitable tools

Question 39

Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? 1 credit

Options:

A.

Test environment more complex

B.

Define expectation for tasks and deliverables

C.

Clear channels of communications

D.

Possibly different cultures

E.

Testing of non-functional requirements

F.

Audit trail from requirements to test cases

G.

Applying test automation

Question 40

What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits

Options:

A.

16

B.

2

C.

1

D.

63

Question 41

What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits

Options:

A.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing

B.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing

C.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning

D.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning

Question 42

Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits

Options:

A.

A person with the ability to complete tasks

B.

A quality assurance officer

C.

A person with in-depth technical skills

D.

A person who brings new ideas to the team

Question 43

Which of the following would be the TWO most appropriate examples of entry criteria documented in the system integration test plan? 2 credits

Options:

A.

The percentage of decision coverage achieved during unit testing.

B.

The availability of the latest version of the capture-replay tool (for testing the interface with the newly developed test management tool).

C.

The sign-off of a performance test software release note (test item transmittal report) by both development and testing showing that system performance meets the specified acceptance criteria.

D.

The percentage of acceptance test procedures scheduled for execution.

E.

The percentage of requirements coverage achieved during system integration test.

Question 44

Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits

i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.

ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.

iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.

iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(ii) and (iv)

Question 45

Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks? 3 credits

Options:

A.

The skills and experience of developers to correct the failures.

B.

The standards used for the requirements specification.

C.

The metrics recorded from testing the capture-replay tool.

D.

The number of testers in the company and their grade.

Question 46

As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit

Options:

A.

The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.

B.

Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.

C.

Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.

D.

Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.

Question 47

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:

a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test

b. strategy document

c. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource

d. requirements

e. A detailed schedule of testing activities

f. The development deliverables to be tested

g. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when

h. Level of requirements coverage achieved

Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1 credit

Options:

A.

a

B.

b

C.

c

D.

d

E.

e

F.

f

Question 48

Which THREE activities would be valid steps during the development of the test strategy?2 credits (2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

Options:

A.

Identify test staff members that will be involved in the system test

B.

Define test career paths

C.

Understand the software development life cycle used by the software house

D.

Assess the testing that needs to be done to minimize the risks

E.

Issue the test strategy document for review

F.

Define a master test plan template

G.

Perform a project risk analysis

Question 49

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

Question 50

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U

Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V

Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X

Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y

Refer to the exhibit

Question # 50

Options:

A.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B.

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

D.

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

Page: 1 / 34
Total 338 questions