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APM APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Exam Practice Test

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Total 409 questions

APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Three general categories for interpretation of communication could be described as:

Options:

A.

email, paper, Voice.

B.

tactile/visual, auditory, written.

C.

telephone, computer. microphone.

D.

reception, transmission, interruption.

Question 2

The project you are working on has chosen to produce an estimate using a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS). What estimating method is this approach commonly known as?

Options:

A.

Comparative estimating.

B.

Bottom-up/analytical estimating.

C.

Strategic estimating.

D.

Parametric estimating.

Question 3

One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue:

Options:

A.

must be recorded but a risk does not.

B.

is an uncertain event but a risk is not.

C.

is a certain event but a risk is not.

D.

always affects scope but a risk does not

Question 4

Which of the following statements about the role of project sponsor is false?

Options:

A.

A. project sponsor is an advocate for the project and the change it brings about.

B.

A. project sponsor writes and owns the project management plan.

C.

A. project sponsor is able to work across functional boundaries within an organisation.

D A. project sponsor is prepared to commit sufficient time and effort to support the project.

Question 5

Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a project governance board?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor, project manager and quality manager.

B.

Corporate management, project sponsor, quality manager and project office.

C.

Sponsor, supplier representative and user representative.

D Sponsor, project manager and senior project team members.

Question 6

Which of the following provides the project manager with a formal overview of project quality?

Options:

A.

Design reviews

B.

Project definition reports.

C.

Quality audits.

D.

Historical experience.

Question 7

Which of the following statements explain the importance of clearly defined success criteria at handover?

1) Deliverables are more likely to satisfy the client

2) The project can be effectively evaluated

3) Work can be effectively planned

4) Change can generally be avoided

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 8

Which of the following would be a benefit to an organization of effective project management?

Options:

A.

Significant cost savings in the organization’s business as usual activities.

B.

Guaranteed increased profitability and market share from successful projects.

C.

Use of resources and greater likelihood of achieving a successful project.

D.

Having qualified and trained project managers in the organization.

Question 9

The project management plan:

Options:

A.

justifies undertaking the project.

B.

describes the success criteria for the project.

C.

focuses primarily on time related issues.

D.

describes the success factor for the project.

Question 10

The project management plan is best described as a reference document that confirms:

Options:

A.

the project completion date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

B.

the agreement between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

C.

the key project milestones as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

D.

the project start date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager

Question 11

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project?

Options:

A.

The project outputs will have been delivered.

B.

Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose.

C.

The project management plan will have been followed

D.

Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes

Question 12

What is the estimating method that uses data from a similar project as the basis for the estimate?

Options:

A.

Evaluative estimating.

B.

Risk based estimating.

C.

Analogous estimating.

D.

Analytical estimating.

Question 13

Which of the following is a purpose of issue management?

Options:

A.

To stop issues occurring within the project.

B.

To address and resolve the issues that occur.

C.

To address and resolve uncertainty.

D.

To reschedule activities to reduce costs

Question 14

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its lifecycle

Question 15

The main purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project.

B.

ensure that the final product meets the strategic needs of the business.

C.

provide control of the deliverables and avoid mistakes or misunderstandings.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements on the project deliverables.

Question 16

Options:

A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

Question 17

Which of the following can be adjusted during a time box? 1) Scope 2) Resource 3) Time 4) Quality

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

3 and 4 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 18

Stakeholder analysis considers three aspects for each stakeholder. which are:

Options:

A.

their interest in the project. whether or not they Can influence the project and whether their attitude to the project is for or against.

B.

their level Of technical knowledge. whether or not they are able to act as sponsor and if they are available.

C.

their experience. position in the organizational hierarchy and number Of resources managed

D.

their interest in the project. whether or not they are a member Of the steering group and if they are likely to resist changes.

Question 19

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project sponsor?

Options:

A.

Monitoring progress and use of the project resources.

B.

Analysing the project team's productivity

C.

Ensuring the benefits of the project are realised.

D Planning project evaluation reviews for lessons learned.

Question 20

Why is it important to produce a project management plan?

Options:

A.

It shows the benefits expected at the close of the project and the specific stakeholders who are involved.

B.

It provides justification for undertaking the project and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It sets and clarifies the expectations of all stakeholders who are involved in the project delivery.

D.

It identifies and establishes the most appropriate means of procuring the component parts or services for the project being delivered.

Question 21

Which project management process is NOT likely to be used when resolving an issue?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Change control

C.

Scope management

D.

Team building

Question 22

What is the main benefit of using prototyping. time boxing or iterative thinking?

Options:

A.

They offer tested methods for experimentation and risk reduction

B.

They reduce stakeholders' expectations of how they benefit from the project.

C.

Try allow the project to develop an extended life cycle.

D.

They always deliver the project quicker than planned

Question 23

A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle.

Options:

A.

a hybrid.

B.

an extended.

C.

a reduced.

D.

a combined.

Question 24

When effectively implemented, what is one of the key roles of governance?

Options:

A.

Provide confidence that the business case is the best option for the current circumstances and that there will be no changes as the project is being delivered.

B.

Provide confidence that the plans that have been developed will guarantee that the project will be delivered on time and to budget.

C.

Provide confidence to all stakeholders that projects are being well managed and the most appropriate financial and technical controls are being exerted.

D Provide confidence to all project team members that their jobs are secure at least from the period of the project start to the handover.

Question 25

On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined?

Options:

A.

By assessing its probability of occurrence.

B.

By assessing its impact on project objectives,

C.

By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives.

D.

By assessing its effect on the business case.

Question 26

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

Options:

A.

Work Breakdown Structure.

B.

Organisational Breakdown Structure.

C.

Product Breakdown Structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure.

Question 27

Which of the following responsibilities lies with the project management office?

Options:

A.

Liaising with end users.

B.

Managing suppliers.

C.

Providing technical support.

D.

Supporting the project sponsor.

Question 28

What information would be expected as content for a business case?

Options:

A.

A. detailed schedule of the project.

B.

An outline of the project management team.

C.

An outline of the estimated costs of implementing the project.

D.

detailed breakdown of the scope of the project.

Question 29

Project team leaders can influence team performance by developing:

Options:

A.

a clear stakeholder management plan.

B.

respect, shared values and trust.

C.

detailed project management processes.

D.

important political alliances.

Question 30

Which Of the following might be a probable cause to consider early project closure?

Options:

A.

The cost to complete the project is greater than the value to be achieved.

B.

The project is on schedule but spent less than expected

C.

The is expected to yield greater value than stated in the business

D.

The project manager has resigned and an immediate replacement is unavailable

Question 31

One benefit of a gate review process is:

Options:

A.

it allows learning from one phase of the project to be passed on to the next phase.

B.

it stops projects that no longer meet the organisation's needs.

C.

it allows procurement to be planned into the project life cycle.

D.

it allows the project team to plan delivery of the next phase

Question 32

Which of the following is included in a Procurement Strategy?

Options:

A.

Benefits

B.

Stakeholder list

C.

Contract pricing information

D.

Specification of works

Question 33

Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process?

Options:

A.

Share the issue with stakeholders.

B.

Track the issue to closure.

C.

Escalate to the sponsor.

D.

Apply change control.

Question 34

In developing a network the first task after listing the activities is to...

Options:

A.

Define activity durations

B.

Determine float

C.

Determine the interdependencies of activities

D.

Harmonise the activity to a calendar

Question 35

A portfolio can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.

B.

A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

C.

A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

D.

A range of products and services offered by an organisation.

Question 36

Portfolio management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the co-ordinated management of related projects, including related business-as-usual activities.

B.

the formal process through which changes to the project plan are approved and introduced.

C.

the identification of the benefits (of A. project or programme) at an organisational level and the tracking and realisation of those benefits.

D.

the selection and management of all of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities, taking into account resource constraints.

Question 37

What are the likely results of building agile working into a or programme?

Options:

A.

Reduced schedule time.

B.

increased cost.

C.

Increased efficiency and flexibility.

D.

Reduced risk

Question 38

What is one of the most important aspects to establish about a stakeholder's interest in the project?

Options:

A.

If it is positive or negative.

B.

If it is regular or intermittent.

C.

If it is influenced by the project.

D.

If it is influenced by other stakeholders.

Question 39

Which is one of the three key project constraints?

Options:

A.

Time

B.

Political

C.

Environmental

D.

Technical

Question 40

Which of the following activities is not in an extended project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Deployment.

B.

Termination.

C.

Adoption.

D.

Transition.

Question 41

Procurement strategy can be defined as the high-level approach for securing:

Options:

A.

stakeholder engagement.

B.

funding for the project.

C.

buy in from the project sponsor.

D.

goods and services required for the project.

Question 42

The main aim of quality management is to:

Options:

A.

prepare a high-quality management plan.

B.

ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards.

C.

validate the use of consistent standards.

D.

determine whether to accept change requests.

Question 43

Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

Options:

A.

External stakeholders.

B.

The end users.

C.

The finance director.

D.

The project manager

Question 44

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 45

The purpose of project progress reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure a simpler critical path.

B.

enable the tracking of project deliverables.

C.

ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

D.

provide an increased total float.

Question 46

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

Question 47

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.

develop a communication plan.

Question 48

What is a factor that is important when communicating as part of stakeholder engagement?

Options:

A.

Planned communication will help to establish the level of interest and power a stakeholder is likely to possess.

B.

Planned communication will increase the number of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project.

C.

Planned communication will reduce the power of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project.

D.

Planned communication is likely to reduce the number Of valid stakeholders who have an interest in the project.

Question 49

Which of the following are documented in a risk register?

1) Analysis

2) Priority

3) Ownership

4) Responses

Options:

A.

1, 3 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 50

Scope management in an iterative life cycle would ensure that:

Options:

A.

the must have' requirements are given the top priority for delivery.

B.

the scope is identified at a deeper level in the project.

C.

all stakeholders get what they want from the project.

D.

areas of the project that will be delivered are fully agreed

Question 51

Which one of the following is NOT a project change?

Options:

A.

An approved omission from the agreed project scope.

B.

The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project.

C.

A. requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs.

D.

The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

Question 52

A typical risk management process would follow the steps:

Options:

A.

identification. analysis, response. closure.

B.

assessment, analysis. closure. response.

C.

assessment, planning, managing. response.

D.

identification, planning, response. closure

Question 53

A procurement strategy is a:

Options:

A.

technical specification.

B.

day-to-day requirement.

C.

detailed timetable.

D.

high-level approach.

Question 54

Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders may be for the change or against

B.

Stakeholders may have little influence or lots

C.

Stakeholders may be internal or external to your organisation

D.

Stakeholders with high influence always have high interest in the project

Question 55

Which of the following is not a purpose of milestones?

Options:

A.

Adjusting resource requirements.

B.

Controlling project progress.

C.

Scheduling payments for deliverables.

D.

Setting major deadlines.

Question 56

When no other changes are being considered to the project, this is usually termed as a:

Options:

A.

scope verification.

B.

change freeze.

C.

consolidated baseline.

D.

configuration control.

Question 57

In A. RACI coding format, what does 'A' stand for?

Options:

A.

Available.

B.

Authorised.

C.

Accountable.

D.

Acceptable.

Question 58

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Options:

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

Question 59

Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager?

Options:

A.

Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation's strategy.

B.

Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities.

C.

Achieving the project's success criteria.

D.

Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project

Question 60

A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to:

Options:

A.

mitigate all possible risks to the project.

B.

identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project.

C.

control technological change during the project.

D.

consider team social roles in early stages of the project

Question 61

Who is best placed in the project to manage sponsor and user expectations?

Options:

A.

The senior management team.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The project management office.

D The project team.

Question 62

How many dimensions are included in the business case?

Options:

A.

Five

B.

One

C.

Three

D.

Four

Question 63

Which of the following would be considered as the main purpose of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

To provide a documented account of the outcomes of the planning process.

B.

To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale.

C.

To provide A. record of how the project was planned, for archiving in the organisation's lessons learned.

D.

To identify and record the projects intended financial spend over the period of project delivery.

Question 64

Which key questions should be asked before a decision gate occurs?

1) Is the business case viable?

2) What has been achieved?

3) What is required for the next stage?

4) Are stakeholders properly engaged?

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

Question 65

Which of the following estimating techniques utilizes work packages, assigning costs and consolidating to provide a project estimate?

Options:

A.

Analytical.

B.

Comparative.

C.

Parametric.

D.

Strategic.

Question 66

PESTLE analysis covers the following areas:

Options:

A.

Political, Economic, Sociological, Technical, Legal, Environmental.

B.

Personnel, Economic, Safety, Technical, Legal, Ecological.

C.

Political, Ecological, Strategy, Technical, Life cycle, Environmental.

D Personnel, Ecological, Sociological, Training, Life cycle, Ecological.

Question 67

What is an example of a project management office activity that would be most likely undertaken to support a project?

Options:

A.

Developing the project management plan.

B.

Developing the business case.

C.

Carrying out A. health check.

D Carrying out day-to-day resource management.

Question 68

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Budget.

B.

Stakeholder.

C.

Resource.

D.

Schedule

Question 69

Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

Options:

A.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor.

B.

A. draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case.

C.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.

D.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager

Question 70

The purpose of a risk register is to provide a:

Options:

A.

structured process for risk identification.

B.

record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.

C.

means of assessing the likelihood and impact of all of the risks.

D.

record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

Question 71

Which one of the following is NOT part of the handover process during the final phase of a project lifecycle:

Options:

A.

the acceptance of pertinent documentation relative to project deliverables.

B.

the definition of acceptance criteria for project deliverables.

C.

the transfer of responsibility for project deliverables.

D.

the testing of project deliverables to demonstrate they work in their final operational mode.

Question 72

5 A. --> 5 B. --> 5D --> 5F

`-->4C. --> 4E --^

The total float of activity E in the above diagram is:

Options:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

0

D.

4

Question 73

Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

Options:

A.

A. summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.

B.

A. summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

C.

A. tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.

D.

A. tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

Question 74

What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to stakeholders prior to any work being started?

Options:

A.

Verified work breakdown structure.

B.

Deployment baseline.

C.

Configuration record.

D.

Business case.

Question 75

Why is environmental analysis the most important analysis for an organisation to undertake?

Options:

A.

It allows the detailed execution plans, to be defined, that are likely to be developed in order to deliver the project.

B.

It is the only way in which the scope of the project can be identified and detailed in plans.

C.

It identifies the problems, opportunities or business needs which may require some degree of response.

D It is the only form of detailed planning that can be carried out in the earliest phases of the project life cycle.

Question 76

Which of the following best describes a project's context?

Options:

A.

The environment in which the business operates.

B.

The geographic location in which the project is undertaken.

C.

The external and internal business environments including stakeholder's interests and influences.

D Industry and business sector practices.

Question 77

An extended project life cycle can be defined as:

Options:

A.

an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle.

B.

an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.

C.

a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed.

D.

a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.

Question 78

A generic linear project life cycle might include the sequence:

Options:

A.

Definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.

B.

Concept. definition, deployment. transition.

C.

Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.

D.

Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover. review.

Question 79

Which of the following best describes a project's business case?

Options:

A.

The definition of why the project is required and the desired benefits.

B.

A. statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/ deliverables

C.

The reason why the project wants the project to proceed.

D A. statement as to how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor

Question 80

One purpose of a typical project business case is to:

Options:

A.

carry out earned value analysis.

B.

allocate resources to the project.

C.

analyse cost-benefit of the project.

D.

plan project work packages

Question 81

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Options:

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

Question 82

Which of the following is true of the project environment?

Options:

A.

Within the environment are the factors that influence and impact projects.

B.

Only certain types of projects are influenced by the environment.

C.

The project environment will only really impact the project at the start.

D There is no real way of determining the true project environment.

Question 83

What aspects of benefits realisation would be considered as most important to note in the business case?

Options:

A.

Who is going to be responsible for carrying out each of the projects activities.

B.

How the benefits will be realised, measured and the stakeholders involved

C.

What type of contract is going to be used to procure delivery of the project.

D.

Which benefits should be realised first and then the subsequent order

Question 84

Which of the following defines the term 'risk'?

Options:

A.

The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives.

B.

A problem that is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.

C.

Scope creep within an uncontrolled project.

D.

The use of estimation to determine costs, resources and activities.

Question 85

What might be considered a disadvantage of virtual communication?

Options:

A.

Digital communication links never seem to work as required.

B.

Communication being misunderstood.

C.

There is no method for providing feedback.

D.

This method of communication tends to be time consuming.

Question 86

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?

Options:

A.

Verification.

B.

Request.

C.

Closure.

D.

Justification

Question 87

Successful project communications will most likely occur when:

Options:

A.

the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all stakeholder communication from the outset.

B.

email is the primary method used in order to get information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient manner.

C.

A. standard project communication format for reports is used to provide feedback to stakeholders.

D.

the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are fully understood.

Question 88

What defining character from those listed below particularly typifies an issue?

Options:

A.

A major problem that was unexpected and now requires the attention Of the whole project team.

B.

A major problem that can only be addressed by the project sponsor.

C.

A major problem that may happen in the future.

D.

A major problem that requires A. formal process of escalation

Question 89

Within which phases of a project life cycle are risks identified?

Options:

A.

Within the end phase.

B.

Within the initial phases.

C.

Within the deployment phase.

D.

Within each phase.

Question 90

Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

Options:

A.

It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.

B.

It facilitates the risk appetite.

C.

It facilitates the recording of risk responses.

D.

It facilitates the recording of risks.

Question 91

When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

Options:

A.

the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.

B.

the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.

C.

the project documentation must be disposed of.

D.

the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised

Question 92

Implementation of plans and verification of performance is most likely to occur in:

Options:

A.

the deployment phase.

B.

the definition phase

C.

the concept phase.

D.

the adoption phase

Question 93

A project management plan could best be described as:

Options:

A.

an activity on a network diagram.

B.

A. Gantt chart.

C.

A. plan for the programme.

D.

an overall plan for the project.

Question 94

What rule of thumb. can be used for ensuring that key stakeholders have been included in the process?

Options:

A.

Make use Of widely available templates and predefined structures to ensure a complete spectrum of stakeholders are identified.

B.

Ask the most influential stakeholders to identify who else they think Should be involved in the project.

C.

Analyse Other projects and who their stakeholders are and include them by default.

D.

Question whose support or lack of it might significantly influence the success of the project

Question 95

What is the main aim of the communication plan?

Options:

A.

To increase the chances of achieving effective engagement.

B.

To comply with the structure of the project management plan.

C.

To identify the skills necessary to deliver a project.

D.

To increase the likelihood of benefits realisation.

Question 96

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

Question 97

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The PMP acts as a contract between the Project Manager, the project team and the sponsor.

B.

The PMP defines the baselines for the project upon which changes are considered.

C.

The PMP, once defined, will remain unchanged throughout the project.

D.

The PMP is used as a reference document for managing the project.

Question 98

Which one of the following is the correct definition of an issue?

Options:

A.

Any major problem that the project team has to deal with.

B.

A. problem that is the responsibility of the Project Manager.

C.

An uncertain event that should it occur would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A. threat to project objectives that cannot be resolved by the Project Manager.

Question 99

One difference between a project and business as usual is:

Options:

A.

projects achieve specified benefits but business as usual has only vague benefits.

B.

projects drive change whereas business as usual continues existing activities.

C.

projects have tightly controlled budgets whereas business as usual does not.

D.

projects have unclear deadlines but business as usual has multiple milestones

Question 100

What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"?

Options:

A.

Teamwork.

B.

Motivation.

C.

Management.

D.

Leadership

Question 101

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

Options:

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

Question 102

Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Define outputs.

B.

Identify outputs.

C.

Share outputs.

D.

Control outputs

Question 103

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case?

Options:

A.

Safety plan for the project.

B.

Implementation options.

C.

Stakeholder identification.

D.

Business benefits.

Question 104

From the project sponsor's viewpoint, which of the following is not an important aspect of the project communication plan?

Options:

A.

How issues are to be escalated from project manager to project sponsor.

B.

Understanding stakeholders' power and influence.

C.

When project workshops are to be held.

D.

Reference to higher level corporate policies.

Question 105

Estimating by using historical information is known as:

Options:

A.

comparative estimating.

B.

parametric estimating.

C.

bottom-up estimating.

D.

strategic estimating.

Question 106

You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As A. minimum, what should this plan include?

Options:

A.

A. summary of the project acceptance criteria.

B.

CVs of all the team members.

C.

Details Of previous similar projects.

D.

Resourcing details for quality reviews.

Question 107

To effectively manage the project the range of documentation may appear to be extensive; however, the document that captures the why, what, where, when, how, how much and who for the project is called:

Options:

A.

the project schedule.

B.

the project definition and delivery report.

C.

the project feasibility report.

D.

the project management plan.

Question 108

A work breakdown structure shows the levels of work required to produce the deliverables for the project in what type of diagram?

Options:

A.

Histogram.

B.

Hierarchical.

C.

Handover.

D.

Historical.

Question 109

The project team comprises:

Options:

A.

all those responsible to the project manager who are working towards the project objectives.

B.

the members of staff who are allocated full time to the project.

C.

the members of staff who report to the project manager and who carry out work on the project.

D.

all project stakeholders.

Question 110

What is the purpose of a stakeholder grid?

Options:

A.

A means of stakeholder identification.

B.

It provides a statement of the stakeholder communications plan.

C.

To understand a stakeholder's position in relation to the project.

D.

It presents an action plan for stakeholder management.

Question 111

Which statement regarding the purpose of the business case would be the most true?

Options:

A.

Once agreed the business case will become the baseline by which the project will be deployed,

B.

It will act as a reference for the project team regarding the specific. processes to be used forproject delivery.

C.

It will determine which stakeholders are most eligible to become members of the steering group,

D.

It will be referred to throughout the project in order to make decisions about the continuing viability of the project.

Question 112

Which one of the following best characterises a project?

Options:

A.

An ongoing activity to maintain the company plant.

B.

A. transient endeavour carried out to meet specificobjectives.

C.

Continuous improvement of the company procedures.

D.

Manufacturing components for a new technology.

Question 113

One way that communication could be improved in the project is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that free flowing feedback channels are planned into the communication structure.

B.

ensure that communication is carried out as much as possible, transmitting as much information as possible.

C.

target only those stakeholders who seem to show a valid interest in the project.

D.

avoid planning communication too much so that messages are not seen as rigid and overly complex.

Question 114

Which of the following is a project?

Options:

A.

Introducing a new information technology system.

B.

Operating a national rail network.

C.

Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces.

D.

Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians

Question 115

The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

Options:

A.

A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are realised

B.

The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

C.

Risk management in the project facilitates team building.

D.

It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of project compliance with regard to risk management.

Question 116

Which one of the following is NOT typically associated with a project's context?

Options:

A.

The issues and areas that matter to stakeholders.

B.

Technical, social or political considerations.

C.

The environment in which the project is being carried out.

D.

The sequence and dependencies of activities.

Question 117

Which factor is likely to have the biggest influence over the success of communication?

Options:

A.

The size of the communication plan.

B.

The method of communication chosen.

C.

The age range of those communicating.

D.

The type of project being delivered.

Question 118

Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

Options:

A.

Staff appraisals.

B.

Management buy in.

C.

Milestone achievement.

D.

Master schedule.

Question 119

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

Options:

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

Question 120

Which of the following can be adjusted in a timebox situation?

Options:

A.

Deadline and duration.

B.

Time and cost.

C.

Scope and quality.

D.

Budget and resources.

Question 121

The definition of benefits management includes which key activities?

Options:

A.

Planning, analysis and integration of project benefits.

B.

Justification, validation and acceptance of project benefits.

C.

Identification, tracking and realisation of project benefits.

D.

Realisation, acceptance and integration of project benefits

Question 122

Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?

Options:

A.

It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

B.

It advocates employing A. consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.

C.

It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.

D.

It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

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Total 409 questions