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APICS CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Exam Practice Test

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Total 585 questions

Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the below represents the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Supply chain failure

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

Question 2

In a make-to-order (MTO) production environment, fluctuations in sales volumes are managed by adjustments to the:

Options:

A.

Customer order backlog

B.

Finished goods inventory

C.

Minimum order quantity (MOQ)

D.

Process cycle time

Question 3

Corporate fraud has historically been difficult to detect. Which of the following methods has been the MOST helpful in unmasking embezzlement?

Options:

A.

Accidental discovery

B.

Management review

C.

Anonymous tip lines

D.

Internal audit

Question 4

A company’s Marketing and Sales departments have identified an opportunity to develop a new market for a product family and requested an increase in the production plan. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate to account for the new market opportunity?

Options:

A.

Increase the production plan as requested.

B.

Regenerate the material requirements plan.

C.

Regenerate the master production schedule (MPS).

D.

Present the proposal at the executive sales and operations (S&OP) meeting.

Question 5

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

Options:

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

Question 6

An organization received a notification from a Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) provider that one of its products will no longer be supported. Using obsolescence progression stages, which of the following risk trigger points was activated in this case?

Options:

A.

End of Life (EOL)

B.

End of Maintenance

C.

End of Service Life (EOSL)

D.

End of Repair

Question 7

An organization is designing a new Disaster Recovery (DR) site. What is the BEST option to harden security of the site?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Natural disaster insurance

C.

Natural surveillance

D.

Territorial reinforcement

Question 8

Which of the following BEST characterizes the operational benefit of using immutable workloads when working on a cloud-based project?

Options:

A.

The clouds service provider is responsible for all security within the workload

B.

Security testing is managed after image creation

C.

No longer have to bring system down to patch

D.

Allows a user to enable remote logins to running workloads

Question 9

What function prevents unauthorized devices from gaining access to a network?

Options:

A.

Network Access Control (NAC)

B.

Storage Area Network (SAN)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Software-Defined Network (SDN)

Question 10

A hot Disaster Recovery (DR) data center is the victim of a data breach. The hackers are able to access and copy 10GB of clear text confidential information. Which of the following could have decreased the amount of exposure from this data breach?

Options:

A.

Encryption in transit

B.

Layer 7 filtering

C.

Encryption at rest

D.

Password hashing

Question 11

When the discrete available-to-promise (ATP) method is used, the master production receipt quantity is committed to:

Options:

A.

any request for shipment prior to the planning time fence.

B.

any request for shipment prior to the demand time fence (DTF).

C.

requests only for shipment before the next master production schedule (MPS) receipt.

D.

requests only for shipment in the period of the receipt.

Question 12

A security engineer needs to perform threat modeling on a microprocessor design for an Internet of Things (IoT) application. Using the MITRE Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE) catalog for hardware, a risk analysis is performed. What kind of threat modeling approach would be BEST to identify entry points into the system based on motivation?

Options:

A.

System centric

B.

Attacker centric

C.

Threat centric

D.

Asset centric

Question 13

A statistical safety stock calculation would be appropriate for:

Options:

A.

components used in multiple end items.

B.

new products at time of introduction.

C.

end items with stable demand.

D.

supply-constrained raw materials.

Question 14

What is the MAIN privacy risk raised by federated identity solutions?

Options:

A.

The potential for tracking and profiling an individual's transactions

B.

The potential to break the chain of trust between identity brokers

C.

The potential for exposing an organization's sensitive business information

D.

The potential for unauthorized access to user attributes

Question 15

Which of the following design considerations would offer the BEST protection against unauthorized access to the facility?

Options:

A.

Allowing only one person to enter at a time

B.

Auditing access logs annually

C.

Limiting access to regular business hours only

D.

Establishing entry points from public areas only

Question 16

A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live.

What is the organization's BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.

B.

Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

C.

Gain assurance on the vendor’s security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.

D.

Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.

Question 17

A company implementing a localized multi-country strategy to increase market share should engage in which of the following actions?

Options:

A.

Sell different product versions in different countries under different brand names.

B.

Sell the same products under the same brand name worldwide.

C.

Locate plants on the basis of maximum location advantage.

D.

Use the best suppliers regardless of geographic location.

Question 18

After a recent threat modeling workshop, the organization has requested that the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) implement zero trust (ZT) policies. What was the MOST likely threat identified in the workshop?

Options:

A.

Natural threats

B.

Elevation of privilege

C.

Repudiation

D.

Information disclosure

Question 19

A large retail organization will be creating new Application Programming Interfaces (API) as part of a customer-facing shopping solution. The solution will accept information from users both inside and outside of the organization. What is the safest software development practice the team can follow to protect the APIs against Structured Query Language Injection (SQLi) attacks?

Options:

A.

Strictly validate all inputs for safe characters.

B.

Grant database access using the principle of least authority.

C.

Escape special characters in input statements.

D.

Use prepared input statements.

Question 20

The question below is based on the following alternative schedules for a lot of 1,200.

A company works 8-hour, single-shift days. Setups are 4 hours for Operation 20 and 4 hours for Operation 40. Each operation has multiple machines available.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Operation overlapping results in reduced total setup costs.

B.

Operation overlapping results in reduced total span time.

C.

Lot splitting results in the shortest overall lead time.

D.

Lot splitting results in reduced total setup costs.

Question 21

Which of the following tools shows process changes and random variation over time?

Options:

A.

Check sheet

B.

Control chart

C.

Histogram

D.

Pareto analysis

Question 22

During an onsite audit, an assessor inspected an organization’s asset decommission practice. Which of the following would MOST likely be a finding from a security point of view?

Options:

A.

Solid State Drives (SSD) were degaussed along with hard drives.

B.

The Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) between the organization and its data disposal service was more than 3 years old.

C.

Hard drives from older assets replaced defective hard drives from current assets of similar classification levels.

D.

Data classifications were not clearly identified.

Question 23

A financial services organization wants to deploy a wireless network. Which of the following is the WEAKEST option for ensuring a secure network?

Options:

A.

Separating internal wireless users from guests

B.

Media Access control (MAC) address filtering

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Deploy mutual authentication between the client and the network

Question 24

Which of the following actions best supports a company's strategic focus on delivery speed to improve competitive advantage?

Options:

A.

Maintaining high-capacity utilization

B.

Developing flexible operations

C.

Cross-training workers

D.

Implementing rapid process improvements

Question 25

An organization wants to establish an information security program and has assigned a security analyst to put it in place. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop and implement an information security standards manual.

B.

security control review.

C.

Perform a risk assessment to establish baseline security.

D.

Implement security access control software.

Question 26

Which of the following concepts MOST accurately refers to an organization's ability to fully understand the health of the data in its system at every stage of the lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Data observability

B.

Data portability

C.

Data discovery

D.

Data analytics

Question 27

Which security concept states that a subject (user, application, or asset) be given only the access needed to complete a task?

Options:

A.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

B.

Principle of least privilege

C.

Need to know

D.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Question 28

The primary benefit that results from the cross-training of employees is:

Options:

A.

improved flexibility.

B.

improved capacity.

C.

shortened lead time.

D.

effective problem-solving.

Question 29

An organization has decided to give decommissioned computers to a school in a developing country. The company data handling policy prohibits the storage of confidential and sensitive data. What would be the BEST technique to use to avoid data remanence, and to minimize the operational burden for the inheriting school?

Options:

A.

Overwriting the hard disk drive of the computers

B.

Encrypting the hard disk drive of the computers

C.

Removing and physically destroying the hard disk drive of the computers

D.

Degaussing the hard disk drive of the computers

Question 30

What can help a security professional assess and mitigate vulnerabilities of an embedded device?

Options:

A.

Conduct black-box testing.

B.

Conduct red-box testing.

C.

Conduct yellow-box testing.

D.

Conduct green-box testing.

Question 31

Company A has acquired Company B. Company A has decided to start a project to convert Company B's enterprise resource planning (ERP) software to the same ERP software that Company A uses. What is a likely reason for this decision?

Options:

A.

The ERP system has business processes which both companies can adopt

B.

Company A wants to save on software licensing costs

C.

Each ERP package has unique and distinctive business processes

D.

Company A wishes to close Company B's data center

Question 32

Which of the following mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart side channel attacks?

Options:

A.

Honeypots

B.

Adding listening devices

C.

Adding noise

D.

Acoustic cryptanalysis

Question 33

A cybersecurity analyst is responsible for identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities in the organization's software systems. Which action BEST demonstrates the understanding and application of threat modeling concepts and methodologies?

Options:

A.

Implementing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Conducting access control assessments for the data center

C.

Analyzing potential attack vectors for a new software application

D.

Developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for critical systems

Question 34

The demand for an item has increasing forecast error, whereas all other factors remain constant. Which of the following remains constant while maintaining the same customer service level?

Options:

A.

Reorder point(ROP)

B.

Safety stock

C.

Inventory investment

D.

Safety factor

Question 35

An organization's security policy requires remote hosts to be authenticated before they can access network resources. Which of the following is the BEST option for the organization to enforce its policy?

Options:

A.

Install a firewall.

B.

Implement Internet Protocol (IP) Access Control Lists (ACL).

C.

Implement 802.1X.

D.

Install an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).

Question 36

Which of the following methods is most often used to manage inventory planning variability across the supply chain?

Options:

A.

Buffer management

B.

Safety lead time

C.

Risk pooling

D.

Risk categorization

Question 37

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity And Management (IAM) solution?

Options:

A.

List and evaluate IAM available products.

B.

Evaluate business needs.

C.

Engage the sponsor and identify Key stakeholders.

D.

Engage the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

Question 38

An organization undergoing acquisition merged IT departments and infrastructure. During server decommissioning, some servers still in use by customers were mistakenly removed, causing order processing failures. Which type of review would have BEST avoided this scenario?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery (DR)

B.

Change management

C.

Business Continuity (BC)

D.

Business impact assessment

Question 39

A logistics manager Is faced with delivering an order via rail or truck. Shipping via rail costs S300 and takes 14 days. Shipping via truck costs $600 and takes 3 days. If the holding cost is $40 per day, what is the cost to deliver the order?

Options:

A.

$340for rail,$600 for truck

B.

$340for rail.$720 for truck

C.

$860for rail,$720 for truck

D.

$860for rail.$600 for truck

Question 40

An attacker was able to identify an organization’s wireless network, collect proprietary network resource information, and capture several user credentials. The attacker then used that information to conduct a more sophisticated and impactful attack against the organization. Which method did the attacker MOST likely use to gather the initial information?

Options:

A.

Proxy manipulation and Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack

B.

Media Access Control (MAC) spoofing and proxy manipulation

C.

Rogue access point and Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack

D.

Media Access Control (MAC) spoofing and rogue access point

Question 41

An organizations is developing a new software package for a financial institution. What is the FIRST step when modeling threats to this new software package?

Options:

A.

Diagram the data flows of the software package.

B.

Document the configuration of the software package.

C.

Prioritize risks to determine the mitigation strategy.

D.

Evaluate appropriate countermeasure to be implemented.

Question 42

An organization has decided to leverage open source software for its latest application development project. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to ensure the open source software can be used securely while still meeting business requirements?

Options:

A.

Allow only a minimal number of developers to reduce the chance for errors.

B.

Ensure the organization has a written policy governing the use of open source code.

C.

Interview a number of the open source developers to determine their experience level.

D.

Scan the code for security vulnerabilities.

Question 43

Which of the following measurements indicates there may be bias In the forecast model?

Options:

A.

Mean absolute deviation (MAD)

B.

Standard deviation

C.

Tracking signal

D.

Variance

Question 44

An example of a flexibility metric for an organization Is:

Options:

A.

average batch size.

B.

scrap rate.

C.

percentageof orders delivered late.

D.

cycle time.

Question 45

Which of the following actions provides the BEST evidence for forensic analysis of powered-off device?

Options:

A.

Copy all potentially useful files from the system to a network drive.

B.

Image the entire hard disk on an external drive.

C.

Copy all system and application log files to an external drive.

D.

Collect the memory, running processes, and temporary files.

Question 46

An organization wants to control access at a high-traffic entrance using magnetic-stripe cards for identification. Which of the following is the BEST for the organization to utilize?

Options:

A.

A turnstile

B.

A security guard

C.

A mantrap

D.

A locking door

Question 47

In pyramid forecasting, the "roll up" process begins with:

Options:

A.

combining individual product item forecasts into forecasts for product families.

B.

combining forecasts for product families into a total business forecast.

C.

allocating total business forecast changes to product families.

D.

allocating product family forecast changes to individual products.

Question 48

Which of the following should be performed FIRST in the course of a digital forensics investigation?

Options:

A.

Undelete files and investigate their content.

B.

Search through unallocated space.

C.

Shut down the system.

D.

Identify any data that needs to be obtained.

Question 49

Which specification enables organizations to ensure penetration test results are documented using open, machine-readable standards?

Options:

A.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

B.

Security Orchestration, Automation And Response (SOAR)

C.

Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE)

D.

Common Vulnerability Reporting Framework (CVRF)

Question 50

A security consultant is working with an organization to help evaluate a proposal received from a new managed security service provider. There are questions about the confidentiality and effectiveness of the provider's system over a period of time. Which of the following System And Organization Controls (SOC) report types should the consultant request from the provider?

Options:

A.

SOC 2 Type 1

B.

SOC 2 Type 2

C.

SOC 1 Type 1

D.

SOC 1 Type 2

Question 51

When assessing a new vendor as a possible business partner, what would BEST demonstrate that the vendor has a proactive approach to data security compliance?

Options:

A.

The vendor provides documented safeguards in handling confidential data.

B.

The vendor provides a copy of their externally performed risk assessment.

C.

The vendor has a Business Associate Agreement (BAA) in place before work begins.

D.

The vendor has a signed contract in place before work with data begins.

Question 52

An organization is considering options to outsource their Information Technology (IT) operations. Although they do not sell anything on the Internet, they have a strong requirement in uptime of their application. After evaluating the offerings received by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP), the IT manager decided it was mandatory to develop processes to continue operations without access to community or public cloud-based applications. Which of the following arguments MOST likely led the IT manager to make this decision?

Options:

A.

Circumstances may force a cloud provider to discontinue operations

B.

Most cloud service offerings are unique to each provider and may not be easily portable

C.

Integrity and confidentiality are not ensured properly on most cloud service offerings

D.

The need to develop alternative hosting strategies for applications deployed to the cloud

Question 53

A security team is analyzing the management of data within the human resources systems, as well as, the intended use of the data, and with whom and how the data will be shared. Which type of assessment is the team MOST likely performing?

Options:

A.

Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA)

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Sensitive data assessment

D.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) risk assessment

Question 54

Which of the following are compromised in an untrusted network using public key cryptography when a digitally signed message is modified without being detected?

Options:

A.

Integrity and authentication

B.

Integrity and non-repuditation

C.

Integrity and availability

D.

Confidentiality and availability

Question 55

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Man-In-The-Middle (MITM)

D.

Frequency analysis

Question 56

In order to meet retention requirements, it may be necessary to migrate digital records to different media because of which of the following issues?

Options:

A.

Deduplication conserves storage.

B.

Regulatory guidance requires compliance.

C.

Digital media can degrade.

D.

Hierarchical storage facilitates access.

Question 57

Which of the following provides that redundancy and failover capabilities are built into a system to maximize its uptime?

Options:

A.

Offsite backup

B.

High availability

C.

Diverse routing

D.

System mirroring

Question 58

Which of the following presents the GREATEST benefit to an organization's security posture when a change management process is implemented?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of Key Risk Indicators (KRI) reported to senior management

B.

Ensure the integrity of the organization's assets

C.

Backups being completed in a timely manner

D.

Accuracy of Key Performance Indicators (KPI) reported to senior management

Question 59

A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Something one does

B.

Something one is

C.

Something one has

D.

Something one knows

Question 60

Which of the following trade-offs should be evaluated when determining where to place inventory in a multi-echelon supply chain network?

Options:

A.

Production cost and lot size quantity

B.

Purchase cost and shrinkage rates

C.

Transportation cost and delivery time

D.

Customer price and order quantity

Question 61

An organization is preparing to deploy Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) to its workforce. The primary concerns of the organization are cost and security. The organization realizes that their entire workforce has computers and smartphones. Which of the following is BEST suited to address the organization's concerns?

Options:

A.

Soft token

B.

Short Message Service (SMS)

C.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

D.

Hard token

Question 62

What is the FIRST element that must be evaluated in a security governance program?

Options:

A.

An organization’s business objectives and strategy

B.

Review of Information Technology (IT) and technical controls

C.

Review of organization’s Information Technology (IT) security policies

D.

An organization’s utilization of resources

Question 63

A manufacturer begins production of an item when a customer order is placed. This is an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

Assemble-to-order (ATO) environment

B.

Make-to-stock (MTS) environment

C.

Pull system

D.

Push system

Question 64

Which of the following is the MAIN element in achieving a successful security strategy?

Options:

A.

Senior management commitment

B.

Security standards adoption

C.

Effective training and education

D.

Effective cost/benefit analysis

Question 65

Which of the following actions hinders the transition from a push system to a pull system?

Options:

A.

Using standardized containers

B.

Using work orders as a backup

C.

Introducing kanban cards as authorization for material movement

D.

Maintaining a constant number of kanban cards during minor changes in the level of production

Question 66

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach.

Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Common configuration enumerations

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

D.

National vulnerability database

Question 67

A large organization wants to implement a vulnerability management system in its internal network. A security professional has been hired to set up a vulnerability scanner on premises and to execute the scans periodically. Which of the following should be the FIRST action performed by the security professional?

Options:

A.

Configure internal firewalls to accept and pass all scanner traffic and responses

B.

Execute a vulnerability scan to determine the current organization security posture

C.

Select two different vulnerability scanners to get comprehensive reporting

D.

Obtain support from the computing systems' stakeholders

Question 68

Which of the following is the BEST option for a security director to use in order to mitigate the risk of inappropriate use of credentials by individuals with administrative rights?

Options:

A.

Have administrators sign appropriate access agreements.

B.

Define the Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) for administrators.

C.

Have administrators accept a Non-Disclosure Agreement.

D.

Perform extensive background checks on administrators.

Question 69

An organization is looking to integrate security concepts into the code development process early in development to detect issues before the software is launched. Which advantage does the organization gain from using Static Application Security Testing (SAST) techniques versus dynamic application security testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Allows tailored techniques

B.

Executes code to detect issues

C.

Allows for earlier vulnerability detection

D.

Simulates attacker patterns

Question 70

An attacker wants to decrypt a message and has no knowledge of what may have been in the original message. The attacker chooses to use an attack that will exhaust the keyspace in order to decrypt the message. What type of cryptanalytic attack is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

Ciphertext only

B.

Chosen ciphertext

C.

Brute force

D.

Known plaintext

Question 71

According to quality function deployment (QFD), customer needs are gathered through:

Options:

A.

employee suggestions.

B.

technical specifications.

C.

surveys.

D.

historical data.

Question 72

During an emergency management and planning session, an organization is discussing how to identify, prevent, prepare for, or respond to emergencies. Which of the following will provide the BEST possible outcome?

APerform drills on a recurring basis.

B.Harden all critical facilities.

C.Outsource to an external organization.

D.Allocate 100% of required funds.

Options:

Question 73

The help desk received a call from a user noting the digital certificate on the organization-issued security identification card was invalid. Which is the BEST reason the certificate stopped working?

Options:

A.

The user's certificate was compromised by the public key of the user.

B.

The public key of the Certificate Authority (CA) is known to attackers.

C.

The user's certificate was absent from the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

D.

The user's certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.

Question 74

In the context of mobile device security, which of the following BEST describes why a walled garden should be implemented?

Options:

A.

To track user actions and activity

B.

To prevent the installation of untrusted software

C.

To restrict a user's ability to change device settings

D.

To limit web access to only approved sites

Question 75

Which of the following actions will result In lower inventory levels?

Options:

A.

Level load the master production schedule (MPS).

B.

Reduce replenishment lead times.

C.

Increase customer service level.

D.

Decentralize inventory locations.

Question 76

Which of the following production activity control (PAC) techniques focuses on optimizing output?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Priority sequencing rules

C.

Theory of constraints (TOC) scheduling

D.

Critical path management (CPM)

Question 77

A computer forensic analyst is examining suspected malware from a computer system post-attack. Upon reverse engineering the code, the analyst sees several concerning instructions. One of those concerning instructions is that it installs a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) rootkit, and when the system is then rebooted, the BIOS checks for a certain unknown program to be installed. Which security feature MOST likely would have detected and prevented this type of attack if already on the system?

Options:

A.

Operating System (OS) virtualization

B.

Memory protection

C.

Cryptographic module

D.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

Question 78

What is the process when a security assessor compiles potential targets from the attacker’s perspective, such as data flows, and interactions with users?

Options:

A.

Threat categorization

B.

Threat avoidance

C.

Threat acceptance

D.

Threat mitigation

Question 79

What is the MOST important security benefit of comprehensive asset management?

Options:

A.

Enforces information security policies

B.

Supports understanding of enterprise security posture

C.

Supports locating security components at end of life

D.

Enforces network security access controls

Question 80

A United States (US)-based online gaming provider, which operates in Germany, collects and uses a large amount of user behavioral data. A customer from Germany requests a copy of all their personal data.

What is the MOST appropriate course of action for the organization to take?

Options:

A.

Provide all the requested data in an organization’s proprietary encrypted format and deliver a viewing application.

B.

Gather all the data about all the users and provide it to the customer in Extensible Markup Language (XML) format.

C.

Gather and provide all the requested data in Extensible Markup Language (XML) format.

D.

Provide a time convenient to the customer to visit the organization’s premises and provide an overview of all the processed data by an organization’s privacy officer.

Question 81

An organization has network services in a data center that are provisioned only for internal use, and staff at offices and staff working from home both use the services to store sensitive customer data. The organization does not want the Internet Protocol (IP) address of the service to receive traffic from users not related to the organization. Which technology is MOST useful to the organization in protecting this network?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Question 82

In which of the following environments is capable-to-promise (CTP) more appropriate than available-to-promise (ATP)?

Options:

A.

Consumer electronics sold through local retailers

B.

Industrial supplies shipped from regional distribution centers (DCs)

C.

Packaged foods sold in grocery stores

D.

Specialty chemicals packaged and shipped to order

Question 83

Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

Options:

A.

Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.

B.

Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

C.

Work centers operate using decentralized control.

D.

Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.

Question 84

A financial institution is implementing an Information Technology (IT) asset management system. Which of the following capabilities is the MOST important to include?

Options:

A.

Logging the data leak protection status of the IT asset

B.

Tracking the market value of the IT asset

C.

Receiving or transferring an IT asset

D.

Recording the bandwidth and data usage of the IT asset

Question 85

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

Options:

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

Question 86

In Company XYZ, transaction-costing capability has been Integrated into the shop floor reporting system. A batch of 20 units was started in production. At the fourth operation, 20 units are reported as complete. At the fifth operation, 25 units are reported as complete. When all operations are complete, 20 units are checked into the stockroom. If the error at the fifth operation is undetected, which of the following conditions will be true?

Options:

A.

Stockroom inventory balance will be incorrect.

B.

Operator efficiency for the fifth operation will be overstated.

C.

Units in process will be understated.

D.

Work-in-process (WIP) cost will be understated.

Question 87

Given the bill of material (BOM) information below and independent requirements of 10 pieces (pcs) per week of Component A and 20 pieces (pcs) per week of Component B, what is the weekly gross requirement of component F?

Question # 87

Options:

A.

80

B.

120

C.

160

D.

200

Question 88

After a data loss event, an organization is reviewing its Identity and Access Management (IAM) governance process. The organization determines that the process is not operating effectively. What should be the FIRST step to effectively manage the IAM governance process?

Options:

A.

Complete an inventory of who has access to systems.

B.

Create a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) process to determine what a specific group of users can access.

C.

Create an Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) process to assign access to users based on their account attributes and characteristics.

D.

Conduct an assessment and remove all inactive accounts.

Question 89

A semiconductor manufacturer is writing a physical asset handling policy. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the rationale for the policy?

Options:

A.

Access of system logs to authorized staff

B.

Accurate and prompt tagging of all business files

C.

Assurance of safe and clean handling of company property

D.

Adoption of environmental controls in the server room

Question 90

An organization is migrating some of its applications to the cloud. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about the accuracy of the reports showing which application should be migrated and how many applications reside on each server. As a result, the CISO is looking to establish asset management requirements. Which of these elements should be considered part of asset management requirements?

Options:

A.

Threat modelling and discovery

B.

Configuration Management (CM) database

C.

Risk management framework

D.

Integration testing program

Question 91

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Mai-In-The-Middle (MITM)

B.

Side-Channel

C.

Frequency analysis

D.

Fault injection

Question 92

An order winner during the growth stage of a product's life cycle is:

Options:

A.

variety.

B.

availability.

C.

dependability.

D.

price.

Question 93

Which of the following Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) components provides the MOST confidentiality for the information that is being transmitted?

Options:

A.

Authentication Header (AH)

B.

Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

C.

Encapsulation Security Payload

D.

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

Question 94

In which of the following situations would you use an X-bar chart?

Options:

A.

Track the number of defects that are found in each unit.

B.

Measure the difference between the largest and the smallest in a sample.

C.

Determine the average value of a group of units.

D.

Estimate a subgroup variation.

Question 95

During a manual source code review, an organization discovered a dependency with an open-source library that has a history of being exploited. Which action should the organization take FIRST to assess the risk of depending on the open-source library?

Options:

A.

Identify the specific version of the open-source library that is implemented

B.

Request a penetration test that will attempt to exploit the open-source library

C.

Deploy the latest compatible version of the open-source library

D.

Submit a change request to remove software dependencies with the open-source library

Question 96

Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?

Options:

A.

Retina

B.

Facial recognition

C.

Iris

D.

Hand geometry

Question 97

A web application is found to have SQL injection (SQLI) vulnerabilities. What is the BEST option to remediate?

Options:

A.

Use prepared statements with parameterized queries

B.

Do allow or use Structured Query Language (SQL) within GET methods.

C.

Use substitution variables for all Structure Query Language (SQL) statements.

D.

Do not allow quote characters to be entered.

Question 98

A newly hired Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is now responsible to build a third-party assurance for their organization. When assessing a third-party, which of the following questions needs to be answered?

Options:

A.

How many employees the third-party employs?

B.

Which level of support does the third-party provide related to security?

C.

What is the monetary value of the third-party contract?

D.

To which standards does the third-party need to be assessed?

Question 99

What FIRST step should a newly appointed Data Protection Officer (DPO) take to develop an organization's regulatory compliance policy?

Options:

A.

Draft an organizational policy on retention for approval.

B.

Ensure that periodic data governance compliance meetings occur.

C.

Understand applicable laws, regulations, and policies with regard to the data.

D.

Determine the classification of each data type.

Question 100

Which of the following planes directs the flow of data within a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Data

C.

Application

D.

Control

Question 101

When an organization is recruiting for roles within the organization, at which stage of the employee life cycle are termination procedures incorporated?

Options:

A.

Security training

B.

Orientation

C.

User provisioning

D.

Background check

Question 102

The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:

Options:

A.

represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.

B.

represents the forecast with less detail.

C.

balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

D.

balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.

Question 103

A security engineer must address resource sharing between various applications without adding physical hardware to the environment. Which secure design principle is used to BEST segregate applications?

Options:

A.

Network firewalls

B.

Logical isolation

C.

Application firewalls

D.

Physical isolation

Question 104

Which of the following statements is true about total productive maintenance (TPM)?

Options:

A.

It uses statistical tools.

B.

It is part of the business strategy.

C.

It influences the product design process.

D.

It minimizes unscheduled breakdowns.

Question 105

If fixed costs are §200,000 and 20,000 units are produced, a unit's fixed cost is §10. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

variable costing.

B.

activity-based costing (ABC).

C.

absorption costing.

D.

overhead costing.

Question 106

In which cloud computing model is Identify And Access Management (IAM) the responsibility of a service provider?

Options:

A.

Software As A Service (SaaS).

B.

Platform As A Service (PaaS).

C.

Desktop As A Service (DaaS).

D.

Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS).

Question 107

Which of the following regarding authentication protocols is a PRIMARY consideration when designing an authentication and key management system?

Options:

A.

Refresh

B.

Visibility

C.

Authorization

D.

Integrity

Question 108

A company uses planning bills of material (BOMs) in its planning process extensively. Which of the following scenarios would present the biggest challenge to this planning process?

Options:

A.

High variation in supplier delivery

B.

Low variation in the demand mix

C.

High new product introductions

D.

High manufacturing scrap rates

Question 109

An advertising agency is working on a campaign for a prospective client. Competitors are working on a similar campaign and are interested in knowing what the firm has designed. What should the advertising agency do to BEST ensure intellectual property does not leave the organization?

Options:

A.

Protect the information by installing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system

B.

Block all organizational email communication with the competitor

C.

Install an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

D.

Encrypt the data on the servers and distribute private-key information to authorized users

Question 110

A large volume of outbound Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections from the same source Internet Protocol (IP) address was observed at a satellite office firewall. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?

Options:

A.

There is only one managed switch port device on the satellite network.

B.

The command and control server has shut down all but one host.

C.

The network hosts are behind a Network Address Translation (NAT) device.

D.

The malware has shut down all but one host used for command and control.

Question 111

Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) protocol relies on Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP). Which can be used maliciously to interrupt the flow of data. Which Information Technology (IT) component would be impacted by such a disruption?

Options:

A.

Firewall.

B.

Switch.

C.

Storage.

D.

Router.

Question 112

What is the MAIN reason security is considered as part of the system design phase instead of deferring to later phases?

Options:

A.

To ensure complexity introduced by security design is addressed in the beginning stages.

B.

To reduce the overall cost of incorporating security in a system.

C.

To prevent the system from being tampered with in the future.

D.

To prevent the users from performing unauthorized actions during the testing or operational phases.

Question 113

What is the PRIMARY benefit an organization obtains by cybersecurity framework to their cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

A common set of security capabilities

B.

A common language and methodology

C.

A structured cybersecurity program

D.

A structured risk management process

Question 114

Marketing has requested a significant change in the mix for a product family. The requested change falls between the demand and the planning time fences. The most appropriate action by the master scheduler is to:

Options:

A.

reject the request.

B.

accept the request.

C.

forward the request to senior management.

D.

check the availability of required material.

Question 115

A disadvantage of a capacity-lagging strategy may be:

Options:

A.

lack of capacity to fully meet demand.

B.

risk of excess capacity if demand does not reach forecast.

C.

a high cost of inventories.

D.

planned capital investments occur earlier than needed.

Question 116

Which of the following provides for continuous improvement of the change control process?

Options:

A.

Configuration Management Database (CMDB) update

B.

Predefine change window

C.

Post change review

D.

Stakeholder notification

Question 117

If all other factors remain the same, when finished goods inventory investment is increased, service levels typically will:

Options:

A.

remain the same.

B.

increase in direct (linear) proportion.

C.

increase at a decreasing rate.

D.

increase at an increasing rate.

Question 118

Which of the following does a federated Identity Provider (IDP) need in order to grant access to identity information?

Options:

A.

The end system and the middleware system must trust each other.

B.

The end system authenticates and verifies the user.

C.

The end system application needs to verify the user’s identity.

D.

The application or system needs to trust the user.

Question 119

Which of the following benefits typically will be realized when switching from a functional to a cellular layout?

Options:

A.

Equipment utilization will be higher.

B.

Quality inspections will be reduced.

C.

Capital expenditures will be reduced.

D.

Products will have faster throughput.

Question 120

Which of the following may authorize an organization to monitor an employee’s company computer and phone usage?

Options:

A.

Signed Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

B.

Signed Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

C.

ISC2 Code of Ethics

D.

Suspicious that a crime is being committed

Question 121

Open Authorized (OAuth) has been chosen as technology to use across applications in the enterprise. Which of the following statements is TRUE about an OAuth token?

Options:

A.

Does not specify a time interval

B.

Can be used for authentication

C.

Can be used across multiple sites

D.

Specifies what information can be accessed

Question 122

An organization wants to ensure the security of communications across its environment. What is the BEST way to provide confidentiality of data from handheld wireless devices to the internal network?

Options:

A.

Transmission encryption

B.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

C.

Single Sign-On (SSO)

D.

Transmission authentication

Question 123

The question below is based on the following information:

Question # 123

Work Center 1 has an available capacity of 1,200 hours per month. Which of the following amounts represents the cumulative difference between the required capacity and the available capacity of Months 1 through 3?

Options:

A.

50

B.

150

C.

1.250

D.

3.750

Question 124

A company confirms a customer order based on available capacity and inventory, even though the current production plan does not cover the entire order quantity. This situation is an example of what type of order fulfillment policy?

Options:

A.

Assemble-to-order (ATO)

B.

Capable-to-promise (CTP)

C.

Available-to-promise (ATP)

D.

Configure-to-order (CTO)

Question 125

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibility of an information System Security Officer?

Options:

A.

Establish the baseline, architecture, and management direction and ensure compliance

B.

Ensure adherence to physical security policies and procedures

C.

Direct, coordinate, plan, and organize information security activities

D.

Ensure the availability of the systems and their contents

Question 126

The primary reason for tracing a component with scheduling problems to Its master production schedule (MPS) item is to:

Options:

A.

revise the rough-cut capacity plan.

B.

reschedule a related component on the shop floor.

C.

check the accuracy of the bills for the MPS items.

D.

determine if a customer order will be impacted.

Question 127

Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the strategic plan and the business plan?

Options:

A.

These are two names for the same plan.

B.

The strategic plan constrains the business plan.

C.

The two plans are developed independently.

D.

The two plans are the output of a single process.

Question 128

A security officer has been tasked with performing security assessments on the organization’s in the current calendar year. While collecting data, the officer realizes that more than one business until will be engaged in the assessment. What activity MUST be included in the data collection phase?

Options:

A.

Conduct a detailed data analysis on the security impacts using historical data.

B.

Prioritize assessment activities and strategically asses each application

C.

Identify a sponsor from within the organization to prioritize the activities

D.

Perform a risk analysis and determine which applications must be assessed

Question 129

An organizational policy requires that any data from organization-issued devices be securely destroyed before disposal. Which method provides the BEST assurance of data destruction?

Options:

A.

Incinerating

B.

Reformatting

C.

Degaussing

D.

Erasing

Question 130

During the initiation phase of a project to acquire a customer relation management system, what is the FIRST step a project team will take for early integration of security?

Options:

A.

Develop a list of security requirements for the system.

B.

Conduct project planning and a feasibility assessment.

C.

Define system security classifications.

D.

Review relevant regulatory practices and standards.

Question 131

In restoring the entire corporate email system after a major outage and data loss, an email administrator reads a few email message exchanges between the human resources manager and a candidate for an open position. Which of the following BEST describes the behavior of the email administrator, and why?

Options:

A.

The behavior is ethical, because the email administrator was not deliberately looking for the email and only accidentally read the emails.

B.

The behavior is ethical, because the email administrator read the emails to confirm that the email system was properly restored.

C.

The behavior is not ethical, because the email administrator exceeded his or her privilege and trust in reading the email messages.

D.

The behavior is not ethical, because the email administrator should have informed the manager about the restoration in advance.

Question 132

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of black hat testing during an assessment?

Options:

A.

Assess systems without the knowledge of end-users.

B.

Focus on identifying vulnerabilities.

C.

Examine the damage or impact an adversary can cause.

D.

Determine the risk associated with unknown vulnerabilities.

Question 133

Which if the following is the FIRST control step in provisioning user rights and privileges?

Options:

A.

Identification

B.

Authorization

C.

Authentication

D.

Confidentiality

Question 134

A cybersecurity analyst has recently been assigned to work with a product development team. The team has usually needed to perform a lot of rework late in the development cycle on past projects due to application security concerns. They would like to minimize the amount of rework necessary. Which would be the BEST option to enable secure code review early in the product development?

Options:

A.

Implement dynamic code analysis

B.

Perform manual code reviews

C.

Implement static code analysis

D.

Perform fuzz testing

Question 135

Which of the following is the GREATEST threat for a Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) deployment on the internet?

Options:

A.

Ability to use weak hashing algorithms for peer authentication

B.

Ability to perform unauthenticated peering across autonomous systems

C.

Failure to validate legitimacy of received route advertisements

D.

Failure to encrypt route announcement across autonomous systems

Question 136

How would a master production schedule (MPS) be used In an assemble-to-order (ATO) manufacturing environment?

Options:

A.

The MPS is used to plan subassemblies and components; end items are only scheduled when a customer order is received.

B.

Subassemblies are scheduled in the MPS when the customer order is received, and production can start.

C.

Typically, the MPS is not used in companies using an ATO manufacturing strategy.

D.

Often In an ATO environment, the MPS is created once a year and only revised if a product is discontinued.

Question 137

An organization is transitioning from a traditional server-centric infrastructure to a cloud-based Infrastructure. Shortly after the transition, a major breach occurs to the organization's databases. In an Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS) model, who would be held responsible for the breach?

Options:

A.

The database vendor

B.

The third-party auditor

C.

The organization

D.

The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

Question 138

Additional requirements that are outside the original design are being added to a project, increasing the timeline and cost of the project.

What BEST describes the requirement changes that are happening?

Options:

A.

Volatility

B.

Stove-piped requirements

C.

Non-verifiable requirements

D.

Scope creep

Question 139

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in planned production that is greater than the total demand over the sales and operations planning (S&OP) horizon for a product family that is

made to stock?

Options:

A.

An increase in the customer service level is planned for the product family.

B.

New models are being added to the product family.

C.

Planned ending inventory for the product family is less than the beginning inventory.

D.

There is a long-term upward trend in demand for the product family.

Question 140

An organization wants to ensure a risk does not occur. The action taken is to eliminate the attack surface by uninstalling vulnerable software. Which risk response strategy did the organization take?

Options:

A.

Accepting risk

B.

Avoiding risk

C.

Mitigating risk

D.

Transferring risk

Question 141

An audit of antivirus server reports shows a number of workstations do not have current signatures installed. The organization security standard requires all systems to have current antivirus signatures. What distinct part of the audit finding did the auditor fail to include?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Effect

D.

Cause

Question 142

We have observed the inventory system does not handle plastic parts well." What should be added to the problem statement to make it more useful?

Options:

A.

Measurements that help describe the problem

B.

Guidance to which problem-solving tools should be used

C.

Criteria for selecting the improvement team

D.

Description of who is responsible for the problem

Question 143

Which of the following product design approaches are likely to reduce time to market for a global supply chain?

Options:

A.

Concurrent engineering

B.

Design for manufacture

C.

Design for logistics

D.

Quality function deployment (QFD)

Question 144

A Software As A Service (SaaS) solution was compromised due to multiple missing security controls. The SaaS deployment was rushed and the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) was not followed. Which SDLC phase would have been MOST effective in preventing this failure?

Options:

A.

Maintenance

B.

Design

C.

Testing

D.

Requirements

Question 145

Which approach will BEST mitigate risks associated with root user access while maintaining system functionality?

Options:

A.

Creating a system where administrative tasks are performed under monitored sessions using the root account, with audits conducted regularly

B.

Implementing a policy where users log in as root for complex tasks but use personal accounts for everyday activities, with strict logging of root access

C.

Configuring individual user accounts with necessary privileges for specific tasks and employing “sudo” for occasional administrative needs

D.

Allowing key authorized personnel to access the root account for critical system changes, while other staff use limited accounts with “sudo” for routine tasks

Question 146

Which of the following is the workflow of the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Creation, Assessment, Deletion

B.

Assessment, Creation, Deletion

C.

Provision, Review, Revocation

D.

Review, Provision, Revocation

Question 147

What BEST describes the end goal of a Disaster Recovery (DR) program?

Options:

A.

Review the status of mission-critical applications.

B.

Prevent business interruption.

C.

Continue business operations during a contingency.

D.

Restore normal business operations.

Question 148

An organization’s external auditors have issued a management letter identifying significant deficiencies related to the effectiveness of the previous year’s global access certification. The organization wants to move from a department-based access control system to a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) system. In addition to quickly and securely provisioning users by granting membership into predefined and approved roles, which of these presents the BEST reason to do so?

Options:

A.

The organization can implement both mandatory and dynamic access controls, except where they would be in conflict.

B.

The organization can clone roles, saving time and granting broad access to persons within the same department.

C.

The organization can give a person holding multiple roles the appropriate levels of access to specific data for each role.

D.

The organization can implement both static and dynamic access controls, adjusting them to fit any individual’s access needs.

Question 149

One of the most useful tools for analyzing the sustainable footprint is:

Options:

A.

process mapping.

B.

lean six sigma.

C.

SWOT analysis.

D.

ISO 9000.

Question 150

A team is tasked with developing new email encryption software. To ensure security, what will be the PRIMARY focus during the initial phase of development?

Options:

A.

Ensuring compliance with international data protection and privacy laws for email communication

B.

Implementing strong encryption algorithms to ensure the confidentiality of the emails

C.

Developing a robust user authentication system to prevent unauthorized access to the software

D.

Defining clear software requirements for security and identifying potential threats and risks to the software

Question 151

An organization currently has a network with 55,000 unique Internet Protocol (IP) addresses in their private Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) network range and has acquired another organization and must integrate their 25,000 endpoints with the existing, flat network topology. If subnetting is not implemented, which network class is implied for the organization’s resulting private network segment?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

E

Question 152

Asymmetric cryptography uses which type of key to encrypt data?

Options:

A.

Private key

B.

Permanent key

C.

Parent key

D.

Public key

Question 153

The question below is based on the following standard and actual data of a production order

Question # 153

Which of the following statements about variances is true?

Options:

A.

The material price vanance for Component A is favorable by S10

B.

The labor pnce variance is unfavorable by S20

C.

The material usage variance for Component B is favorable by $36

D.

The labor efficiency variance is favorable by S20

Question 154

A company assembles kits of hand tools after receipt of the order from distributors and uses two-level master scheduling. The appropriate levels of detail for the forecasts that are input to master scheduling would be total number of kits and:

Options:

A.

each unique tool.

B.

percentage of total for each tool.

C.

raw material requirements.

D.

specific kit configurations.

Question 155

Which of the following methods would be appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history?

Options:

A.

Econometric models

B.

Computer simulation

C.

Time series decomposition

D.

Weighted moving average

Question 156

A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live. What is the organization's BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

B.

Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.

C.

Gain assurance on the vendor's security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.

D.

Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.

Question 157

Which Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol provides a built-in encryption?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

B.

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol

C.

Layer 2 Forwarding Protocol

D.

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

Question 158

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

Question 159

An organization starts to develop a drone inspection and defect detection system includes different subsystems running at different clouds from different service providers. During the architectural design phase, which security architecture principle should be the MOST important for the security engineer to apply?

Options:

A.

Security by design

B.

Default deny

C.

Security by default

D.

Security before design

Question 160

Privacy requirements across national boundaries MOST often require protection of which data types?

Options:

A.

Contact information for elected officials and local and national government web content

B.

Contact information related to minors, medical records, and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

C.

Contact information for board members, proprietary trade secrets, and income statements

D.

Contact information related to medical doctors, Protected Health Information (PHI), and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

Question 161

Which of the following is the MOST effective practice for tracking organizational assets when removed from the premises?

Options:

A.

Removal is authorized directly by executive management.

B.

Removal is authorized using a formal sign-out process.

C.

Removal is authorized when remote use is required for business.

D.

Removal is authorized if the asset has been disposed of.

Question 162

Following the setting of an organization’s risk appetite by senior management, a risk manager needs to prioritize all identified risks for treatment. Each risk has been scored based on its Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE). Management has asked for an immediate risk mitigation plan focusing on top risks. Which is the MOST effective approach for the risk manager to quickly present a proposal to management?

Options:

A.

Rank all risks based on their Single-Loss Expectancy (SLE) and select those that exceed a maximum acceptable threshold derived from the risk appetite.

B.

Rank all risks based on ALE and select those that exceed a maximum acceptable threshold derived from the risk appetite.

C.

Rank all risks based on Single-Loss Expectancy (SLE) and select the top 10 risks.

D.

Rank all risks based on ALE and select the top 10 risks.

Question 163

What is a strategic process that is aimed at considering possible attack scenarios and vulnerabilities within a proposed or existing application environment for the purpose of clearly identifying risk and impact levels?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Asset management

C.

Risk management

D.

Asset modeling

Question 164

Which of the common vulnerabilities below can be mitigated by using indexes rather than actual portions of file names?

Options:

A.

Open redirect

B.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

C.

Path traversal

D.

Classic buffer overflow

Question 165

Which of the following terms below BEST describes the measure of confidence that the security features, practices, procedures, and architecture of an information system accurately mediates and enforces security policy?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Residual risk

C.

Security architecture

D.

Security assurance

Question 166

Which of the following vulnerability types is also known as a serialization flaw and affects the integrity of two processes interacting with the same resource at the same time?

Options:

A.

Boundary condition

B.

Buffer overflow

C.

Race condition

D.

Integer overflow

Question 167

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial service organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

B.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

Question 168

An information system security manager is tasked with properly applying risk management principle to their cloud information system as outlined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST).

Which of the following is the INITIAL step?

Options:

A.

Categorize

B.

Select

C.

Assess

D.

Prepare

Question 169

A Managed Service Provider (MSP) provides hardware and software support for system maintenance and upgrades to a client organization. Who is MOST responsible for auditing security controls related to the hardware and software?

Options:

A.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of the MSP

B.

Information Technology (IT) director of the client

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of the client organization

D.

Information Technology (IT) director of the MSP

Question 170

What is the BEST item to consider when designing security for information systems?

Options:

A.

The comprehensive level of assurance required

B.

The jurisdiction of the information system

C.

The security requirements of the board

D.

The Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

Question 171

In the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process, the demand management function provides:

Options:

A.

Information not included in the forecast

B.

A measurement of forecast accuracy

C.

A correction of forecast errors

D.

A more detailed forecast

Question 172

What is the BEST preventive measure against employees abusing access privileges?

Options:

A.

Move abusers to other positions

B.

Establish a solid security awareness training program

C.

Terminate abusers

D.

Require frequent password changes

Question 173

When developing information security policies, What is the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Alignment with business requirements

B.

Compliance with legal requirements

C.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

D.

Compliance with international standards

Question 174

Based on the above table, calculate the mean absolute deviation (MAD).

Question # 174

Options:

A.

-25

B.

6.25

C.

18.75

D.

20

Question 175

Which of the following is the BEST type of fire extinguisher for a data center environment?

Options:

A.

Class A

B.

Class B

C.

Class C

D.

Class D

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Total 585 questions