Spring Sale Limited Time Flat 70% Discount offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70spcl

ASHRM CPHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 12
Total 119 questions

Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following concepts is integral to supporting a Safety Culture in a healthcare organization?

Options:

A.

disciplining an employee

B.

trending occurrences

C.

assigning blame

D.

speaking up

Question 2

What is one advantage of avoluntaryerror reporting system over amandatoryerror reporting system?

Options:

A.

Voluntary systems guarantee legal privilege in all states

B.

Voluntary systems typically elicit more frontline reports and near-misses

C.

Voluntary systems eliminate the need for root cause analysis

D.

Voluntary systems replace peer review and credentialing

Question 3

An emergency department physician has evaluated and stabilized a patient who needs a sign language interpreter. The on-call physician is consulted for admission. Which of the following regulatory laws are most relevant?

Options:

A.

ADA and EMTALA/COBRA

B.

HCQIA and ADA

C.

EMTALA/COBRA and HIPAA

D.

HIPAA and HCQIA

Question 4

A hold-harmless agreement is an important component of which of the following aspects of a risk financing program?

Options:

A.

risk transfer

B.

risk retention

C.

first-party liability insurance

D.

third-party liability insurance

Question 5

Which of the following is a program of the Food and Drug Administration FDA post market surveillance system for medical devices that requires healthcare facilities to report patient deaths or injuries related to a medical device?

Options:

A.

Safe Medical Devices Act SMDA

B.

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act EMTALA

C.

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 OSHA

D.

Patient Safety Organization PSO

Question 6

For a risk management program to be effective, it needs:

Options:

A.

Organizational commitment, visibility/access, and physician engagement

B.

Only a policy manual

C.

Only insurance coverage

D.

Only incident reporting software

Question 7

Which of the following factors should be considered when setting or adjusting indemnity reserves?

    incurred medical expenses

    emotional pain and suffering

    medical expert witness costs

    future cost of medical care

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

Question 8

In preparing next year's budget, the hospital CFO has contacted the risk manager for a projected contribution to the hospital's professional and general liability self-insured retention fund. To respond to this request, the risk manager should refer to which of the following?

Options:

A.

actuarial reports and loss runs

B.

professional and general liability premiums

C.

frequency and severity analyses of pending claims

D.

total incurred losses for the current year

Question 9

Generally, an incident is defined as:

Options:

A.

Any happening not consistent with routine care/operations (including near-misses)

B.

Only events that cause death

C.

Only patient complaints

D.

Only billing disputes

Question 10

If a practitioner requests a telemedicine consult with another practitioner in another state, the consultant:

Options:

A.

May need to hold a valid license in the patient’s state (requirements vary by state)

B.

Never needs any license

C.

Can practice under the patient’s insurance plan only

D.

Can rely on verbal permission from the ED nurse

Question 11

Which of the following wouldnotbe considered an emergency condition for EMTALA purposes (as a general example set)?

Options:

A.

Myocardial infarction

B.

Ruptured appendix

C.

Active labor with complications

D.

Stable chronic kidney failure without acute destabilization

Question 12

A risk manager is reviewing the professional liability insurance policy for the limits of liability. Which of the following should the risk manager review FIRST?

Options:

A.

conditions

B.

exclusions

C.

declaration

D.

insuring agreement

Question 13

An original contract could contain:

Options:

A.

Effective date, insurance requirements, and contract terms

B.

Only a logo and slogan

C.

Only verbal promises

D.

Only a price estimate without scope

Question 14

An appropriate way to complete the verification read-back of a complete order, as required by The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals, is to have the person receiving the order

Options:

A.

write the information down before reading it back.

B.

immediately repeat the information.

C.

have a witness verify that the information is repeated back correctly.

D.

document the date and time the order was received.

Question 15

What is responsible for many HIPAA privacy violations in practice?

Options:

A.

Impermissible access/disclosure (including “snooping” without a job-related need)

B.

Correctly authorized disclosures

C.

Proper encryption practices

D.

De-identification

Question 16

According to The Joint Commission, which of the following should be done to patient-owned electrical devices entering the facility?

Options:

A.

inventory with patient belongings

B.

sequester the electrical device

C.

conduct an electrical safety inspection

D.

tag by biomedical engineering

Question 17

An employer is not required to offer a reasonable accommodation to a job applicant with a qualified disability unless

Options:

A.

the applicant proves the disability.

B.

withholding the reasonable accommodation creates an unsafe condition.

C.

the applicant requests the accommodation.

D.

the employer recognizes that the accommodation is necessary.

Question 18

Which of the following is an essential component of a risk management policy and procedure manual?

Options:

A.

department organizational chart

B.

medical staff bylaws

C.

actuarial report

D.

loss run report

Question 19

A doctor fails to administer an indicated test, and the patient deteriorates and must be admitted. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Diagnostic error (delay/omission in diagnostic process)

B.

Risk financing error

C.

Contracting breach

D.

Facility security event

Question 20

In enterprise risk management, which of the following are external factors that may affect risk?

Question # 20

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 21

An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?

Options:

A.

The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of any patient, for any reason.

B.

The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of a patient, as long as that refusal is not based on insurance status or other financial concerns.

C.

The on-call physician is relieved of duty only if unavailable because of caring for another patient, or because of other circumstances outside the physician's control.

D.

The on-call physician is never relieved of duty to accept a patient needing specialized services.

Question 22

An organization's chief of orthopedics has scheduled an implant of a new artificial hip for the next day. The chief developed the artificial hip while working as a consultant for a medical device company. The device has not yet been approved by the FDA or the Institutional Review Board. The risk manager's best immediate course of action is to

Options:

A.

contact the FDA to clarify the status of the device.

B.

verify the informed consent for the procedure.

C.

call a special meeting of the Institutional Review Board.

D.

call the chief of surgery to discuss canceling the procedure.

Question 23

A hospital risk manager has been called to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit to discuss a 25-week premature infant whose parents are refusing a planned blood transfusion due to their religious beliefs. After gathering information on the infant’s condition and hearing the parents and the healthcare professionals disagree on the best interests of the infant, the risk manager should

Options:

A.

arrange for an ethics committee consultation to meet the parents and discuss the issue.

B.

prohibit the blood transfusion, respecting the parents’ rights as substitute decision-makers for the infant.

C.

advise the care team to proceed with the blood transfusion.

D.

contact legal counsel to arrange for an emergency court hearing to obtain a court order from the state to intervene.

Question 24

In general, how many steps should an FMEA proceed in each direction (upstream/downstream) when mapping a process for failure analysis?

Options:

A.

Two steps in each direction (a common practical rule-of-thumb)

B.

Ten steps minimum regardless of complexity

C.

Only the current step; context is irrelevant

D.

Steps are not mapped in FMEA

Question 25

Which of the following should be the primary consideration when designing a new risk management program for a facility?

Options:

A.

size of the facility

B.

type of insurance the facility carries

C.

history of the facility

D.

mission and vision of the facility

Question 26

An interrogatory requests insurance policy information. A risk manager should

Options:

A.

provide the specifically requested information.

B.

provide excess limits as well as primary limits.

C.

attach a certificate of insurance.

D.

object to the interrogatory.

Question 27

Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause of medication errors in healthcare entities?

Options:

A.

manual medication delivery systems

B.

illegible physician handwriting

C.

system or process failure

D.

look-alike, sound-alike drugs

Question 28

Which of the following analyses is required as part of the sentinel event process of The Joint Commission?

Options:

A.

fishbone diagram of the causal factors

B.

Pareto chart outlining the problems identified and the priorities for improvement

C.

action plan listing the steps for improvement and the dates of implementation for each step

D.

flow chart listing the responsibilities for each of the departments involved

Question 29

A sentinel event is a patient safety event that reaches the patient and results in which of the following?

Options:

A.

death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm

B.

death, temporary harm, or moderate harm

C.

permanent harm, severe temporary harm, or temporary harm

D.

severe temporary harm, moderate harm, or increased length of stay

Question 30

Protecting outdoor air intakes can mitigate the risk of terrorists introducing airborne agents. Steps include:

Options:

A.

Relocate intakes higher; establish a security zone; add lighting and surveillance

B.

Paint the intake vents a different color

C.

Put a “No trespassing” sign only

D.

Reduce HVAC maintenance

Question 31

Which of the following has been proven to reduce costs of workers' compensation programs?

Options:

A.

early return-to-work programs

B.

comprehensive departmental safety analyses

C.

employee assistance programs

D.

employee disciplinary actions

Question 32

For a liability claim to succeed, the claimant must establish duty owed, duty breached, proximate cause, and

Options:

A.

contributory negligence.

B.

injury sustained.

C.

punitive damages.

D.

gross negligence.

Question 33

A hospital has opted to open an anticoagulation clinic. As this is a high-risk medication, a risk manager wants to conduct a risk assessment before opening the clinic. The BEST tool to use would be a

Options:

A.

root cause analysis RCA.

B.

failure mode and effects analysis FMEA.

C.

cause and effect diagram.

D.

scatter diagram.

Question 34

When conducting a safety audit in an Emergency Department, what does an administrator need to obtain first?

Options:

A.

A written set of safety standards/criteria for the audit

B.

A marketing plan

C.

A list of staff birthdays

D.

A patient satisfaction script

Question 35

Which of the following items should be part of a claim file?

    peer review reports or data

    correspondence with attorneys and investigators

    literature search

    verification of settlement authority

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

Page: 1 / 12
Total 119 questions