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ARDMS AE-Adult-Echocardiography AE Adult Echocardiography Examination Exam Practice Test

AE Adult Echocardiography Examination Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which is an abnormal response to a stress echocardiogram?

Options:

A.

Hyperdynamic wall motion

B.

Increased end-systolic volume

C.

Increased ejection fraction

D.

Decreased end-diastolic volume

Question 2

What is the incidental finding seen by color Doppler in this four-chamber view of a patient with left atrial enlargement?

Question # 2

Options:

A.

Muscular ventricular septal defect

B.

Coronary-cameral fistula

C.

Patent foramen ovale

D.

Sinus venosus defect

Question 3

Which adjustment will improve the frame rate?

Options:

A.

Narrow sector width

B.

Decrease overall gain

C.

Increase dynamic range

D.

Increase transducer frequency

Question 4

In patients with interrupted aortic arch, which structure allows Wood to flow into the descending aorta?

Options:

A.

Persistent left superior vena cava

B.

Left carotid artery

C.

Foramen ovale

D.

Patent ductus arteriosus

Question 5

Which of the following does the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure estimate?

Options:

A.

Left atrial pressure

B.

Right atrial pressure

C.

Left ventricular pressure

D.

Right ventricular pressure

Question 6

Which pathology is consistent with the left ventricular strain pattern shown in this image?

Question # 6

Options:

A.

Amyloidosis

B.

Apical hypertrophy

C.

Non-ischemic cardiomyopathy

D.

Right coronary artery infarct

Question 7

Which view is best used to evaluate a bicuspid aortic valve?

Options:

A.

Right sternal border

B.

Apical five-chamber

C.

Apical long axis

D.

Parasternal short axis

Question 8

Which finding is associated with coarctation of the aorta?

Options:

A.

Atrial septal defect

B.

Ventricular septal defect

C.

Left ventricular hypertrophy

D.

Right ventricular hypertrophy

Question 9

Which type of valvular lesion most commonly requires further evaluation with a non-imaging transducer?

Options:

A.

Aortic stenosis

B.

Mitral regurgitation

C.

Tricuspid regurgitation

D.

Pulmonic stenosis

Question 10

During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the left ventricular filling pressure equalize with left atrial pressure?

Options:

A.

Early rapid filling

B.

Ventricular contraction

C.

Atrial contraction

D.

Diastasis

Question 11

Which finding is most consistent with this M-mode image?

Options:

A.

Rheumatic mitral stenosis

B.

Mitral valve prolapse

C.

Mitral valve annuloplasty ring

D.

Systolic antenor motion of the mitral valve

Question 12

Which of the following occurs during the strain phase of the Valsalva maneuver?

Options:

A.

Decreased preload

B.

Decreased afterload

C.

Increased preload

D.

Increased afterload

Question 13

A continuous flow murmur is most likely due to which abnormality?

Options:

A.

Ventricular septal defect

B.

Patent ductus arteriosus

C.

Concomitant aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation

D.

Ebstein anomaly with atrial septal defect

Question 14

Which of the following are key features of an unrepaired tetralogy of Fallot?

Options:

A.

Displaced tricuspid valve, atrialization of the right ventricle, severe tricuspid regurgitation, and a secundum atrial septal defect

B.

Supravalvular mitral valvular ring, subaortic membrane, bicuspid aortic valve, and aortic coarctation

C.

Inlet ventricular septal defect, common atrioventricular valve, atrioventricular valve regurgitation, and primum atrial septal defect

D.

Outlet ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and right ventricular hypertrophy

Question 15

Which finding is associated with partial anomalous venous return?

Options:

A.

Cleft mitral valve

B.

Persistent left superior vena cava

C.

Sinus venosus atrial septal defect

D.

Perimembranous ventricular septal defect

Question 16

Which wall is indicated by the arrow on this image?

Question # 16

Options:

A.

Anterior

B.

Inferior

C.

Anterolateral

D.

Inferolateral

Question 17

What potential source of error is the greatest when calculating the aortic valve area by the continuity equation?

Options:

A.

Aortic valve planimetry in parasternal short axis

B.

Left ventricular outflow tract velocity recorded with pulsed Doppler

C.

Left ventricular outflow tract diameter

D.

Aortic jet velocity by continuous wave Doppler

Question 18

What is the direction of the mitral regurgitant jet in this video clip?

Question # 18

Options:

A.

Anterior

B.

Posterior

C.

Medial

D.

Lateral

Question 19

Which next step is appropriate after obtaining the Doppler signal in this image?

Question # 19

Options:

A.

Pulsed wave at various levels of the left ventricle to localize intracavitary gradient.

B.

Pulsed wave at the level of the mitral valve leaflet tips to assess for mitral stenosis

C.

Continuous wave through the left ventricle to localize intracavitary gradient

D.

Continuous wave through the mitral valve to assess for mitral stenosis

Question 20

Which finding does peak mitral valve regurgitant Doppler velocity reflect?

Options:

A.

Severity of regurgitation

B.

Pressure gradient between the left ventricle and aorta

C.

Mechanism of regurgitation

D.

Pressure gradient between the left ventricle and left atrium

Question 21

Which congenital abnormality is most consistent with the findings in this video?

Options:

A.

Patent foramen ovale

B.

Ventricular septal defect

C.

Ebstein anomaly

D.

Eisenmenger syndrome

Question 22

Which procedure is most appropriate for evaluation of an atrial septal defect in the presence of an atrial septal aneurysm?

Options:

A.

Cardiac MRI

B.

Cardiac catheterization

C.

Agitated saline contrast echocardiogram

D.

Transesophageal echocardiogram

Question 23

What is the route of ventricular depolarization?

Options:

A.

Right bundle to left bundle branch

B.

Sinoatrial to atrioventricular nodes

C.

Bundle of His to atrioventricular node

D.

Bundle of His to Purkinje fibers

Question 24

Which method is appropriate for measuring the left atrial diameter in parasternal long axis?

Options:

A.

Inner edge to inner edge, perpendicular to the aortic root, at end-diastole

B.

Inner edge to inner edge, parallel to the aortic root, at end-diastole

C.

Inner edge to inner edge, perpendicular to the aortic root, at end-systole

D.

Outer edge to outer edge, perpendicular to the aortic root, at end-systole

Question 25

Which patient body positioning and respiration technique is optimal for obtaining the subcostal view?

Options:

A.

Supine; knees bent and breath inhaled

B.

Supine; legs extended and breath exhaled

C.

Left lateral decubitus; knees bent and shallow breathing

D.

Left lateral decubitus; legs extended and normal breathing

Question 26

How must the sonographer angle the transducer from the apical four-chamber view in order to visualize the aortic valve in the apical five-chamber view?

Options:

A.

Anteriorly

B.

Posteriorly

C.

Medially

D.

Laterally

Question 27

Which finding is shown in this image?

Question # 27

Options:

A.

Chiari network

B.

Left atrial thrombus

C.

Cor triatriatum

D.

Artifact

Question 28

Which condition is most likely suggested by an apically sparing "cherry on top" left ventricular strain pattern?

Options:

A.

Athlete's heart

B.

Amyloidosis

C.

Hypertension

D.

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Question 29

Which view is best for assessing atrial situs in the presence of congenital heart disease?

Options:

A.

Subcostal

B.

Short axis

C.

Long axis

D.

Suprasternal notch

Question 30

Which view best demonstrates a wall thickening abnormality of the apical lateral segment?

Options:

A.

Two-chamber

B.

Four-chamber

C.

Parasternal long axis

D.

Mid-parastemal short axis

Question 31

Which maneuver aids in uncovering potential diastolic dysfunction while performing pulsed wave Doppler of the mitral valve?

Options:

A.

Valsalva

B.

Hand grip

C.

Leg air cycling

D.

Squatting

Question 32

Which adjustment is most likely to improve image quality from the suprasternal long axis window?

Options:

A.

Move probe just inferior to the sternum

B.

Ask patient to look slightly toward the left

C.

Place patient in left lateral decubitus position

D.

Rotate transducer indicator toward the patient's right shoulder

Question 33

A patient with a ventricular septal defect, an atrial septal defect, and a cleft mitral valve is likely to have which abnormality?

Options:

A.

Atrioventricular canal defect

B.

Ebstein anomaly

C.

Marfan syndrome

D.

Shone syndrome

Question 34

A "dropout" or loss of echoes from structures posterior to a calcified mitral annulus results in which artifact?

Options:

A.

Reverberation

B.

Side lobe

C.

Shadowing

D.

Ring-down

Question 35

Which of the following measurements is required for calculating the Qp/Qs ratio?

Options:

A.

Mitral valve velocity time integral (VTI)

B.

Aortic valve VTI

C.

Tricuspid valve VTI

D.

Right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT) VTI

Question 36

What is a normal response to dobutamine stress testing?

Options:

A.

An increase in left ventricular cavity size and an increase in systolic blood pressure

B.

An increase in left ventricular cavity size and a decrease in systolic blood pressure

C.

A decrease in left ventricular cavity size and a decrease in systolic blood pressure

D.

A decrease in left ventricular cavity size and an increase in systolic blood pressure

Question 37

What minimum number of poorly-visualized contiguous left ventricular (i_V) regional wall segments indicate the use of contrast agents for LV endocardial border definition?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Three

C.

Four

D.

Five

Question 38

Which diagnosis is most likely confirmed by echocardiography in a 65-year-old female presenting with new onset chest pain associated with ST segment elevation on the electrocardiogram and angiographically normal coronary artenes?

Options:

A.

Alcohol-associated cardiomyopathy

B.

Apical hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

C.

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

D.

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

Question 39

Identify the right pulmonary artery.

Using your mouse, place the cursor on the appropriate region of the image and then left click the mouse button to indicate your selection.

Question # 39

Which mitral regurgitation jet direction is most consistent with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

Options:

A.

Anterior

B.

Posterior

C.

Central

D.

Medial

Question 40

Which type of defect can be seen in this video clip?

Question # 40

Options:

A.

Coronary artery aneurysm

B.

Tricuspid regurgitation

C.

Pseudoaneurysm of the apex

D.

Ischemic ventricular septal defect

Question 41

Which anatomic structure is represented by the arrow on this image?

Question # 41

Options:

A.

Left leaflet

B.

Posterior leaflet

C.

Septal leaflet

D.

D. Anterior leaflet