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ACAMS CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Exam Practice Test

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Total 395 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

Question 2

Which of the following serves as an example of a successful public-private partnership (PPP)?

Options:

A.

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

B.

The AUSTRAC Fintel Alliance

C.

The Egmont Group

D.

The Wolfsberg Group

Question 3

The relationship manager in the corporate banking department at a bank is required to take specialized AML training tailored to the risks the department is most likely to encounter.

Which types of content are most appropriate for this training? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Money laundering typologies applicable to monetary instrument reporting

B.

Applicable AML laws and regulations

C.

Regulatory exam best practices

D.

Money laundering typologies applicable to corporate loans

Question 4

Which external data source is most reliable for verifying beneficial ownership during onboarding?

Options:

A.

Adverse media databases

B.

Publicly available information on non-government data repositories

C.

Credit reference agencies

D.

Beneficial ownership registers available in country of incorporation of entity

Question 5

The first line of defense is responsible for:

Options:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

Question 6

Which techniques are most commonly used in a rules-based approach to transaction monitoring for detecting suspicious activities? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using predefined rules to flag specific transaction patterns

B.

Randomly flagging transactions for further investigation

C.

Statistical tuning of monitoring scenarios to improve accuracy

D.

Using advanced machine learning models to detect outliers

E.

Setting transaction thresholds for automated alerts

Question 7

According to Basel Committee guidelines, which level of the organization should determine whether or not to enter business relationships with higher risk customers?

Options:

A.

Account opening staff

B.

Middle management

C.

Senior management

D.

First-level management

Question 8

A key advantage of privacy enhancing technologies (PETs) in anti-money laundering is that they offer:

Options:

A.

simultaneous encryption and decryption for underlying data.

B.

full access to underlying data with full and uninterrupted calculations made on the data.

C.

secure processing of data while it remains encrypted.

D.

transfer, decryption and storage of data by the data processor.

Question 9

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

Question 10

The supply of goods and services can be vulnerable to corruption within a company, particularly the solicitation and receipt of bribes and kickbacks, because: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

certain contractors may receive preferential treatment, allowing them opportunities to inflate margins during the tender process

B.

unsuccessful bidders are informed of decisions and provided detailed justifications for awarding the contracts

C.

procurement and contracting processes involve the management of the tender process, which may lack sufficient oversight

D.

bids are solicited and disseminated to a wide audience through advertising and other channels.

Question 11

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence

B.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed Instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes Procedures are an overarching framework Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

Question 12

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

Options:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

Question 13

An insurance company receives an application for a high-value life insurance policy from a new non-resident client. The payout instruction is linked to an offshore trust in another jurisdiction to which the client has no obvious connection. The client insists on paying premiums via multiple transactions to “avoid bank charges.” The client is reportedly unemployed with minimal assets, which is inconsistent with the policy value.

Which financial crime risk should the insurance company be most concerned with?

Options:

A.

Sanctions evasion

B.

Money laundering

C.

Fraud

D.

Market abuse

Question 14

The United Nations Security Council’s sanctions are intended to be:

Options:

A.

Encompassing and broad, including the use of force if necessary

B.

Designed to maintain and restore international peace and security

C.

Indefinite to produce economic benefit for a group of states

D.

Punitive to influence foreign governments to change their behavior

Question 15

When assessing and managing money laundering risks while operating in foreign jurisdictions different from that of the head office, an effective AML monitoring program should:

Options:

A.

Be consistent with the head office audits

B.

Be tailored to the higher of standards between the jurisdictions.

C.

Conform to the foreign jurisdiction policies to align with the head office policies.

D.

Provide all foreign jurisdiction reports to the head office for approval.

Question 16

Correspondent banking is considered a higher-risk banking sector because correspondent banking transactions:

Options:

A.

Are made primarily to and from high-risk jurisdictions

B.

Can be made anonymously and without beneficial ownership information

C.

Typically include less information than domestic payments

D.

Are made cross-border and on behalf of third parties

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true regarding using an artificial intelligence (AI)-based system to review and identify applicable privacy and data protection rules?

Options:

A.

Generated results will still have to be assessed for the completeness and applicability of the identified rules

B.

Training should focus on the rules used and not how the AI performs its function

C.

Generated results are likely to be accurate and valid because of the large number of rules analyzed

D.

AI may be ineffective because it cannot be trained to identify rules applicable to a specific bank

Question 18

A committee should have a clear and precise definition of its mandate to ensure effective function and governance, set out in a document often referred to as the Terms of Reference (ToR).

Which key features are generally included in the Terms of Reference? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Organization chart of the attendees

B.

Extent of power and decision-making abilities

C.

Company culture and values

D.

Composition and structure

E.

Delegation of authority

Question 19

Under the Egmont Group Principles, information exchange among financial intelligence units (FIUs) should be conducted:

Options:

A.

Without the expectation of reciprocity on how the information will be used.

B.

Only if the status of the foreign FIU is related to law enforcement.

C.

Freely, spontaneously, and upon request, on the basis of reciprocity.

D.

With set limits on the amount of financial and administrative information provided.

Question 20

Which of the following statements is true regarding Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Sanctions can only be placed on certain individuals in foreign countries as designated by OFAC

B.

Blocked funds must be placed into an interest-bearing account on a financial institution's books

C.

Sanctions can be either comprehensive or selective using the blocking of assets and trade restrictions to accomplish foreign policy and national security goals

D.

OFAC sanctions automatically expire after five years unless renewed by Congress

Question 21

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

Options:

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

Question 22

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

Options:

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

Question 23

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele’s high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

B.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

Question 24

When making an independent determination on whether to close an account based on an internal Investigation, a financial institution (F1) should consider. (Select Five.)

Options:

A.

reputational risk.

B.

the customers personal relationships.

C.

the frequency of account activity

D.

the Fl's policies and procedures.

E.

the seriousness of the underlying conduct.

F.

correspondence with law enforcement

G.

the legal basis for closing the account.

Question 25

During a routine periodic KYC refresh of a policyholder and client of an insurance company, updated business registry documentation has highlighted that the policyholder's business has changed addresses five times during the last year and that the ultimate beneficial owner (UBO) changed two weeks ago.

What actions should be taken immediately?

Options:

A.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime decline payment and withdrawal instructions from the policy until completion of the investigation and next steps are agreed upon

B.

Request the relationship manager set up a meeting with the policyholder to update their address and submit details of the new UBO in the name of good customer service

C.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime freeze the client's policy

D.

File a suspicious transaction report because the insurance company was not made aware of the business' change of UBO

Question 26

According to the Basel Committee principles, which actions would make a customer identification program at a bank more robust? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Understanding why a customer has selected a particular financial institution for banking

B.

Verifying the identity of a customer with reputable online source documentation

C.

Limiting the online activities of a new customer during the first two months

D.

Understanding the nature and purpose behind a new business opening an account at the bank

Question 27

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

Question 28

Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

data privacy.

B.

enhanced due diligence (EDD) policies.

C.

the Travel Rule.

D.

data quality.

E.

complexity.

F.

regulatory.

Question 29

Criminals may misuse financial statements prepared by accountants to hide illicit assets.

Which of the following scenarios poses the greatest risk of financial statement manipulation by criminals?

Options:

A.

A lack of professional body oversight or required use of accounting and auditing standards in the country of incorporation of the entity

B.

Criminals posing as individuals seeking financial advice to place assets out of reach to avoid future liabilities

C.

Incomplete records being provided during bookkeeping, making them difficult to audit

D.

Accountants being used as intermediaries to introduce criminals to financial institutions

Question 30

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

Question 31

News published in Country A reports that a politically exposed person (PEP) had received a bribe from a transnational company headquartered in a developing country of approximately USS1.5 million deposited into on account at a financial institution (Fl> located in Country B Both countries are members of the Egmont Group The account where the money was deposited belongs to the PEP's immediate family member. To corroborate the facts, the PIU of Country A sent a formal request via secure communication channels for further information from its counterpart FIU in Country B.

According to Egmont principles, the FIU of Country B can:

Options:

A.

provide the information available to them because the exchange is between two FlUs that are members of the Egmont Group, and the formal request was made using secure communication channels.

B.

provide the requested information only if a memorandum of understanding (MoU) is signed between Country A and Country

C.

direct the FIU of Country A to the Fl where the account was opened for further information.

D.

deny the request if the FIU of Country B has not received a suspicious activity report (SAR) from the Fl where the account was opened.

Question 32

The Wolfsberg Group's 2012 "Principles (or Private Banking" established that.

Options:

A.

private banks agree that transparency of client beneficial ownership Is necessary and appropriate.

B.

due diligence requirements tor private banking customers are necessary to prevent predicate offenses.

C.

risk based approaches are insufficient to address the heightened risk presented through private banking

D.

private banks need to better coordinate and align their global AML control environment strategies.

Question 33

How should national and sectoral risk assessments influence an organization’s risk-based approach and internal risk assessment?

Options:

A.

They should be referenced and integrated appropriately into an organization’s risk assessment to tailor enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures and allocate resources effectively

B.

They provide general guidance but do not need to be directly considered because internal risk factors are more important

C.

They should only be referenced for high-risk clients as they are designed for worst-case scenarios

D.

They are primarily intended for regulators and should not influence organizational risk assessments

Question 34

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act permits the US government to seize funds deposited in a US correspondent account of a foreign bank, creating extraterritorial impact?

Options:

A.

Section 314(a)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 319(b)

D.

Section 319(a)

Question 35

Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Guaranteeing 100% accuracy in regulatory compliance across all jurisdictions

B.

Improving customer satisfaction by offering personalized recommendations

C.

Reducing identity theft effectively

D.

Providing reliable customer authentication to enhance trust

E.

Decreasing the time required for customer authentication

Question 36

Which operational situation might indicate that money laundering is occurring at or through a deposit-taking financial institution?

Options:

A.

The institution has observed an increase in customer demand for large-denomination banknotes.

B.

The institution maintains a sequentially numbered log of the monetary instruments it sells.

C.

The institution has observed a reduced settlement time in the transaction services that support the rapid movement or remittance of funds.

D.

The institution has observed an increase in the adoption of its digital products and services.

Question 37

Which principles of the Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) are aimed at maximizing cooperation between FIUs to more effectively combat money laundering? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating spontaneous information sharing between FIUs to reduce the burden of excess investigative work

B.

FIU cooperation should always be channeled through designated intermediaries

C.

Information exchange should take place informally, without too many formal prerequisites

D.

Formal Egmont Group membership requirements ensure a high commitment of the eligible FIUs

E.

It is within an FIU's authority to sign Memorandums of Understanding independently

Question 38

The effectiveness of AML/CFT measures can be best measured by the extent to which systems and controls:

Options:

A.

Comply with relevant laws and regulations

B.

Minimize operational burden placed on the financial institution

C.

Mitigate the risks and threats of financial crime

D.

Are implemented in a cost-effective way

Question 39

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

Question 40

Which of the following scenarios exhibit classic indicators of suspicious transactions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A business owner mortgages his home with a financial institution that was recently fined for AML violations

B.

A customer regularly invests in equity funds using her spouse’s bank account where she is a second account holder

C.

An individual who is the secretary to a government official frequently accesses the bank’s safe deposit vault to withdraw cash

D.

An individual regularly imports sophisticated electronic items for civil use and pays all applicable customs duties

E.

An individual wants to execute wire transfers to a person in a FATF grey-listed jurisdiction and asks a close friend to send the money on his behalf, citing financial difficulties

Question 41

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

Options:

A.

impose sanctions to maintain or restore international peace and security.

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

Question 42

A financial institution's US Branch receives a subpoena from law enforcement requesting detailed records of a customer's account activity. The customer is part of an ongoing investigation into a money laundering operation. At the same time, the institution has received a FinCEN 314(b) information-sharing request from another bank seeking details on transactions linked to the same customer. The compliance team is tasked with responding to both the subpoena and the FinCEN 314(b) request.

What should the compliance officer prioritize in responding to these requests while ensuring that all legal and regulatory obligations are met?

Options:

A.

Notify the customer of the information-sharing request from the other financial institution and seek their consent before responding

B.

Consult the institution's legal counsel to validate the subpoena, then respond directly to law enforcement while ensuring all documentation is properly recorded

C.

Respond to the FinCEN 314(b) request first, as it allows for voluntary information sharing with partner organizations

D.

Provide the requested records to both law enforcement and the other financial institution immediately to ensure full cooperation and transparency

Question 43

Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) help to protect financial integrity by: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Receiving and analyzing Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) to detect financial crime

B.

Disseminating information on emerging trends related to money laundering and associated predicate offenses

C.

Assisting financial institutions with designing products and services that lower residual money laundering risk

D.

Ensuring financial institutions maintain appropriate AML programs commensurate with their risk profiles

Question 44

According to the Financial Action Task Force's (FATF's) "Guidance for a Risk-Based Approach Life Insurance Sector," which of the following are money laundering red flags relating to the involvement of a third party in a life insurance product? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer engages an attorney to consult on the issuance of the policy.

B.

A customer transfers the policy to another insurance company unaffiliated with the original policy issuer.

C.

Payments are regularly received from third parties that have no apparent relationship with the policy holder.

D.

A customer names an apparently unrelated third party as a beneficiary.

Question 45

Open-source intelligence (OSINT) is the practice of gathering, analyzing, and disseminating information from publicly available sources to address specific intelligence requirements.

What is considered the most effective method for ensuring the reliability of open-source information?

Options:

A.

Excluding information obtained from the dark web

B.

Only relying on information from international news agencies

C.

Cross-checking with multiple sources

D.

Ignoring social media sources

Question 46

The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.

Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

fraudulent identities involving stolen or manufactured identification.

B.

suspicious behavior involving a transaction that occurs at an unusual time of day.

C.

hidden beneficial owners.

D.

transaction patterns involving transactions that exceed a certain dollar amount.

E.

anomalies involving a transaction that occurs in a location far away from the customer's usual spending patterns.

Question 47

Which of the following attributes would enhance an AML program's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Providing basic AML training to all employees

B.

An AML officer being appointed to the board as a working member of management with increased authority

C.

Auditors providing prescriptive guidance and support to the program following a less than satisfactory audit

D.

Providing effective challenge with AML staff and continuous cross-training

Question 48

According to FinCEN, which red flags within a bank account may, taken together, be indications of modern slavery, human trafficking, and exploitation? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Incoming fund transfers from third-party payment processors, with limited originator information

B.

Transactional activity with a registered virtual currency exchange

C.

Large amounts of cash payments to migrant agricultural workers

D.

Frequent payments for online advertisements or non-local classified ads

Question 49

An oil exploration company based in France does business with oil refineries in Iran, which is subject to comprehensive Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions.

What type of OFAC sanctions should be imposed against the French company?

Options:

A.

List-based

B.

Secondary

C.

Country-based

D.

Sectoral

Question 50

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

B.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

C.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 51

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

Question 52

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

Question 53

A law enforcement action alleged that on several trading days over the course of two months, defendants engaged in a series of copper gold, crude oil. and natural gas futures transactions on an electronic trading platform One defendant repeatedly bought future contracts at low prices from the other, and then immediately sold them back at higher prices. As a result, one defendant effectively pocketed the same amount as the other lost even though there were no changes in the open positions held by either defendant.

What is a name for this typology?

Options:

A.

Short position

B.

Reverse flip

C.

Bid-ask spread

D.

Wash trading

Question 54

A financial institution plans to implement adverse media screening with Artificial Intelligence (AI)/Machine Learning (ML) capabilities During testing, the system produces high volumes of irrelevant news articles for review.

What is the best way to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Narrow the media sources to avoid unrelated articles

B.

Rely on manual filtering by investigators

C.

Increase the frequency of updates to media sources

D.

Adjust AI/ML models to focus on high-risk keywords/phrases from reputable media sources

Question 55

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) report on terrorism financing, charities and nonprofit organizations are often vulnerable to terrorist financing because they: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Collect donations from various sources, and their primary objective is philanthropy and social wellbeing

B.

Are usually legitimate establishments and will not use the funds collected through donation for the profit of individuals or entities

C.

Have a global presence that provides a framework for national and international operations and financial transactions that are often in or near areas most exposed to terrorist activity

D.

Enjoy the public trust and have access to considerable sources of funds, and their activities are often cash intensive

Question 56

Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Work with the front-line to understand their strategic growth targets specifically aimed at increasing their market share around military technology and dual-use products

B.

Review the organization's sanction risk assessment to better understand the potential for exposure to Russia and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea

C.

Read and analyze the most recent National Proliferation Financing Risk Assessment produced by the relevant body of the organization's jurisdiction

D.

Undertake a detailed review of all payment-related transactions to any clients identified as defense contractors, paying special attention to the beneficial owners of those clients

Question 57

Risks associated with real estate transactions include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person

C.

paying true market price for a property

D.

non-financed purchases

Question 58

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation 22. when involved in customer transactions that include the buying and selling of real estate, real estate professionals are required to apply which customer due diligence (CDD) measures? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Obtaining prior senior manager approval for all related transactions

B.

Understanding the purpose of the business relationship

C.

Performing adverse media searches on the customer

D.

Identifying and verifying the customer's identity

Question 59

An employee in a corporation's finance department hears news of an internal investigation into potential fraud within the company, quits her job, and disappears.

If they had been observed before her resignation, which characteristics of the employee would have been considered red flags? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The employee was originally from a high-risk jurisdiction

B.

The employee had friends in high-risk industries

C.

The employee had a lavish lifestyle for her income

D.

The employee was constantly evasive about the reasons for leaving her previous corporate finance job

Question 60

When under a regulator's consent order or similar action, who at an organization is ultimately accountable for the remediation of any violations of applicable AML/CFT laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Designated AML compliance officer

B.

Chief executive officer

C.

Chief operating officer

D.

Board of directors

Question 61

The key strengths of public-private partnerships (PPP) in anti-financial crime efforts include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Improving the speed of action in identifying and mitigating financial crime risks

B.

Enhancing information-sharing capabilities between governments and financial institutions

C.

Providing a legal framework for financial institutions to avoid liability when sharing information

D.

Eliminating the need for organizations to conduct their own due diligence

Question 62

Which of the following statements describe the strengths associated with public-private partnerships (PPPs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Public organizations can belter understand what the private sector experiences and inform policy and the enactment of laws

B.

Data-protection privacy policies provide an opportunity to develop information sharing protocols to prevent unauthorized access to information

C.

Data-protection privacy policies prohibit the evolution of PPPs due to restrictions based on legacy government legislation

D.

Small business owners can choose third-party providers or financial institutions to keep their private data safe which can easily be shared within a PPP

Question 63

In which of the following scenarios should the customer be deemed to have an overly complex ownership structure?

Options:

A.

A privately held company owned by two individuals whose interests are held by a series of trusts and foundations

B.

A trust set up with two co-trustees, one of whom is the grantor and the other is a corporate service provider

C.

A customer that is owned by two families with the involvement of over a dozen owners within the families

D.

A multinational correspondent bank that has three layers of ownership between it and a publicly traded bank holding company

Question 64

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

Question 65

Which transaction monitoring tool characteristic would best support financial institutions in rapidly responding to emerging financial crime risks and threats?

Options:

A.

Cloud-based deployment

B.

Configurable reporting

C.

Fully integrated artificial intelligence (AI)

D.

Ability to build, iterate, and test rules

Question 66

Which of the below is a core function of a financial intelligence unit (FIU) as described in FATF Recommendation 29?

Options:

A.

Sponsoring the research and development of advanced technological surveillance tools to be used nationally

B.

Prosecuting significant cases of money laundering or terrorist financing falling under national jurisdiction

C.

Sharing real-time criminal intelligence gathered from national law enforcement agencies with the private sector

D.

Serving as a national center for the collection and analysis of suspicious activity

Question 67

Which of the following best describes the use of fuzzy logic in customer screening systems?

Options:

A.

It produces outputs that include a range of intermediate possibilities between "Yes" and "No"

B.

It is an advanced analytics tool widely used to implement AFC controls

C.

It allows for a greater number of exact matches, reducing the need for manual review

D.

It is a new technique for enhancing the quality of alerts for review

Question 68

Which role within private banking has the best placement to identify and report money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Relationship manager

C.

Operations manager

D.

Compliance officer

Question 69

Which action should a financial institution take when it receives a grand-jury subpoena regarding a customer?

Options:

A.

Make copies of the customer's documents and submit the originals to the enforcement agency

B.

Notify the customer being investigated before submitting documents

C.

Keep the customer's accounts open at the enforcement agency's verbal request

D.

Have the institution's assigned legal counsel review the subpoena

Question 70

In a standard customer due diligence (CDD) process focused on financial inclusion, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations require: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

identification of the customer's occupation.

B.

identification and verification of the customer's identity.

C.

identification of the customer's work address.

D.

identification of the beneficial owner.

E.

verification of the customer's credit history.

F.

[verification of the customer's income sources.

Question 71

A key factor in the independence of an AML audit is that the auditor should.

Options:

A.

have never worked in previous assignments within the AMUCFT departments.

B.

have no involvement with the organization's AML/CP T compliance staff.

C.

have been screened by the board of directors before the audit starts

D.

be sufficiently trained in AML to be able to provide an independent review.

Question 72

A basic principle of the Egmont Group is to:

Options:

A.

Publish standards for reporting suspicions

B.

Facilitate the organization of regulatory authorities

C.

Publish decisions taken on international investigations

D.

Arrange information-sharing protocols between Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)

Question 73

When deciding on the fuzzy matching threshold for sanctions screening, consideration should be given to:

Options:

A.

the operational burden of dealing with potential matches.

B.

the value of fines for non-compliance.

C.

the experience of the team dealing with potential matches.

D.

whether the data to be screened is reliable and verified.

Question 74

Which of the following are key financial crime risks associated with real estate companies? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Buying property allows for the movement of large amounts of funds in a single transaction

B.

Criminal networks could purchase real estate for use as supply houses or locations to grow, manufacture, or distribute illicit narcotics

C.

Markets can be volatile, and buyers may not achieve a strong return on their investment

D.

Beneficial ownership information might be opaque, and criminals may abuse arrangements like shell companies and trusts

E.

Real estate transactions often involve financial institutions and other professional gatekeepers

F.

The high value of properties may require multiple types of financing, which can make it more difficult to identify the source of funds

Question 75

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

Question 76

A bank is completing a periodic KYC profile review for a customer that is a small digital marketing company based in New York City.

Which of the following would be a red flag?

Options:

A.

The account activity includes deposit activity into both savings and checking accounts

B.

The account activity includes incoming funds transfers at irregular intervals from small businesses located in New York

C.

The account activity includes deposits made in multiple branches around New York City into the same account.

D.

The account activity includes frequent purchases of tickets to industry conferences and other events.

Question 77

Which of the following statements is true regarding tipping off?

Options:

A.

Tipping off is an obligation only applied to AFC professionals and bank staff because they are required to file a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).

B.

Tipping off is a criminal act whereby confidential information about a financial crime investigation is disclosed in an unauthorized manner to a third party who may be the subject of the investigation or able to prejudice it.

C.

Tipping off is not committed when detailed inquiries are made with a customer whose transactions have been flagged by a transaction monitoring system.

D.

When an unusual transaction is detected, an AFC professional can instruct the relationship manager to communicate with the customer to decide whether a SAR should be filed.

Question 78

Professional service providers—including lawyers, accountants, investment brokers, and other third parties—may abuse their positions to facilitate money laundering.

Which financial crime risks are associated with this type of abuse? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Opening an account to settle an estate on behalf of a client

B.

Establishing shell companies to enable money laundering activities, including placement or layering

C.

Opening third-party accounts for the primary purpose of masking the underlying client’s identity

D.

Opening a trust account to facilitate a legitimate real estate transaction

E.

Directing or facilitating the laundering of illicit funds, including structuring transactions

Question 79

An international bank is headquartered in Madrid, Spain with an office in New York City (NYC), US. The Madrid office is investigating a transaction originating from a customer of the NYC office and inquires whether the NYC office can share any relevant further information on the individual. Upon further research, the NYC office finds that they have filed a suspicious activity report (SAR) on the individual in the previous year.

Which factors need to be considered before sharing the requested information? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The foreign bank must always request approval by its national anti-financial crime authority to share any information cross-border.

B.

The bank should report this to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) and receive formal guidance before sharing the information.

C.

The bank should consider jurisdictional privacy requirements and its own policies and procedures to determine what information to share.

D.

The information should only be shared on a need-to-know basis.

Question 80

Which of the following are included in the 11 Immediate Outcomes outlined in the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) methodology for assessing technical compliance with the FATF Recommendations and the effectiveness of AML/CFT/CPF systems during mutual evaluations? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

International cooperation provides actionable information to use against criminals

B.

Those convicted of money laundering offenses are denied access to basic banking services

C.

Money laundering offenses are investigated and criminally prosecuted

D.

Financial intelligence information is collected by authorities and shared with the FATF for further investigation

E.

Supervisors regulate financial institutions and non-bank financial institutions and their risk-based AML/CFT programs

Question 81

A financial institution is exploring automation to assist investigators in reviewing flagged transactions. Currently, investigators spend a significant amount of time gathering data from multiple sources.

Which of the following automation features would be most effective in improving investigator efficiency?

Options:

A.

Pre-populated templates for SAR filing

B.

Integration of open-source tools to gather real-time intelligence

C.

Automated case prioritization based on risk scoring

D.

AI-powered dashboards summarizing flagged transactions

Question 82

When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

Options:

A.

Digital identification on mobile devices

B.

Different applications to connect and communicate

C.

Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics

D.

Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding

Question 83

Which of the following presents the highest money laundering risk from a money services business (MSB)?

Options:

A.

Some MSBs provide bureau de change services to retail customers after they complete a due diligence process.

B.

Some MSBs process large, individual cash transactions on behalf of customers.

C.

Some MSBs allow regular and frequent transactions to the same family members based in another country

D.

Some MSBs process small remittance payments on behalf of workers based abroad sending money home.

Question 84

Which activities would be considered money laundering red flags when reviewing the business operations of a money services business (MSB)? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer being hesitant to provide beneficiary name or address information when sending international wire transfers

B.

Cash-intensive businesses, such as convenience stores or restaurants, making large cash deposits

C.

A customer exchanging foreign currency from a higher-risk jurisdiction for domestic currency under the reporting threshold

D.

A customer using multiple accounts under different names to conduct transactions

E.

A customer completing frequent small-dollar international money transfers to their native country

Question 85

A legal instrument executed between two nations that governs cross-border information sharing is known as a:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Agreement.

B.

Declaration of Understanding.

C.

Memorandum of Understanding.

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty.

E.

Request for Urgent Information.

Question 86

The goal of the Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) is to provide a forum for FIUs to: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Securely share sensitive information in the fight against money laundering and the financing of terrorism

B.

Establish an environment to foster trust amongst countries

C.

Sign memoranda of cooperation that recognize and allow room for case-by-case solutions to specific problems

D.

Improve global cooperation between FIUs

E.

Propose legislation to combat financial crime, including money laundering and the financing of terrorism

Question 87

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

Question 88

Which of the following is a common strategy employed by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to combat money laundering?

Options:

A.

Helping Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) to analyze the suspicious activity reports (SARs)

B.

Directly prosecuting money launderers in court

C.

Providing financial assistance to governments to strengthen their anti-money laundering efforts

D.

Raising awareness about the issue of money laundering and its consequences

Question 89

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

Question 90

The chief compliance officer at a global bank that operates in the US, EU, and other countries is responsible for navigating the US and EU regulations related to anti-money laundering (AML) and sanctions as well as any local regulations in the countries where it operates.

What should be the primary compliance concern of the bank?

Options:

A.

US anti-money laundering regulations are stricter than the EU AML Directives, making it easier for the global bank to be compliant in the EU

B.

US and EU regulations require the bank to build separate compliance teams, making it necessary to establish completely separate systems for US and EU operations

C.

The EU's sanctions regime is stricter than that of the US Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), so the bank must prioritize compliance with EU regulations over US laws and train the staff in Europe accordingly

D.

Balancing compliance with the US BSA and OFAC sanctions while ensuring adherence to EU AML directives and the GDPR, which complicates cross-border data sharing

Question 91

Based on the AML principles outlined by the Wolfsberg Group, what do private and correspondent banks have in common when monitoring for terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

Cash access from a pre-paid card increases the potential that the card will be used for money laundering purposes.

B.

Transaction monitoring examines the relationship between due diligence information and account closings.

C.

Account and transactional activity are monitored after the proper identification and verification of customers.

D.

Numbered or alternate name accounts will only be accepted if the bank has established the identity of the client and beneficial owner.

Question 92

Which of the following controls is typically implemented at customer onboarding to mitigate the risk of onboarding high-risk customers?

Options:

A.

Enhanced due diligence (EDD)

B.

Transaction monitoring

C.

Customer risk assessment

D.

Sanctions screening

Question 93

The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in a country has received a suspicious activity report (SAR) which involves significant suspicious fund transfers, not only within its jurisdiction but also in a foreign country. Further information is required from the foreign country to determine whether the matter needs to be referred for prosecution locally.

Which of the following statements is true in this scenario?

Options:

A.

It is against international laws on data protection to access information from foreign countries

B.

Sovereignty of nations means that information cannot be accessed from foreign countries

C.

Any information related to money laundering can be received from any organization at any time regardless of jurisdiction

D.

Countries that are members of the Egmont Group can request assistance for information from each other

Question 94

Which of the following are AML risks associated with onboarding a high-risk customer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Enhanced customer due diligence requirements

B.

Greater potential for laundering illicit proceeds

C.

Reduced regulatory scrutiny compared to low-risk customers

D.

Increased likelihood of engaging in financial crimes

Question 95

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

Question 96

Which statement regarding data privacy is the most accurate in the context of AML investigations?

Options:

A.

Organizations are required to demonstrate that customers have opted into information sharing before submitting suspicious activity reports to relevant financial intelligence units (FIUs)

B.

Any customer that is the subject of a suspicious report filing has the right to request redaction of their personal data

C.

FIUs should document purposes for which personal data included on suspicious activity reports may be shared with other agencies

D.

Data privacy laws prohibit information sharing between financial institutions for the purposes of AML investigations in all jurisdictions

Question 97

Red flags for potential money laundering in real estate include completing luxury real estate purchases. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

using shell companies or trusts for privacy, lax planning, or asset protection.

B.

in the names of unrelated thud patties.

C.

using the proceeds from selling a prior property or liquidating investments to make an all-cash purchase

D.

using legal entities and intermediaries to protect the privacy of the purchasers.

E.

using loans backed by cash or certificates of deposit.

Question 98

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

Question 99

Which collective body of Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) was formed with an objective to improve Information exchange and sharing mechanisms among member FlUs as well as to support its members by enhancing their capabilities'?

Options:

A.

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

B.

The Egmont Group

C.

The Wolfsberg Group

D.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Question 100

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

Question 101

Which of the following is a crucial step for a financial institution when leveraging regulatory reports to improve transaction monitoring? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Comparing internal data across all sectors and products referenced in the reports

B.

Systematically incorporating risks identified in the reports into the internal risk assessment

C.

Comparing regulatory reports with peer data

D.

Building or enhancing monitoring scenarios based on reported crime typologies

Question 102

An agent of a wealthy individual residing in Country A, which is on the EU list of high-risk third jurisdictions, approaches a notary in Country B, which is in the EU. The agent wants to complete a disposal of assets recently acquired at auction by the wealthy individual through an offshore company. The agent also has a power of attorney to act on behalf of the offshore company issued by a respectable law firm from Country C, which is also in the EU. The agent asks the notary to proceed with the disposal as quickly as possible without paying any specific attention to related costs or taxes to be paid as a result of this transaction. The notary notices the intended transfer price is significantly lower than the one recorded at auction, but the agent does not want to discuss this matter and claims that it is not covered by the power of attorney.

Which red flags should the notary consider? (Select Two)

Options:

A.

The agent requested a disposal of assets at a lower price than recently acquired.

B.

The assets acquired through an auction were put in the name of an offshore company

C.

The agent acted on behalf of an individual residing in a country which is on the EU's list of high-risk jurisdictions

D.

The power of attorney was issued by a law firm in a different EU country from where the transaction took place.

Question 103

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

Question 104

Fuzzy logic or fuzzy matching in the context of name screening is a method that:

Options:

A.

Uses machine learning to predict names based on historical data

B.

Matches names on screening lists to names with similar spellings, patterns, or sounds

C.

Matches names with the same length and characters

D.

Relies exclusively on exact string matches

Question 105

Having a risk-based approach is central to a financial institution understanding the money laundering and terrorist financing risk to which they are exposed. The development of a money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment is a key starting point.

Commonly used risk factors include. (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

product risk.

B.

credit risk.

C.

geographic risk.

D.

customer risk.

E.

liquidity risk.

Question 106

Which method could be used in the placement stage of money laundering in the real estate sector?

Options:

A.

Paying an invoice to a media company via online banking for property marketing

B.

Using a registered trust to transfer ownership

C.

Using cash to purchase property

D.

Bringing a property back to market quickly after purchasing it

Question 107

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

difficulty in tracking the originator, recipient, and source of transactions.

B.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers.

C.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system.

E.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

Question 108

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

Question 109

The degree of attraction that a company holds to criminal organizations is influenced by the (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

amount of annual fees associated with the jurisdiction.

B.

permissibility of bearer shares.

C.

rules governing the disclosure of beneficial ownership by the jurisdiction.

D.

ease of travel to the jurisdiction.

Question 110

Which of the following describes a role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

Options:

A.

Oversight of the Financial Intelligence Units in FATF Member countries

B.

Providing a unique platform for information exchange regarding anti-money laundering efforts

C.

Regulation of financial markets through directives and executive orders

D.

Enhancement of international cooperation to foster anti-money laundering efforts via recommendations and guidance

Question 111

A legal instrument which is executed between two nations and governs cross-border information sharing Is known as a.

Options:

A.

mutual legal assistance treaty.

B.

memorandum of understanding.

C.

request for urgent information.

D.

declaration of understanding.

E.

memorandum of agreement.

Question 112

A compliance manager at a virtual asset service provider (VASP) is evaluating its business and its impact on AML policies. Which of the following features of the VASP's business would be of greatest concern? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Allowing clients lo transact anonymity-enhanced tokens

B.

Onboardlng of clients who are residents abroad. Including those with politically exposed person (PEP) status

C.

Enabling transfer of tokens from one blockchain to another

D.

Offering services to VASPs established in jurisdictions that are not FATF compliant

E.

Operating a network of crypto ATMs charging high fees

F.

Lack of adequate IP address tracking capabilities

Question 113

Which factors should be prioritized when choosing an anti-financial crime (AFC) tool for an organization? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Real-time data analysis capabilities as part of a broader strategy

B.

Preference for the lowest-cost solution

C.

Complete elimination of manual processes

D.

Compatibility with existing IT infrastructure

E.

Scalability to handle increasing transaction volumes

Question 114

Trust and company service providers (TCSPs) should address money laundering risk by: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Establishing dual controls and quality assurance practices when processing transactions for the client

B.

Considering what additional safeguards may be required when client instructions are given through another TCSP located in another jurisdiction

C.

Requiring the client to complete and submit an AML risk self-assessment to the jurisdiction’s Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU)

D.

Gathering and recording information from clients to understand the purpose of the legal entity, as well as the identity of managers and ultimate beneficial owners

E.

Establishing procedures to document the basis on which the TCSP will act as a registered officer for the client and retaining records of that involvement

F.

Conducting an onsite evaluation of the client to assess internal controls

Question 115

The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision published guidelines on the "Sound management of risks related to money laundering and financing of terrorism."

With regard to identifying and accepting customers, it recommends that banks: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures to ensure due diligence activities are identical for all customers.

B.

Establish policies and procedures to identify and verify customers, beneficial owners, and any individuals that can transact on behalf of their customers.

C.

Establish policies and procedures for customer due diligence that vary based on risk.

D.

Are prohibited from offering numbered accounts to customers, even if procedures are established to gather and maintain due diligence information.

E.

Establish policies and procedures that encourage processing transactions while due diligence information is being established and verified.

Question 116

An AML analyst at a bank is investigating cases triggered by transaction monitoring alerts.

Which circumstances might cause the analyst to suspect a case involves terrorist financing? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Transactions involving non-profit organizations with no internet presence

B.

Small dollar payments sent to crowdfunding initiatives with detailed descriptions of the project being financed

C.

Transactions involving structured currency deposits below the reporting threshold to avoid paying taxes

D.

Small dollar payments sent to higher-risk jurisdictions with no prior history

E.

Transactions involving domestic non-profit organizations providing charitable aid to refugees from higher-risk countries

Question 117

Which of the following best describes one of the principal threats of proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Adversary governments using sophisticated attacks to threaten critical infrastructure and sectors, including finance, health care and energy

B.

Networks of individuals and entities exploiting financial systems to move funds that will be used to acquire weapons of mass destruction or their components

C.

Transnational criminal organizations expanding their engagement into more varied types of illicit activities, including human trafficking and corruption

D.

Networks of individuals and entities raising funds to further proliferate their ideological goals wholly or in part through unlawful acts of force or violence

Question 118

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

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Total 395 questions