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ACDIS CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Exam Practice Test

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Total 140 questions

Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A 76-year-old patient presents for a wellness visit. The patient’s vitals are BP 120/80, T 98.7, R 19, and there are no abnormal findings in the exam. The patient has COPD, home oxygen, anemia, hypertension, diabetes, fatigue, and weakness. The patient’s medications are called into the pharmacy and home health resource of choice. Which of the following is the BEST query option?

Options:

A.

Acute blood loss anemia

B.

Peripheral neuropathy

C.

Chronic respiratory failure

D.

CKD

Question 2

Which of the following BEST defines a risk score under the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Beneficiary's demographics and social determinants

B.

Beneficiary and family demographics

C.

Beneficiary's individual demographic and health status

D.

Beneficiary's health status and risk of mortality

Question 3

Provider documentation states: “A patient is seen today with DM type 2, peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer of the left great toe, hypertension, and BMI 43. O2 dependent, chronic respiratory failure due to COPD, stopped smoking 2 years ago - 84 packs per year smoking habit.” Which of the following query opportunities will impact risk adjustment?

Options:

A.

Nicotine dependence

B.

Diabetes with complications

C.

Morbid obesity

D.

Depth of diabetic ulcer

Question 4

Which of the following is a key component that is used to calculate Relative Value Units (RVUs)?

Options:

A.

Time with the patient

B.

Physician specialty type

C.

Malpractice expense

D.

Medical decision making

Question 5

A patient is seen at the clinic for a fever, and the provider documents possible Zika virus. A CDI specialist reviews the record and notes that a positive serology test indicates the Zika virus. Which of the following should the CDI specialist do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Code the Zika virus as the reason for the visit.

B.

Query the provider to code the result of the serology test.

C.

Query the provider to confirm the diagnosis of Zika.

D.

Code the fever as the first-listed diagnosis and Zika virus as secondary.

Question 6

A patient is scheduled to see his PCP in 3 days. A CDI specialist notes that during the patient's last visit earlier this year, the problem list shows both DM 2 associated erectile dysfunction and DM 2 without complications. The last clinic note states that DM 2 with autonomic neuropathy was addressed. The CDI specialist should do which of the following FIRST?

Options:

A.

Remove DM 2 without complications from the problem list

B.

Query if the DM 2 is with or without complications

C.

Ask the patient if he still has DM 2 with autonomic neuropathy

D.

Query the provider for the link between erectile dysfunction and DM 2

Question 7

For outpatient/provider services, the primary sources of coding authority include the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, AHA’s Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, as well as which of the following?

Options:

A.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA’s CPT Assistant

B.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting

C.

ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting and DRG Expert

D.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS, ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, and DRG Expert

Question 8

An established patient is defined as one who has received professional services from the same or another physician or qualified healthcare professional from the exact same specialty and sub-specialty and belongs to the same group practice, within the past how many years?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 9

A patient is evaluated in the clinic. Documentation states: “HIV positive, gravida 1 at 24 weeks.” Which of the following conditions will be coded and in which sequence based on the documentation?

Options:

A.

HIV disease, pregnancy

B.

Pregnancy with HIV disease

C.

Asymptomatic HIV, pregnancy

D.

Pregnancy with asymptomatic HIV

Question 10

Which of the following BEST represents performance metrics important to an outpatient CDI program?

Options:

A.

Medicare Case Mix Index, aggregate RAF scores, and clinical denial rate

B.

HCC capture rate, unspecified code utilization rate, and query response rate

C.

Severity of illness, HCC capture rate, and Medicare Case Mix Index

D.

Number of secondary diagnoses per claim, aggregate RAF score, and quality indicators

Question 11

Which of the following is a strategy that is often used by ACOs to improve their performance in the Readmission Reduction program?

Options:

A.

Encourage providers to avoid reporting chronic conditions on subsequent admissions.

B.

Educate providers about the importance of capturing chronic conditions in documentation.

C.

Work with IT to increase the unspecified code choices in pick lists in the EHR.

D.

Flag qualifying patients upon arrival to ED to be placed in observation status vs. admission.

Question 12

Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Concern for streptococcal pneumonia

B.

Treating a streptococcal pneumonia with antibiotic

C.

Evidence of streptococcal pneumonia

D.

Broad spectrum antibiotic prescribed for streptococcal pneumonia

Question 13

CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology seeks to measure

Options:

A.

an individual’s anticipated cost of care.

B.

a beneficiary’s risk of mortality.

C.

group beneficiary costs.

D.

physician cost of care provision.

Question 14

A CDI specialist read the most recent AHA Coding Clinic that provided updated guidance related to a prior AHA Coding Clinic. The CDI specialist should

Options:

A.

apply the initial Coding Clinic advice to relevant cases in that calendar year only.

B.

follow the initial Coding Clinic advice for remainder of the fiscal year.

C.

utilize the updated Coding Clinic advice from published date forward.

D.

employ the updated Coding Clinic advice to relevant cases discharged last year.

Question 15

Which of the following contributes to the risk adjustment score under the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Income status and disability status

B.

Health status and previous risk score

C.

Enrollment eligibility status and reported conditions

D.

Cost of care provided and hospital readmissions

Question 16

Which of the following coding guidelines is MOST important for a provider to understand when selecting diagnosis codes for an office visit as opposed to an inpatient stay?

Options:

A.

Chronic conditions only have to be coded once a year even if relevant to multiple encounters.

B.

First-listed diagnosis and principal diagnosis are synonymous terms.

C.

Documentation of uncertain diagnoses may not be assigned ICD-10-CM codes.

D.

Documentation is only required for the main reason of the office visit.

Question 17

An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary’s risk score?

Options:

A.

Patient noncompliance and age

B.

ICD-10-CM codes and race

C.

Medicaid status and race

D.

Medicaid status and gender

Question 18

Clinic documentation states: “Follow-up for post-induction chemotherapy for metastatic uterine cancer.” To BEST identify the conditions being monitored and treated, a CDI specialist should

Options:

A.

clarify the morphology of the tumor.

B.

evaluate diagnostic lab results.

C.

review the record for MRI results.

D.

query for secondary sites.

Question 19

A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status of ostomy

B.

Status of the sleep apnea

C.

Status of the COPD

D.

Status of colon cancer

Question 20

Which diagnosis and treatment plan may generate a query?

Options:

A.

Prostate carcinoma and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone

B.

Atrial fibrillation and amiodarone

C.

Malnutrition and parenteral nutrition

D.

Severe major depressive disorder and immunotherapy

Question 21

PCP notes describe declining renal function with creatinine trending upward over the last 12 months. Nephrology consult ordered. Which of the following diagnostic tests could support a query to identify status of the patient’s baseline renal function?

Options:

A.

Creatinine

B.

BUN (Blood urea nitrogen)

C.

eGFR (glomerular filtration rate)

D.

ACR (albumin to creatinine ratio)

Question 22

Which of the following is covered under the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS)? (Select all that apply)

Options:

A.

Community mental health centers

B.

Indian health services

C.

Physical therapy treatment

D.

Clinical diagnostic lab services

Question 23

What is the goal of an MSSP program?

Options:

A.

Optimize risk score

B.

Share in savings

C.

Improve transitions of care

D.

Increase fee schedule payment

Question 24

Which of the following is a leading query?

Options:

A.

“The documentation includes modifications for current Celexa dosages. Can you please identify the condition treated with this medication?”

B.

“The patient has a past medical history of RUL lung cancer. Should lung cancer be classified as: A) currently being treated, B) History of lung CA?”

C.

“The patient has a BMI of 42 per the nursing documentation. Does this patient have a medically relevant diagnosis to accompany the BMI? Please select one of the following options. A) morbid obesity, B) obesity, C) overweight, D) Other____, E) Clinically undetermined”

D.

“Your documentation states the patient drinks a 6-pack of beer nightly. Does this patient have alcohol dependence? Yes/No (circle one)”

E.

F.

G.

Question 25

A 75-year-old with a PMH of chronic foot ulcer, CKD, and depression is seen by his PCP for continued fatigue and decreased urination. Labs drawn on previous day are reviewed. Patient describes extreme fatigue and no motivation. Assessment and plan include: “CKD 3 with renal failure - refer to nephrologist. Chronic nonpressure foot ulcer - home care for wound assessment. Depression - Rx for SSRI.” Which of the following are the validated diagnoses that risk adjust and qualify as CMS-HCCs?

Options:

A.

Renal failure; CKD 3

B.

CKD 3; chronic non-pressure ulcer

C.

Depression; renal failure

D.

Chronic non-pressure ulcer; depression

Question 26

In which of the following ways does payment determination (risk score calculation) differ between HHS-HCCs and CMS-HCCs?

Options:

A.

HHS-HCCs use the current year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the current year’s spending.

B.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the next year’s spending.

C.

HHS-HCCs use current ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the current year’s spending.

D.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the next year’s spending.

Question 27

The primary purpose of clinical documentation improvement (CDI) is to:

Options:

A.

Increase hospital reimbursement

B.

Ensure accurate and complete documentation reflecting patient severity and care provided

C.

Simplify the physician’s workflow

D.

Reduce coding workload

Question 28

Which of the following actions should be taken when the documentation states: “Hemiparesis, history of CVA, and intracranial trauma?”

Options:

A.

Report hemiparesis as sequelae of CVA.

B.

Report hemiparesis, history of CVA, and history of trauma.

C.

Query to clarify the etiology of the hemiparesis.

D.

Assign the code for hemiparesis.

Question 29

Provider documentation states: “Patient is here for follow-up for multiple chronic conditions, including COPD, HTN, DM, and alcohol abuse. She admits to drinking more than she has in the past, starting in the early morning and consumes at least a pint a day. Her BP today is elevated at 165/89. Discussed medications and diet. As she continues to be dependent on alcohol, several treatment options were offered. She stated she would think about it.” Which of the following groups of diagnoses is supported by the clinical indicators described?

Options:

A.

DM Type 2 without complications, HTN, alcohol abuse

B.

DM Type 2 with complications, COPD, HTN, alcohol use

C.

DM Type 2 without complications, HTN, alcohol dependence

D.

DM Type 2 with complications, COPD, alcohol dependence

E.

F.

G.

Question 30

Which performance metric is MOST appropriate for an outpatient program to share with providers?

Options:

A.

APC payment rates

B.

RAF scores

C.

HCC per member per month payments

D.

Major complication comorbidity (MCC) rates

Question 31

A patient presents to the clinic for follow up of type 2 diabetes. The patient is also noted to have peripheral neuropathy. The patient has COPD and is found to have no recent exacerbations. The patient also has a history of depression, reported as stable. Which of the following CMS-HCCs will be captured for this visit?

HCC 17: Diabetes with Acute Complications

HCC 18: Diabetes with Chronic Complications

HCC 19: Diabetes without Complications

HCC 58: Major Depressive, Bipolar and Paranoid Disorders

HCC 111: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

Options:

A.

HCC 19, HCC 58, and HCC 111

B.

HCC 18 and HCC 111

C.

HCC 17 and HCC 58

D.

HCC 18, HCC 19, and HCC 111

Question 32

Which of the following diabetic complications requires the assignment of a combination code plus the code for the specific complication?

Options:

A.

Nephropathy

B.

Retinopathy

C.

Dermatitis

D.

Osteomyelitis

Question 33

A patient with a PMH of DM, GERD, and HTN is seen in the clinic with complaints of stuffy nose, fever, and feeling tired for the past four days. The patient’s medication list includes SSI, Prilosec, and Diovan. The provider documented: “Congestion, fever, malaise, DM, GERD, HTN. Continue OTC medications for congestion and fever. Rest. Return to the clinic in one week if symptoms persist.” Which of the following ICD-10-CM guidelines BEST applies to how this scenario should be coded?

Options:

A.

Selection of first-listed condition

B.

Codes that describe symptoms and signs

C.

Uncertain diagnoses

D.

Encounters for general medical examination with abnormal finding

Question 34

The primary purpose of the RADV program is to

Options:

A.

ensure risk-adjusted payment integrity and accuracy.

B.

verify medical necessity of care provided.

C.

identify over-payments rendered to individual physicians.

D.

support accuracy of Evaluation and Management billing.

Question 35

A patient presents with pulmonary rales, pulmonary edema found on chest x-ray, and bilateral ankle edema. Which of the following conditions will the provider MOST likely evaluate further?

Options:

A.

Pleural effusion

B.

Heart failure

C.

Pneumonia

D.

Pulmonary hypertension

Question 36

A CDI specialist receives a call from a disgruntled provider regarding recent documentation queries. The provider claims to only have 15 minutes to see patients and does not have time for interruptions like this if it does not increase reimbursement. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to effectively facilitate communication?

Options:

A.

Explain to the provider that queries may affect reimbursement, however not directly, and he should comply.

B.

Listen to the provider, agree this does not affect reimbursement, and explain that the CDI team will stop querying.

C.

Request a time at the provider's convenience to review the query process and collaborate to facilitate the best workflow.

D.

Call the provider's superior and report him as being non-compliant with organizational processes.

Question 37

Which of the following health record elements impacts HHS-HCC risk scores?

Options:

A.

CPT codes

B.

Discharge status

C.

Gender

D.

Ethnicity

Question 38

CMS-HCCs are used to

Options:

A.

reimburse physicians based on the principal diagnosis.

B.

distribute reimbursement to providers based on quality of care.

C.

determine capitation payments to insurers that administer Medicare Advantage health plans.

D.

adjust capitation payments to physicians, excluding advanced practice providers.

Question 39

A patient presents to the clinic with indwelling Foley catheter, symptoms of fatigue, and low back pain with BPH. Labs reveal WBC 20, and the urine culture is positive for E. coli. Prescription antibiotics are ordered for a UTI. Which of the following is the BEST query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Etiology of BPH

B.

UTI related to catheter

C.

Etiology of low back pain

D.

Leukocytosis

Question 40

A patient is seen in the obstetrical clinic, 6 weeks postpartum. She presents with resting heart rate of 58 BPM, initial blood pressure of 154/90, and respiratory rate of 20. She also complains of slight headaches, denies visual changes, and has no evidence of peripheral edema. History is significant for smoking and obesity. A blood pressure reading of 160/88 is taken at the end of the visit. The provider documents hypertension. Which of the following query opportunities is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

A more specific diagnosis, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia

B.

Whether the hypertension was pre-existing or developed during pregnancy

C.

Association of hypertension to smoking

D.

Hypertensive crisis - unspecified

Question 41

Which of the following tools or processes is MOST appropriate to share with providers and administrators during a department meeting when demonstrating documentation and coding patterns?

Options:

A.

Spaghetti diagram

B.

PDSA cycle

C.

Bar graph

D.

Donabedian Model

Question 42

What diagnoses are included in code category N18, chronic kidney disease?

Options:

A.

Dialysis, chronic uremia, and polycystic kidney disease

B.

GFR, ATN, and unspecified kidney failure

C.

AKI, ESRD, and dialysis

D.

CKD stage 3, CKD severe, and ESRD

Page: 1 / 14
Total 140 questions