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ASQ CSQE Certified Software Quality Engineer Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 280 questions

Certified Software Quality Engineer Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following review meetings are held to examine aggregated performance information?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Management

C.

Retrospectives

D.

Post implementation

Question 2

Which of the following categories describes acquirer-type stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Distributors: developers, suppliers

B.

Distributors, suppliers, users

C.

Indirect user, direct user, customers

D.

Indirect user, direct user, distributor

Question 3

Under which of the following major Cost of Quality categories would testing a software upgrade be classified?

Options:

A.

Appraisal

B.

Prevention

C.

Internal failure

D.

External failure

Question 4

Code coverage analyzers are useful for ensuring which of the following?

Options:

A.

Requirements completeness

B.

Design traceability

C.

Test case effectiveness

D.

Code cohesion

Question 5

Which of the following is the primary input to functional testing?

Options:

A.

Requirements

B.

Design

C.

Source code

D.

Architecture

Question 6

Which of the following statements would meet the requirements for developing an appropriate quality objective for software products?

Options:

A.

“Develop 100 lines of code per staff, per month.”

B.

“Reduce cost of rework by 15% by the end of the fourth quarter.”

C.

“Increase profit margins and gains for each new or revised product release.”

D.

“Increase process inspections to meet international standards for software performance.”

Question 7

Which of the following is a defect prevention activity?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

External audit

C.

Training

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 8

Which of the following requirements statements is written in such a way that it can be validated?

Options:

A.

“The system shall respond to some signals with a red or green light.”

B.

“The system shall work according to user requirements.”

C.

“The system response time shall be operator defined.”

D.

“The system shall be available at least 99.98% of the time.”

Question 9

The highest risk associated with ambiguous requirements for requirements analysts is

Options:

A.

they may be checked through twice

B.

they are not compliant with ISO 9001

C.

their reviews may take longer than planned

D.

they will build the wrong software product

Question 10

A strong customer feedback management process primarily helps an organization improve

Options:

A.

profitability

B.

existing products

C.

company stock price

D.

software development time

Question 11

Which of the following corrective actions is the first action to take when a project experiences a significant deviation on baselined budgets, baselined schedules, or required quality levels?

Options:

A.

Add resources and continue with the plan.

B.

Cancel the project because of the deviation.

C.

Create a new baseline and continue with the plan.

D.

Realign project actuals and continue with the plan.

Question 12

A use case is described as a technique that illustrates the

Options:

A.

internal view of the system

B.

design of the software

C.

functionality of the system

D.

steps taken by the developer

Question 13

According to the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP), which of the following security principles apply to developing secure software applications?

Options:

A.

Detecting intrusions with the application software and responding to attackers

B.

Depending on obscurity for secrecy of sensitive data

C.

Using layered defense or defense in depth

D.

Using complex security mechanisms for complex software

Question 14

A company uses a feature rating system with the following values.

1 = Completely dissatisfied

2 = Somewhat dissatisfied

3 = Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied

4 = Somewhat satisfied

5 = Completely satisfied

This rating system is based on what type of measurement scale?

Options:

A.

Nominal

B.

Ordinal

C.

Interval

D.

Ratio

Question 15

During an audit, the lead auditor’s primary responsibility is to

Options:

A.

decide which procedures are to be audited

B.

collect data and materials presented during the audit

C.

keep the audit team focused on the audit scope

D.

develop and distribute the audit checklist

Question 16

The software configuration management (SCM) planning process includes

Options:

A.

identifying; analyzing; and mitigating SCM risks

B.

establishing and documenting SCM policies for the organization

C.

monitoring the performance and effectiveness of SCM processes

D.

defining the specific SCM roles and responsibilities for the project

Question 17

Which of the following sets of reviews is considered an example of a project phase gate review?

Options:

A.

Management and retrospective reviews

B.

Management and ready to ship reviews

C.

Architectural design and retrospective reviews

D.

Architectural design and ready to ship reviews

Question 18

Which of the following roles acts as the final arbitrator for any audit-related issues that cannot be handled at a lower level?

Options:

A.

The client

B.

The auditee

C.

Lead auditor

D.

Auditee management

Question 19

Which of the following activities best evaluates the effectiveness of a software testing process based on test execution documents?

Options:

A.

Counting the total number of defects found to determine the software’s quality

B.

Analyzing defect trends and resolution times to assess the quality of the testing

C.

Reviewing the number of test cases executed per day to measure tester productivity

D.

Assessing the uniformity of test case design to ensure consistency across the testing team

Question 20

Company Q has contracted with a vendor to convert source data from its customer’s proprietary coding structure to XML. Although the XML data parses cleanly at the vendor’s site, it generates parsing errors when run with Company Q’s parser. The vendor contends that the product meets specification because the contract did not require the use of a specific parser. The best way for Company Q to eliminate this risk in the future is to require in the contract that

Options:

A.

vendors be pre-certified by Company Q

B.

vendors be included in the design review process

C.

prototypes be demonstrated and approved

D.

vendors validate their products using Company Q’s platform

Question 21

One of the biggest challenges in software testing is knowing

Options:

A.

which functions to test

B.

which tests to use

C.

when to start testing

D.

when to stop testing

Question 22

In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs is most basic?

Options:

A.

Safety

B.

Belonging

C.

Physiological

D.

Self-actualization

Question 23

Which of the following lifecycle models is designed to mitigate risks during development?

Options:

A.

Incremental

B.

Spiral

C.

Waterfall

D.

Rapid application development

Question 24

A sprint started with 354 requirements. As the sprint progressed, 14 requirements were introduced, 6 requirements were removed, and 28 requirements were changed. What was the requirements volatility for this sprint?

Options:

A.

8.8%

B.

11.9%

C.

13.5%

D.

15.7%

Question 25

Which of the following characterizes a usability requirement?

Options:

A.

The number of software users

B.

The useful life of a system

C.

The variety of tasks a user can perform

D.

The ease of using a system

Question 26

Which of the following statements is true about component reuse?

Options:

A.

The more a developer knows about the implementation, the more reusable a component will be.

B.

Information-hiding impedes the development of reusable components.

C.

Development costs are improved by reusable components.

D.

Modifying a previously used module is an example of module reuse.

Question 27

Software configuration status accounting is the process of

Options:

A.

partitioning the software product into formally identified configuration items

B.

systematically controlling changes to software items under configuration control

C.

recording and reporting of information needed to effectively manage a software configuration

D.

providing objective assurance that the software configuration items being built match their requirements

Question 28

Software security is developed to address which of the following types of communication threats?

Options:

A.

Intentional attacks

B.

Unintentional attacks

C.

Physical attacks

D.

Natural disasters

Question 29

One of the direct benefits of improved software quality is

Options:

A.

an improved organizational management structure

B.

a more disciplined development process

C.

a reduction in the number of defects

D.

a reduction in the tools used to evaluate the product

Question 30

Which of the following examples best represents an effective facilitator?

Options:

A.

Clarifies team member key points

B.

Directs and controls team member activities

C.

Allows for discussion to focus on team members

D.

Reinforces communication from active participants

Question 31

During the requirements planning stage, management ' s responsibility is to

Options:

A.

provide effort estimates for implementation

B.

ensure that appropriate stakeholders are involved

C.

confirm customer requirements

D.

define the quality criteria for the project

Question 32

Which of the following activities can be performed during the requirements phase?

Options:

A.

Data normalization

B.

Acceptance test planning

C.

Functional testing

D.

Reliability modeling

Question 33

An effective team facilitator should have which of the following characteristics?

Options:

A.

Neutrality

B.

Decision-making ability

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Competitiveness

Question 34

In a software development company, which of the following authorities is responsible for establishing the company ' s quality policies?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Quality management

C.

Engineering development teams

D.

A cross-functional ream of developers and managers

Question 35

Which of the following tests is most appropriate for efficiently determining if the software handles time zones correctly?

Options:

A.

Fault insertion

B.

Boundary value

C.

Fault-error handling

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

Question 36

Which of the following approaches best facilitates the analysis of software product and process metrics to enhance monitoring and reporting techniques?

Options:

A.

Conducting regular audits to ensure compliance with industry standards

B.

Integrating software development tools for better workflow visualization

C.

Implementing automated testing tools to increase the frequency of data collection

D.

Using statistical methods to determine correlations between process efficiencies and product defects

Question 37

Which of the following usage metrics is most effective for capacity planning of a data warehouse?

Options:

A.

Queries per user

B.

Queries per timeframe

C.

Query latency per user group

D.

Queries per user group per timeframe

Question 38

Which of the following is a responsibility of a lead auditor?

Options:

A.

Submitting the audit report

B.

Determining the scope of the audit

C.

Determining the corrective actions required

D.

Performing the initial review of the quality system

Question 39

Which of the following types of meetings is structured most like a program review meeting?

Options:

A.

Daily feedback

B.

Scrum of Scrums

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Backlog refinement

Question 40

Which of the following scenarios warrants the adoption of software configuration management tools?

Options:

A.

A project with short timelines to completion

B.

A simple project with few files and little complexity

C.

A complex project with multiple modifications and frequent change requests

D.

A project without security requirements or specified control over files and changes

Question 41

Which of the following actions will have the greatest impact on defect removal efficiencies?

Options:

A.

Avoiding style issues during reviews

B.

Holding inspections of requirements and design

C.

Conducting formal testing by trained specialists

D.

Performing code inspections

Question 42

Which of the following information is considered part of the software baseline?

Options:

A.

Test logs

B.

Test plan and test cases

C.

User survey and their results

D.

Software metrics and summarized data

Question 43

The need to perform supplier evaluations can be reduced under which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

The contract with the supplier specifies software quality requirements.

B.

The supplier agrees to correct any software defects found.

C.

The supplier demonstrates an effective software quality management system.

D.

The supplier provides the customer with internal audit results that show “no problems found.”

Question 44

When lines of code are used as a software metric, counting rules must be based on

Options:

A.

criteria established by the requirements

B.

predefined criteria

C.

a line-by-line code review

D.

module interfaces

Question 45

Which of the following best defines the total cost of quality for a software project?

Options:

A.

Quality assurance and testing budgets

B.

Fixing defects and maintenance

C.

Prevention, appraisal, and failures

D.

Planning, designing, and testing

Question 46

Preventing or eliminating the causes of injury and damage is the best defense against which of the following?

Options:

A.

Critical failures

B.

Product liability

C.

Market volatility

D.

Inadequate capability

Question 47

Which of the following methods is an example of dynamic analysis?

Options:

A.

Piloting

B.

Peer reviews

C.

Quality gates

D.

Mathematical proofs

Question 48

Which of the following types of tests should be run on an installation of a new client server development environment that has 2 to 25 users in order to ensure it meets the company ' s requirements?

Options:

A.

Maintainability tests

B.

Boundary value tests

C.

Efficiency tests

D.

Performance tests

Question 49

Which of the following techniques will improve the accuracy of data collection the most?

Options:

A.

Automating the data evaluation process

B.

Training staff m the data gathering process

C.

Defining the data gathering time frame

D.

Analyzing post-project data

Question 50

Which of the following lifecycle models would be most appropriate to use if the requirements are well known?

Options:

A.

spiral

B.

iterative

C.

waterfall

D.

incremental

Question 51

A software developer is replacing a higher level code with a test code that establishes a function and passes test data to that function What type of test environment is the developer using

Options:

A.

Regression

B.

Static

C.

Driver

D.

Stub

Question 52

Which of the following actions can a company take to reduce the risk associated with integrating a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) spreadsheet package into its own software product?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to adhere to the keens mg agreement for product fixes.

B.

Audit the vendor ' s quality- system.

C.

Require the vendor to place the object code into escrow.

D.

Test the product to determine whether it satisfies critical functions.

Question 53

Which of the following documents must be under configuration control?

Options:

A.

Problem issues

B.

Control chains

C.

Test procedures

D.

Burn charts

Question 54

During what time period is the software configuration management plan implemented?

Options:

A.

From the requirements phase through the maintenance phase of the software lifecycle

B.

After the software product is placed into production

C.

From the requirements phase through the testing phase of the software lifecycle

D.

During the code generation phase of the lifecycle

Question 55

Which of the following verification and validation techniques is used to verify that the completed requirements and designs conform to their requirements specifications?

Options:

A.

Feasibility analysis

B.

Execution of test cases

C.

Functional configuration audits

D.

Mathematical proofs of correctness

Question 56

During the design review of several sections (modules) of software, the reviewers find an unusually high number of defects After defect correction and testing, which of the following can be expected of these sections?

Options:

A.

They will be free of defects.

B.

They might need less testing than other sections

C.

They will need less test documentation than other sections.

D.

They might have additional defects.

Question 57

The following data flow diagram was created for a project.

Question # 57

The X in this diagram represents which of the following?

Options:

A.

A timing delay

B.

A data store

C.

An I/O interrupt

D.

A sub-process of P1

Question 58

Which of the following outputs is most likely to result from a sprint retrospective?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder feedback

B.

Refined product backlog

C.

Product enhancement request

D.

Continuous improvement action

Question 59

Which of the following factors is important in a software product m terms of its adaptability?

Options:

A.

Efficiency

B.

Accessibility

C.

Trainability

D.

Portability

Question 60

What type of information should a project ' s configuration status accounting communicate?

Options:

A.

Budget updates for the project

B.

Changes to the project plan

C.

Activity on baselined items

D.

Change control board minutes

Question 61

Which of the following benefits is related to DevOps when it is used to facilitate development activities?

Options:

A.

Reducing time to market

B.

Minimizing software releases

C.

Increasing return on investment

D.

Standardizing organizational processes

Question 62

The long-term success of a software subcontractor is dependent on which of the following factors?

Options:

A.

Profit margin

B.

Customer satisfaction

C.

Productivity levels

D.

Technology trends

Question 63

One of the requirements in a software quality plan is to measure the average time software performs without a problem in a production environment during regular business hours under usual workload. This is an example of which of the following quality* attributes?

Options:

A.

Timeliness

B.

Availability

C.

Performance

D.

Reliability

Question 64

Defect prevention should be initiated during the

Options:

A.

test phase

B.

requirements phase

C.

design phase

D.

coding phase

Question 65

Which of the following actions would most effectively analyze the impact of new software quality objectives on existing process metrics?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the change logs of recent software updates

B.

Surveying user satisfaction after implementing new features

C.

Updating the software documentation to reflect new quality standards

D.

Comparing historical and current data to assess trends in quality metrics

Question 66

Which of the following statements is true about designing test cases to provide complete coverage of a complex system?

Options:

A.

It is easy to accomplish in a short amount of time.

B.

It is easy to accomplish with an adequate schedule.

C.

It is feasible with automated tools.

D.

It is generally impossible, regardless of the schedule or the tools.

Question 67

Which of the following documents is examined in a high-level architectural design review?

Options:

A.

Acceptance test plans

B.

Detailed software designs

C.

External interface specifications

D.

Software requirements specifications

Question 68

Once a problem has been identified in the problem resolution process, which of the following steps should be taken next?

Options:

A.

Search for solutions

B.

Take corrective action

C.

Determine probable causes

D.

Seek authority to act

Question 69

What type of questions should developers ask customers when discussing requirements at the inception of the project?

Options:

A.

context-free

B.

detail-driven

C.

multiple-choice

D.

yes/no

Question 70

The most important reason for standardizing software development processes is to

Options:

A.

meet ISO 9001 requirements

B.

deliver quality software on schedule and within budget

C.

ensure that employees comply with established procedures

D.

ensure that new employees are trained m established procedures

Question 71

When considering protection against data intrusion, an organization will

Options:

A.

trend the number of security breaches

B.

improve recovery time from system failures

C.

have limitations on who can access the system

D.

switch to a degraded mode of operation when encountering a breach

Question 72

Which of the following disadvantages are associated with the " formal meeting " technique of oral communication?

Options:

A.

Loss of non-verbal communication, no permanent record, and time consuming

B.

Loss of non-verbal communication, one way communication, and all topics may not be relevant to all team members

C.

Can degrade into time wasters, can be disruptive, and requires considerable planning and skills to achieve positive impression

D.

Can degrade into time wasters, some people feel uncomfortable offering opinions in public, and difficult for remote team members

Question 73

When performing top-down testing, which of the following tools is used in place of a module that is not yet developed?

Options:

A.

Stubs

B.

Driver

C.

Hamess

D.

Test script

Question 74

What type of technology- is designed to provide organizational partners with real-time access to information on a business-to-business architecture?

Options:

A.

Embedded system

B.

Encrypted email

C.

Extranet

D.

Internet

Question 75

Which of the following can be used to assess the impact of a proposed software change?

Options:

A.

Traceability matrix

B.

Regression testing

C.

Baseline audit

D.

Defect rate

Question 76

Which of the following steps comes first during release planning for waterfall-type projects?

Options:

A.

Define the scope of the software being developed.

B.

Determine which problems will be corrected in the next release.

C.

Select the set of requirements that will be included in the release.

D.

Confirm the implemented software meets the specified requirements.

Question 77

In the archival process, retention of historical records is

Options:

A.

not required

B.

set for at least 2 years

C.

needed for all documents

D.

specified by the organization

Question 78

Which of the following charts is most appropriate for presenting a summary* view of a set of metrics that include an ideal value?

Options:

A.

pie

B.

Bar

C.

kiviat

D.

stoplight

Question 79

If 5 defects were found during a software analysis and 5 defects were found in later phases, what is the phase containment effectiveness (PCE) of this software analysis?

Options:

A.

0%

B.

25%

C.

50%

D.

100%

Question 80

Which of the following problem-solving tools is most appropriate for breaking down ideas into progressively greater detail?

Options:

A.

Tree diagram

B.

Matrix diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Relationship diagram

Question 81

A development manager started implementation activities for a product deployment to more than 600 users. Just prior to the final software release, the test team discovered severe anomalies. In this situation, which of the following actions should the test leader take first?

Options:

A.

Perform a root cause analysis and develop a corrective action plan

B.

Require the code developers to resolve the anomalies immediately

C.

Notify the users directly of the anomalies

D.

Notify the development manager and recommend delaying the release

Question 82

A requirements change impact analysis should be performed when

Options:

A.

configuration items are placed under formal change control

B.

configuration items are marked as baselined

C.

a change has been approved by the change control board (CCB)

D.

a change is being reviewed by the change control board (CCB)

Question 83

Who is responsible for walking through business scenarios to determine the completeness of the defined requirements?

Options:

A.

The analyst

B.

The tester

C.

The quality function representative

D.

The product developer

Question 84

Which of the following techniques is used to measure the number of test cases needed to execute each code statement at least once?

Options:

A.

Function point analysis

B.

Cause and effect diagram

C.

Cyclomatic complexity

D.

Defect removal effectiveness

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Total 280 questions