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ACAMS CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Exam Practice Test

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Total 229 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which control would be most effective as part of a risk-based approach (RBA) to managing AML/CFT risk for a bank established in the EU that also has a branch in a high-risk third country outside of the EU?

Options:

A.

Fully rely on central beneficial owner registry records in the high-risk third country to determine the ultimate beneficial owners of all customers

B.

Apply tailored due diligence measures, based on the level of risk posed by each customer following risk assessment

C.

Monitor every cross-border transaction in real time, flagging all for enhanced scrutiny due to the country risk level

D.

Automatically apply enhanced customer due diligence measures to all customers in the high-risk third-country branch regardless of risk level

Question 2

When a financial institution (FI) is considering providing traditional banking services to a virtual asset service provider (VASP), consideration should be given to whether the FI: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

has a general understanding of virtual assets.

B.

consistently reviews transactions between fiat and virtual currencies.

C.

implements enhanced KYC measures.

D.

owns virtual currencies itself.

Question 3

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

Question 4

An adequate organizational policy is: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

up to date and reflects all relevant regulatory developments

B.

signed off by the board of directors and regulators

C.

approved by the clients and third parties

D.

clearly communicated and understood by staff

Question 5

Which of the following scenarios describe common risk indicators of money laundering faced by operators of legitimate money services businesses (MSBs)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A customer changes multiple high-denomination notes to low-denomination notes.

B.

A customer conducts cash transactions using multiple branches of the MSB on the same day.

C.

A customer has a family link to the destination of a money transfer

D.

A customer sends and receives money transfers in equal amounts at or about the same time.

E.

A customer only wants to deal with a particular employee in the MSB.

Question 6

A financial institution's transaction monitoring system flags an unusually high volume of international wire transfers originating from a small business account. The transfers are being sent to multiple jurisdictions known for limited regulatory oversight. Additionally, an employee reports suspicious behavior from the account holder during an in-person visit, where they requested a large cash withdrawal without providing a clear business justification. As part of the investigation, the compliance team must assess whether this activity is suspicious and determine the appropriate next steps.

Which of the following steps should be taken first in the investigation process to properly gather information and assess whether the transactions are suspicious?

Options:

A.

Review the transaction history of the account to identify patterns, including the frequency, destination, and purpose of the wire transfers

B.

Notify senior management and suggest account closure due to potential risks

C.

Immediately file a suspicious activity report (SAR) based on the employee's report of suspicious behavior

D.

Contact the customer directly to ask for clarification on the reason for the large cash withdrawal

Question 7

A large international bank's chief compliance officer (CCO) is exploring ways to enhance the bank's ability to identify suspicious activities by using intelligence data more effectively. One potential solution is to engage in public-private partnerships (PPPs) to leverage shared intelligence and enhance collaboration with government agencies.

The bank considers joining a PPP initiative with the local Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) and other financial institutions to improve its access to relevant data and intelligence. The CCO understands that while PPPs can provide significant benefits, such as improved risk detection and enhanced information sharing, there are also potential limitations, including data privacy concerns and differing priorities between public and private sector partners.

Which approach would best maximize the benefits of PPPs for the bank while mitigating the limitations associated with data sharing and intelligence?

Options:

A.

Engage in the PPP without strict data sharing protocols, allowing for open and unrestricted flow of information between the bank, FIUs, and other financial institutions

B.

Rely solely on the intelligence provided by government agencies through the PPP because they have the most comprehensive data on suspicious activities

C.

Establish a clear framework within the PPP that outlines data privacy protections and ensures that information sharing complies with legal and regulatory requirements in all jurisdictions involved

D.

Prioritize the bank’s internal data sources over external intelligence from PPPs, as internal data is easier to control and does not present data privacy challenges

Question 8

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

Options:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

Question 9

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

Question 10

Assessing the money laundering risk related to a product within the financial sector includes assessing the: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

governance arrangements

B.

complexity of the products

C.

results of the last audit

D.

financial status of the business

Question 11

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

Options:

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

Question 12

How canawareness be raisedwithincountries that do not have sanctions regulatory regimes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Restrict trade between countries that have robust AML/CFT and sanctions regulatory regimes and those that do not.

B.

AFC (Anti-Financial Crime) and sanctions-related seminars, webinars, and training within these countries.

C.

Enforcement and pecuniary fines against these countries.

D.

Bilateral conversations and cooperation between governments.

Question 13

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

Question 14

Money services businesses (MSBs), payment service providers, and e-commerce platforms usually have a high volume of daily transactions.

What are the risks associated with these types of businesses? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

These businesses are all cash intensive, increasing the risk of financial crime

B.

KYC challenges arise because e-commerce platforms face global customers making customer due diligence complex and resource intensive

C.

These businesses are highly regulated and therefore have no reason to be non-compliant as this would put them at risk of sanctions and fines

D.

Criminals can make use of identify fraud to fulfill KYC processes for layering purposes

E.

The settlement systems of these businesses are not sophisticated enough to cope with the high transaction volume

Question 15

Which red flags apply to trade-based money laundering (TBML) schemes? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Use of wire transfers

B.

Loitering

C.

Instructions or involvement from third parties

D.

Amended letters of credit without reasonable justification

E.

Non-standard settlement arrangements

Question 16

Business entities established in offshore financial centers (OFCs) pose unique risks for money laundering because they often:

Options:

A.

have informal business arrangements between persons or entities.

B.

are located in geographies that are not accountable to US laws.

C.

include trusts, investment funds, and insurance companies.

D.

have limited organizational disclosure and recordkeeping requirements for establishing these business entities.

Question 17

Red flags for potential money laundering in real estate include completing luxury real estate purchases. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

using shell companies or trusts for privacy, lax planning, or asset protection.

B.

in the names of unrelated thud patties.

C.

using the proceeds from selling a prior property or liquidating investments to make an all-cash purchase

D.

using legal entities and intermediaries to protect the privacy of the purchasers.

E.

using loans backed by cash or certificates of deposit.

Question 18

The recently appointed senior money laundering reporting officer (MLRO) at a newly opened small digital bank has been instructed by the group chief compliance officer to implement an effective AML transaction monitoring system that can identify unusual and suspicious transactions.

What are important considerations for the project to select and implement the AML transaction monitoring system at the digital bank? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Whether the vendor has documented appropriate internal controls for designing system and data integration schema

B.

Whether the permissions and user access settings for reviewing, investigating, and reporting details of alerts generated by the system are commensurate with those in use at other banks

C.

Whether the monitoring system is adequate with respect to the bank's size, activities, complexity, and risks

D.

Whether the monitoring system can be configured to enable the bank to execute trend analysis of transaction activity and to identify unusual business relationships and transactions

Question 19

An institution is looking to alter an existing threshold-based monitoring scenario because it is generating too many alerts that do not yield suspicious activity reports.

Documentation submitted to the relevant committee for supporting this proposal should include details on: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

evidence that the increased residual risk arising from the change is within the bank's risk appetite.

B.

approval by money-laundering reporting officer for the proposal.

C.

how many resources are spent on the less productive lower threshold and the associated costs.

D.

the number of cases that will not be filed and the resources that can be freed up for other tasks.

E.

minutes of meeting held with the regulator where agreement was obtained that the higher threshold was justified.

F.

historical analysis proving that the current scenario generates a disproportionate number of false positives.

Question 20

In which of the following situations would it be most crucial for the designated AML compliance officer of a company to perform a complete review of the company's AML program, including identifying the risks and commensurate controls?

Options:

A.

An external audit highlights several deficiencies

B.

The company is merging with or acquiring another entity

C.

Extensive AML legislation is proposed by a legislative body in the company's jurisdiction

D.

A high-profile money laundering case involving another industry is publicized

Question 21

Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

data privacy.

B.

enhanced due diligence (EDD) policies.

C.

the Travel Rule.

D.

data quality.

E.

complexity.

F.

regulatory.

Question 22

A customer frequently deposits large amounts of cash into an online gambling account and requests withdrawals shortly after with minimal gambling activity.

What is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the gambling and gaming industry?

Options:

A.

The customer is attempting to convert illicit funds into “clean” withdrawals

B.

The customer is attempting to avoid high fees by minimizing gambling activity

C.

The customer is testing the gaming platform’s payout system for potential fraud

D.

The customer is a high-risk gambler who regularly places large bets

Question 23

Which of the following best describes the use of fuzzy logic in customer screening systems?

Options:

A.

It produces outputs that include a range of intermediate possibilities between "Yes" and "No"

B.

It is an advanced analytics tool widely used to implement AFC controls

C.

It allows for a greater number of exact matches, reducing the need for manual review

D.

It is a new technique for enhancing the quality of alerts for review

Question 24

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

Question 25

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

Options:

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

Question 26

Which of the following describes a role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

Options:

A.

Oversight of the Financial Intelligence Units in FATF Member countries

B.

Providing a unique platform for information exchange regarding anti-money laundering efforts

C.

Regulation of financial markets through directives and executive orders

D.

Enhancement of international cooperation to foster anti-money laundering efforts via recommendations and guidance

Question 27

Which of the following can be considered a reliable, independent source document, data, or information?

Options:

A.

Information provided by a prospective customer

B.

Photocopy of a copy of a government-issued identity document

C.

Information obtained from an open-source database

D.

Information obtained directly from a government-managed registry

Question 28

A financial institution is exploring automation to assist investigators in reviewing flagged transactions. Currently, investigators spend a significant amount of time gathering data from multiple sources.

Which of the following automation features would be most effective in improving investigator efficiency?

Options:

A.

Pre-populated templates for SAR filing

B.

Integration of open-source tools to gather real-time intelligence

C.

Automated case prioritization based on risk scoring

D.

AI-powered dashboards summarizing flagged transactions

Question 29

A legal instrument executed between two nations that governs cross-border information sharing is known as a:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Agreement.

B.

Declaration of Understanding.

C.

Memorandum of Understanding.

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty.

E.

Request for Urgent Information.

Question 30

In the context of terrorist financing, which of the following are potential indicators of the abuse of non-profit organizations (NPOs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Involvement in community development and humanitarian aid projects

B.

Large and unaccounted cash donations from anonymous sources

C.

Operating in high-risk jurisdictions with limited oversight

D.

Frequent changes in leadership and mission statements

E.

Extensive transparency in financial reporting and governance practices

Question 31

Which of the following is a common strategy employed by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to combat money laundering?

Options:

A.

Helping Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) to analyze the suspicious activity reports (SARs)

B.

Directly prosecuting money launderers in court

C.

Providing financial assistance to governments to strengthen their anti-money laundering efforts

D.

Raising awareness about the issue of money laundering and its consequences

Question 32

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

Question 33

A key factor in the independence of an AML audit is that the auditor should.

Options:

A.

have never worked in previous assignments within the AMUCFT departments.

B.

have no involvement with the organization's AML/CP T compliance staff.

C.

have been screened by the board of directors before the audit starts

D.

be sufficiently trained in AML to be able to provide an independent review.

Question 34

Options:

A.

Ensuring sanctions compliance by relying solely on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws.

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide.

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations.

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations.

Question 35

The purpose of a risk appetite statement is to:

Options:

A.

clearly define the level of risk exposure to financial crime which a financial institution is willing to take.

B.

help investors understand the risk a financial institution is willing to take.

C.

help customers understand which financial institutions may be willing to bank their business.

D.

eliminate high-risk business types from a financial institution.

Question 36

Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Guaranteeing 100% accuracy in regulatory compliance across all jurisdictions

B.

Improving customer satisfaction by offering personalized recommendations

C.

Reducing identity theft effectively

D.

Providing reliable customer authentication to enhance trust

E.

Decreasing the time required for customer authentication

Question 37

A financial institution's US Branch receives a subpoena from law enforcement requesting detailed records of a customer's account activity. The customer is part of an ongoing investigation into a money laundering operation. At the same time, the institution has received a FinCEN 314(b) information-sharing request from another bank seeking details on transactions linked to the same customer. The compliance team is tasked with responding to both the subpoena and the FinCEN 314(b) request.

What should the compliance officer prioritize in responding to these requests while ensuring that all legal and regulatory obligations are met?

Options:

A.

Notify the customer of the information-sharing request from the other financial institution and seek their consent before responding

B.

Consult the institution's legal counsel to validate the subpoena, then respond directly to law enforcement while ensuring all documentation is properly recorded

C.

Respond to the FinCEN 314(b) request first, as it allows for voluntary information sharing with partner organizations

D.

Provide the requested records to both law enforcement and the other financial institution immediately to ensure full cooperation and transparency

Question 38

To provide aid in investigating a cross-border money laundering case, a Financial Intelligence Unit (PIU) that is a member of the Egmont Group can:

Options:

A.

directly contact financial institutions in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

B.

directly contact other FlUs in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

C.

deputize its law enforcement investigators to assist in a material ongoing investigation in another country

D.

assist law enforcement in another country with a material ongoing investigation.

Question 39

Which of the following is an important factor to consider when setting up an anti-financial crimes (AFC) compliance program governance structure?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the structure is reviewed by an outside auditor or consultant

B.

Establishing a system of internal controls commensurate with the institution’s size and complexity

C.

Designating a qualified board of directors to monitor day-to-day compliance

D.

Establishing clear roles and responsibilities for AFC risk escalations and issues

Question 40

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

B.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

C.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 41

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation 22. when involved in customer transactions that include the buying and selling of real estate, real estate professionals are required to apply which customer due diligence (CDD) measures? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Obtaining prior senior manager approval for all related transactions

B.

Understanding the purpose of the business relationship

C.

Performing adverse media searches on the customer

D.

Identifying and verifying the customer's identity

Question 42

Which of the following statements is true regarding the 2012 Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations and'or 11 Immediate Outcomes?

Options:

A.

The 40 Recommendations have not been updated to reflect the impact of new technology

B.

Each jurisdiction can reach out to the FATF for private access to the interpretive notes to the 40 Recommendations

C.

The 11 Immediate Outcomes are recommendations specific to high-risk jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring.

D.

The cornerstone of the 40 Recommendations is the adoption of a risk-based approach by each jurisdiction

Question 43

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

B.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

C.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 44

Common risks associated with cryptocurrency and convertible virtual currencies include: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

funds being stolen from other users.

B.

obscuring the source of illicit funds.

C.

layering transactions to hide the origin of funds derived from illicit activity.

D.

difficulty converting into physical currency.

E.

facilitating payment for other illicit activities and goods.

Question 45

Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Model risk management

C.

Technology solutions and IT security

D.

Marketing

E.

Fraud risk management

Question 46

The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.

Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?

Options:

A.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on refined oil products.

B.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on oil extraction equipment

C.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new export control regime for electronic equipment

D.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new import restriction regime for goods coming from countries that do not respect human rights

Question 47

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence

B.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed Instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes Procedures are an overarching framework Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

Question 48

Which financial crime risks are inherent to e-commerce platforms? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

E-commerce platforms exploited to move criminal proceeds

B.

Use of stolen bank cards for online purchases

C.

E-commerce platforms susceptible to fraud schemes

D.

E-commerce platforms used as a front for illicit transactions

E.

E-commerce platforms encouraging unregulated peer-to-peer lending

F.

Use of foreign currency to mask criminal proceeds

Question 49

A large international bank is conducting a comprehensive review of its risk management framework to ensure it effectively addresses various financial crime risks, including AML, CFT,

sanctions, fraud, anti-bribery and corruption (ABC), and tax evasion.

The bank’s compliance team is responsible for evaluating the current risk assessment processes, identifying potential gaps, and recommending enhancements to better mitigate these risks. During this review, the team needs to consider the different types of risk assessments and how to integrate findings into the overall risk management strategy.

Which approach should the compliance team prioritize to enhance the bank’s ability to identify, assess, and mitigate the identified risks?

Options:

A.

Use a static risk assessment model that remains unchanged until a significant regulatory update occurs to ensure consistency in the evaluation process over time

B.

Delegate the risk assessment process to individual business units to conduct independently and allow for specialized assessments tailored to each unit's specific activities

C.

Conduct a periodic enterprise-wide risk assessment that includes identifying inherent risks, evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls, and determining residual risks

D.

Focus primarily on AML risk assessments, as these are typically the most scrutinized by regulators, while addressing other financial crime risks only when issues are identified

Question 50

Which of the following is a primary objective of public sector groups in the fight against money laundering?

Options:

A.

Advising private financial institutions on how to enhance their profitability through AML efforts

B.

Establishing and enforcing legal frameworks to detect, prevent, and punish money laundering and related financial crimes

C.

Providing funding to private and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) for the development of advanced compliance technologies

D.

Acting as intermediaries between private sector firms and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to streamline AML compliance programs

Question 51

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

Question 52

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

Question 53

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

Question 54

Which of the following statements best describes the financial crime risk associated with gatekeepers?

Options:

A.

Gatekeepers have specialized knowledge that can be abused to facilitate the movement of illicit funds and conceal the Involvement of their clients in illicit schemes.

B.

Gatekeeper positions ate of a secretive nature, often making it difficult to verify (heir source of wealth.

C.

Gatekeepers have unique relationship structures, making it difficult to determine beneficial ownership

D.

Gatekeepers are entrusted with prominent functions and code of conduct that can assist laundering Illicit funds.

Question 55

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

Options:

A.

impose sanctions to maintain or restore international peace and security.

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

Question 56

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

Question 57

When selecting an anti-financial crime (AFC) tool for an organization, the most important factor to consider is whether the tool:

Options:

A.

integrates seamlessly with existing systems and processes.

B.

meets budget and cost requirements.

C.

automates all regulatory reporting requirements.

D.

replaces manual compliance training for employees.

Question 58

Which of the below is a core function of a financial intelligence unit (FIU) as described in FATF Recommendation 29?

Options:

A.

Sponsoring the research and development of advanced technological surveillance tools to be used nationally

B.

Prosecuting significant cases of money laundering or terrorist financing falling under national jurisdiction

C.

Sharing real-time criminal intelligence gathered from national law enforcement agencies with the private sector

D.

Serving as a national center for the collection and analysis of suspicious activity

Question 59

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities. Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

B.

exchange strategic information between FlUs and obliged entities

C.

exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

Question 60

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele’s high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

B.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

Question 61

Criminals may misuse financial statements prepared by accountants to hide illicit assets.

Which of the following scenarios poses the greatest risk of financial statement manipulation by criminals?

Options:

A.

A lack of professional body oversight or required use of accounting and auditing standards in the country of incorporation of the entity

B.

Criminals posing as individuals seeking financial advice to place assets out of reach to avoid future liabilities

C.

Incomplete records being provided during bookkeeping, making them difficult to audit

D.

Accountants being used as intermediaries to introduce criminals to financial institutions

Question 62

Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?

Options:

A.

Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 of the European Parliament

B.

Collaborative Sharing of Money Laundering/Terrorism Financing (ML/TF) Information & Cases (COSMIC)

C.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(a)

D.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(b)

Question 63

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

Question 64

The first line of defense is responsible for:

Options:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

Question 65

Which of the following best describes the degree of cooperation between regulatory authorities, law enforcement agencies, and Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) during money laundering investigations, including cross-border cases?

Options:

A.

Regulatory authorities primarily work independently but share information when requested by international law enforcement agencies.

B.

FIUs primarily handle reporting from financial institutions, while regulatory authorities and law enforcement agencies are limited to enforcing domestic AML laws without international cooperation.

C.

Law enforcement agencies and FIUs only cooperate during domestic investigations, leaving cross-border investigations to international organizations like INTERPOL.

D.

Regulatory authorities, law enforcement agencies, and FIUs share intelligence and coordinate efforts to streamline cross-border money laundering investigations, often through formal agreements.

Question 66

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

Question 67

Risks associated with real estate transactions include (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases.

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person.

C.

paying true market price for a property.

D.

non-financed purchases.

Question 68

Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Paying premium several years in advance and terminating early for a refund

B.

Natural persons having more than one insurance policy

C.

High-premium life insurances that provide high payouts

D.

Regularly switching policies and accepting penalties

E.

Beneficiary payouts to elderly people

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Total 229 questions